You are experimenting with making ice cream. Reducing the fat in the recipe causes _____ crystals and a _____ creamy texture.

•  larger, less
• larger, more
• smaller, more
• smaller, less

                                Larger; less

·         Fine crystals and creamy texture depends upon fat content.  Lower fat results in larger crystals and a less creamy texture.

The Wholesome Meat Act requires

• labeling of meat cut
• mandatory inspection of all meats
• examination of meats interstate
• examination of live animals

mandatory inspection of all meats

The Wholesome Meat Act of 1967 requires that alll meat is inspected, interstate or intrastate.

Cauliflower cooked in water containing baking soda can cause the vegetable to turn

•  pink
• clear
• brown
• yellow

Yellow

·   Cauliflower contains pigment anthoxanthin.  Anthoxanthins develop a yellow color when cooked in the presence of an alkali.

Which of the following is graded as the most lean cut of meat?

• prime rib steak
• choice top loin steak
• select top loin steak
• none of these

·         US Select meat is lowest in fat and lacks tenderness found in higher grade meats.  Prime cuts are the highest in fat and the most tender.  Choice cuts fall in between prime and select.

Which of these will stabilize the egg white foam of a lemon meringue pie your cook is making?

•  cream of tartar
• water
• all of these
• fat

·   An acid (cream of tartar) stabilizes egg white foam and adds to whiteness; fat prevents proper whipping of egg whites.

When beating egg whites, it is easier at room temperature.  Why?

•  suface tension is higher
• suface tension is lower
• pH is decreased
• protein breakdown

Surface tension is lower

·   Egg whites tend to beat easier at a room temperature because surface tension is lower.

Which fruit and vegetable pigment has little color reaction in acid or alkali?

• chlorophyll
• anthocyanin
• carotene
• flavone

Carotene

·         Carotene is a fat soluble pigment and has little effect in acidic or alkali conditions.

When cooking green beans, why would you not want to add baking soda?

• beans become soft and mushy
• loss of fat soluble vitamins
• color loss
• beans become tough 

Beans become soft and mushy

·         The addition of baking soda (alkali) leads to a soft and mushy product in the presence of chlorophyll.

A cook is making a cake for dessert.  Running behind schedule, she quickly makes the batter and puts it in the oven.  Upon tasting the completed product you find the crust to be tough.  You suspect this is due to:

•  to little baking powder
• over mixing
• to little sugar
• too short of baking time

Too little sugar

·         A tough cake crust can be due to low amounts of fat or sugar.

You order fruits and vegetables 3 times per week for a foodservice.  What temperatures should these items be stored?

•  32-40
• 50-60
• 40-45
• 35-40

40-45°F

·         Optimal storage temperature for fresh fruits and vegetables is 40-45°F

Baking or broiling cooking methods should be used for which of the following cuts of meat?

• brisket
• shank
• flank
• short loin

Short loin

·         Short loin is a tender cut of meat and therefore would generally be prepared using dry heat cookery such as baking or broiling. All other cuts of meats are less tender and should be prepared using moist heat methods.

Candling is the process of

• grading eggs
• pasteurizing eggs
  
• cooking eggs
• none of these
  

Grading eggs

·         Candling is a method to determine the interior of the egg for grading

When preparing a meringue, a foodservice worker quickly separates egg whites from the yolk. As a result of his quickness, some yolk was left in with the whites and the egg whites are not stabilizing when beaten. Why?

• Protein in the yolk inhibits stabilization
• Fat in the yolk inhibits stabilization
• yolk adds to air incorporation
• egg whites become water when yolks are added
  

Fat in the yolk inhibits stabilization

·         Fat inhibits egg white foam formation or stabilization.

When making a cream soup, you mix together melted butter and flour. This is know as

• Slurry
• Gel
• Roux
• Retrogradation
  

Roux

·         Melted fat with flour is known as a roux

Which of the following is the best source of potassium?

• Zucchini
• Lima beans
• plum
• cantaloupe
  

Cantaloupe

·         Per serving, cantaloupe is the best

When boiling broccoli, which nutrient would you most expect to lose in cooking water?

• Vit A
• Vit E
• Vit C
• None of these
  

·         Water soluble vitamins are of greatest concern for cooking losses. Therefore, vitamin C is the greatest concern.

Which of the following is the best source of vitamin B6?

• 1 medium banana
• 3 oz salmon
• 1/4 cup sunflower seeds
• 1 cup asparagus
  

1 medium banana

·         Bananas are the best source of vitamin B6 from the choices given

Which of the following is not true of water soluble vitamins?

• Absorbed with most other nutrients
• transported via lipoprotein
• many serve as coeznymes
• no great risk of toxicities
  

Transported via lipoproteins

·         In general, water soluble vitamins travel freely and would not require a protein carrier (lipoprotein) like fat soluble vitamins may require

Which of the following is a good source of folate?

• squash, cheese, fish
• wheat germ, steak, nuts
• liver, asparagus, pinto beans
• vegetable oil, dried beans, nuts
  

Liver, asparagus, pinto beans

·         Organ meats, green leafy vegetables, dried beans, and whole grain breads are good sources of folate

Which is the best source of vitamin B12?

• 3 oz roast beef and 8 oz milk
• 3 oz roast beef and 1 cup spinach
• 8 oz milk and 1 cup spinach
• 1 cup strawberries and 2 cup spinach
  

3 oz roast beef and 8 oz milk

·         Animal products are the best sources of vitamin B12.

Condensed milk has

• sugar added
• more than half of water removed
• lactose removed
• calcium added

Sugar added

·         Condensed milk has 50% water removed and sugar is added. Evaporated milk has more than half of its water removed.

During cereal production, which of the following would be added for enrichment?

• chromium
• vit a
• vit c
• iron

Iron

·         When cereals are enriched nutrients are added back that were lost during production.  Iron is therefore enriched.

Twelve dozen muffins are ordered for a breakfast meeting.  You receive complaints that the muffins have tunnels peaked tops by several cooks attending the meeting.  This is due to:

• under mixing
• too much baking powder
• to little fat
• over mixing
  

Over mixing

·         Over mixing muffins leads to tunnels and peaked tops.  Under mixing muffins leads to flat tops and low sodium.

The long-term care facility menu calls for cream of broccoli soup.  You have just made a batch of the cream soup which contains lumps.  You suspect this is due to:

• mixint starch in cold water
• mixing starch in hot water
• over mixing
• too little fat
  

Mixing starch in hot water

·         Mixing starch in hot water leads to lumps. Starch should always be mixed in cold water prior to adding to hot mixtures.

Which of the following is a function of flour in a mixture

• tenderization
• structure
• emulsification
• flavor

• Structure

·         Flour’s gluten provides structure in product. Fat aids in tenderization. Eggs aid in emulsification. Fat and sugar aid in flavor.

A cake recipe calls for 1 cup of oil.  You discover you only have 1/3 cup of oil to add to the recipe.  What characteristic of the cake will be affected?

• structure
• flavor
• emulsification
• tenderization
  

when frying foods an optimal initial smoke point is

• 420 degrees
• 350 degrees
• 400 degrees
• 200 degrees

when modifying a cookie recipe to reduce cholesterol, you choose to substitute

• vegetable oil for vegetable shortening
• egg yolk for whole egg
• 2% milk for buttermilk
• egg subsititue for whole egg

When deep fat frying, what is the optimal temperature for oil?

• 450 degrees
• 390 degrees
• 200 degrees
• 290 degrees

A new patient is on a heart healthy diet and requests a snack. Whic of the following is lowest in cholesterol?

• turkey sandwich
• grilled cheese sandwich
• hamburger
• peanut butter and jelly sandwich

You consume a meal consisting of grilled steak, baked potato, mixed citrus salad, and tea. Which of these would inhibit iron absorption

• steak
• citrus fruit
• tea
• baked potato

A food serice worker sliced 12 dozen apples earlier than expected for a corporate brunc. what do you suggest to decrease enzymatic browing of the sliced apples?

• add lecithin
• add ascorbic acid
• add msg
• add sodium bicarbonate

which of the following would you add to increase volume in biscuits?

• sodium bicarbonate
• lecithin
• ascorbic acid
• msg

Guar gum is found as an ingredient in a pre-made dessert. what is its function?

• stabilizer or thickener
• emulsifier
• leavening agent
• antioxidant

Which of the following is potentially listeria containing food

• contaminated water
• raw eggs
• soft cheese
• none of the above

After eating some home-canned green beans you begin to have difficulty breathing and double vision. What type of foodborne illness do you suspect?

• staphylococcus
• listeria
• salmonella
• botulism

Nine days after attending a family BBQ you and other family member experience flu like symptoms. You note that everyone who is sick ate hotdogs that may not have been cooked throughly. You suspect:

• salmonella
• botulism
• listeria
• staphylococcus

One hour after eating you begin vomiting and supsect foodborne illness. THe poultry in the meal was improperly cooked. Which of the following meets your symptoms:

• staphylococcus
• botulism
• E.Coli
• Salmonella

All of the following are functions of soluble fiber execpt:

• aids in reducing cholesterol levels
• aids in slower glucose absorption
• provides feeling of fullness
• aids in reducing constipation

Which of these is the best sourcce of monounsaturated fat?

• canola oil
• peanut oil
• corn oil
• safflower oil

Canola oil: canola oil contains the most monounsaturated fat with about 62% of its make up being MUFA; peanut, corn, and safflower follow in descending order with MUFA content

You are serving a meal that consists of chicken, cauliflower, and vanilla pudding. Which of the following are aesthetically concerned with?

• texture
• taste
• smell
• apperance

You are making peanut brittle. As you heat and brown the sugar the sugar is being:

• carmelized
• tenderized
• stabilized
• crystallized

At at WIC office, you discuss some foods an infant should not be given. Which of the following should not be given to an infant?

• Granulated sugar
• Invert sugar
• Honey
• Brown sugar

All of the following is a common complyobacteriosis except

• contaminated water
• unpasteruized milk
• unpasteruized apple juice
• undercooked shellfish

Which of the following cook methods increases vitamin retention due to reduced cooking time?

• microwave
• boiling
• canning
• irradation

Which of the following methods destroys bacteria without affecting nutrition makeup?

• microwave
• boiling
• irradation
• canning

Which agency would you contact to get more information on the food additive soidum bisulfite?

• JCAHO
• EPA
• FDA
• USDA

FDA: regulates which additives may be added to foods. Additives must be effective, detectable, and measurable in the final product and safe (GRAS)

When storing meat, why is freezing in a vacuumed pack optimal

• kills bacteria and allows oxygen
• inhibits bacteria growth and allows no oxygen
• kills enzmes and allows no oxygen
• inhibits bacteria and allows oxygen

WHich of the following foods might be responsible for a listeria outbreak

• mixed melon salad
• toast with home canned theory
• macaroni salad
• brie cheese and crackers

Which of these might be responsible for a clostridium perfingens outbreak?

• unwashed melons
• toxins in cream pastries
• holding tuna casserole on the lunch line at 125 degrees F
• Home canned beets

Amino acid metabolism and transmination are functions of ___. Sources of the nutrient include _____.

• Vitamin B3; milk and legumes
• Vit B2; liver, green leafy veggies
• vit B6; meat nuts, seeds
• Vit B12; liver and eggs

Vitamin B6; meat, nuts, seeds

Vitamin B6 aids in amino acid metoabolism transsamination, metabolism of fatty acids and glycogen. Sources include meat, nuts, seeds, and whole grains.

A good source of heme iron includes

• liver
• dried figs
• spinach
• beans

Liver

Heme iron occurs in meats

A client at the WIC clinic reveals she has been giving her 6 month old whole cow milk instead of breast milk. Nutritional differenes include

• Cow's milk is lower in CHO and higher in protein
• cow's milk is higher in CHO and lower calcium
• Cow's milk is higher in fat and higher in kcal
• Cow's milk is higher in kcal and lower protein

Cow's milk is lower in CHO and higher in protein.

Cow's milk is lower in kcal, cho and fat. It is higher in protein and calcium in compariosn to breast milk.

Cholesterol is precursor to which vitamin?

• Vit K
• Vit C
• Vit D
• Vit B12

Which of the following would not be recommended as a supplement for a breast fed infant?

• Fluroide
• Vit D
• Iron
• Zinc

Zinc

Iron, fluoride, and vitamin d supplementation may be required for breast fed infants. Zince is highly absorbable and does not usually require supplementation

A woman has gain 10 pounds in her 1st trimester of pregnancy. The rate of weight gain is

• below the recommendation
• normal weight gain
• above the recommendation
• there is no recommendation for weight gaind during the 1st trimester

Above the recommendation

By the end of the 1st trimester a pregnant woman should gain 2-4 pounds. Thereafter, one pound per week should be gained.

Which of the following is not a function of sodium in the body?

• Major ion of the extracellular fluid
• Major ion of the intracellular fluid
• Maintains fluid balance
• Aids in nerve transmission

When storing milk in a clear container, which of the following vitamins are you concerned with being destroyed?

• Riboflavin
• Vit B3
• Vit A
• Vit B12

Riboflavin

Easily destroyed when exposed to light

In a fasted state, protein is utilized for engery. In order to use protein for engery,  _____ is stripped off in a process known as _____.

• Acid, denaturation
• Nitrogen, coagulation
• Carbon, deamination
• Nitrogen, deamination

Nitrogen, deamination

The nitrogen or amino group of the amino acid is removed in a process known as deamination, so that the reaminder can be used as energy

What nutrient should be increased if protein is increased?

• iron
• Vit B12
• Water
• Vit C

Water

Water should be increased to aid in transporting nutrients and removing waste from cells

Within 2 hours of eating your chicken salad lunch, you begin vomiting and suspect foodborned illness. Which of the following meets your symptoms?

• Staphylococcus
• E. coli
• salmonella
• botulism

Staphyloccus

symptoms mimic flu with onset of 1/2 to 8 hours

Four days after eating a hamburger you have diarrhea and severe abdominal pain. You suspect foodborn illness. Which of the following is characteristic of your symptoms?

• Staphylococcus
• botulism
• Salmonella
• E. coli

E. coli

symptoms involve intestinal illness with incubation period of 2-5 days

Which of these disaccharides are commonly found in milk?

• Maltose
• Galactose
• glucose
• Lactose

Lactose

Fiber found in foods like wheat, bran, nuts, and seeds aids in

• slowing glucose absorption
• decreasing intestinal transit time
• reducing cholesterol levels
• weight reduction

decreasing intestinal transit time

wheat bran and nuts are insoluble fiber sources that aid in decreaseing transit time in the intestine

A woman is referred to you by her physician and tells you she takes a vitamin B6 supplement. What is Vitamin B6 needed for?

• synthesis of fatty acids
• mineralization of bone
• amino aid metabolism
• coagulation

Amino acid metabolism

Vit B6 aids in amiono acid metabolism, transanimation, metabolism of fatty acids and glycogen

A man with hemochromotosis comes to see you at an outpatient clinic you are a dietitian for. He is concerned about which foods contain iron. Which of following contain the least iron?

• OJ
• spinach
• liver
• dried figs

OJ

good sources of iron include liver, meats, green leafy vegetables, legumes, enriched grains, and dried fruits.

Which of the following minerals functions in blood coagulation?

• magnesium
• calcuim
• potassium
• zinc

Calcium

Calcium aids in blood coagulation, nerve and muscle contraction and mineralization of bones and teeth

A pregnant woman at a WIC clincic is unsure wheather she should breast or formula feed after having her baby. When compared to breast milk, formula is

• higher in protein
• higher in fat
• lower in calcium
• higher in antibodies

Higher in protein

formula is higher in protein, calcium, sodium and iron. lower in fat and comparable in calories when compared to breast milk

By 1 year of age infants should

• double weight
• quadruple weight
• triple weight
• increase weight by 2.5

triple weight

full-term infants should double their birth weight by 6 months and triple their birth weight by 1 year.

Infants who are breast-fed may require supplemenation of all the following except

•  fluoride
• vit D
• Iron
• vit A

Vitamin A

Which of the following types of iron is the most readily absorbed?

• non-heme
• heme
• ferric
• none of the above

Which of the following sources of water losses is also known as insensible water losses?

• lungs and intestine
• lungs and skin
• skin and kidneys
• intestine and kidneys

Which of the following is not a function of folate

• DNA synthesis
• metabolism of amino aids
• red blood cell maturation
• fat metabolism

zinc functions include all of the following except

• normal growth
• alcohol metabolism
• normal immune system
• aid in thyroid function

Aid in thyroid function

iodine aids in thyroid function

Which of the following requires intrinsic factor for absorption

• Vit B6
• Vit C
• Vit E
• Vit B12

The process of beta oxidation involves

• the breakdown of fatty acids to acetyl CoA
• the use of lipoprotein lipase for fat storage
• transport of fats in a fed state
• none of these

The breakdown of fatty acids to acetyl CoA

Acetyl CoA is then used for energy production in the Krebs cycle

Which of the following contains the most protein

• LDL cholesterol
• HDL cholesterol
• VLDL cholesterol
• Chylomicron

HDL cholesterol

HDL cholesterol contains the most protein and is therefore the highest in density. LDL cholesterol contains the most cholesterol. Half of VLDL cholesterol make up is triglycerides, lower in density. Chylomicrons are mostly triglyceride and are lowest in density

You have just eaten a slice of pizza. Which of the following does the the pancreas excrete to aid in fat digestion?

• Chyme and pancreatic lipase
• Chyme and gastric lipase
• Cholesterol esterase and gastric lipase
• Cholesterol esterase and pancreatic lipase

Cholesterol esterase and gastric lipase

the pancreas secretes cholesterol esterase and pancreatic lipase into the small intestine

You are in a "fight or flight" response situation. All of the following are activated except?

• Glucagon
• Epinephrine
• Insulin
• Norepinephrine

Insulin

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are released by the adrenal medulla in response to shock and increased glucagon; stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis, gluconeogensis, and fat metabolization; aids in release of glucose into blood stream increase of heart rate and blood pressure

Maltase is produced in the _____ and breaks maltose down into ______.

• Small intestine; a glucose and fructose molecule
• Pancrease; 2 glucose molecules
• Small intestine; 2 glucose molecules
• Liver; a glucose and fructose molecule

Small intestine, 2 glucose molecules

Disaccharide enzymes are produced in the small intestine. Maltose is comprised of 2 glucose molecules

A pregnant woman has gained 6 pounds by the end of her 1st trimeseter. HOw many pounds should she have gained?

• 1 lb per week
• 5-8 pounds
• 2-4 pounds
• 1-3 pounds

2-4 pounds

During pregnancy all of the following nutrients may require supplementation except?

• Iron
• Vitamin C
• Folate
• Calcium

Solid foods should not be introduced until

• 4-6 months
• 2-4 months
• 8-10 months
• 6-8 months

4-6 months

Should be introduced in the following order: fortified cereal, vegetable juices, teething biscuits, meat, fish, poultry, eggs, cheese, and combination foods

Health concerns among elderly include all of these execpt

• Weight loss, reduced blood pressure, increased peristalsis
• Memory changees, reduced economic status, reduced zince intake
• Reduced appetite, lactose intolerance
• Diabetes, osteoporosis, immobility

A child has been rapidly gaining weight and is now aboce the 95th percentile for weight. You recommend

• weight reduction diet
• reduce calorie intake
• reduce snacking
• increase activity

Increase activity

Which best describes iron in food, transport, and storage respectfully

• ferritin, ferric, transferrin
• ferric, transferrin, ferritin
• ferric, ferritin, transferrin
• transferrin, ferritin, ferric

ferric, transferrin, ferritin

Iron's form in food is ferric, in transport is transferrin, and in storage is ferritin

Which of these B vitamins is required for RNA synthesis?

• Niacin
• Thiamin
• Riboflavin
• Vitamin B12

Vitamin B12

Cobalamin is vitamin B12

When introducing foods to an infant, which of the following foods should be introduced last?

• TEething biscuits
• oranges
• noodle casserole
• cheddar cheese

Which of the following aids in glucose metabolism?

• chromium
• iodine
• potassium
• copper

Colostrum is secreted when breast feeding for

• 1st few hours
• 1st few weeks
• 1st few months
• 1st few days

A 16 year old is referred to you at WIC clinic. After assessing prenatal care you find she is 10 pounds underweight. How many pounds do you recommend she gain during pregnancy?

• 35 lbs
• 40 lbs
• 25 lbs
• 45 lbs

40 lbs

pregnant adolescent should gain a higher end of each range. Normal weight 25-35 lbs, underweight 28-40 lbs, overweight 15-25 lbs

WHich of these stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes, causes contraction of the gall bladder, and slows gastric emptying?

• CCK
• Gastrin
• Bile
• GIP

CCK

Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates gall bladlder contraction, stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes, inhibits gastric emptying, and increases satiety

Long chain fatty acids leave the liver in the form of?

• chylomicrons
• lipoprotein
• phospholipid
• triglyceride

Lipoprotein

Long chain fatty acids are transported to the liver in the form of chylomicrons, fats are repackaged and leave the liver as lipoprotein

Which of the following enzymes is produced in teh small intestine?

• amylase
• trypsin
• lipase
• maltase

maltase

enzymes on surfaces of intestinal cells break disaccharids into monosaccharides (maltose via maltase, sucrose via sucrase, lactose via lactase, glucose and galactose are absorbed)

glycolysis is

• creatin of glucose from fat and protein
• breakdown of glycogen to provide glucose
• breakdown of carbohydrate
• creating of glycogen

breakdown of carbohydrate

anaerobic breakdown of CHO

Glycogenolysis is

• breakdown of CHO
• breakdown of glycogen to provide glucose
• creation of glucose from fat and protein
• creation of glycogen

Pepsinogen is activated by

• bicarbonate
• trypsin
• hydrochloric acid
• liver

Hydrochloric acid

pepsinogen is activated by acid to become activated form - pepsin in the stomach

Which of these are true statements about bile I) produced in the gall bladder II) after it has emulsified in fats, it can be reabsorbed and recycled III) after it has emulsified fiats, it can be trapped by fiber and excreted IV) it is manufactured from cholesterol

• II,III, IV are true
• I, II, IV are true
• II, IV are true
• III, IV are true

II, III, IV are true

Bile is produced in the liver no the gall bladder. All other statements are true

In a fed state, the brain  uses which of the following for energy?

• fatty acids
• ketone bodies
• urea
• glucose

Which of the following is used as a coenzyme to aid in transamination?

• Vit B12
• Vit B1
• Vit D
• Vit B6

Vit B6

Vitamin B6 aids in transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to another. Pyridoxal phosphate is the B6 coenzyme needed for transamination to occur

A 7 pounnd infant at birth should weigh ___ pounds by 1 year

• 14 lbs
• 28 lbs
• 35 lbs
• 21 lbs

14 lbs

An infant should triple their birthweight by 1 year

When chyme enters the small intestine it becomes

• acidic in pH
• basic in pH
• Neutral in pH
• waste

Neutral in pH

Bicarbonate in the pancreatic juice aids in neutralizing the chyme. Chyme is acidic in the stomach but is neutral in intestine

Tryptophan aids in the syntesis of

• niacin
• thiamin
• riboflavin
• vitamin d

Which of the following is teh best source of magnesium

• 1/2 cup green beans
• 1/2 cup carrots
• 1/2 cup cooked rice
• 1 oz sunflower seeds

1 oz sunflower seeds

Nuts and legumes tend to be the best source of magnesium; vegetables provide some magnesium but not as much as legumes

If a person where in a starved state for weeks, the brain would use which of the following for energy?

• fatty acids
• glucose
• ketone bodies
• urea

Which of the following enzymes are involved in fat digestion

• amylase, lipase, aminopepsidase
• lipase, cholesterol esterase, lecithinase
• lactase, trypsin
• pepsin, carboxypeptidase

Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by

• Insulin
• adrenaline
• catecholamines
• glucagon

Insulin

Insulin aids in glucose absorption and storage whereas gluconeogenesis involves breakdown of non-carbohydrate souces for energy due to lack of glucose

Following cellular oxidation, the main end products are

• urea, oxygen
• oxygen, amino acids
• carbon, hydrogen
• carbon dioxide, water

You have consumed a glass of milk. In digestion, where is the disaccharide found in milk absorbed?

• stomach
• small intestine
• liver
• large intestine

Small intestine

Lactose is broken down by lactase to yeild one glucose  molecule and one galactose molecule, which is absorbed in the small intestine

In which of the following is lactic acid produced?

• gluconeogenesis
• glycolysis
• krebs cycle
• glycogenesis

Glycolysis

in glycolysis lactic acid is produced due to an anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates

What is the net gain of ATP via carbohydrate metabolism

• 30-36
• 28-36
• 36-40
• 36-38

36-38

The net gain of ATP via carbohydrate as a result of glyolysis, krebs cycle, electron transport is 36-38 per 1 molecule of glucose

Which of the following is not true about epinephrine

• increase blood sugar
• promotes glycogenolysis
• lowers blood sugar
• secreted from the adrenal glands

Lowers blood sugar

glucagon increases blood sugar levels; epinephrine is released to aid in release of glucose into the blood stream, increases heart rate and blood pressure

Which of these steps is not reversible?

• Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
• Glucose to pyruvate
• both are reversible
• neither are reversible

Glycolysis is associated with the following except

• breakdown of CHO
• end product is pyruvate
• lactic acid is produced
• metabolism of fatty acids

metabolism of fatty acids

glycolysis is the anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates

You have just eaten a high fat meal. Fat digestion will begin in the

• pancreas
• stomach
• small intestine
• liver

Stomach

fat digestion begins in the stomach via gastric lipase found in gastric juices

Which of the following is synthesized in the intestine?

• vit C
• vit B1
• Vit K
• Vit B2

Vitamin K

Vitamin K is synthesized in the GI track and stored in the liver

A patient with lactose intolerance might tolerate which of the following dairy products?

• cottage cheese
• parmesan cheese
• nonfat milk
• condensed milk

Parmesan cheese

yogurt and aged cheese may be tolerated due to bacteria and/or food enzymes aiding in digestion. Parmesan cheese is an example of an aged cheese

Chemical digestion begins in the stomach for all of the following except:

• fat
• CHO
• protein
• amino acids

Carbohydrate

Chemical digestion for carbohydrate begins in the mouth

When fats are oxidized for energy which of the following produced

• urea
• pyruvate
• glucose-6-phosphate
• acetyl CoA

Glucose molecules make up glycogen. This is an example of

• catabolism
• gluconeogensis
• glycogenolysis
• anabolism

Anabolism

anabolism occurs when small molecules build larger ones

What is the main function of fat in pie crust

• flakiness
• emulsion
• structure
• none of the above

Flakiness

Fat layers between protein and carbohydrates aids in shortening of gluten strands in a pastry providing a more flaky product

Which of the following essential amino acids is deficient in legumes

• lysine
• valine
• histidine
• methionine

methionine

not found in suffiecient amounts in legues and thus must be combined with another protein to make a complete protein

A 28 year old male is interesed in losing weight. he admits to frequently eating at fast food restaruants. he is 5'11 and weighs 200 lbs. What is his ideal body weight

• 184 lbs
• 170 lbs
• 200 lbs
• 172 lbs

172 lbs

A 5'11 male weighs 200 lbs. What is his percent IBW

• 90%
• 125%
• 115%
• 108%

115%

Current body weight divided by ideal body weight mulitplied by 100 = percent body weight. Note the exact answer may not always be given as a choice. Select the best answer of teh choices given.

A 5'11 male weights 200 lbs. What does his BMI indicate

• Increased risk for morbidity due to high BMI
• Increased risk for morbidity due to low BMI
• Within normal healthy standards
• None of the above

Increased risk for morbidity due to high BMI

BMI of 18.5 - 24.9 is associated with healthy weight; below 18.5 and above 25 is associated with risk of morbidity and mortality

Which of the following is the best indicator of somatic protein status?

• body weight
• knee height
• midarm muscle circumference
• tricep skinfold

Midarm muscle cirumference

it is an indicator of somatic protein stores, calcuated estimate using MAC and tricep skinfold

You are attempting to assess a male who is in the hospital you are a dietitian for. if anthropometric measurements are used an important factor is:

• competence of the person measuring
• time of day
• ambulatory patient
• low cost

compentence of person measuring

most important factors when gathering antropometric data are confidence of practitioner and calibration of instrument use

A female weighs 130 lbs, 5'9 and reports in the past 6 months she has lost 20 lbs, what is her UBW %?

• 80%
• 90%
• 60%
• 70%

90%

ABW/UBW x100 = %UBW

A patient is experiencing stomach pain due to food irritants. You suspect:

• nausea
• gastritis
• lactose intolerance
• foodborne illness

Gastritis

Gastritis is the inflammation of the stomach. Causes include allergies, food irritants, and alcohol abuse

A male has waist measurement of 46" and a hip measurement of 38". This indicates:

• Gynoid obesity and indicator for increased risk for heart disease
• Android obesity and indicator for increased risk for heart disease
• waist to hip ration with normal limits
• not enough information to answer

Andriod obesity and indicator for increased risk for heart disease

Males with a WHR of 1.0 or greater can indicate android obesity and increased risk for heart disease and type 2 DM

A female is 5'5 and weights 130lbs. Her waist is 38" and hips are 40". Based on the information given, you are concerned with:

• gynoid obesity
• high body weight
• android obesity
• no concerns

Andorid obesity

Females with a WHR of 0.8 or greater can indicate android obesity and increases risk for diseases

Which of the followin is true of negative nitrogen balance?

• Pregnant women always have a greater output of nitrogen when compared to nigroten intake
• children experience negative nitrogen balance
• a man gaining weight would never experience postive nitrogen balance
• a patient with severe burns is experience negative nitrogen balance as nitrogen output exceeds nitrogen intake

a patient with severe burns is experience negative nitrogen balance as nitrogen output exceeds nitrogen intake

postive nitrogen balance occurs when nitrogen intake is grater than nitrogen output (during growth, pregnancy, childhood). Negative nitrogen balance occurs when nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen output, such as trauma and burns

A cardiac patient's labs reveal total cholesterol 197 mg/dl, HDL 55, LDL 137 and TG 207 and fast blood glucose 137. Based on this information you are concerned with:

• Elevated LDL, TG, and possible diabetes
• Medication, elevated total cholesterol and TG
• Possible diabetes, elevated HDL,
• Low HDL, elevated TG and possible diabetes

Eleveated LDL, TG and possible diabetes

LDL: <100 mg/dl; TG: <150mg/dl. Diabetes is indicated by 126 mg/dl or greater --diabetes should be confirmed by testing again on a different day

A woman consumed 48 grams of protein in a 25 hour period. What is her nitrogen intake?

• 10
• 8
• 6
• 12

8

Nitrogen intake = grams of protein consumed in 24 hours divided by 6.25

48/6.25 = 7.68

A patient has an albumin of 6.0 g/dl, a sodium of 155 mEq/L and a hemoglobin of 19g/dl. Your suspect:

• fluid overload
• trauma
• protein deficiency
• dehydration

Dehydration

Serum albumin: elevated in dehydration, normal level = 3.5-5 g/dl; hemoglobin: elevated levels indicate dehydration, normal levels = 14-27 g/dl (males) 12-15 g/dl (females). Sodium: incrased with dehydration, renal diseases, normal levels = 135- 145 mEq/dl

A patients fasting glucose reveals 110 mg/dl on 1 day and 123 mg/dl on a different day. This indicates:

• Prediabetes
• Normal levels
• Hypoglycemia
• diabetes

Prediabetes

Fasting glucose: preDM indicated by 100-125 mg/dl; diabetes indicated by 126mg/dl or greater

Which of the following is an indicator of short term protein stores?

• transferrin
• thyroxine binding prealbumin
• albumin
• none of these

Thyroxine binding prealbumin

thyroxine binding prealbumin is an indicator of short term protein stores. 1/2 life of 2 days

A patient is taking litlhium and coumadin. Which of these is true of the patients medications?

• grapefruit should be avoided and vitamin k should be kept constant in the diet
• tyramine should be limited and vitamin k should be kept constant in the diet
• amounts of vitamin k and sodium should be kept constant in the diet
• grapefruit should be avoided and sodium should be kept constant in the diet

amounts of vitamin K and sodium should be kept constant in the diet

vitamin k -- coagulants such as warfarin require consistent amount of vitamin k in the diet. Sodium-Lithium requres consistent amounts of sodium in the diet

A patient has a transferrin level of 420 mg/dl. What might this indicate?

• liver dysfunction
• fluid overload
• iron deficiency
• normal levels

iron deficiency

a transferrin level of 420 indicates elevated levels; elevated iron deficiency, lowered chronic disease, fluid overload; normal ranges are 200-400.

A woman has a mean corpuscular volume (mcv) of 107. What might this indcate?

• iron deficiency
• malabsorption
• normal levels
• b12 deficiency

B12 deficiency

elevated levels of MCV may indicate folate or B12 deificency. Normal levels 80-95

A female is taking oral contraceptives. Which nutrients might she be deficient in?

• vitamin b6 and magnesium
• calcium and folate
• magnesium and calcium
• vitamin B6 and folate

Vitamin B6 and folate

A woman has pale conjuctiva and dry, scaly skin. What nutrient deficiency might this be an indicator of?

• vitamin a
• protein
• vitamin c
• thiamin

A patient is on a MAO inhibitor medication. Which of the following should be avoided?

• green beans
• applesauce
• whole grain cereal
• cheese

Cheese

foods containing tyramine should be avoided when taking MAO inhibitor medication. Foods high in tyramine include aged cheese, dried, pickled or smoke meats, processed meats, fermented soy bean products, over ripened fruit and sauerkraut

A patient's fecal fat test reveals 15g/24 hours. This indicates:

• normal
• misreading
• not enough information to answer
• malabsorption

malabsorption

fecal fat: normal levels <6g/25 hours; elevated levels indicate fat malabsorption

An elderly woman in a long term care facility has a decubitis ulcer. Which of the following may she be deficient in?

• Vit B12
• Vit A
• Vit D
• Vit C

Vit C

vitamin C deficiency may be indicated in decubitis ulcer

Which is the most accurate method for estimating energy needs?

• Indirect calorimetry
• EER
• Mifflin-St.-Jeor
• Harris Benedict

You are meeting with a patient to discuss a heart healthy diet. She tells you yesterday she ate 3 eggs and toast for breakfast, tuna salad on wheat for lunch, fast food hamburger for dinner, and ice cream for a nighttime snack. What has she provided you with/

• FFQ
• food record
• diet history
• 24-hour recall

24-hour recall

During the first meeting with a client, you gather data including weight, height, medical conditions and activity level. Thereafter, you provide a list of various foods and ask teh patient to report how often a food is consumed. How are you gathering food intake data?

• 24 hour recall
• food record
• FFQ
• diet history

Which of the following is a record of food intake over time: it may inclue intolerances, changes in appetite, chewing difficulity, etc.?

• diet history
• 24 hour recall
• food record
• FFQ

A patient has been diagnosed with xerophthalmia, you supspect it may be due to a deficiency of:

• Vit B12
• Vitamin B6
• Vitamin A
• folate

Vitamin A

vitamin A deficiencies include xerophtalmia (dry eyes), night blindness, and cessation of boone growth

A patient has a MCV level of 105 and has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia, you supsect it may be due to deficiency of:

• Vit B12
• Vit A
• Vit B6
• Folate

Vit B12

Deficiency includes pernicious anemia, associated with an elevated MCV

Which of these disorders is associated with high concentrations of copper in teh eyes or liver

• Menke's disease
• pellagra
• cheilosis
• wilsons disease

Wilson's disease

Genetic disorder characterized by copper accumulation in the tissue due to a defect in the ability to form ceruloplasmin in addition the liver does not release copper into bile as it should

A patient has goiter. What nutrient may cause this?

• Vitamin D
• Potassium
• Iodine
• Sodium

Iodine

Iodine deficiency may include mental retardation or goiter which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.

Which of the following would you recommend to a patient who is mexican american to increase Vitamin A in the diet

• Bananas and potatoes
• tortillas and flan
• beans and avacodos
• peppers and melons

peppers and melons

Which of the following would you recommend to a patient with African ethnicity to increase B vitamins in the diet

• Pork and chicken
• beans and melon
• grits and melon
• buttermilk and cheese

pork and chicken

A 65 year old Asian female is referred to you for nutrition advice for her recent diagnosis of osetoporosis. Which of the following foods would you recommend to a patient with Asian ethnicity to increase calcium in the diet?

• milk and rice
• yogurt and fish
• noodles and fish
• tofu and broccoli

tofu and broccoli

dairy is generally not consumed in the Asian diet, tofu and broccoli should be incorporated to increase calcium

Kosher markings of foods indicated

• inspection by a rabbi
• contains no meat
• contains no milk
• contains no alcohol

Pareve foods

• are not allowed in kosher diets
• are vegetarian foods
• can be eaten with meats or milk
• are eaten only during Passover

Can be eaten with meats or milk

Pareve foods are considered neutral foods and can be eaten with milk or meat and include eggs, grains, fish, fruits, or vegetables

Which of these would be considered an acceptable meal in kosher diets?

• baked ham, scalloped potatoes, broccoli and apple juice
• steamed lobster, roasted potatoes, asparagus, and milk
• baked clams, steamed rice, asparagus, and apple juice
• grilled halibut, steamed rice, broccoli, and apple juice

Grilled halibut, steamed rice, broccoli, and apple juice

prohibited foods in the Kosher diet include pork, shellfish, and crustaceans, meat from animals that do not chew their curd and have cloven hoooves, cuts of meat containing blood

Prohibited foods in Muslim beliefs includes all of the following except:

• wine
• ham
• lobster
• pork roast

Lobster

prohibited foods include all pork, meat slaughtered by one who is not Jewish, Muslim, or Christian and alcohol products

Prohibited foods in Seventh-Day Adventist beliefs includes all of the following except:

• Wine
• Halibut
• coffee
• ham

Halibut

prohibited foods include alll pork, alcohol, and caffeine, most limit meat or are lacto-ovo vegetarian

WHich food group is not allowed in Roman Catholic beliefs during Lent of Fridays?

• meat
• fats
• fruits
• dairy

Which of the following vegetarian type would consume dairy and egg products from animals?

• lacto vegetarian
• vegan
• quasi vegetarian
• lact ovo vegetarian

Lacto ovo vegetarian

includes milk, milk products, and eggs in their diet but excludes meat

Which of the following is an acceptable meal for a vegan?

• yogurt with granola and coffee
• beans with rice and apple juice
• vegetable and cheese pizza
• poached egg with toast

Which nutrient via food sources may be of concern for a vegan?

• calcium
• Vit B12
• Vit A
• Vit B6

Vit B12

sources found in animal products only

Which of the following vegetarian types would consume diary products only from animals

• lacto ovo vegetarian
• vegan
• quasi vegetarian
• lacto vegetarian

Lacto vegetarian

includes milk and milk products

Continuous examination of nutrition parameters is known as:

• nutrition surveillance
• nutrition screening
• demographics
• nutrition assessment

Which of the following surveys is considered a surveillance system to evaluate nutrition status?

• Ten State Survey
• HHANES
• USDA food consumption act
•  NHANES

Which of the following programs provides benefits that supplemenet food buying for low-income individuals?

• WIC
• Title III Nutrition Services
• Child Nutrition Program
• SNAP

Which of the following offers congregate meals and home delivered programs?

• Title III Nutrition Services
• WIC
• Child Nutrition Program
• SNAP

In Smithtown, 238 residents were diagnosed with DM in 1999. What is this an example of?

• prevalence
• population
• incidence
• objectives

Incidence

Frequency of new cases of a disease in a certain time period

In Smithtown, 1281 residents are under treatment for DM in 1999. What is this ane mple of?

• prevalence
• population
• objectives
• incidence

Prevalence

prevalence is the number of existing cases of DM in a certain period of time

Which program provides nutritious meals and snacks to preschool aged children

• Head start
• Title III Nutrition services
• Supplemental nutrition assistance program
• special milk program

Head start

DHHS administered; available to lower income children age 3-5; offers programs including nutritioius meals/snacks, education, social services, etc

By January 200, the AHA will educate inner city post-menopausal women on the risk factors for heart attacks. This is an example of:

• objectives
• goals
• mission statement
• problem statement

Goals

what the agency hopes to accomplish

The AHA will dedicate 15 educational hours to a central community center in 5 specific cities to educate post-menopausal women of the risk factors for heart attacks. This is an exmple of

• objective
• goals
• mission statements
• problem statement

Objectives

describe how long the goal will be obtained

The School Lunch Program's eligibility is based on ___ and required lunches to meet ___ of the RDA

• age; 2/3
• poverty level; 1/3
• age; 1/2
• poverty level; 1/2

poverty level; 1/3

USDA administered eligibility based on poverty level guidelines; School Lunch Program meal guidelines must meet 1/3 of the RDA

A patient is taking Simvastatin (Zocor). You recommend:

• taking medication on an empty stomach
• avoiding grapefruit
• maintaining a consistent amount of dietary sodium
• limiting tyramine-containing foods

avoid grapefruit

When taking Zocor grapefruits should be avoided as it affects how the medication works

Rickets ia bone disorder due to ____ deficiency

• calcium
• phsophorus
• Vitamin D
• Magnesium

Vitamin D

deficiencies include rickets in children and osteo malacia in adults

A newly diagnosed DM patient visits you and inquired about a nutrient that affects glucose tolerance. Of the following, which nutrient do you suspect they are speaking of?

• riboflavin
• calcium
• thiamin
• chromium

Chromium

chromium deficiency can cuase abnormal glucose tolerance

A patient with hemochromatosis should reduce which nutrient in the diet?

• Vit B12
• Iron
• Folate
• Vit B6

Iron

hemochromatosis is iron toxicity

A child is experiencing taste sensitivity. You suspect?

• Iron deficiency
• calcium deficiency
• potassium deficiency
• zince deficiency

zinc deficiency

characterized by decreased taste acuity and delayed wound healing

A patient has a sodium level of 130 mEq/L. This can indicate:

• dehydration
• high sodium intake
• edema
• none of these

edema

normal levels of sodium are 1335-145 mEq/L. A lowered level of sodium can indicate edema

A 14 year old girl is 4 months pregnant. She is 5'5 and weighs 140 lbs. Which of these factors is most likely to make her a high risk pregnancy?

• weight
• age
• income
• height

Age

Factors such as age, hematocrit, multiple pregnancies in a short period o time and drug use point to a high risk pregnancy

A patient has DM. Their hemoglobin A1c is 10%. This indicates to you:

• normal levels
• increased cholesterol levels
• below normal levels
• uncontrolled blood sugar

Uncontrolled blood sugar

Hemoglobin A1c is a test that reveals a patients blood sugar over the past 2-3 months. Normal is <5.7. At risk for diabetes is 5.7-6.4. Diagnosis for diabetes is >6.5

A patient has a HCO3 of 32 and pCO2 50. You suspect:

• respiratory alkalosis
• respiratory acidosis
• normal levels
• none of the above

respiratory acidosis

an elevated bicarbone (normal levels 24-28 mEq/L) and elevated pCO2 (normal levels 35-45 mmHg) indicated respiratory acidosis. In respiratory alkalosis, pCO2 is low

Using the diabetes exchange system, which of these entrees include a medium-fat meat or meat subsittue only?

• egg white omelet with low fat cheese
• cottage cheese with strawberries
• BLT sandwich with bacon
• Egg omelet with reduced fat cheese

Egg omelet with reduced fat cheese

eggs and reduced fat cheese are considered medium-fat meat exchanges; Egg whites, low fat cheese, and cottage cheese are lean meat exchanges. Bacon is a high-fat meat exchange

A client states that she eats an egg salad sandwich containg 2 eggs, 2 tbsp mayo, and 2 slices of sourdough bread. Based on the exchange list, which of the following statements are true?

• 1 high fat meat, 3 fat exchanges, 2 carb exchanges
• 2 lean meat exchanges, 2 fat exchanges, 2 carb exchanges
• 2 medium fat meat exchanges, 3 fat exchanges, 2 carb exchanges
• 1 high fat meat exchange, 1 fat exchange, 2 carb exchange

2 medium fat meat exchanges, 3 fat exchanges, 2 carb exchanges

an egg is considered a medium fat meat; each slice of bread is a carb exchange; 1 teaspoon of mayo is 1 fat exchange therefore 3 fat exchanges are in this sandwich

How many carbohydrate exchanges are in teh following meal: 3 oz chicken breast, 1 cup rice, 1/2 cup cooked carrots, 1/2 cup apple juice?

• 2
• 6
• 8
• 4

4

3 CHO in one cup of rice (serving size 1/3 cup) 1 CHO in juice (serving size 4 oz)

Which of these meals does not contain a common food allergen

• grilled shrimp and steamed vegetables
• peanut butter and jelly sandwich
• almon and cranberry granola and yogurt
• poached egg and bacon

poached egg and bacon

Eggs are common food allergen among children. Shellfish, fish, peanuts, and tree nuts are the most common food allergens among adults

Which of the following disorders requires elimination of amino acid and aspartame in the diet

• galactosemia
• PKU
• gout
• lactose intolerance

Which of the following may occur due to HIV or AIDS

• increased body weight due to supplements and medications
• increased protein stores
• increased calorie intake
• increased energy needs due to fever and malabsorptioin of fat

increased energy needs due to fever and malabsorption of fat

energy needs are increased for HIV or AIDS patient due to fever, infection, and malabsorption of fat

Which of the following is characterized by loss of visceal protein and distended abdominal area?

• kwashiorkor
• AIDS
• anorexia nervos
• marasmus

Kwashiorkor

long term protein deficiency but adequate calories are present; characteristics include loss of visceal protein, distended abdominal area, fatty liver, edema

When meeting with a newly diagnosed obese type 2 diabetes patient, which is most important in controlling complications

• insulin dosages and low fat diet
• avoiding carbohydrates and taking oral hypoglycemic agents
• glucose control and weight loss
• timing of meals and weight loss

glucose control and weight loss

type 2 DM patients should be most concerned with glucose control and weight loss/control to avoid complications.

What is glycosylated hemoglobin an indicator of?

• fasting blood sugar levels
• iron stores
• random blood sugar levels
• long term blood sugar levels

Which of the following is characterized with high concentrations of uric acid

• PKU
• cachexia
• gout
• reactive hypoglycemia

Gout

characterized with high concentrations of uric acid in the blood stream; medications are usually used instead of low purine diet which limits meats

A cancer patient is experiencing muslce wasting. This is known as

• cachexia
• nausea and vomiting
• undernutrition
• gout

cachexia

side effect of cancer due to undernutrition

You recieve a consult for a patient with CHF. You recommend:

• low fat diet
• low sodium diet
• low saturated fat diet
• low cholesterol

Which of the following disorders would you recommend a low fiber diet?

• dumping syndrome
• cystic fibrosis
• pancreatitis
• crohn's disease

Which of the following disorders would you recommend a low fat diet

• Crohn's disease
• dumping syndrome
• pancreatitis
• cystic fibrosis

Why would you recommend a low CHO diet to a patient experiencing dumbing syndrome

• to delay transit into the jejunum
• to decrease digestioin in the intestine
• to speed transit into the jejunum
• to increase protein for healing

to delay transit into the jejunum

dumping syndrome treatment includes several small meals throughout the day, generally high in protein and fat with low carbohydrate to prevent quick dumping into the jejunum

Which of the following disorders may require taking pancreatic enzymes?

• none of these
• non-tropical sprue and dumping syndrome
• dumping syndrome and crohn's disease
• pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis

pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis

cystic fibrosis and pancreatitis may require taking pancreatic enzymes

A patient is receiveing 4 bolus feedings of 400 ml each on a daily basis. How many calories is this patient receiving if the formula used provides 1.5 kcal/ml?

• 1600 kcal
• 3200 kcal
• 2100 kcal
• 2400 kcal

2400 kcal

4 bolus feedings x 400 ml/bolus feeding =1600 ml x 1/5 kcal/ml = 2400

Which of the following is a surgical opening inoto the stomach

• gastrostomy
• jejunostomy
• none of thesse
• espohagostomy

A patient's source of nutrition is enteral, has decubitis ulcer and is manourished. Whish type of formula would you recommend

•  high protein
• standar
• fiber containing
• calorically dense

High protein

a pt with a decubitis ulcer and malnutrition should consume higher amounts of protein and therefore a high protein formula is recommended.

A pt is receiving an 1800 ml solution with 25% dextross, 7.5% amino acids. This pt also recieves 250 ml of 30% lipids twice a week. How many calories does this patient average on a daily basis/

• 2600
• 2100
• 2300
• 1500

2300

• dextrose:  1800 ml x 25% = 450 g x 3.4 kcal/g = 1530 kcal
• ·         amino acids:  1800 ml x 7.5% = 135 g x 4 kcal/g = 540 kcal
• ·         lipids:  250 ml x 3.0 kcal/ml = 750 kcal x 2 days per week = 1500 kcal / 7 days per week = 214 kcal
• ·         1530 kcal (dextrose) + 540 kcal (amino acids) + 214 kcal (lipids) = 2284 à best answer is 2300

What is the general site for PPN?

• central vein
• stomach
• jejunum
• arm

When would TPN be used?

• short-term and GI tract is not tolerating feeding
• oral feeding is not an option
• Long-term and GI track is not tolerating feeding
• None of these

A patient is recieving a 500 ml solution contiaing 10% amino acid. How many calories does this amino acid solutioin provide?

• 50 g
• 200 kcal
• 50 kcal
• 200 g

200 kcal

500 ml x 10% = 50g x 4 cal = 200  kcal

All of the following would be allowed on a clear liquid diet except:

• vegetable juice
• popsicles
• broth
• fruit juice

vegetable juice

clear liquid diet is generally used to prepare GI tract for surgery or post surgery, includes liquids such as broth, strained fruit juices, gelatin, popsicles, etc

A pt should recieve 2300 kcals from a continuous drip tube feeding of 2.0 kcal/ml. What rate should the tube feeding run per hour to provide the recommended kcals?

• 48 ml/hr
• 96 ml/hr
• 110  ml/hr
• 1150 ml/hr

48 ml/hr

2300/2.0=1150/24=47.9 ml/hr

A pt is being tested for cystic fibrosis. Which of the folloing tests will be taken?

• glucose tolerance test
• vanillymandelic acid test
• none of these
• fecal fat

fecal fat

a fecal fat test is used to determien whether fat is malabsorbed as with cystic fibrosis

A patient is given 500 ml of 10% dextrose solution. How many calories were given?

• 170
• 100
• 50
• 200

170

500 ml of 10% dextrose = 50 grams dextrose; 50 grams of dextroxe x 3.4 kcal/gram dextrose = 170 kcals

A pt weights 125 lbs and receives 2200 kcals via TPN. How many grams of nitrogen is given if the ration is 150/1?

• 18
• 10
• 20
• 15

15

2200 kcals/150 = 15 grams Nitrogen

A pt receives 1500 mg sodium. How many mEq is this?

• 23
• 65
• 39
• 75

65

1500 mg/23 (atomic wt) = 65 x 1 (valence) = 65 mEq

A pt may be on full liquid diet due to?

• difficulty chewing
• difficulty swallowing
• post surgery
• all of these

Which of the following individuals requires the most calories/kg?

• male athlete
• infant
• male adolescent
• pregnant adolescent

Whic of the following would be an acceptable meal for a patient taking cyclosporine?

• spinach salad with citrus sections and wheat roll
• chili with saltine crackers and grapfruie juice
• none of these
• smoked salmon, brown rice and green beans

smoke salmon, brown rice, and green beans

grapefruit should be avoided as it affects how the medication works

Which of the following nutrient deficiencies may lead to pernicious/megaloblastic anemia/

• Vit B6
• Folate
• Iron
• Vit B12

Vit B12

Cobalalmin (B12) deficiency can lead to pernicioius/megaloblastic anemia.

A MCV of 68 cubic microns indicates ___ deficiency and ___ cells

• B12, macrocytic
• Iron, megaloblastic
• B6, macrocytic
• Iron, microcytic

Iron, microcytic

lowered levels of MCV indicate iron deficiency; iron deficiency anemia cells are described as microcytic, hypochromic

A pt with a BUN of 28 mg/dl indicates

• liver failure
• anabolic state
• renal failure
• iron deficiency anemia

renal failure

normal ranges 5-20 mg/d; elevated with renal disease

Using ADIME format for documentation, where would you find the education and goals?

• asessment
• monitoring and evaluation
• nutrition diagnosis
• internventions

interventions

information found under interventions includes education, treatment and goals

How many carbohydrates exchanges are in 2 cups rice and 1 cup teriyaki chicken?

• 6
• 3
• 5
• 8

6

1/3 cup of rice equals 1 exchange of CHO

Using the exchange system, which of the following best describes a tuna fish sandwich on wheat bread with 2 oz. tuna fish canned in oil, 1 tsp of may and 1 cup of OJ

• 1 fat, 2 lean meats, 5 carb exchanges
• 1 fat, 2 medium-fat meats, 4 carb exchanges
• 1 fat, 2 lean meats, 4 carb exchanges
• 1 fat, 2 medium-fat meats, 5 carb exchanges

1 fat, 2 lean meats, 4 carb exchanges

1 tsp mayo = 1 fat

2 oz tune = 2 lean meat

2 slices bread + 1 cup OJ = 4 carb

Aldosterone

• regulates iron levels
• is secretd by hypothalamus
• none of these
• regulates sodium balance

regulates sodium balance

aldosterone regulates sodium balance and is secreted by the adrenal cortex

A pt is diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following is acceptabel for this diet?

• rye flour
• corn flour
• wheat flour
• oat flour

corn flour

flours containing gluten: wheat, rye, oat

A pt is diagonses with chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following should be avoided?

• pasta and whole milk cheese
• skim milk and eggs
• fruits and whole grains
• whole milk cheese and alcohol

whole milk cheese and alcohol

avoid high fat foods and alcohol

A pt with cholecysititis is referred to you for diet consult. You recommend

• low sodium diet
• low fat diet
• low protein diet
• low carb diet

low fat diet

cholecystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder. Low fat is generally recommended.

A patient reports he is taking St. John's Wort. This supplement is contraindicated with:

• steriod therapy
• anticoagulant medications
• anti-depressant medications
• thyroid disorders

anti-depressant meds

St. John's Work is claimed to be effective in treating anti-depressive disorder. It is contraindicated with anti-depressant meds.

A pt has Prader-Willli Syndrome. Which of these may be recommended?

• Increase Ca intake
• High caloric foods to support wt gain
• Locking the refrigerator and food cabinets
• Limiting purine containing foods

Locking the refrigerator and food cabinets

Prader Willi syndrome is characterized by persistent hunger that can lead to overeating and morbid obesity. Low calorie and limited access to food is usually required for this disorder.

A package of candy indicates it is low calorie. How many calories would you find per serving?

• 100 kcals or less
• 20 kcals or less
• 40 kcals or less
• 60 kcals or less

40 kcal or less

A pt is in the ICU is admitted for burns over 40% of her body. Immeditately after her injury, her body temperature, blood pressure, and metabolic rate ____ as she is experiencing ____.

• decreases, hypovolemic shock
• increases; hypovolemic shock
• decreases; flow phase
• increases; flow phase

Decreases; hypovolemic shock   Immediately following a trauma, one experiences the “ebb phase” which includes hypovolemic shock (decreased blood pressure, body temp, etc).  Following the ebb phase, a patient experiences the “flow phase” including an increase in metabolic rate, oxygen consumption, etc.

An AIDS patient is experiencing xerostomia. You recommend:

• increase electrolyte replacement
• High calorie foods
• Small, frequent meals,
• Foods that are moist

A patient with reflux should avoid all of the following except:

• coffee
• chocolate
• peppermint oil
• whole grain bread

Which of the following herbs are contraindicated when taking anticoagulant medications?

• St. John's Wort, echinacea
• ginko biloba, garlic
• Ginsent; valerian
• ephedra; garlic

Ginko biloba, garlic

Gingko biloba claimed uses include peripheral ciculation, inhibits platelet aggregation, improved mental function; contraidicated with anticoagulant meds.

Garlic claimed uses include aids in lowering blood pressure and/or cholesterol, antibacterial agent; contraindicated with anticoagulant meds.

Which of the following is acceptable for a child diagnosed with galactosemia/

• wheat toast, yogurt, and orange juice
• oat cereal, soy milk, and dates
• wheat toast, cottage cheese, and apple juice
• oat cereal, soy milk and banana

Oat cereal, soy milk, and banana

Galactosemia is an inefficiency to breakdown galactose to glucose. Foods to avoid include animal and breast milk, yogurt, cheese, dates, papayas, tomatoes, and watermelons.

A patient's sources of nutrients for the past 10 days has been a daily amount of 1.5 liters of D10 IV. You are concerned with risk for:

• Marasmus
• Potassium deficiency
• None of these
• Kwashiorkor

Kwashiorkor

Kwashiorkor generally results due to an acute shortage of protein or injury. Marasmus is chronic and characterized by wasting of fats and protein.

A patient with gout would be advised to:

• consume low carbohydrate diet
• consume low to moderate amounts of food containing purines
• consume low amounts of simple sugars
• consume high fiber diet

consume low to moderate amounts of food containing purines

during acute stages of gout, pts are advised to avoid foods rich in purines such as meats, seafood, and organ meats. 

Which of the following might indicate TPN?

• AIDS
• COPD
• Anorexia Nervosa
• Short Bowl Syndrome

Short Bowl Syndrome

A pt with short bowel syndrome would be the best candidate until enteral feeding can be tolerated.

A patient experiencing edema is:

• accumulating intracellular water
• consuming low amounts of sodium
• accumulating interstitial water
• None of these

Accumulating interstitial water

Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial tissues (intercellular)

A type 1 diabetic is experiencing the stomach flu. You recommend:

• consume calorie free beverages and continue with usual insulin dosages
• Consume liquids containg 15 g CHO every 1-2 hours; stop taking insulin dosages
• consumes containing 15 g CHO every 1-2 hours; continue with usual insulin dosages
• None of these

consume liquids containing 15 g CHO ever 1-2 hours; continue with usual insulin dosages

if nausea and vomitting occurs, it is recommended that the person consumes beverages containing 15 g CHO every 1-2 hours and continue with usual insulin dosages.

A patient has Crohn's disease which is affecting her ileum. Which nutrient are you most concerned with regarding malabsorption?

• Vit B12
• Calcium
• Sodium
• Iron

Vit B12

B12 is absorbed in the ileum and requires intrinisc factor for absorption

A pt has recently had a gastrectomy. Which nutrient are you concerned with regarding deficiency?

• iron
• sodium
• vitamin k
• None of these

Iron

iron is of paticular concern as a decreased production of acids affects iron absorption

Which of the following would you recommend for a pt experiencing dumping syndrome?

• high carb diet
• full liquid diet
• small, frequent meals that are high in fat
• small frequent meals that are high in protein and moderate in fat

Small frequent meals that are high in protein and moderate in fat

slows emptying in the jejunum

A pt with celiac disease would have

• enlarged villi
• normal villi
• none of these
• atrophy and flattening of villi

A pt with severe burns is admitted. During the first 2 days what is the primary nutritional goal?

• high protein
• provide adequate calories
• none of these
• replace electrolytes and fluid

replace electrolytes and fluid

ater first 2 days calories and protein should be the focus

Sally is a 19 year old college freshman who is bulimic. She admits to vomiting 5 times per week. Sally is at increased risk for:

• rectal bleeding, electrolyte imbalances
• damage to esophagus and throat; electrolyte imbalance
• lanugo; damange to the esophagus
• none of these

damange to esphagus and throat; electrolyte imbalances

Which of these is described as a long-term calorie deficiency and emaciated in appearance?

• marasmus
• kwashiorkor
• HIV
  Cancer

Marasmus

characteristics include loss of somatic and visceral protein, emaciated appearance, low body weight and muscle wasting

An adolescent girl has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. She is actively involved in several sports as well as student council and school related clubs. You stress the importance of:

• limiting carbs and structure of meals
• timing of meals and structure of meals
• limiting carbs and wieght loss
• amount of carbs and protein consumed

timing ofmeals and structure of meals

highly active type 1 DM patient should be concerned with timing of food intake, consistency of composition of meals

A pt complains of blurred vision, excessive thirst, and excessive urination. You recommend:

• sweat test
• galactose blood test
• fasting blood sugar test
• hypoglycemia challenge test

Fasting blood sugar test

Dx: FBG >/= 125

Random glucose >200

Which of the following is an inflammation of the gall bladder?

• cystic fibrosis
• diverticulitis
• cirrhosis
• cholesystitis

A cancer patient is experiencing anorexia. You suggest:

• high calorie, high protein foods
• high fiber foods
• increasing low calroie foods
• None of these

high calorie, high protein foods

increasing calorie dense and high protein foods. A cancer pt experiencing wt loss should include comfort foods along with frequent snacking; encourage pt to eat whenever they feel the urge

A pt with ESLD is experiencing esophageal varices. You are concerned with

• difficulty chewing foods due to treatment
• sodium levels elevated
• impaired swallowing due to treatment to control bleeding
• malabsorption of fats

A patient with a reduced pCO2 and diabetic ketosis is experiencing

• metabolic alkalosis
• respiratory acidosis
• respiratory alkalosis
• metabolic acidosis

Metabolic acidosis

characterized by reduces pCO2 and/or pH. Causes may include starvation, low carb diet, or diabetic ketosis

which of the following would be the best candidate for tube feeding

• a crohn's pt recovering from surgery
• a cardiac pt
• a pt with pancreatitits
• a pt undergoing radiation to the head and neck

a pt undergoing radiation to head and neck

tube feeding may be indicated with radiation due to possible swallowing difficulties. the crohn's pt may be a candidate for TPN to allow for healing. None of the other choices would indicate difficulties eating foods by mouth.

a pt with kidney disease is tube fed. you recommend ___ such as ____.

• high protein formula; crucial
• fiber containing formula; jevity
• concentrated formula; ensure
• disease specific formula; nepro

disease specific formula; nepro

nepro is a renal specific formula

how many calories is a pt recieving if they are recieving a continuos drip of 2 cal/ml at a rate of 40 ml/hr?

• 2200
• 1500
• 1900
• 2400

1900

2.0 cal/ml x (40ml/hr x 24hr/day) = 1920 kcal/day

A pt is recieving a 250 ml bolus, 4 times per day of 1.5 kcal/ml formula. How many kcals is the pt recieving?

• 1500 kcal
• 1800 kcal
• 900 kcal
• 1200 kcal

1500 kcal

250 ml x 1.5 kcal.ml = 375 x 4 boluses per day = 1500 kcal

A pt is receiving a 2000 ml of 25% dextrose and 5% amino acis. Pt is also getting 500 ml 20% lipids 2 days/wk. Calculate average daily calories provided by solution.

• 2000
• 2400
• 1800
• 2700

2400

2 L x 250 g/L CHO x 3.4 kcal/g = 1700 kcal CHO

50 g pro/L x 2 L = 100 g protein x 4 kcal/g = 400

500 ml x 2 kcal/ml= 1000 x 2 d/wk  divided by 7d/wk= 285 ckal

1700 CHO + 400 protein + 285 fat = 2400 kcal

A pt is recieving 1.5 L of a high fiber formula that contains 82% water. HOw much fluids is this person receiving?

• 2000 ml
• 1000 ml
• 1200 ml
• 1800 ml

1200 ml

1.5L = 1500 ml

1500 ml x 82% = 1230 ml H2O

How many grams of nitrogen is a person receiving if they get 75 grams protein from a tube feeding/

• 15
• 10
• 20
• 12

12

75 g/ 6.25 (conversion factor) = 12 g N

Which of the following is acceptable for a pt following a low fiber diet?

• puffed rice cereal, milk, blackberries
• Poached egg, white toasted bread with chunky peanut butter
• oatmeal with cocnut and brown sugar
• mixed melon, white toasted bread with  margarine

mixed, melon, white toasted bread with margarine

on a low fiber diet one should avoid berries, whole grain breads, yogurt containing seeds, cocnut, and peanut butter

A pt is on a mechanical soft diet. which of these is acceptable?

• eggs and french fried potatoes
• meatloaf with baked sweet potato
• eggs and bacon
• granola and yogurt

meatloat with baked sweet potato

mechanical soft diet excludes food which are difficult to chew; includes foods that are liquid, pureed, chopped or regular foods which have a soft consistency

How are your meals prepared? is an example of which of the following types of questioning?

• close-ended
• leading
• attributing
• open-ended

Open-ended

an open ended question is broad to allow the client to express more freely

Do you like vegetables? is an example of which of the following types of questioning?

• close-ended
• leading
• attibuting
• open-ended

close-ended

leads to a brief response, usually yes or no

How many times per week do you exercise? is an expame of which  of teh following types of questioning?

• close-ended
• leading
• attibuting
• open-ended

leading

a leading question may aid in the client's ability to answer or may show the RD's bias toward an issue

a pt with high cholesterol levels if feeling discouraged. You encourage the pt by reminding them of their work to increase fiber and excerise. this is an example of which type of response?

• interpreting
• clarifying
• probing
• attributing

attributing

attributing response describes strength to encourage a client

a pt who is overweight states she is feeling discouraged with her wt loss. You respond saying "you feel you've worked very hard to lose the pounds you've lost" This is an example of which type of response?

• attributing
• interpreting
• clarifying
• probing

clarifying

clarifying response confirms a perception of the client's answer

A pt who is overweight is skipping breakfast to lose weight and notices he is overeating in the evening. You respond saying, "there may be a connection between skipping meals and overeating late in the day". This is an example of which type of response?

• interpreting
• attributing
• probing
• clarifying

interpreting

an interpreting response provides a possible explanation or connection between behaviors.

when setting goals, it is important to:

• set realistic goals
• all of these
• include short-term goals
• include long-term goals

A client meets with you and sets the goal of losing 25 lbs over the next year. What is missing from this goal agreement?

• long-term goals
• realistic goals
• short term goals
• all of these

short-term goals

when setting goals, it is important to include both long and short term goals

A client chooses to garden instead of snack when she is stressed. What is this an example of?

• skills
• rewards
• behavior modification
• knowledge

behavior modification

includes changing previous behavior or habits to new behaviors to achieve goals

which of the following learning principles is a motivatior that reinforces particular behaviors?

• reinforcement
• rewards
• conditioning
• punishment

rewards

rewards involve a result of a behavior which may aid in reinforcing goals

a client receives a compliment on her wt loss from a co-worker. what is this an example of?

• reinforcement
• rewards
• conditioning
• punishment

reinforcement

feedback which may be positive and is useful as a motivator for desireable behavior change