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Renal review sheet, part 2
Points 100-170
55
Medical
Graduate
03/19/2010

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Cards

Term
What are the factors that control ADH secretion? What are some common causes for inappropriate ADH secretion?
Definition
  • Effective osmolality (most important), effective vascular volume
  • Common pathology
    • Any lung disease
    • Any CNS disease
    • Nausea and certain drugs
    • Certain cancers (e.g. oat cell Ca of the lung)
  • Common drugs
    • Phenothiazines, anti-depressents (fluoxetine)
Term
How do you determine if hypernatremia is from water loss vs. sodium gain?
Definition

In cases of acute weight loss, use the equation (change in in Na x total body water) / Serum Na to determine expected water loss given no sodium gain. Compare to weight loss / 2.2. If patient lost less body water than expected, they must have retained Na.

 

Weight / 2.2 = Body water

Term
How do you determine the water requirement to correct hypernatremia? How do you determine Na requirement to correct hyponatremia?
Definition

(Change in Na X TBW)/Goal Na concentration

 

Change in Na x TBW

Term
How do you distinguish hyponatremia caused by SIADH from hyponatremia caused by volume depletion?
Definition

Urine NA > 20 mEq/l, serum urate <3.5 mg/dl, BUN <10 mg/dl and serum creatinine <1 mg/dl all suggest normal or increased effective vascular volume (SIADH)

 

The opposite values are seen in volume depletion states.

Term
How does serum Na changes correlate with serum glucose changes?
Definition

Inversely (for every 100 mg/dL increase in glucose, 1.6 mEq/L decrease in sodium)

 

 

Term
How is diabetes insipidus diagnosed? Why is hypernatremia not always present? What is the differential diagnosis?
Definition
  1. Inappropriately dilute urine (osmolality under 700 mOsm/L in presence of hypernatremia) in the absemce of renal failure and loop diuretics
  2. Typically, water intake is increased to match volume of water lossed
  3. Give patient synthetic ADH (dDAVP)
    • Increase in urine osmalality indicates central DI
    • No change = nephrogenic
Term
What is the danger of rapidly correcting hyperosmolality/hypoosmolality? Which tissue will not be in danger?
Definition

Since brain autocorrects for chronic osmolality change, rapid osmolality reduction will cause swelling, and rapid increase will cause brain dehydration and intracranial bleeds

 

Muscle has no compensatory mechanism

Term

What is the most likely acid-base disorder based on the following conditions?

  1. Low pH, low PCO2
  2. Low pH, high HCO3
  3. High pH, high PCO2
  4. High pH, low HCO3

 

Definition
  1. Metabolic acidosis, compensated by hyperventilation
  2. Respiratory acidosis, compensated by production bicarbonate
  3. Metabolic alkalosis, compensated by hypoventilation
  4. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated by excretion of bicarbonate
Term
How is serum anion gap measured? What measurements would you expect in metabolic acidosis? What are some non-acid-base imbalances that can cause of low AG?
Definition
  1. Na - (Cl +HCO3)
  2. If AG is high, serum Cl is normal; if AG is normal, Cl is high.
  3. Hypoalbuminemia, lithium intoxication, hyper-gammaglobulinemia, bromide intoxication (high Cl artifact)
Term
What are causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis? Normal AG metabolic acidosis?
Definition
  1. Lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, uremic acidosis, toxic acidosis
  2. RTA, uremic acidosis (early), recovery stages of ketoacidosis, diarrhea, toluene
Term
What are the major causes of respiratory alkalosis?
Definition
Lung diseases, CNS lesions, aspirin, progesterone
Term
How is urine anion gap used in differential diagnosis of acid-base disorders?
Definition

In patient with metabolic alkalosis and high urine anion gap, most likely vomit-induced

 

In patient with metabolic acidosis and reduced urine anion gap, most likely diarrhea-induced

Term
What is the main mechanism of lactic acidosis? What is the pathogenic mechanism of d-lactic acidosis?
Definition
  1. Increased NADH
  2. Can be induced by hypoxia, metformin, anti-retroviral drugs, diabetic ketoacidosis, all toxic alcohols
  3. Severe carb. malabsorption --> colonic proliferation of d-LDH bacteria, which converts unabsorbed carbohydrate
Term
What are the toxins that induce metabolic acidosis and their corresponding acid?
Definition
  1. Methanol: formic acid and lactic acid
  2. Ethylene glycol: glycolic acid
  3. Toluene: hippuric acid
  4. Acetaminophen: pyroglutamic acid
  5. Salicylate: ketoacids (probably lactic acids)
Term
What is the differential diagnosis of hypophosphatemia?
Definition
  1. Intracellular shift P (urine P is low)
    • Alkaline pH
    • Carbohydrates
    • Insulin
  2. Fecal loss of P (urine P is low)
  3. Urinary loss of P (urine P is normal)
Term
How is calcium excretion effected by loop diuretics? Thiazide? Low effective volume? Salt infusion?
Definition
  1. Ca reabsorption impaired by diminished Na reabsorption in loop of Henle; increased excretion
  2. Do not directly affect Ca reabsorption; indirectly decreased by volume depletion
  3. Decrease effective volume increases Na reabsorption in proximal tubule; calcium follows Na
  4. Calcium reabsorption in proximal tubule decreased by NaCl infusion
Term

A patient is given an unknown diuretic. After a week, you notice the following urine values:

  1. Reduced calcium and increased Mg
  2. Increased calcium and increased Mg
  3. Slightly reduced calcium and slightly reduced Mg

For each case, what diuretic would you suspect?

Definition
  1. Thiazide diuretic
  2. Loop diuretic
  3. K-sparing diuretics
Term
How would you expect ionized Ca concentration to change with elevation and depression of (1) pH, (2) albumin levels, (3) globulin levels?
Definition
  1. An increase in blood pH by 0.1 unit increases protein-bound calcium by 0.17 mg/dL
  2. An increase in albumin concentration by 1 g/dl increases protein-bound Ca by 0.8 mg%
  3. An increase in globulin by 1 gm/dL increases protein-bound calcium by 0.18 mg/dl
Term
Which kidney stones are radio-opaque? Radio-lucent?
Definition
  • Ca (oxalate or phosphate), struvite, and cystine stones are radio-opaque stones.
  • Uric acid stones are the only important radio-lucent stone.

 

 

Term
What is the composition of struvite stones? What conditions predispose individuals to struvite stones?
Definition
  • Mg2+, NH4+, PO43- 
  • Urinary tract infection with urease-forming bacteria
Term
What are two mechanisms to decrease uric acid formation? Which is more effective?
Definition

Increase in urine pH; decrease in uric acid production

 

An increase in urine pH from 5.5 to above 6.5 would be more effictive in preventing UA stone formation than reducing the production of UA by 50.

Term
How is urine citrate excretion affected by renal pH. Which conditions cause an increase or decrease in urine citrate excretion?
Definition

Proximal tubular cell pH is inversely proportional to urine citrate reabsorption (and is directly proportional to excretion)

  • Metabolic acidosis generally increases citrate reabsorption (decreases intracellular pH)
  • K+ depletion increases citrate reabsorption
  • Proximal RTA and type IV RTA does not cause hypcitraturia
Term
What are the factors that predispose to stone formation?
Definition
  • Hypercalciuria
  • Hypocitraturia
  • Hyperuricosuria
  • Hyperoxaluria
  • Urine pH abnormalities
  • Urine infection
Term
What are the inhibitors of renal stone formation?
Definition
  • Hight citrate
  • High urine Mg
  • Tamm-Hosfall protein
  • Osteopontin
Term
What is the mechanism of enteric hyperoxaluria?
Definition
Severe fat malabsorption with the subsequent binding of calcium by fatty acid in the colon, releasing oxalate from calcium oxalate
Term
Suppose a patient's large arteries had a decrease in compliance; what would the effect on diastolic BP, systolic BP and mean BP
Definition
Increase in systolic BP, decrease in diastolic BP (overall increase in pulse pressure), no change in mean BP (assuming no change in CO and PVR)
Term
How is malignant hypertension classified? What is the mechanism of pathology?
Definition

Hypertension with grade 3 or grade 4 retinopathy (exudates, hemorrhages, papilledema)

 

Severe hypertension --> renal vascular damage and narrowing --> renin-angiotensin system stimulated --> higher BP --> more renin vascular damage --> etc.

Term
What are the common causes of secondary hypertension?
Definition
  • Renal artery stenosis
    • Atherosclerosis
    • Fibromuscular dysplasia
  • Primary hyperaldosteronism
  • Renal parenchymal disease
  • Hyperthyroidism/hypothyroidism
  • Cushing's sydnrome
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Contraceptive pills
Term
What difference would you expect to see between a patient with unilateral renal stenosis vs. bilateral?
Definition

No plasma renin increase in bilateral stenosis; hypertension is due to salt retention

 

In unilateral stenosis, high renin and renal salt retention both play a role in htn

Term
What are some common causes of low renin hypertension?
Definition
  • Primary hyperaldosteronism
  • Increased non-aldosterone mineralocorticoids
  • Licorics, carbenoxolone
  • Low renin essential hypertension
  • Liddle's syndrome (overexpression of ENaC), Gordon's syndrome (enhanced NaCl reabsorption at distal convoluted tubule), apparent mineralocorticoid excess state (ß-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase defficiency)
Term
What are some common causes of high renin hypertension?
Definition
  1. Renal artery stenosis
  2. Patients with htn treated with diuretic
  3. Malignant htn
  4. Renin producing tumor
  5. Contraceptive pill use
Term
What is the ideal diet for treatment of htn?
Definition
Low salt, high K, high Mg, high Ca
Term
What clinical characteristics would you expect to see in a patient with malignant hypertension?
Definition
Rapidly progressive renal failure, high renin and aldosterone, grade 3-4 retinopathy, severe htn, proteinuria, LVH, hypokalemia
Term
What are the ACE inhibitors? What is their mechanism of action? What are common side effects?
Definition
  • Captopril, enalapril, ramipril
  • Prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, minimizing vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, while increasing vasodilators (bradykinin, NO, prostcyclin)
  • Cough in 30%, angioedema, hyperkalemia
Term
What are the calcium channel blockers? What is their mechanism of action? What are common side effects?
Definition
  • DHPs
    • Amlodipine, nifedipine
    • Potent vasodilators
  • Non-DHPs
    • Diltiazem, verapimil
    • Slow HR, reduce cardiac contraction, retard A-V nodal conduction
  • Vasodilatory in nature (headaches, flushing, pedal edema), constipation
Term
What are the angiotensin II receptor blockers? Common side effects?
Definition

Lorsartan (Ang II receptor blocker), aliskerin (renin inhibitor)

 

Aliskerin can cause diarrhea

Term
What are the adrenergic inhibit drugs and their respective side effects?
Definition
  • Centrally acting alpha-agonists = methldopa, propanolol, clonidine  (drowsiness and dry-mouth)
  • Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents = prazosin (first-dose hypotensive effect), terazosin, doxasin
  • ß-adrenergic blockers = metoprolol (ß-1 selective), atenolol (ß-1 selective), labetolol (alpha and beta blocker), carvedilol (alpha and beta blocker), nebivolol (third generation ß-1 blocker)
Term
What are the direct vasodilators and what are their respective side effects?
Definition

Hydralazine (increases CO, HR, requiring concomitant ß-blocker and diuretic; headaches, tachycardia, lupus-like reaction)

 

Minoxidil (volume expansion, pericardial and serous effusions), also known Rogaine

Term
Define the various risk groups, and the various stages of blood pressure. Which groups require drug therapy?
Definition

Anyone with Stage 2+ or in Risk Group C

  • Risk groups
    • Risk Group A = no risk factors or TOD/CCD (target organ disease, clinical cardiovascular disease)
    • Risk Group B = at least 1 risk factor, excluding DM, with no TOD/CCD
    • TOD/CCD and/or DM
  • Stages
    • High normal = 130-139/85-89
    • Stage 1 = 140-159/90-99
    • Stage 2+ = >160/>100
Term
What are the target organ diseases of hypertension? What are the major risk factors?
Definition
  • Atherosclerosis affecting the kidney, heart and brain (causing MI, stroke, renal artery stenosis)
  • Smoking, dyslipidemia, diabetes mellitus, age > 60 yrs, men and post-menopausal women, family history of CV disease
Term
What are some of the clinical signs of uremia?
Definition
Neruological abnormality, muscle twitching, pruritis with cause unknown, decreased libido, red eyes, GI abnormality, bleeding tendency
Term
What are some of the laboratory manifestations of uremia?
Definition
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Electrolyte abnormalities (metabolic acidosis, hyperphophatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia)
  • Gynecomastia, hypogonadism, secondary hyperPTH
  • High homocystein, high AGE, hyperlipidemia
Term
What are the three modalities of chronic uremia management and their respective pros and cons?
Definition
  1. Hemodialysis- requires dietary changes, risk of infection, constant visits to hospital
  2. Peritoneal dialysis- allows more flexibility, risk of peritonitis
  3. Renal transplantation- best survival statistics, but difficulty obtaining organ, requires immunosuppressive therapy, risk of transplant rejection
Term
What is the most common source of ESRD? What is the most common hereditary cause?
Definition
Diabetes; polycystic kidney disease
Term
A uremic patient comes in with small kidneys, nocturia and polyuria, severe anemia, and severe secondary hyperparathyroidism. Would you suspect chronic or acute renal failure?
Definition

Chronic

 

(Note: large kidney seen in polycystic kidney disease and amyloidosis)

Term
The lab values comes back for your patient. He has massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. Patient has a history of stroke, pulmonary embolism and other clotting disorders. Physical exam revealed edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Definition
Nephrotic syndrome
Term
What are the main types of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in children? Adults?
Definition

Children = liquid nephrosis

 

Adult = focal segmental glomerular sclerosis and membranous nephropathy

Term
What are the main causes of secondary nephrotic syndrome?
Definition
Diabetes, SLE, amyloidosis, hepatitis B and C infection, HIV infection
Term
A patient's urinalysis indicates a pH > 8. What is the most likely cause?
Definition
Urinary tract infection with urease-forming bacteria
Term
True or false: dip stick test for urine protein can detect Bence-Jones protein from multiple myeloma?
Definition
False
Term
What do RBC casts indicate with respect to renal pathology? WBCs?
Definition

RBCs = glomerular pathology

WBCs = tubulointerstitial inflammation

Term
What is the significance of a positive esterase and nitrite test?
Definition
Gram negative bacterial infection
Term
What do hemoglobin and myoglobin in the urine suggest?
Definition
Hemolysis or rhabdomyolysis. Both are causes of ATN.
Term
What is cystatin C and how is it used with respect to nephrology?
Definition

Produced at constant rate by all nucleated cells and filtered freely at glomerulus; completely reabsorbed and broken down in proximal tubule

 

Serum levels reflect GFR better than creatinine, but test is too expensive

Term
What is the pathological cause of high anion gap acidosis? Normal anion gap acidosis?
Definition

H+ ions of the acid are buffered by HCO3-, which is counterbalanced by anions of acid (example, toxic acidosis, renal failure, lactic acidosis)

 

In normal Ag, chloride is increased to counterbalance loss of buffered bicarb (hypercholeremic acidosis). Examples include diarrhea and the RTA's

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