Term
| How long is the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How wide is the aircraft from wingtip to wingtip? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How tall is the CRJ from the ground to the top of the horizontal stabilizer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How wide is the track between the main wheels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How large is the APU exhaust danger area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How large is the radar hazard area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How large is the intake danger area at idle thrust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How large is the intake danger area at max thrust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How large is the exhaust danger area at idle thrust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How large is the exhaust danger area at max thrust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How far is it from the ground to the top of the winglet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many external emergency lights are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much pavement is required to make a 180 degree turn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many degrees will the nose wheel turn when using the tiller? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many degrees will the nose wheel turn using the rudder pedals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the winglets? |
|
Definition
| The winglets increase aspect ratio, decrease wingtip vorticies, and improve fuel efficiency and performance. |
|
|
Term
| How are the emergency lights powered? |
|
Definition
| 4 rechargeable batteries that last 15 minutes. |
|
|
Term
| How long is the escape rope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many doors does the CRJ 200 have, and where are they located? |
|
Definition
| 8 - avionics bay, main cabin, galley service, crew escape hatch, RT & LT overwing emergency, aft equipment bay, & the cargo bay. |
|
|
Term
| Which doors may be used in an evacuation? |
|
Definition
| The main cabin door, galley service door, escape hatch, & both overawing exits. |
|
|
Term
| What is the weight restriction on the main cabin door? |
|
Definition
| 1000 lbs, or 4 passengers. |
|
|
Term
| Which doors are monitored by PSEU's? |
|
Definition
| All doors are monitored except for the escape hatch and the aft equipment bay. |
|
|
Term
| What secures the main cabin door? |
|
Definition
| Pre- Phase four doors have three locking pins, and two cam latches. Phase four doors have 4 pins two per side and two cam locks. |
|
|
Term
| Which doors are plug type doors? |
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Definition
| The galley service door, escape hatch, cargo door, avionics bay door, & both overawing exits. |
|
|
Term
| How can you verify that the main cabin door is closed? |
|
Definition
| The green alignment marks on the locking pins and cam locks. Pre-phase four doors will also indicate locked when the handle is stowed. |
|
|
Term
| Can the escape hatch be opened from the outside? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can the overawing exits be interchanged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can the overawing exits be opened from the outside? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can the aft equipment bay be opened if the aircraft is pressurized ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, the aft equipment bay is not a pressurized compartment. |
|
|
Term
| How can you verify that the galley service door is closed? |
|
Definition
| There is a green indicator below the inside handle. |
|
|
Term
| Can any of the doors be controlled from the flight deck? |
|
Definition
| The escape hatch can be manually controlled from the flight deck. All others may be monitored only on EICAS. |
|
|
Term
| What external lights make the aircraft visible to other aircraft ? |
|
Definition
| Nav lights, anti-collision ( strobes ), rotating beacons, and logo lights. |
|
|
Term
| What lights must be on for the flight data recorder to operate? |
|
Definition
| The strobes, or the beacon. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the strobe lights located? |
|
Definition
| One on each wing tip and one on the tail. |
|
|
Term
| How many landing lights are there? |
|
Definition
| 4 ( Two in the nose, and one on each wing ). |
|
|
Term
| How many taxi / recog lights are there? |
|
Definition
| 2 ( One in each wing root ). |
|
|
Term
| How are the sidewall and ceiling lights in the cabin controlled? |
|
Definition
| They are controlled by switches on the flight attendant's panel. |
|
|
Term
| What compartments have service lights? |
|
Definition
| The avionics bay, aft equipment bay, cargo bay, and nose gear wheel well. |
|
|
Term
| How do you control the floodlight at the forward entrance? |
|
Definition
| With the dome switch on the flight attendants panel. |
|
|
Term
| What does the " Auto " position of the NO SMKG and SEAT BELTS switch do? |
|
Definition
| In the auto position, with the flaps extended, the seat belt sign will illuminate. When the gear is extended both lights illuminate. When the cabin altitude reaches 1000' both signs illuminate. |
|
|
Term
| What system activates the NO SMKG and SEAT BELTS sign when cabin altitude reaches 10000'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With the emergency switch in "Auto", when will the emergency lights come on? |
|
Definition
| When essential DC or essential AC power is lost. |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the emergency lights are in the " Off" position, with power on the aircraft? |
|
Definition
| You will get an EMER LTS OFF caution message accompanied by a single chime. |
|
|
Term
| What do the emergency lights consist of? |
|
Definition
| The exit signs, ceiling emergency floodlights, floor level emergency floodlights, floor track emergency lights or illumine cent strips, floor level exit signs, and exterior emergency lights. |
|
|
Term
| What is the max pressure of the flight deck oxygen bottle ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the flight deck oxygen bottle located ? |
|
Definition
| Under the floor on the right side of the flight deck |
|
|
Term
| Where can you read the flight deck oxygen pressure ? |
|
Definition
| On EICAS, and also on the gauge in the oxygen services panel |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of supplemental oxygen for the flight crew? |
|
Definition
| A pressurized oxygen cylinder provides emergency oxygen to the three masks on the flight deck. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three modes of the oxygen masks? |
|
Definition
| Normal, 100%, and Emergency. |
|
|
Term
| When do you get the " OXY LO PRESS " caution message? |
|
Definition
| When the oxygen pressure is at or below 1410 psi. |
|
|
Term
| A white flag in view on the oxygen mask indicates what? |
|
Definition
| The oxygen shutoff valve is open. |
|
|
Term
| How can you confirm oxygen flow to the mask? |
|
Definition
| A yellow cross on the oxygen blinker. |
|
|
Term
| When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy? |
|
Definition
| When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000 ' or greater. |
|
|
Term
| At what altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically provide 100% oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does the passenger oxygen last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many medical oxygen bottles are on board? |
|
Definition
| 2 ( Each bottle is charged to 1500-1800 psi ). |
|
|
Term
| Where is the oxygen services panel? |
|
Definition
| The right side of the forward fuselage. |
|
|
Term
| How can you identify an oxygen overpressure? |
|
Definition
| The green oxygen blow out plug on the fuselage will be missing. EICAS pressure will read 0 psi, and you will have an " OXY LO PRESS" caution message. |
|
|
Term
| How can you manually deploy the passenger oxygen masks? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the PASS OXY switch light. |
|
|
Term
| How do you purge the oxygen mask of smoke? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the emergency control knob on the mask. |
|
|
Term
| What controls the automatic dropping of the passenger masks? |
|
Definition
| CPAM ( cabin pressure acquisition module ). |
|
|
Term
| What provides oxygen to the passenger masks? |
|
Definition
| Chemical oxygen generators that provide 13 minutes of oxygen once the rubber tubing on the mask has been pulled. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it dangerous to touch an oxygen generator when in use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many potable water tanks are on the aircraft? |
|
Definition
| 2 ( One forward and one aft ). |
|
|
Term
| Where are the controls for the potable water systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Yes. Both tanks have heaters. The drain masts, drain lines and hoses to the galley are also heated. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the fill ports for the water systems? |
|
Definition
| On the right side of the fuselage. One forward, and one aft. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the access panel for the waste system located? |
|
Definition
| On the right rear of the fuselage. |
|
|
Term
| How many volts are required to start the APU? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the APU start cycle limits using ground power? |
|
Definition
| 2 X 15 seconds ON - 20 minutes OFF. 2 X 15 seconds ON - 40 minutes OFF. |
|
|
Term
| What are the APU start cycle limits using the APU battery? |
|
Definition
| 2 X 30 seconds ON - 20 minutes OFF. 2 X 30 seconds ON - 40 minutes OFF |
|
|
Term
| When does the white APU starter message go out? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what speed will the AVAIL light illuminate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions will cause the APU to automatically shut down in flight? |
|
Definition
| Fire, Over speed, RPM signal loss, Loss of DC power, ECU loss, or a slow start ( less than 50% for 60 seconds ). |
|
|
Term
| What conditions will cause the APU to automatically shut down on the ground? |
|
Definition
| Fire, Over speed, RPM signal loss, Loss of DC power, ECU loss, Slow start, Over temp, Over current, Low oil pressure, High oil temp,EGT signal loss, or loss of door signal. |
|
|
Term
| What four things happen when you press the APU power fuel switch? |
|
Definition
| The APU SOV opens, the APU Door opens, APU gauges appear, and the APU in BITE status message appears. |
|
|
Term
| Starting the APU requires which battery? |
|
Definition
| Both ( The APU ECU gets power from main battery, and APU starter gets power from APU battery ). |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum time you can leave an aircraft with the APU running? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the APU GEN OFF message indicate? |
|
Definition
| The APU has been at 100 % rpm for 30 seconds or more and the generator switch is OFF. |
|
|
Term
| What is the APU's primary function? |
|
Definition
| To drive the 30 KVA electric generator. |
|
|
Term
| When will the APU starter auto cut off? |
|
Definition
| At 50% rpm on a normal start, or with a start cycle greater than 60 seconds with the rpm below 50%. |
|
|
Term
| The APU ECU protects the APU compressor against surge by opening and closing what? |
|
Definition
| The APU variable diffusers. |
|
|
Term
| The APU requires which busses to start? |
|
Definition
| The APU battery direct bus ( Apu door, and starter ) The Main battery direct buss ( ECU interface ) and the battery buss ( PSEU's and APU ECU ). |
|
|
Term
| The APU modulates APU bleed air through what valve? |
|
Definition
| The APU LCV ( load control valve ). |
|
|
Term
| The APU ECU ensures priority is given to what APU function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will happen if you have an APU fire on the ground? |
|
Definition
| The APU will shut down, the APU Firex bottle discharges, and an external horn will sound. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the APU get its fuel? |
|
Definition
| It is fed fuel directly from both main tanks via the APU/XFLOW pump. |
|
|
Term
| Will the APU shut down in flight for an over temp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| APU provides pneumatic air for what two things? |
|
Definition
| Engine starts and air conditioning. |
|
|
Term
| What is the max altitude for using APU bleeds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do the igniters energize during the APU start cycle? |
|
Definition
| They energize at 4% rpm, and remain on until 95% rpm. |
|
|
Term
| To get APU bleed air to the right pack what do you need to do ? |
|
Definition
| Open the 10th stage ISOL valve and the LCV |
|
|
Term
| Why do you not wait between pushing the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight and the start switchlight, when starting the APU in flight ? |
|
Definition
| Air entering the door will spin the turbine if it reaches 8% before the start switch is pushed the ECU will not allow the APU to start |
|
|
Term
| What is the max altitude for using APU bleed air to start the engine ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the APU LCV valve modulate ? |
|
Definition
| variable geometry diffusers |
|
|
Term
| What is the max rpm for the APU ? |
|
Definition
| 107% above that shutdown occurs |
|
|
Term
| What is the max ITT for the APU ? |
|
Definition
| 743 degrees C is the beginning of the red arc, temp may rise as high as 974 degrees during start with less than 50% rpm |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the APU ECU ? |
|
Definition
| It controlls all functions of the APU |
|
|
Term
| What powers the APU ECU ? |
|
Definition
| The APU PWR/FUEL switchlight |
|
|
Term
| What maintains a constant 12000 APU rpm for the generator ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the electrical rating on the APU generator ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long do you need to wait between start attemps on the APU ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| APU bleed pressure read out can be monitered where ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the max operating altitude of the APU ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the APU ECU AC or DC powered ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three positions of the APU door ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| `What is the airspeed limitation if the APU is deffered, with the door open ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the APU lubricated ? |
|
Definition
| It has its own self-contained lubrication system |
|
|
Term
| How many pounds per hour does the APU burn with a bleed and electrical load ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the APU recieve its fuel if the XFLOW/APU pump fails ? |
|
Definition
| the APU negative gravity relief valve which is pressurized by the right engine fuel feed manifold |
|
|
Term
| How many igniters does the APU have ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cant the APU be shut down from outside the aircraft ? |
|
Definition
| Yes there is a remote cut-off switch at the external services panel, and also in the aft equipment bay |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean if you get a white DOOR message on EICAS with amber dashes --- |
|
Definition
| The APU door position is unknown by the ECU |
|
|
Term
| What does pushing the START/STOP switch do when the APU is runnig ? |
|
Definition
| It simulates an overspeed condition > 107% and The ECU closes the fuel solenoid valve, shutting down the |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the screened vent on the left rear fuselage ? |
|
Definition
| It allows air to get to the fan on the APU gearbox, which cools the APU oil and provides ventilation of the APU compartment |
|
|
Term
| What accesories are driven by the APU gear boix ? |
|
Definition
| The AC generator, The FCU ( fuel control unit ) , oil cooling fan, oil pump, and the electric starter |
|
|
Term
| Where is the APU located ? |
|
Definition
| Inside a fire proof enclosure in the aft equipment bay |
|
|
Term
| What is the secondary function of the APU ? |
|
Definition
| To provide bleed air for air conditioning and engine starts |
|
|
Term
| How do you open the APU fuel feed shut off valve SOV ? |
|
Definition
| Pressing the PWR/FUEL switchlight |
|
|
Term
| What are the four fire and overheat subsystems ( four areas ) ? |
|
Definition
| Engine, APU, Main landing gear, Jet pipe & pylons |
|
|
Term
| What areas have smoke detection ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dual loop detection is provided where ? |
|
Definition
| Engines, jet pipes and pylons and the APU |
|
|
Term
| What area has single loop detection ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two areas have smoke detection capabilities ? |
|
Definition
| Cargo bay ( has two detectors ) and the Lavatory |
|
|
Term
| The cargo bay Firex bottles are designed to allow quick release of halon, followed by a slow relase charge that lasts how long ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the lavatory halon bottle discharged ? |
|
Definition
| A heat sensitive capsule that melts discharging the bottle |
|
|
Term
| Pushing the Engine fire pushlight does what ? |
|
Definition
| Closes the Fuel, Hydraulic, and Bleed SOV's, Takes the engine driven generator off line, and arms the squibs to the affected engine |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if an APU fire happens on the ground ? |
|
Definition
| APU will shut down, APU FIREX bottle will discharge , and a horn will sound |
|
|
Term
| How can you silence the fire bell ? |
|
Definition
| By pushing either Engine Fire Pushlight |
|
|
Term
| What happens when cargo smoke is detected ? |
|
Definition
| A cargo smoke EICAS message is generated, power is removed from the cargo compartment fan and heater, and the cargo compartment air is shut off |
|
|
Term
| What does the "FAIL" position on the fire test switch do ? |
|
Definition
| Simulates a system failure |
|
|
Term
| What does the "Warn" position off the fire test switch do ? |
|
Definition
| Simulates a fire condition |
|
|
Term
| What is the indication of a fire in the Lav ? |
|
Definition
| SMOKE TOILET " caution message and aural warning |
|
|
Term
| The fire protection system is made up two seperate subsystems , what are they ? |
|
Definition
| detection and extinguishing |
|
|
Term
| What busses provide power for the fire protection system ? |
|
Definition
| Detection is on the DC BATT BUS, and protection is provided by the DC EMER BUS |
|
|
Term
| What is the EICAS indication for a short in a fire loop ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a missing message during the fire WARN test indicate ? |
|
Definition
| The system has detected an open loop |
|
|
Term
| How does the fire detection control sense a fire ? |
|
Definition
| By monitoring the electrical resistance of the fire loops. |
|
|
Term
| What must the fire control unit sense in order to send a FIRE message to EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| It must detect the same decrease in loop resistance witin na preset time. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the engine has fire detecting capabilities , but no extinguishing ability ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ducting runs through the jet pipe area ? |
|
Definition
| 10th and 14th bleed air ducts are contained in the jet pipe area |
|
|
Term
| What are two benefits of having the dual loop detection system ? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft can still be dispatched with one loop inoperable, and also minimizes false fire warnings |
|
|
Term
| What chemical is contained in the fire bottles ? |
|
Definition
| Halon that is pressurized by nitrogen |
|
|
Term
| Where are the engine fir extinguishers located ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can the right engine bottle only be discharged into the right engine? |
|
Definition
| No it can be discharged into either engine determined by whichever switchlight is pressed |
|
|
Term
| Explain the positions of the ENG, JET, and APU selector switches on the fire detection control panel ? |
|
Definition
| A: the system only monitors loop A, B: the system only monitors loop B, Both monitors both loops at the same time |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight is pushed after it has been activated ? |
|
Definition
| An electrical current fires the squib on the associated bottle discharging it into the engine |
|
|
Term
| Does the APU have a single or dual loop detection syatem ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Will the Halon automatically discharge if an APU fire is detected ? |
|
Definition
| On the ground it will automatically discarge, In flight it must be discharged by the crew |
|
|
Term
| How many squbs does the APU bottle have ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the APU fire loops located ? |
|
Definition
| They are wrapped around the APU enclosure |
|
|
Term
| Where is the APU bottle located ? |
|
Definition
| In the aft equipment bay beside the APU enclosure |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the APU FIRE PUSH switch light is pressed ? |
|
Definition
| APU generator is taken off line, APU LCV is closed, APU fuel feed SOV is closed, APU shuts down by closing the fuel solenoid valve, and both squibs are armed illuminating the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switch light |
|
|
Term
| Can the cargo smoke detectors give a false alarm ? |
|
Definition
| Yes they can be set off by radios, exhaust from ground equipment or even fog |
|
|
Term
| What does the CARGO BOTTLE test switch on the fire detection panel do ? |
|
Definition
| Tests the fire extinguishing and smoke detection syatems in the cargo bay |
|
|
Term
| Where is the smoke detector in the lav ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when the smoke detector self test switch is pressed on the lavatory smoke detector ? |
|
Definition
| A red light on the detectoe illuminates accompanied by an alarm, and the EICAS will show an amber SMOKE TOILET message |
|
|
Term
| Can you reset the smoke detector in the lav ? |
|
Definition
| Yes by pushing the test/ reset button |
|
|
Term
| Where is fire extinguishing provided in the lav ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the fire extiguisher on the flight deck ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the indication if the fire loop in the gear bay fails ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would the indication be if one fire loop detects a fire condition and the other does not ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of engines does the CRJ 200 have ? |
|
Definition
| General Electric CF-34-3B1 |
|
|
Term
| What is the sea level thrust ratings on the CF-34-3B1 ? |
|
Definition
| 8729 lbs normal thrust, 9220 lbs APR operating |
|
|
Term
| Describe the CF-34-3B1 engine ? |
|
Definition
| It is a dual rotor free turbine engine,. The N1 fan is driven by a 4 stage low pressure turbine. The N2 section is a 14 stage compressor driven by a two stage high pressure turbine |
|
|
Term
| Which section of the engine drives the accessory gear box ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two paths can air take through the engine ? |
|
Definition
| Either through the bypass fan , or through the core |
|
|
Term
| How much of the thrust is provided by the bypass fan ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At low power settings is the engine N1 or N2 speed controlled ? |
|
Definition
| At low power settings it is N2 controlled. At high power settings above 79% N1 with the engine speed switches on, it is N1 controlled |
|
|
Term
| What three sources of air pressure may be used to start the engine ? |
|
Definition
| APU bleed air, Ground air ( Huffer cart or bottle ), or tenth stage engine cross bleed air |
|
|
Term
| The engine start switch does what ? |
|
Definition
| Opens all tenth stage valves, Opens the ISOL valve, Opens the associated ATS ( air turbine starter ) valve |
|
|
Term
| What will the indication be if the ATS valve fails to disengage ? |
|
Definition
| NO START CUT OUT caution message |
|
|
Term
| When the APR is activated, how much will the N1 speed be increased ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the oil replenishment tank located ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the conditions to arm the APR ? |
|
Definition
| Both DCU's must be online, weight on wheels, APR switches armed, Speed switches on, and the N1 must be greater than 79% |
|
|
Term
| What does the sprague clutch do ? |
|
Definition
| Allows for the ATS to be engaged while the engine is turning |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal oil level for the engines ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean if the fail light illuminates during the oil check ? |
|
Definition
| The respective oil level sensor has failed |
|
|
Term
| When must the oil level be checked? |
|
Definition
| 3 minutes to 2 hrs after shut down |
|
|
Term
| When must the oil system be replenished if it is low ? |
|
Definition
| 15 minutes to 2 hrs after shut down |
|
|
Term
| What is the max ITT to introduce fuel during the start cycle ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum N2 speed to introduce fuel during the start cycle ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what N2 speed does the starter motor disengage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 things are required for engine start? |
|
Definition
| pressurized air ( 40 psi minimum ) DC power ( 24 volts ) |
|
|
Term
| What is the N1 trigger for configuration warnings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the variable geometry staters ? |
|
Definition
| Controls relative wind on the turbine blades to prevent compressor stalls and helps with faster spool ups |
|
|
Term
| What are the limits for dry motoring? |
|
Definition
| 90 seconds ON - 5 minutes OFF, 30 seconds ON - 5 minutes OFF |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 things will decrease engine thrust ? |
|
Definition
| Increase in temperature, Increase in pressure altitude |
|
|
Term
| What is driven by the accesory gear box? |
|
Definition
| Engine lubrication pumps, Alternator that powers the N1 control amplifier, Hydraulic pump, Engine driven fuel pump and fuel control unit, IDG, the ATS is also mounted on the gearbox |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Engine fuel control unit |
|
Definition
| It is a hydromechanical metering device that meters the fuel supply to the engine, At low power settings The FCU hydromechanically schedules fuel, At high power settings the N1 control amplifier trims the FCU fuel output. It also controls and actuates VG inlet guides and stater vanes |
|
|
Term
| Are the ignition systems AC, or DC powered? |
|
Definition
| AC, ignition A is powered by the AC ESS BUS, Ignition B is powered by the DC BATT BUS through a static inverter |
|
|
Term
| What are the three ignition modes ? |
|
Definition
| Normal, continuous, and automatic |
|
|
Term
| Does continuous ignition energize syatem A, or B ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do the thrust levers work ? |
|
Definition
| Thrust lever position is electrically measured and a signal is sent to the DCU's, flight control computers, and the N1control amplifier |
|
|
Term
| What is 10th stage bleed air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Engine starting, air conditioning, avionics cooling, and presurization |
|
|
Term
| What is 14th stage bleed air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Thrust reverse, and Anti ice |
|
|
Term
| What is 7th stage bleed air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Oil seal pressurization and venting of oil sumps |
|
|
Term
| What are the two conditions to arm the thrust reversers ? |
|
Definition
| Switch is armed, and the respective 14th stage bleed air valves are open |
|
|
Term
| When can you activated the thrust reversers ? |
|
Definition
| Weight on wheels or a 16 knot wheel speed, and thrust levers at idle |
|
|
Term
| Do the thrust reversers deflect bypass , or core air ? |
|
Definition
| The translating cowl slides rearward deflecting bypass air |
|
|
Term
| Can you open the reversers in flight ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the EMER STOW function of the thrust reversers ? |
|
Definition
| When pressed the EMER STOW switch lights direct 14th stage bleed air to the PDU to drive the reverser closed |
|
|
Term
| Can the reversers and the anti-ice systems be used at the same time ? |
|
Definition
| When the reversers are activated, the anti ice valves close ensuring adequate pressure is supplied to the reversers |
|
|
Term
| When is the APR activated ? |
|
Definition
| When one engine N1 drops below 67% the APR activates increasing thrust by 2% |
|
|
Term
| When will N1 vib gauges appear on ED 1 ? |
|
Definition
| After engine start, when oil pressure indications are normal. Gauges turn amber at 2.7 mils |
|
|
Term
| When will N2 vib gauges appear on ED1 ? |
|
Definition
| Only when N2 vib exceeds 1.7 mils |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if a thrust reverser is accidentally deploy ? |
|
Definition
| The auto retard system will automatically retard the thrust lever to idle |
|
|
Term
| How long is the APR armed for ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CF-34-3B1 is flat rated to what tempurature ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During a reduced thrust take off will the APR increase thrust ? |
|
Definition
| Yes , but it only increases the thrust by 2% of the reduced setting |
|
|
Term
| Are the N1 and N2 sections connected ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Between the high and low pressure turbine |
|
|
Term
| How can you cut off fuel to the engine ? |
|
Definition
| Shut off on the thrust lever, or pushing the engine fire switch light |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the fuel oil heat exchanger ? |
|
Definition
| To warm the fuel, and cool the engine oil |
|
|
Term
| What controls the VG inlet guide vanes and the stater vanes ? |
|
Definition
| The FCU fuel control unit |
|
|
Term
| What could happen if the engine speed switches were turned off in flight ? |
|
Definition
| There would be an increase in ITT and RPM that could exceed limits |
|
|
Term
| Will EICAS warn you of an impending oil filter clog ? |
|
Definition
| No, once a filter clogs oil is rerouted through the bypass |
|
|
Term
| How do you check the engine oil level ? |
|
Definition
| The engine oil test switch light located on the captains side panel |
|
|
Term
| How fast will the starter turn the N2 section with out introducing fuel ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the starter limitations ? |
|
Definition
| two attempts 60 sec ON - 10 sec OFF, 3 attempts 60 sec ON - 5 min OFF |
|
|
Term
| During a start cycle , when are the ingnitors energized ? |
|
Definition
| They are energized when the starter is engaged and, de-energize when the starter cuts out |
|
|
Term
| When must continuous ignition be used ? |
|
Definition
| Take off's with 10 knots or greater cross wind, take off's and landings on contaminated runways, Flight in moderate or heavier intensity rain, Flight in moderate or heavier intensity turbulance, Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms |
|
|
Term
| What determines the automatic function of the ignition ? |
|
Definition
| It is based on angle of attack, sensed by the stall warning system through the AOA vane |
|
|
Term
| Can the APR be activated on a go around ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you tell that the APR has activated ? |
|
Definition
| The Green APR ARMED EICAS message is removed, and an APR appears on the N1 gauge |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications off a HOT start ? |
|
Definition
| A rapid rise in TTT, a Red HOT icon will appear inside the ITT gauge, and the ITT pointer will turn red |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of a HUNG start ? |
|
Definition
| N2 will stagnate around 40% with a rather rapid ITT rise |
|
|
Term
| When will VIB gauges be removed from ED1 ? |
|
Definition
| When oil pressure drops below 25 psi |
|
|
Term
| When starting engines with DC power, which do you start first ? |
|
Definition
| The left must be started first because the left oil gauge is DC powered, Also use ignition B because it uses DC converted to AC through an inverter |
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure for aborting a start ? |
|
Definition
| Thrust lever to shut off, Ignition OFF, Dry motor untill ITT is below 120 degrees C respecting starter limits |
|
|
Term
| What does the ATS actually drive ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the ATS valve ? |
|
Definition
| It meters air flow to control enginge rpm during starts |
|
|
Term
| What are the oil temp ranges ? |
|
Definition
| Green -40 - 154 degrees C, Amber 155 - 162 degrees C, Red 163 degrees C and above |
|
|
Term
| What are the oil pressure ranges ? |
|
Definition
| Red 0 - 25 psi, Green 26 - 115 psi, Amber 116 - 156 psi |
|
|
Term
| N2 spli must be no greater than ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the max ITT on start ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ITT for max continuous thrust ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ratings of the CRJ's two batteries ? |
|
Definition
| APU battery is a 24v, 43amp nickle nicad battery, and the main battery is a 24v , 17 amp nickle nicad |
|
|
Term
| What does the green DC AVAIL light mean ? |
|
Definition
| External DC is plugged in and is the correct voltage and polarity |
|
|
Term
| What does the green AC AVAIL light mean ? |
|
Definition
| External AC is plugged in and is the correct frequency, phase and voltage |
|
|
Term
| What is the frequency and phase of the AC power ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What busses power the battery chargers ? |
|
Definition
| AC utility bus 1 powers the main battery charger, and AC utility bus 2 powers the APU battery charger |
|
|
Term
| What are the sources of 115v AC power ? |
|
Definition
| 2 IDG's ( integrated drive generators ) APU generator, Air driven generator, And AC ground power |
|
|
Term
| What are the two components of the IDG ? |
|
Definition
| A constant speed drive that converts variable engine speed to a constant 12000 rpm, and A 30 KVA generator |
|
|
Term
| What provides electrical power if there is a complete loss of AC in flight ? |
|
Definition
| ADG, The air driven generator provides 15 KVA AC power |
|
|
Term
| How many circuit breaker panels are there, and where are they located ? |
|
Definition
| 6- CB panels 1-4 are on the flight deck, 5 is in the AFT equipment bay, and there ias also one in the galley |
|
|
Term
| What is the KVA rating of the IDG's ? |
|
Definition
| 30 KVA up to 35,000 feet, 25 KVA up to 41,000 feet |
|
|
Term
| What two conditions will cause an IDG FAULT ? |
|
Definition
| High oil temperature ( greater than 160 degrees C ) and low oil pressure |
|
|
Term
| Will the IDG automatically disconnect for a FAULT condition ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two conditions will cause the IDG to automatically disconnect ? |
|
Definition
| Over torque ( aproximately 3300 lbs ) and, Over temp ( 168 degrees C case temperature ) |
|
|
Term
| If you manually disconnect an IDG, can you get it back in flight ? |
|
Definition
| NO, it can only be reset on the ground |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the generator GCU's ? |
|
Definition
| They provide generator fault protection |
|
|
Term
| What conditions will a GCU pull a generator off line ? |
|
Definition
| Over/Under voltage, Over/Under frequency, or a generator or bus overcurrent |
|
|
Term
| What is the KVA rating of the APU generator ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When switching between APU gen and gen 2 why does YD 2 dissengage ? |
|
Definition
| There is a momentary loss of power on DC bus 2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AC 1 & 2, Ac utility 1 & 2, AC essential, and the ADG bus ( ADG bus is not depicted on AC synoptic page ) |
|
|
Term
| Where are AC bus 1 & 2 located ? |
|
Definition
| AC bus 1 is behind the captain, and AC bus 2 is behind the FO |
|
|
Term
| What is the AC bus priority ? |
|
Definition
| Onside, APU, Cross side, and external power |
|
|
Term
| How many TRU's does AC bus one power ? |
|
Definition
| Under normal ops only one - TRU 1 |
|
|
Term
| How many TRU's does AC bus 2 power ? |
|
Definition
| Three - TRU 2, ESS TRU 2, and SERV TRU through the AC SERV bus |
|
|
Term
| How many TRU,s ( transformer rectifier units ) are there ? |
|
Definition
| Five, TRU 1, TRU 2, SERV TRU, ESS TRU 2, ESS TRU 1 |
|
|
Term
| AC ESS bus in normally powered how ? |
|
Definition
| By AC bus 1, however it can be manually or automatically transfered to AC bus 2 |
|
|
Term
| What would the indication be if AC ESS was being powered by AC bus 2 ? |
|
Definition
| The The AC ESS XFER ALTN light will come on |
|
|
Term
| What is the power priority of the AC ESS bus ? |
|
Definition
| AC bus 1, AC bus 2, ADG bus |
|
|
Term
| During ADG deployment the AC ESS bus is connected directly to the AGD bus, how can you disconnect it ? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the PWR XTFR OVERIDE button |
|
|
Term
| During flight the AC utility busses are shed when ? |
|
Definition
| During single generator operations |
|
|
Term
| When would you get an AUTO XFER FAIL annunciation |
|
Definition
| When the GCU senses greater than 37 KVA across a bus it isolates it by placing a " block" between the affected bus and the offside gen and the APU gen |
|
|
Term
| What will the indication be if the ADG has deployed ? |
|
Definition
| EMER POWER ONLY EICAS message |
|
|
Term
| What are the conditions to auto deploy the AGD ? |
|
Definition
| All AC power is lost, Last AC power source was internal, weight off wheels, and parking brake off |
|
|
Term
| What are the ten DC busses ? |
|
Definition
| DC bus 1 & 2, DC utility bus 1 & 2, DC ESS bus, DC SERV bus, DC Battery bus, DC EMER bus, MAIN BATT DIR bus, APU BATT DIR bus |
|
|
Term
| When will a TRU FAIL message be displayed ? |
|
Definition
| When the TRU drops below 18v |
|
|
Term
| What is the one TRU that will produce a caution message when it fails " |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the DC SERV switch do ? |
|
Definition
| Connects the DC SERV bus to the APU BATT DIR bus |
|
|
Term
| What is on the DC EMER bus ? |
|
Definition
| Engine and APU fire extinguishers, and fuel and hyd. shut off valves |
|
|
Term
| What are the two functions of the battery master switch ? |
|
Definition
| Connects the APU BATT DIR bus and the MAIN BATT DIR bus to the BATT bus, and also arms the bridging of the BATT bus and DC ESS bus in flight |
|
|
Term
| When do the AC utility busses shed on the ground ? |
|
Definition
| Whith only one generator online and the flaps are greater than 0 degrees |
|
|
Term
| What bus ties are manual vs automatic ? |
|
Definition
| Ties 1 and 2 are automatic or manual, ESS tie is manual only |
|
|
Term
| Will the batteries charge when DC external is in use ? |
|
Definition
| NO, it takes the batteries off line |
|
|
Term
| What does switching the AUTO XFER switchlight to OFF do ? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits AC power priority to manually isolate an AC bus |
|
|
Term
| What is the "cardinal rule" |
|
Definition
| for pressing the ESS TIE light ? |
|
|
Term
| What does the ADG power ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you transfer power from the AGD back to a generator ? |
|
Definition
| Press the PWR XTFR OVERIDE button, and stow the AGD handle |
|
|
Term
| What does TIE 1 switch light do ? |
|
Definition
| Connects the SERV TRU to DC bus 1 and sheds DC utility 1 |
|
|
Term
| What does TIE 2 switchlight do ? |
|
Definition
| Connects the SERV TRU to DC 2 and shed DC utility bus 2 |
|
|
Term
| What does pressing the ESS TIE switchlight do ? |
|
Definition
| Connects the DC SERV bus to the DC ESS and DC BATT bus |
|
|
Term
| How long can the batteries provide back up power if all electrical is lost ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an Auto XFER condition occurs can you reset it in flight ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will the DC EMER bus appear on the DC synoptic page ? |
|
Definition
| When it loses one of its two sources of power, |
|
|
Term
| What condition will produce a generator overload condition ? |
|
Definition
| When the GCU detects 34.5 KVA on a bus |
|
|
Term
| What are the HOT busses ? |
|
Definition
| APU BAT DIR bus, MAIN BATT DIR bus, and DC EMER bus |
|
|
Term
| Why is it essential to pull the AGD handle , even if it has automatically deployed ? |
|
Definition
| Pulling the handle " locks the aircraft in a weight off wheels " condition preventing the loss of DC ESS on landing. |
|
|
Term
| What does DC utlity 1 & 2 bus power ? |
|
Definition
| Reading lights and passenger service units |
|
|
Term
| When will you get a MAIN BATT OFF or APU BATT OFF message ? |
|
Definition
| The applicable battery has dropped below 18v |
|
|
Term
| Why is there an alternator on the accessory gear box ? |
|
Definition
| It powers the engine ECU independent of aircraft power |
|
|
Term
| When will the battery chargers shut down ? |
|
Definition
| If a charging cycle exceeds 90 minutes , or if a battery fault or charger fault is detected |
|
|
Term
| What are the electrical ratings of the TRU's ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the BATT MASTER need to be on for DC SERV CONFIG ? |
|
Definition
| YES, it connects the APU BATT DIR bus to the DC SERV bus |
|
|
Term
| How would you isolate an AC bus ? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the onside AUTO XFER INHIBIT switchlight and then turning off the affected generator |
|
|
Term
| Can The AGD be retracted in flight once it has deployed ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hydrualic system powers the landing gear ? |
|
Definition
| Hydraulic system 3 powers gear extension and retraction. Gear assist accuators are powered by hydraulic system 2 |
|
|
Term
| What hydraulic system powers the brakes ? |
|
Definition
| Outboard brakes hydraulic 2, Inboard brakes hydraulic 3 |
|
|
Term
| If hydraulics are lost will the brakes still work ? |
|
Definition
| In the event of a hydraulic failure,braking is still possible due to pressure stored in the brake accumulator, approximately 6 brake applications are possible with the anti-skid OFF |
|
|
Term
| How many PSEU's ( Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit ) are on the gear ? |
|
Definition
| Each Main gear has two, and the nose gear has two providing system redundancy |
|
|
Term
| How do the gear doors operate ? |
|
Definition
| MLG doors are mechanically linked to gear movement, Nose rear door is also linked to gear movement, while the nose forward doors are actuated hydraulically |
|
|
Term
| How is the gear held in position ? |
|
Definition
| MLG is held up by uplocks and down by down locks. NLG is held up by uplocks and down by an overcenter locking mechanism in the drag brace |
|
|
Term
| When will you get the "NOSE DOOR OPEN" aural warning ? |
|
Definition
| When the nose bay door is open for more than 10 seconds after the gear is up and locked, or if the airspeed is greater than 250 kts with the door open |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the manual gear release handle is pulled ? |
|
Definition
| 1-The nose gear door uplock and all three gear uplocks are released. 2- Dump valves are opened routing hydraulic 3 pressure to the return. 3- Nose doors open as the NLG free-falls. 4- NLG extends rearward and is assisted down by by two overcenter springs. 5-MLG extends free-falls outward and is assisted by auxilary actuators that are powered by hydraulic system 2 |
|
|
Term
| How does the anti skid system sense a skidding wheel ? |
|
Definition
| Speed transducers on each wheel monitor rotational speed and decceleration of the wheels and sends information to the anti-skid unit |
|
|
Term
| How does the anti-skid system prevent the wheels from locking up ? |
|
Definition
| By modulating hydraulic pressure to the brakes |
|
|
Term
| What are the ranges and colors of the BTMS numbers ? |
|
Definition
| 0-5 green. 6-12 White. 13-20 Red. Each digit is 35 degrees C |
|
|
Term
| When are the BTMS numbers removed from EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| 30 seconds after the gear and flaps are up and the BTMS temps are normal |
|
|
Term
| How long are the gear warnings inhibited on take off ? |
|
Definition
| 2 minutes after take off. warnings are also inhibited during a windshear warning |
|
|
Term
| When will you get the "TOO LOW GEAR " aural ? |
|
Definition
| If any gear is not down and locked with a radar altitude less than 500 ' and airspeed less than 190 kts |
|
|
Term
| When is the anti-skid system armed ? |
|
Definition
| Anti-skid system arms with the switch and actuates when wheels spin up to 35 kts until wheels slow down to 10 kts |
|
|
Term
| When does the brake pressure read out turn amber ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do the wheels stop rotating on retraction ? |
|
Definition
| The nose gear spins down. The MLG is stopped by hydraulic pressure that has been routed through the brake control unit during the retraction sequence |
|
|
Term
| How many detents does the manual gear extension handle have ? |
|
Definition
| 4, one for the nose door, and one for each gear |
|
|
Term
| What prevents gear handle movement on the ground ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is brake pressure displayed ? |
|
Definition
| On EICAS hydraulic synoptic page |
|
|
Term
| What are the two conditions for checking the wear pins on the brakes ? |
|
Definition
| Hydraulic system 2 and 3 must beon, and the parking brake must be set |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal psi for the brake pressure ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum brake cooling period ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the nose wheel steering and anti-skid systems after take off ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides shock absorbtion for all three gear ? |
|
Definition
| Nitrogen charged, oil filled struts |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the brush seals ? |
|
Definition
| They provide an areodynamic seal |
|
|
Term
| How do you open the nose gear from outside the aircraft ? |
|
Definition
| The switch on the external services panel. Hydraulic 3 must be pressurized |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum gear retraction speed ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum gear extension speed ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is over heat protection provided for the gear ? |
|
Definition
| A single loop sensing unit in the MLG wheel bin |
|
|
Term
| How is nose wheel steering accomplished ? |
|
Definition
| By the tiller 70 degrees either side, or by the rudder pedals 5 degrees either side |
|
|
Term
| How does the nose wheel steering operate ? |
|
Definition
| The nose wheel is moved hydraulically and controlled electrically by a steer by wire system |
|
|
Term
| How is the nose wheel centered on retraction ? |
|
Definition
| By centering cams as the strut extends |
|
|
Term
| Can you get a steering fault in flight ? |
|
Definition
| Yes , the system is continuosly monitored |
|
|
Term
| What are the chines on the nose wheel for ? |
|
Definition
| To direct water away from the engines |
|
|
Term
| What is the speed limitation for the tires ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are the tire protected from overheating ? |
|
Definition
| The mains each have 4 fusible plugs. when they overheat the plugs melt deflating the tire |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the BTMS turn red ? |
|
Definition
| The system must be manually reset by pressing the overheat reset button. Maintenance should be notified |
|
|
Term
| How are the fuel tanks vented ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the fuel system computer detect quantity information ? |
|
Definition
| Fuel quantity probes with a compensator unit in eachj main tank and the center tank |
|
|
Term
| What fuel information is displayed On the EICAS fuel synoptic page ? |
|
Definition
| Individual tank quantities, Total fuel Quantity, and Fuel used |
|
|
Term
| What maintains fuel symmetry between main tanks ? |
|
Definition
| Automatically controlled XFLO/APU pump and associated shut off valves |
|
|
Term
| How are the collector tanks kept full ? |
|
Definition
| Gravity feed lines, and scavenge ejectors |
|
|
Term
| What serves as a back up to the main ejectors ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From what source is the APU normally fed fuel ? |
|
Definition
| Directly from the main tanks by the XFLO/APU pump |
|
|
Term
| In case of a negative-G condition, or a XFLO/APU pump failure ? |
|
Definition
| From the right engine fuel line providing the line is pressurized |
|
|
Term
| With more than 500 lbs in the center tanks, how much fuel do you have to have in each main tank ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the automatic fuel cross flow function ? |
|
Definition
| When one main tank is 200 lbs less less than the other, the XFLO/APU pumps fuel into the low tank until it is 50 lbs higher than the other main |
|
|
Term
| What are the three ways to balance fuel ? |
|
Definition
| Gravity, Auto, and Manual cross flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the max fuel imbalance ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain how fuel is transfered from the center tank to the mains ? |
|
Definition
| When the main tank drops below 94%, ( 4400 lbs ) the transfer ejector pumps transfer fuel from the center to the mains until they are at 100 %. |
|
|
Term
| Do both transfer ejectors operate at the same time ? |
|
Definition
| No, they are completely independent of each other |
|
|
Term
| How many fuel tanks does the CRJ 200 Have ? |
|
Definition
| 5- two main tanks, one center tank, and two collector tanks |
|
|
Term
| What are the fuel quantities of each tank ? |
|
Definition
| Each main tank holds 4760 lbs, and the center tank holds 4998 lbs, total fuel 14518lbs |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go - around ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average fuel burn per hour ? |
|
Definition
| 3400 lbs for the first hour, 2600 for the second hour |
|
|
Term
| Explain how the electric boost pumps work ? |
|
Definition
| When a fuel pressure of less than 9 psi is sensed, and the boost pump switch lights are pressed in, Pumps come on to supply positive pressure to the main ejectors |
|
|
Term
| Doe the electric pumps operate indepedantly ? |
|
Definition
| No, if one fuel line senses low pressure, both pumps come on |
|
|
Term
| How many ejector pumps are there ? |
|
Definition
| 6 - two main, two scavenge, and two transfer ejectors |
|
|
Term
| What does a fail light on the fuel panel indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A fail light on the fuel panel indicates a valve failure, not a pump failure |
|
|
Term
| What does the manual cross flow switch light do ? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits Auto cross flow allowing fuel to be manually balanced |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the engine driven fuel pumps ? |
|
Definition
| Supplies fuel to the motor and provides motive flow for the ejector pumps |
|
|
Term
| What are the two methods of refueling ? |
|
Definition
| Single point, or gravity overwing |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if a fuel tank is over pressurized ? |
|
Definition
| If a tank exceeds 5.0 psi, over pressure valves open to relieve pressure |
|
|
Term
| Are the APU fuel ditribution system and the Engine fuel distribution system independant of each other ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Scavenge ejectors ? |
|
Definition
| The scavenge ejectors operate by motive flow transfering fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks |
|
|
Term
| Where are the collector tanks ? |
|
Definition
| Collectors are located inside the forward section of the center taink. All fuel consumed by the engines comes from the collector tanks |
|
|
Term
| Where are the main ejector pumps ? |
|
Definition
| Main ejectors are located on top of the associated collector tank, and provide fuel pressure directly to each engine |
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways to close the Fuel shut off valves ? |
|
Definition
| Fuel shut off levers on the thrust levers, or by pressing the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light on the glare shield |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the fuel heat exchanger ? |
|
Definition
| Fuel is heated by hot engine oil as it passes through the heat exchanger |
|
|
Term
| Where is fuel temperature indicated ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the MLI's ( magnetic level indicator ) ? |
|
Definition
| Each main tank has two MLI's and the center tank has one, they are used to manually detect tank quantities |
|
|
Term
| Where is the bulk fuel temperature sensor ? |
|
Definition
| It is located in the left main tank. Bulk fuel temp, as well as engine fuel feed temps can be read on the EICAS fuel synoptic page |
|
|
Term
| When will the fuel quantity read outs turn amber ? |
|
Definition
| Less than 900 lbs total fuel, or and imbalance of 800 lbs or more |
|
|
Term
| When will the bulk fuel temperature read out turn white ? |
|
Definition
| When fuel temperatures are less than -40 degrees C |
|
|
Term
| When will the engine fuel feed teperatures turn amber ? |
|
Definition
| Engine fuel feed temperatures less than 5 degrees C |
|
|
Term
| What does each tank have to prevent outward flow of fuel during wing low operations ? |
|
Definition
| One way valves attached to the internal wing ribs |
|
|
Term
| What monitors and controls the fuel system ? |
|
Definition
| A dual channel fuel system computer, Only one channel is active at any one time |
|
|
Term
| Where are the fuel filters located ? |
|
Definition
| Just aft of the engine oil tanks, Filters are monitered by an impending by-pass switch |
|
|
Term
| If a fuel filter becomes clogged will you be able to telll ? |
|
Definition
| Yes , an EICAS message is generated when a filter bypass occurs |
|
|
Term
| What color will the fuel lines be on EICAS if a fire has been detected, and the fuel SOV's have not closed ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the max zero fuel weight ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many fuel injectors does each engine have ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many psi do the electric fuel pumps provide ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do the transfer ejector pumps have a back up ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the construction of the wing tanks ? |
|
Definition
| The tanks are a "wet wing " design. A sealant is used to make the wings the tank |
|
|
Term
| How can De-fueling be accomplished ? |
|
Definition
| By inserting a de-fuel suction pump at the single point fuel port, or gravity de-fueling is possible by inserting a gravity de-fuel adapter into the fuel drain valves |
|
|
Term
| During a climb you notice fuel increasing in the center tank, what is happening ? |
|
Definition
| Fuel is entering the center tank through the venting system. This is a normal condition and may increase center tank quatity up to 300 lbs |
|
|
Term
| Can you manually transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks ? |
|
Definition
| No, this is completely automatic |
|
|
Term
| Where are re-fuel / de-fuel operations controlled ? |
|
Definition
| The re-fuel / de-fuel control panel on the right side of the fuselage just forward of the wing |
|
|
Term
| Why should you never open the gravity fuel caps if you don;t know the exact fuel quatities ? |
|
Definition
| The quantity may be above the gravity cap level causing a fuel spill |
|
|
Term
| Explain the path fuel takes from the center tank to the engine |
|
Definition
| Fuel is transfered fron the center to the mains by transfer ejector pumps, scavenge ejectors then move fuel to the collector tanks, from the collectors fuel is transfered to the engine by the main ejector pumps. engine driven pumps then increase fuel pressure and provide motive flow for the system |
|
|
Term
| How many hydraulic pumps does the CRJ 200 have ? |
|
Definition
| 6- Two EDP's ( engine driven pumps ) and four ACMP's ( alternating current motor pump ) |
|
|
Term
| How many hydraulic systems does the RJ have ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many pumps does each hydraulic system have ? |
|
Definition
| 2- , System 1 & 2 consist of one EDP and one ACMP, System 3 has two ACMP's |
|
|
Term
| What hydraulic pump does not have an AUTO function ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With The hydraulic pump switches in AUTO, will the pumps automatically come on when pressure drops below 1800 psi ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain cross side IDG logic of the ACMP's |
|
Definition
| Each "B" pump is powered by the cross side IDG. |
|
|
Term
| How many hydraulic accumulators are there ? |
|
Definition
| 5- total, one for each system and two for the brakes |
|
|
Term
| How are the hydraulic systems cooled ? |
|
Definition
| System 1 & 2 are cooled by ram air. System 3 is not located near a heat source and needs no additional cooling |
|
|
Term
| What is the EICAS color logic for the hydraulic systems ? |
|
Definition
| White = pressurized, Amber = less than 1800 psi, Magenta = system pressure is unknown |
|
|
Term
| Explain cross side IDG Logic ? |
|
Definition
| ACMP 1,2 are powered by the cross side IDG. ACMP 3 is powered by either IDG. When the Aircraft senses weight of wheels, and flaps greater than Zero, Providing the ACMP pumps are in the AUTO position, they come on to provide a back up to the EDP's |
|
|
Term
| What powers hydraulic 3B in the event of a total electric failure ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the "B" pumps ? |
|
Definition
| The AUTO mode ensures hydraulic power is provided during certain phases of flight ( Take off, approach, and landing ) When selected ON they provide supplimentary hydraulic pressure for there respective system |
|
|
Term
| What is one condition for checking the hydraulic reservoir level ? |
|
Definition
| The system must be pressurized |
|
|
Term
| What is the hydraulic reservoir pressure ? |
|
Definition
| Reservoirs are kept at a constant 55 psi |
|
|
Term
| Where are the hydraulic systems located ? |
|
Definition
| All components of system 1 & 2 ( with the exception of the EDP's ) are located in the aft equipment bay. System 3 is located in or near the MLG bay ( right side wing root area ) |
|
|
Term
| What system powers the main gear assist actuators ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With hydraulic pump B in the OFF position, will it still be powered during ADG deployment ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, 3B is powered by the ADG regardless of switch position |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal psi for the hydraulic systems ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will you get a HYD LO PRESS caution message ? |
|
Definition
| When pressure drops below 1800 psi |
|
|
Term
| What is the pressure of the hydraulic accumulators ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parameters will trigger a hydraulics HI TEMP caution ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal level of the hydraulic reservoirs ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gear extension and retraction is accomplished by which hydraulic system ? |
|
Definition
| System 3. ( Main gear assist actuators are powered by system 2 ) |
|
|
Term
| What pressure will give you a hydraulics hiogh pressure caution ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at what pressure is hydraulics pressure relief provided ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the ground with pumps in AUTO and flaps at 0 degrees, which pumps are operating ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pumps are available if you lose engine 1 ? |
|
Definition
| All pumps except pump 1 A |
|
|
Term
| What hydraulic system poweres the out board brakes ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic system operates the flaps ? |
|
Definition
| None the flaps are electric |
|
|
Term
| How are the hydraulic switches, and ACMP pumps powered ? |
|
Definition
| Switches are DC powered, Pumps are AC powered |
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic pumps are powered during single engine taxi operations ? |
|
Definition
| Pump 2A and Pump 3A ( providing 3A is selected ON ) |
|
|
Term
| What flight control systems are powered by which hydraulic system ? |
|
Definition
| Elevator & Rudder - 1,2,& 3, Left aileron & Spoileron 1 & 3, Right aileron & Spoileron 2 & 3, Left and right flight spoilers 1 & 2, Inboard GLD's 2, outboard GLD's 1 |
|
|
Term
| Which pumps are EDP;s ( engine driven pumps ) ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is purple in color and highly corrosive |
|
|
Term
| When will hydraulic pump 1B or 2B be shed ? |
|
Definition
| When an engine driven generator fails, the opposite side hydrualic B pump will be load shed |
|
|
Term
| How would you close the hydraulic SOV's ? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the associated ENG FIRE PUSH switch light |
|
|
Term
| What is the job of the hydraulic accumulators ? |
|
Definition
| To provide pressure to meet instantaneuos demands of aircraft systems |
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic system has the largest demand ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does hydraulic pump 3 A operate ? |
|
Definition
| It runs continuosly providing the switch is selected ON |
|
|
Term
| If pump 3A fails will 3B come on automatically ? |
|
Definition
| NO, it must be manually selected ON |
|
|
Term
| Will the APU generator power hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B if the engine generators are OFF? |
|
Definition
| Only on the ground. In flight the B pumps require that cross side logic be met |
|
|
Term
| In cruise flight with flaps up, which hydraulic pumps are operating ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the ice detector probe work ? |
|
Definition
| The probe vibrates at high frequency, when ice accumulates, the frequency is dampened sending a signal to EICAS |
|
|
Term
| How often is the Ice detector probe anti-iced ? |
|
Definition
| It is electrically anti-iced for 5 seconds every 60 second cycle |
|
|
Term
| When will you get a BLEED MISCONFIG caution ? |
|
Definition
| When the anti-ice is ON, and flaps are greater than 0 degrees or the gear is down |
|
|
Term
| True or False , the Anti Ice synoptic page depicts actual anti ice valve position. |
|
Definition
| False, it depicts comanded positions only |
|
|
Term
| Explain the Normal and Stanby functions of the wing anti ice switch. |
|
Definition
| In normal, the anti ice valves modulate to maintain a constant temerature ( approximately 8 degrees C ). In Stanby, the anti ice valves open and closed to maintain a constant lower temp ( approximately 4 degrees C ) |
|
|
Term
| When the wings are selected ON, what happens to the N2 gauges ? |
|
Definition
| Amber arcs appear fro 0-77.9% |
|
|
Term
| On the Anti Ice synoptic page, what do amber "flow lines" indicate ? |
|
Definition
| Amber flow lines indicate low pressure or temperature. ( red indicates over heat ) |
|
|
Term
| An ICE advisory is generated when ice is detected and the wing temperature is ? |
|
Definition
| 39 degreesC in flight, and 18 degrees C on the ground |
|
|
Term
| How are the leading edges anti-iced ? |
|
Definition
| The piccolo tubes uniformly direct hot bleed air onto the inner surface of the leading edges |
|
|
Term
| How do the wing anti-ice valves close ? |
|
Definition
| Wing anti-ice and 14th stage bleed valves are spring loaded to the closed position. In the event of a loss of ellectric power, or loss of 14th stage bleed air pressure, the valves will close |
|
|
Term
| How are the engine cowls anti-iced ? |
|
Definition
| Cowl leading edges and T2 sensors are anti-iced by 14th stage bleed air that is routed through louvers on the underside of the engine nacelle |
|
|
Term
| How are the Air Data probes, and sensors anti iced ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With the windshield heat in high, are the side windows heated ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, however they are in low |
|
|
Term
| What does a WINSHIELD HEAT caution mean ? |
|
Definition
| It can either mean a windshield over heat condition, or that the winshield heat is inoperative |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the ant ice during thrust reverser operations ? |
|
Definition
| During reverser operations anti ice valves are closed |
|
|
Term
| What does an ICE caution message indicate ? |
|
Definition
| The ice detector has detected an icing condition and the anti ice is OFF |
|
|
Term
| An ANTI ICE DUCT warning message means there is a bleed air leak where ? |
|
Definition
| In the wing anti ice duct or in the fuselage |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve ? |
|
Definition
| To allow cross side anti icing capabilities during single engine operations |
|
|
Term
| What does an ICE advisory message ( green ) mean ? |
|
Definition
| Ice has been detected, anti ice is ON, and pressure and temperatures are adequate to provide anti icing capabilities |
|
|
Term
| Which areas of the aircraft are ant iced ? |
|
Definition
| Wing leading edges, engine cowls, air data probes, windshields and side windows |
|
|
Term
| Where does the bleed air for anti icing come from ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which position do the cowl anti ice valves fail ? |
|
Definition
| They fail in the open position |
|
|
Term
| How is over pressure protection provided for the engine cowls ? |
|
Definition
| A pressure relief valve located on each engine |
|
|
Term
| What happens when a window overheats ? |
|
Definition
| The windows contain overheat protection, when an overheat occurs, power is removed from the affected surfce |
|
|
Term
| After a windshield overheat, how do you reset the system ? |
|
Definition
| Move the WSHLD switch to the OFF/RESET position |
|
|
Term
| What does the OVHT light in the wing switch light indicate ? |
|
Definition
| There is an overheat condition in the leading edge of the wing |
|
|
Term
| What does the DUCT FAIL light in the wing switch light indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A bleed air leak has occured in the left or right winganti ice duct |
|
|
Term
| At what speed will the wipers operate if the Captain and the FO both have there wipers ON and they are at different levels ? |
|
Definition
| The wipers will operate at the highest level commanded |
|
|
Term
| What provides monitoring and control of the probe and sensor heating ? |
|
Definition
| 3 - ADSHC ( air data sensor heating control units ) |
|
|
Term
| Where is the standby pitot probe ? |
|
Definition
| On the left side of the nose |
|
|
Term
| How is high pressure 14th stage bleed air reduced in pressure to provide cowl anti icing ? |
|
Definition
| The cowl anti ice valves reduces it to a suitable pressure to anti ice the cowls. If pressure is too high the overpressure relief valve will extend to relieve the pressure |
|
|
Term
| What keeps Ice from building on the engine nose cone ? |
|
Definition
| It is anti iced by hot engine oil |
|
|
Term
| How are movements of the cockpit controls transmitted to the control surfaces ? |
|
Definition
| Control movements are transmitted mechanically via cables and / or pushrods to the aileron,elevator, and rudder PCU's ( power control units ) which hydraulically move the control surface. Spoilerons are also moved hydraulically, but are controlled electronically using " fly-by-wire technology |
|
|
Term
| Which pilot controls which aileron ? |
|
Definition
| The Captain has control of the left aileron, and the First Officer has control of the right aileron. Normally the two systems are interconnected and controlled simultaneously |
|
|
Term
| How are the spoilerons controlled ? |
|
Definition
| The control wheel generates an electrical signal that is sent to the SECU's ( spoileron electronic control unit ) The SECU combines control inputs with other information to determine the amount of surface deflection |
|
|
Term
| Where can you see the flight controls individual positions ? |
|
Definition
| On the FLIGHT CONTROLS synoptic page |
|
|
Term
| Do the left and right spoilerons operate independently ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, spoilerons operate on the " down going wing only |
|
|
Term
| Are the ailerons active above 300 kts ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is installed on the ailerons to prevent fluttering ? |
|
Definition
| Double acting shock absorbers known as flutter dampers |
|
|
Term
| What does pulling the ROLL DISC handle do ? |
|
Definition
| Disconnects the control wheel torque making single-side roll control possible |
|
|
Term
| What happens 20 seconds after pulling the ROLL DISC handle ? |
|
Definition
| The SECU commands both ROLL SEL lights to illuminate on the glareshield. Pilot selection of the ROLL SEL switchlight tells the system which side has control and transfers control of the cross-side spoileron |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the bungee breakout switch ? |
|
Definition
| If an uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs ( PCU runaway ) The switch sends a signal to the SECU which commands both spoilerons to respond to inputs from the operable control wheel |
|
|
Term
| Do you need to select the onside ROLL SEL switch in a PCU runaway condition ? |
|
Definition
| No, it is done automatically by the bungee breakout switch and the SECU |
|
|
Term
| How many PCU's does the rudder have ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will happen in the event of a rudder jam ? |
|
Definition
| The rudder PCU's are controlled by two seperate cable systems. Each cable has a spring tension break-out system which protects against jams. In the event of a jam, each side still has rudder controll, however, additional pedal force may be required |
|
|
Term
| What do the Yaw Dampers do ? |
|
Definition
| Eleviate dutch roll tendancies |
|
|
Term
| What does pulling the PITCH DISC handle do ? |
|
Definition
| Removes the interconnect feature of the control wheels. Each pilot has control of the on-side elevator |
|
|
Term
| How does the pitch trim work ? |
|
Definition
| The horizontal stabilizer angle is moved by jackscrews driven by two electric trim motors. The whole system is controlled by the HSTCU ( horizontal stabilizer trim control unit |
|
|
Term
| What is the control priority of the HSTCU |
|
Definition
| Pilot, Co-Pilot, Auto Pilot, Auto Trim, and then Mach Trim |
|
|
Term
| What happens if the Stab Trim is held for more than 3 seconds ? |
|
Definition
| The clacker will sound alerting the pilot of a possible trim runaway condition |
|
|
Term
| At what speed does the Mach Trim become active ? |
|
Definition
| When Mach Trim is engaged, it becomes active above 0.4 mach when hand flying the airplane. |
|
|
Term
| How are the flaps controlled ? |
|
Definition
| The flaps operate electrically |
|
|
Term
| How many spoilers are on each wing ? |
|
Definition
| Four,- 1 spoileron, 1 flight spoiler,an inboard and outboard ground spoiler |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the control switch is in auto, thrust levers are advanced to > 79 %, and the wheel speed is > 45 kts |
|
|
Term
| When do the GLD's auto retract ? |
|
Definition
| L or R thrust lever is idle, Wheel speed is < 45 kts for 10 seconds, or the plane is on the ground for 40 seconds |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum speed and altitude to use the flight spoilers ? |
|
Definition
| Vref + 17 kts, 300 feet agl |
|
|
Term
| What conditions need to be met to deploy the GLD's ? |
|
Definition
| Thrust levers at idle, and two of the following three items, weight on wheels, radar altitude < 5 feet, wheel speed > 16 kts |
|
|
Term
| What message will appear if one channel of the FECU ( flap electronic control unit ) fails ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you disconnect the stab trim ? |
|
Definition
| Stab trim disconnect on the yoke |
|
|
Term
| How can you de-activate the stick pusher ? |
|
Definition
| By pushing the auto pilot disconnect AP/SP on the yoke |
|
|
Term
| What power setting will trigger a take of configuration warning ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you cancel the stick shaker ? |
|
Definition
| Shaker can only be cancelled by lowering the angle of attack |
|
|
Term
| How is the Stab trim system protected from a run away ? |
|
Definition
| Each trim motor has a brake system to prevent run away of the stab trim |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the flaps do not extend simulateously ( split flap condition ) ? |
|
Definition
| If a split condition exsists > 3 degrees the PDU's are de-energized and the flap brakes are applied creating a FLAPS FAIL condition |
|
|
Term
| How many PCU's are on each aileron ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many degrees will the rudder move ? |
|
Definition
| 25 degrees in either direction |
|
|
Term
| Are the Yaw Dampers connected to the auto pilot ? |
|
Definition
| NO, they operate independenly. At least one yaw damper must be engaged in order to engage the auto pilot |
|
|
Term
| How do you operate the aileron trim ? |
|
Definition
| Both halfs of the AIL TRIM must be pushed left or right to activate the trim |
|
|
Term
| Do all of the rudder PCU's need to be operating in order for the trim to work ? |
|
Definition
| NO, a minimum of one PCU must be operating in order for the trim to work. |
|
|
Term
| Will moving the rudder trim move the rudder pedals ? |
|
Definition
| No, do to the position of the rudder trim actuator, the trim will not move the pedals |
|
|
Term
| Where does the HSTCU get its inputs ? |
|
Definition
| Auto Pilot, Mach Trim, Control wheel switches |
|
|
Term
| What is the " Normal" take off range of the stab trim ? |
|
Definition
| 3 to 9 units is the green band |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the flaps are moving between 0 and 20 degrees , and there are no control inputs from the pilot or auto pilot, the aircraft will auto trim to compensate for the changes in areodynamic center of pressure |
|
|
Term
| Explain the design of the flaps. |
|
Definition
| The flaps are double slotted fowler flaps. Movement is rearward and down from 0-45 degrees |
|
|
Term
| Explain the BUTE ( bent up trailing edge ) doors, on the outboard flaps. |
|
Definition
| The BUTE doors direct airflow over the leading edge vanes when the flaps are extending |
|
|
Term
| When does the flap position indicator appear on EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| When any of the following occur: Flaps are greater than 0 degrees, BTMS numbers are in the red range, Landing gear is not up and locked |
|
|
Term
| When will the flap indications disappear from EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| When the gear is up and locked, flaps are at 0 degrees, and the BTMS is not red |
|
|
Term
| What is the degree range of the flight spoilers ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What spoilers make up the GLD system ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will happen to the GLD's if a touch and go landing is neccesary ? |
|
Definition
| When thrust levers are advanced, the GLD's will retract and the system will re-arm |
|
|
Term
| How would you manually retract the GLD's ? |
|
Definition
| By selecting the spoilers switch to MAN DISARM |
|
|
Term
| How can a take off configuration warning be cancelled ? |
|
Definition
| The warning will cancel if the thrust levers are retarted, or the problem that caused the warning is corrected |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the selector valves ? |
|
Definition
| They isolate the mach transducers from the pitot static system |
|
|
Term
| How can the stick pusher be de-activated ? |
|
Definition
| Press and hold the AP/SP disconnect, select the STALL PTCT PUSHER switch to off, the pusher will also auto disconnect if it senses less than 0.5 G's |
|
|
Term
| What monitors the aircraft for correct configuration ? |
|
Definition
| The proximity sensing system PSS wich uses PSEU's ( proximity sensing electronic units) to detect aircraft configuration |
|
|
Term
| What radios are monitored or tuned with the BTU ( back up tuning unit ) ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With only DC power available, how can you make a radio call ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you tune com 2 if RTU ( radio tuning unit ) # 2 fails ? |
|
Definition
| Select RTU 2 INHIB, and then use the 1/2 push button on RTU 1 |
|
|
Term
| When is the erase function of the CVR anabled ? |
|
Definition
| With weight on wheels and the parking brake set |
|
|
Term
| Will swapping NAV 1 frequencies cancel the auto tune function ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the TRU have any protection for a stuck mic situation ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, the RTU will stop any transmission that lasts for more than 2 minutes |
|
|
Term
| What does the call button do ? |
|
Definition
| When pressed the call button hot mics you to the flight attendant |
|
|
Term
| Can you adjust the volume of the aural warning system ? |
|
Definition
| No, aural warnings are not controlled by the volume knobs |
|
|
Term
| When selecting the R/T I/C switch to I/C, where can your transmisions be heard ? |
|
Definition
| At all interior and exterior interphone units |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the VOICE/BOTH switch ? |
|
Definition
| Both allows morse code and voice messages from the station. Voice filters out the morse code portion |
|
|
Term
| Explain the EMER function of the EMER/NORM switch. |
|
Definition
| When in EMER, the pilot has control of comm 1 and nav 1. the co-pilot has controll of com 2 and nav 2. the observer station is inoperative |
|
|
Term
| Who has priority over the PA system ? |
|
Definition
| The flight deck. The flight deck PA will overide the FA's |
|
|
Term
| Can you adjust the PA volume in the cabin and the lav ? |
|
Definition
| No, it adjusts automatically depending on back ground noise |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the cabin when the call switchlight is pressed on the flight deck ? |
|
Definition
| The flight light illuminates green on the FA's handset, there is a hi/lo chime, and a red light illuminates on the exit sign in the middle of the cabin |
|
|
Term
| At what locations can maintenance use the interphone system to communicate with the flight deck ? |
|
Definition
| Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, refuel/defuel panel, external services panel |
|
|
Term
| What frequencies will be displayed on the BTU when in standby ? |
|
Definition
| It will duplicate com 1 and nav 1 |
|
|
Term
| What is the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch used for ? |
|
Definition
| When in INHIBIT, the remote tuning function of the FMS is inhibited |
|
|
Term
| Where is the CVR located ? |
|
Definition
| In the tail cone section of the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| What are the four locations that are recorded by the CVR ? |
|
Definition
| Pilot, Co-pilot, Mixed PA audio and the observers station, and ambient flight deck noise |
|
|
Term
| When does the CVR start recording ? |
|
Definition
| When electrical power is applied to the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| Why is there a headphone jack on the CVR ? |
|
Definition
| It allows monitoring of a recorded tone during the test function |
|
|
Term
| Where is the FDR ( flight data recorder ) located ? |
|
Definition
| In the tail section of the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| How long will the FDR record ? |
|
Definition
| It records the last 25 hours of aircraft flight parameter data |
|
|
Term
| When does the FDR start recording ? |
|
Definition
| When one of the following three things occur: beacon is turned on, strobes are turned on, or weight off wheels condition is sensed |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the FDR event switch ? |
|
Definition
| When selected, it will highlight or mark a particular event |
|
|
Term
| What is the max pressure differential ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will you get the cabin alt caution message ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will you get the cabin alt warning ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the altitude limitation for single pack operations ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is 10th stage bleed air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Pressurization, air conditioning, and engine starts |
|
|
Term
| What is 14th stage bleed air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Thrust reverse, and anti- ice |
|
|
Term
| What is 7th stage bleed air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Pressurization of oil seals |
|
|
Term
| What is low pressure ground air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Cooling of the aircraft on the ground. cooling uses the manifolds, not the packs in this configuration |
|
|
Term
| How can you change from one pressure controller to the other ? |
|
Definition
| Push the controller switch twice, or land |
|
|
Term
| Duct Test, tests which bleed air system ? |
|
Definition
| Both 10th and 14th stage bleed air systems are tested. the test simulates a duct failure |
|
|
Term
| At what temperature will a pack overheat occur ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will the passenger oxygen masks drop automatically ? |
|
Definition
| When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet plus or minus 500 feet |
|
|
Term
| What is the max Take Off, Land, and Taxi pressure ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position do the 10th and 14th stage valves fail ? |
|
Definition
| 14th stage valves fail open. 10th stage valves fail closed. The APU LCV valve fails in what ever position it is modulated |
|
|
Term
| At what cabin altitude will the CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING and SEAT BELT signs ? |
|
Definition
| When switches are in AUTO and the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet |
|
|
Term
| What is the max negative pressure differential ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What PSI will cause a pack overpressure ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is high pressure ground air used for ? |
|
Definition
| Air Conditioning ( through the packs ), and Engine starting |
|
|
Term
| With engine cowl / and or wing anti-ice on, 10th stage valves must be in which position for take off and landing ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal pressure for dual pack and single pack operations ? |
|
Definition
| Dual pack pressure is normally 30 psi. In single pack operations the pressure is increased to 41 PSI |
|
|
Term
| When the thrust levers are advanced, the automatic pressurization system pressurizes the aircraft to what altitude ? |
|
Definition
| minus 150 feet of feild elevation |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the emergency depress switchlight is pressed in ? |
|
Definition
| Both outflow valves open allowing depressurization. Above 14,000 feet cabin will depressurize to 14,000 feet plus or minus 700 feet. below 14,000 feet cabin will depressurize completely |
|
|
Term
| Where can you read the pressure of the APU bleed air ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when the pressure controller is selected to manual, and the alt selector knob is selected to the up position ? |
|
Definition
| The outflow valves are opened allowing the cabin altitude to increase |
|
|
Term
| Explain the return to feild parameters of the automatic pressurization system. |
|
Definition
| below 6000 feet or a descent of 1000 feet per min within 10 minutes. The feild elevation does not need to be reset during a return to feild |
|
|
Term
| When is the auto pressurization activated during take off ? |
|
Definition
| At 85% power lever angle. |
|
|
Term
| What four things happen when a pack fails ? |
|
Definition
| The Pack shuts down, The pack valve closes, 10th stage ISOL valve closes, and the affected 10th stage valve closes |
|
|
Term
| Where is the flight compartment exhaust air routed ? |
|
Definition
| Exhaust air is routed through the avionics bay and out the outflow valves in the aft equipment bay |
|
|
Term
| How do you supply APU bleed air to the right pack ? |
|
Definition
| Open the LCV and 10th stage ISOL valve |
|
|
Term
| When is the pressurization info displayed on the PRI, STA, and the ECS synoptic pages ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To test the 14th stage ISOL valve, what needs to be on ? |
|
Definition
| Wing anti-ice must be in norm, and the 14th stage valves must be open |
|
|
Term
| Will the oxygen masks auto deploy if there is a CPAM failure ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the EICAS color logic of the packs ? |
|
Definition
| White = Not running, Green = working, Amber = failed |
|
|
Term
| Explain APU LCV interlock. |
|
Definition
| Inter lock looks at switch position and uses logic to open/close the LCV. This serves as a back up to the APU check valve ( not shown on EICAS ) to protect the APU from back pressure |
|
|
Term
| What does a pack fault light indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A pack high temp or high pressure |
|
|
Term
| How do the outflow valves open ? |
|
Definition
| The are electropnuematically controlled |
|
|
Term
| When would you use the manual pressurization mode ? |
|
Definition
| Failure of both auto controllers |
|
|
Term
| Do outflow valves require 10th or 14th stage air to open ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the packs located ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is moisture removed from pack air ? |
|
Definition
| Pack discharge air passes through a water seperator |
|
|
Term
| How is the pack air distributed through the aircraft ? |
|
Definition
| 70 % of the left pack air is routed to the flight deck, 70 % of the right pack air is routed to the cabin |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the PRSOV's ( pressure regulating shut off valves ) ? |
|
Definition
| To reduce bleed air pressure prior to entering the packs |
|
|
Term
| What is used to cool the air to air heat exchangers ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is cargo bay air conditioning provided ? |
|
Definition
| Recirculated cabin exhaust air is drawn into the cargo bay by a fan to maintain positive air flow. Intake and exhaust shut off valves are used to control airflow within the cargo compartment |
|
|
Term
| Explain the positions of the Cargo air switch. |
|
Definition
| OFF = disables the system. FAN energizes the fan and opens the recirculation and exhaust shut off valves. COND AIR = provides automatic temp control by opening the COND AIR SOV allowing right pack air to be routed to the cargo bay and also activates an electric heater. A thermostat automatically controls the temperature in the cargo bay |
|
|
Term
| When will you get a Cargo overheat message ? |
|
Definition
| When the cargo bay temp reaches 35 degrees C |
|
|
Term
| In auto mode , at what rate will the cabin climb and descend ? |
|
Definition
| Climb at 500 fpm, descend at 300 fpm |
|
|
Term
| What areas does the bleed air leak detection system monitor ? |
|
Definition
| Wings ,fuselage, and the engine pylons |
|
|
Term
| What is the altitude limit for the APU to provide bleed air for air conditioning ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must you do when using low pressure air for cooling on the ground ? |
|
Definition
| Make sure that the main cabin door, avionics bay door, or service door is open to prevent the aircraft from pressurizing on the ground |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the cargo air when smoke is detected int he cargo bay ? |
|
Definition
| The cargo intake and exhaust air valves close. The cargo fan shuts down. The conditioned air valve closes and the heater shuts down |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of the vaccum required to operate the outflow valves ? |
|
Definition
| 10th stage bleed air and a jet pump |
|
|
Term
| When do VIB gaauges appear on EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| After engine start. Before start oil pressure gauges appear |
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements to "BOX" messages? |
|
Definition
| Status messages will " BOX " at any time. Caution messages require both main generators to be online, and less than one page of messages |
|
|
Term
| When are landing gear indications removed from EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| 30 seconds after the gear is up and locked and the flaps are at 0 degrees |
|
|
Term
| Explain the automatic unboxing of CAS messages. |
|
Definition
| Status messages will un box when a new message is recieved. Caution messages will not un box. The new message will go on top of the box |
|
|
Term
| What page will appear on the MFD ( multi function display ) when EICAS is selected on the DRP ( disply reversionary panel ) ? |
|
Definition
| Primary if one is not already displayed. Status if a primary page is already displayed |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the source select panel ? |
|
Definition
| It allows pages other than the primary to be displayed on the screen selected |
|
|
Term
| Explain protection of the primary page > |
|
Definition
| Primary page is protected ( cannot be changed ) until its screen source is selected on the source select panel |
|
|
Term
| If you have selected ED1 or ED2 on source select panel and a warning occurs, what will happen ? |
|
Definition
| Primary page will appear on the selected screen |
|
|
Term
| What buttons on the ECP will still work when the ECP proccesor fails ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Take Off configuration warnings produced by EICAS ? |
|
Definition
| Auto Pilot, Flaps, Spoilers, Stabilizer, Rudder, Aileron, & Brakes. Example : the warning for flap configuration would be " CONFIG FLAPS " |
|
|
Term
| When warning messages are generated by EICAS, they are accompanied by ? |
|
Definition
| A trrple chime, a flashing master warning light, and a voice advisory |
|
|
Term
| Where are EICAS advisory messages displayed ? |
|
Definition
| At the top of the status page |
|
|
Term
| When a caution message is generated it will be accom[panied by ? |
|
Definition
| A single chime, and a flashing master caution light |
|
|
Term
| When are Take Off configuration warnings generated ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the master warning lights are illuminated, pressing either light will do what ? |
|
Definition
| Cancel the alarm, and reset the system for future messages |
|
|
Term
| What color are warning messages ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color are caution messages ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color are status messages ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color are advisory messages ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do caution messages appear if there is a warning message ? |
|
Definition
| Cautions will appear below warning messages |
|
|
Term
| What does EICAS stand for ? |
|
Definition
| Engine Indicating Crew Alerting System |
|
|
Term
| How can you get rid of a warning message ? |
|
Definition
| Warning messages will only go away if the problem is fixed |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if you lose ED1 ? |
|
Definition
| The primary page will transfer to ED2 |
|
|
Term
| What sends signals to EICAS to generate warnings ? |
|
Definition
| DCU's data concentrator units. Most planes have 2 DCU's, however some older models have 3 |
|
|
Term
| How are the CRT's powered , by AC or DC ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are the CRT cooling fans AC or DC powered ? |
|
Definition
| AC. That is reason for the 5 minute limit on dc power only |
|
|
Term
| What does the LDU ( lamp driver unit ) do ? |
|
Definition
| The unit controls the panel and glareshield switch light illumination |
|
|
Term
| How is the lamp intensity set to bright or dim ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the PRI button on the ECP do ? |
|
Definition
| When pressed a primary page will be displayed on ED2 |
|
|
Term
| What does the STAT button on the ECP do ? |
|
Definition
| When pressed a status page will be displayed on ED2 |
|
|
Term
| Can you view all of the synoptic pages on ED2 when the ECP fails ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, by using the step button you can navigate through all the pages |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the MENU button on the ECP ? |
|
Definition
| Reset the fuel used, and the N1 reference can be set to display on the primary page |
|
|
Term
| What types of messages are displayed on ED1 ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of messages are displayed on ED2 ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the magenta color indicate on EICAS color logic ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the phases of flight that the DCU inhibits EICAS messages ? |
|
Definition
| Take off -Condition 1 : N1 > 79 % and less than 100 kts . Condition 2 : greater than 100 kts. Landing- Condition 3 : less than 400 ft AGL until 30 seconds after touch down or 400 ft AGL on go-around |
|
|
Term
| How do you get the maintenance screen on ED1 ? |
|
Definition
| The red gaurded switch on the circuit breaker panel |
|
|
Term
| What condition will cause the ECP to become inactive ? |
|
Definition
| Automatic transfer of the primary page to ED2, or a failure of ED2 |
|
|
Term
| What does the DRP ( display reversionary panel do ? |
|
Definition
| It allows either a PFD or EICAS to be displayed on the MFD |
|
|
Term
| Can an advisory message be cleared or boxed ? |
|
Definition
| No an advisory message can only be cleared by deselecting the switch that created it |
|
|
Term
| How can you view all the caution messages if there are more than one page ? |
|
Definition
| Pressing the CAS button will cycle through all the pages of caution messages |
|
|
Term
| Where does the Co-pilots PFD and MFD recieve their air data, altitude, and heading information from ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the event of a DCP failure, both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the : |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the slip/skid indicator ? |
|
Definition
| It is the rectangle underneath the roll pointer |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary purpose of the altitude alert system ? |
|
Definition
| To provide altitude awareness |
|
|
Term
| What is the scale of CDI deflection in FMS mode ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AHARS present alignment flags for how long during alignment ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are windshear warnings enabled ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a yellow IAS flag indicate ? |
|
Definition
| An airspeed mismatch between sides of 10 kts or more. A yellow IAS flag will be acompanied by an EFIS COMP MON on the right hand side of the airspeed tape |
|
|
Term
| What does a Red IAS flag indicate ? |
|
Definition
| Airspeed data has failed. It will appear in place of the airspeed tape |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the mach transducer levers ? |
|
Definition
| To isolate the mach transducers from the pitot static system |
|
|
Term
| How long will the AHARS operate in battery power ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what distance is DME shown in tenths ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the standby attitude indicator ? |
|
Definition
| It is a 28V DC gyro that displays GS and LOC information. |
|
|
Term
| How long will the standby attitude indicator last in the event of a power failure ? Approximately 9 minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for the AHARS to initialize ? |
|
Definition
| 30 - 70 seconds in MAG. 10 -10 1/2 minutes in DG. Airborne 10 - 35 seconds in straight and level flight |
|
|
Term
| On the ground prior to engine start, what does a 1/2 lateral deviation of the side slip indicator mean ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pitot static system provides information for the standby altimeter ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the DH recieve its info from ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the information inputs to the AFCS ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will radio altitude information be displayed on the PFD ? |
|
Definition
| Below 2500 feet AGL. Tape is displayed below 1500 feet AGL |
|
|
Term
| When would you get a TCAS RA ? |
|
Definition
| When intruding traffic is detected and closer rate detects a possible collision is within 25 seconds |
|
|
Term
| When will radar generate a PAC alert ? |
|
Definition
| When the all of the radar energy is being attentuated by a storm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Integrated Avionics Proccesing System |
|
|
Term
| How can you get cross side information displayed on the MFD ? |
|
Definition
| Push the cross side knob on the DCP |
|
|
Term
| What is the green line on the airspeed indicator display ? |
|
Definition
| The Low speed awareness cue. It represents approximately 1.26 VS |
|
|
Term
| What do the TAT probes provide information to ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions will produce a winshear caution ? |
|
Definition
| Increasing performance conditions. A headwind or updraft |
|
|
Term
| When is half bank automatically engaged ? |
|
Definition
| Passing through 31,600 feet |
|
|
Term
| True or false . The EGPWS automatically displays terrain info if there is a terrain warning regardless of what is displayed on the MFD ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does an RA provide command bar information ? |
|
Definition
| No. You will get avoidance information on the VSI only |
|
|
Term
| WX and Terrain information can be displayed on which pages ? |
|
Definition
| Navaid sector, TCAS, FMS map. ( any page with range ) |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the panel that allows the airspeeds to be set ? |
|
Definition
| ARP The Air data reference panel |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the panel that allows autopilot commands to be input ? |
|
Definition
| FCP The flight control panel |
|
|
Term
| What does a heading message on the PFDs indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A disagreement of 6 degrees or more between each AHARS |
|
|
Term
| What does an amber ROL message indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A difference of more than 4 degrees of roll ( 3 degrees if the glideslope has been captured ) |
|
|
Term
| What does ann amber pit message indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A difference of 4 degrees or more oif pitch ( 3 degrees if glideslope has been captured ) |
|
|
Term
| What does an amber ALT message indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A difference of 60 feet or more between PFDs |
|
|
Term
| What does an amber LOC message mean ? |
|
Definition
| There is a difference between localizer recievers |
|
|
Term
| What does an amber GS message mean ? |
|
Definition
| There is a difference between glideslope recievers |
|
|
Term
| What does an amber RA message indicate ? |
|
Definition
| A difference between radio altimeters below 1000 feet AGL |
|
|
Term
| Where is the TAT probe located ? |
|
Definition
| Underneath the First Officer's side window |
|
|
Term
| How can you remove MDA/DH settings from the PFD ? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the center of the knob |
|
|
Term
| What is considered a good radar altimeter check ? |
|
Definition
| When the RA TEST button is pressed it should indicate a RAD ALT of 50 feet |
|
|
Term
| How do you change the speed reference between IAS and MACH ? |
|
Definition
| By pressing the center of the speed knob |
|
|
Term
| How are high and low speed cues presented to the pilot ? |
|
Definition
| The red checker board on the airspeed scale. High speed indicates MMO/VMO and the Low speed indicated 1.06 VS |
|
|
Term
| What does the trend vector represent ? |
|
Definition
| Predicted Aircraft speed in 10 seconds |
|
|
Term
| When does the MACH window appear ? |
|
Definition
| It appears whe airspeed reaches .45 mach, and disappears when airspeed drops below .40 mach |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the barometeric altimeter ? |
|
Definition
| from - 1000 ft to 50,000 ft |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the altitude alert when the aircraft is passing through 1000 ft above or below selected altitude ? |
|
Definition
| The aural tone sounds and the altitude bug flashes |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the aircraft deviates from a selected altitude ? |
|
Definition
| At 200 ft deviation the aural tone sounds and the altitude bug flashes yellow ( a minor deviation will cause the bug to flash magenta ) |
|
|
Term
| What is the indication for a failed radio altimeter ? |
|
Definition
| An RA in a red box appears, and the RA tape and digital readouts disappear |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the ADC airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed fails ? |
|
Definition
| Red air data flags will replace the information on the PFD |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the aircraft descends to a negative altitude ? |
|
Definition
| A yellow NEG will be displayed next to the altimeter |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of the AHARS system ? |
|
Definition
| AHARS is made up of 2 computers, 2 flux detectors, and 2 compensator units |
|
|
Term
| When would you use DG mode on the compass control panel ? |
|
Definition
| In areas of magnetic field disruptions or during an AHARS heading failure |
|
|
Term
| What happens when you select DG on the compass selector panel ? |
|
Definition
| The flux detector no longer provides heading information |
|
|
Term
| What is the value of the vertical deviation dots on the glide slope ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the AMI ( alpha margin indicator ) ? |
|
Definition
| During a windshear warning the AMI indicates the maximum pitch angle up to 30 degrees that can be acheived before the stick shaker will be activated |
|
|
Term
| How long will the AMI be present during a windshear warning ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the heading bug is turned more than 180 degrees in heading mode which way will the aircraft turn ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If DME hold is selected will the FMS auto tune ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you tell if DME hold has been selected ? |
|
Definition
| An amber H repaces the NM of the navigation source on the PFD |
|
|
Term
| How can you find out what VOR and DME stations the FMS is currently using ? |
|
Definition
| By pulling up the VOR/DME status page |
|
|
Term
| What is the lateral deviation of the HSI ? |
|
Definition
| 1 dot = 5 miles in VOR, 1 dot = 1 dgree in LOC, 1 dot = 5 NM in FMS |
|
|
Term
| What does an amber A or E in a box on the attitude indicator mean ? |
|
Definition
| Ailerons or Elevator is out of trim |
|
|
Term
| What does a red boxed DCP mean ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you display radar on the MFD ? |
|
Definition
| Select the radar ON, and press the WX/TERR button on the DCP |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the FMS PLAN MAP function ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is electrical power required for stand by instruments ? |
|
Definition
| No, however the vibrator for the stanby altimeter is electric |
|
|
Term
| What is the NAV source for the standby attitude indicator, LOC, and GS ? |
|
Definition
| The VHF navigation reciever, or the BTU ( BTU will display com1, NAV 1 when in standby ) |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if a disply over temps ? |
|
Definition
| You will get a DISPLAY TEMP message , and information will be removed from the display. ( information returns once display has cooled ) |
|
|
Term
| What does the De-Clutter function do ? |
|
Definition
| During an unusual attitude all non-essential information will be removed from the PFD |
|
|
Term
| Where are the DME antennas ? |
|
Definition
| On the bottom of the fuselage just forward of the wing |
|
|
Term
| How many DME signals is the NAV sytem capable of recieving at one time ? |
|
Definition
| 6 - each VHF NAV reciever can recieve up to three stations at one time |
|
|
Term
| Can you use the FMS to tune the NAV radios ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, on the FMS radio page |
|
|
Term
| Where are the marker beacon antennas ? |
|
Definition
| Just forward of the aft equipment bay door |
|
|
Term
| How many transponders are installed ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the transponder antennas ? |
|
Definition
| Each transponder has two antennas, one on the upper forward fuselage, and one on the lower forward fuselage for each |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the EGPWS ? |
|
Definition
| To prevent CFIT 9 controlled flight into terrain ) and to provide windshear warnings |
|
|
Term
| What MFD formats allow terrain info to be displayed ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the EGPWS active ? |
|
Definition
| The EGPWS is always active |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the WX display is being used and the EGPWS produces a terrain warning ? |
|
Definition
| Terrain info will replace the radar |
|
|
Term
| Can the EGPWS warnings be inhibited ? |
|
Definition
| Yes, by pressing the GRD PROX over ride switch light |
|
|
Term
| When will the EGPWS produce a windshear warning ? |
|
Definition
| During decreasing performance conditions. Tailwind or a downdraft |
|
|
Term
| What is the monitoring range of the TCAS ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What TCAS warnings are accompanied by an aural alert ? |
|
Definition
| TA traffic advisory, and RA resolution advisory |
|
|
Term
| When will a threat symbol on TCAS produce an up/down arrow ? |
|
Definition
| When climbing or descending at at least 500 fpm |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of RA's ? |
|
Definition
| Preventative tells the pilot not to fly a certain direction. Corrective tells the pilot to change his present vertical flight path |
|
|
Term
| How fast should you respond to an RA ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you know what the correct vertical speed to maintain would be during an RA ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are RA warnings inhibited ? |
|
Definition
| Descending below 900 feet agl, and climbing below 1100 feet agl |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 selectable modes of the TCAS ? |
|
Definition
| STBY = all interrogations are prohibited AUTO = RAs and TAs will be provided. TA ONLY = only TAs will be provided |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between REL and ABS on the TCAS ? |
|
Definition
| ABS is absolute altitude based on barometric pressure. REL is relative altitude based on the difference between the altitude of the two aircraft |
|
|
Term
| Explain NORM, ABOVE, BELOW functions of the TCAS. |
|
Definition
| NORM scans 2700 feet above and below the aircraft. ABOVE scans 9900 feet above and 2700 feet below. BELOW scans 9900 feet below and 2700 feet above the aircraft |
|
|
Term
| Does the OFF mode of the radar park the antenna ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the radar transmit during the test ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the danger zone in front of the radar ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the degree range of the radar tilt ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How wide is the radar beam ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tilt setting would you use to put the bottom of the beam level with the aircraft ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the STAB button on the radar do ? |
|
Definition
| Automatically stabalizes the radar to maintain desired tilt during turns and pitch changes |
|
|
Term
| What does the SEC button do ? |
|
Definition
| Cycles the radar sweep between 60 degrees and 30 degrees allowing for a faster return during shorter sweep |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of auto-tilt ? |
|
Definition
| To maintain a constant tilt angle during changes to altitude and range |
|
|
Term
| What is the MAP function of the radar used for ? |
|
Definition
| Mapping terrain ( PAC alerts and GCS are disabled ) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ground clutter suppresion. Used to reduce ground returns on radar |
|
|
Term
| True or False. The TCF ( Terrain Clearance Floor ) data base contains all airports with a runway greater than 3500 feet ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False. The TAAD ( Terrain awareness alerting and display ) data base contains terrain information for the U.S and Canada ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When no sensor data is available, what mode will the FMS NAV in ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when ALT is pressed on the FCP ? |
|
Definition
| The auto pilot will maintain the pressure altitude at the time of selection |
|
|
Term
| When the auto pilot is engaged, will the FD sync switch be operative ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the TURB button do ? |
|
Definition
| It reduces auto pilot gain making adjustments more subtle |
|
|
Term
| What does pushing the center of the ALT knob do ? |
|
Definition
| It cancels altitude alerts both aural, and visual |
|
|
Term
| What doe the witness lights on the FCP indicate ? |
|
Definition
| They indicate that the FCC has acknowledged the input |
|
|
Term
| Will the loss of one FCC disable the auto pilot ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary means of determining the flight director mode of operations ? |
|
Definition
| The FMA flight mode annunciator |
|
|
Term
| What are the three modes of the " speed " button ? |
|
Definition
| 1- Climb or descend 2- IAS or Mach 3- Pitch |
|
|
Term
| What does pushing the AP XFER button on the FCP do ? |
|
Definition
| It transfers auto pilot control from FCC 1 to FCC 2 |
|
|
Term
| Does pushing the TOGA buttons disconnect the auto pilot ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Selecting various FD modes is accomplished how ? |
|
Definition
| Making selections on the FCP |
|
|
Term
| If a new FD mode becomes active what will the indication be ? |
|
Definition
| It will flash green five times then then turn green |
|
|
Term
| When is the missed approach shown on the MFD ? |
|
Definition
| When missed approach is active, or when it has been selected |
|
|
Term
| What two ways can the FD command bars be flown ? |
|
Definition
| Manually, or by the auto pilot |
|
|
Term
| How many FCC's ( flight control computers ) are there ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do the FCC's recieve their information from ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IAre the yaw dampers part of the auto pilot system ? |
|
Definition
| No they are independant. The auto pilot is a two axis system that works in conjunction with the yaw dampers |
|
|
Term
| How long does the command generated by the TOGA button last ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the TURB mode available on approach ? |
|
Definition
| No it will dissengage when the LOC is captured |
|
|
Term
| What are the lateral modes on the FCP ? |
|
Definition
| TO, ROLL, HDG, NAV, APPR, B/C, 1/2 BANK |
|
|
Term
| What is the default lateral mode ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the default vertical mode ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will the indication be when the aircraft reaches 1000 ft of the selected ALT ? |
|
Definition
| An aural tone will sound, and a flashing ALTS |
|
|
Term
| When the aircraft deviates from a selected ALT by + or - 100 feet what will the indication be ? |
|
Definition
| The altitude bug will flash and be accompanied by an aural tone |
|
|
Term
| What does each click of the pitch wheel equate to when in VS mode ? |
|
Definition
| A climb or descent rate of 100 ft per minute |
|
|
Term
| What two systems are integrated by the AFCS ? |
|
Definition
| The FD ( flight director ) and the auto pilot |
|
|
Term
| What are the four system components of the AFCS ? |
|
Definition
| The FCP, 2 FCCs, 2 auto pilot servo motors, and both yaw dampers |
|
|
Term
| Where does the FD recieve its data from ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During normal ops both one FD is supplying info to both PFD's, When would both FD's be active and providing onside info ? |
|
Definition
| Take Off mode, Approach mode, and Go Around mode |
|
|
Term
| What happens when a FD fails ? |
|
Definition
| A FD FAIL status message is generated and a red FD in a box will appear on the PFD's |
|
|
Term
| What are the two fields of the FMA ? |
|
Definition
| The left side is active and the right side is armed |
|
|
Term
| What will the indication be if any of the information in the FMA is invalid ? |
|
Definition
| It will be replaced by a red line where the information would normally be displayed |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the FD SYNC button ? |
|
Definition
| When the auto pilot is not active it will sync the FD to the current vertical and lateral modes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When a TOGA button is pressed, a green TO will be displayed on the FMA. in the vertical and lateral modes. The lateral mode will hold aircraft heading at the time of take off and the pitch mode will set to 15 degrees pitch up. |
|
|
Term
| When the LOC is captured what will automatically clear if engaged ? |
|
Definition
| Heading mode, half bank, and the turbulence mode |
|
|
Term
| What course must be selected when activating the B/C mode ? |
|
Definition
| The front course must be set for B/C mode to work |
|
|
Term
| What does the 1/2 bank button do ? |
|
Definition
| It limits the FD bank angle to 15 degrees |
|
|
Term
| How is a pre-selected altitude armed when it is set in the altitude alerter ? |
|
Definition
| It becomes armed when a vertical mode is selected |
|
|
Term
| How is the altitude capturing point of the FD determined ? |
|
Definition
| It is determined by closure rate. |
|
|
Term
| What are the vertical modes or the FD ? |
|
Definition
| ALTS, PITCH, TO, GA, GS, VS, IAS, DES, CLB, ALT |
|
|
Term
| With the FD in TO mode what will happen if an engine fails ? |
|
Definition
| The FD pitch will reduce to 10 degrees |
|
|
Term
| What must you do before selecting a vertical mode on the FCP ? |
|
Definition
| Select a new ALT in the ALT pr-select |
|
|
Term
| At what altitude does the airspeed automatically change from IAS to MACH ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you press the TOGA during a go-around what will the pitch angle of the FD be ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What control surfaces do the auto pilot servos control ? |
|
Definition
| Elevators and ailerons only. rudder control is accomplished by the yaw dampers |
|
|
Term
| What conditions must exsist before the auto pilot can be engaged ? |
|
Definition
| The aircraft must be in a stable flight condition. both FCCs must be operating, At least one yaw damper must be engaged, At least one channel of horizontal stabilizer is engaged and the HSTCU detects no faults |
|
|
Term
| With the auto pilot engaged, what will the indication be if the aircraft is out of trim ? |
|
Definition
| You will recieve an AP trim caution message. example AP trim is LWD, RWD, ND or NU |
|
|
Term
| How do you know the AP has been disconnected ? |
|
Definition
| A red AP will flash on the PFD and an aural warning ( cavalry charge ) sounds for five seconds |
|
|
Term
| What are the methods of disconnecting the auto pilot ? |
|
Definition
| Pressing the YD DISC, Pressing either TOGA, pressing the AP ENG button, AP DISC on the FCP, Stab trim split switches, AP/SP DISC on the yoke |
|
|
Term
| What will cause the auto pilot to automatically disengage ? |
|
Definition
| Windshear, Stall warning, Failure of both Yaw Dampers, or Unusual attitudes |
|
|
Term
| What are the eight ways the auto pilot will disconnect ? |
|
Definition
| 1- If both yaw dampers dissengage 2- AP button on the FCP is pressed 3- TOGA buttons 4- operating the manual pitch trim 5- switching to the standby FCC 6- lowering the AP disc bar 7- auto pilot DISC on the yoke is pressed 8- 2 seconds after a winshear warning it will auto disconnect |
|
|
Term
| Will the auto pilot disconnect during a windshear warning ? |
|
Definition
| During a warning ( red ) it will dissconnect in 2 seconds. During an alert ( amber ) it will not disconnect |
|
|
Term
| The APU exhaust danger area is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The maximum landing weight for the CL-65 is..... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Following the first unsuccessful engine start attempt (less than 1 minute), it is recommended that an additional start attempt be made after observing what time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum battery voltage required on both batteries to start the APU? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fuel for the APU is delivered by the APU/XFLOW pump from the following tank(s) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The APU LCV serves what purpose? |
|
Definition
A) Pressurizes the left 10th stage bleed air manifold with APU bleed air
B)Helps limit the turbine temperature so that the APU doesn’t exceed max EGT
C)Prevents high pressure 10th stage engine bleed air from back-flowing into the APU |
|
|
Term
Which parameter will not cause a take-off configuration warning?
A) Flaps
B) Spoilers
C) Doors
D) Trim |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the galley service door and the avionics bay door have in common? |
|
Definition
| Both are displayed in AMBER on the DOORS page when opened |
|
|
Term
| A single TRU has an output capability of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which TRU is powered by the ADG indirectly during an ADG deployment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In flight, when will both AC UTILITY busses automatically load shed? |
|
Definition
| During single generator operations |
|
|
Term
| The illumination of the IDG FAULT light indicates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ADG supplies AC power to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Single pack operation is limited to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CL-65 has two outflow valves; |
|
Definition
| Both require 10th stage bleed air, that generates vacuum to open the valves |
|
|
Term
| When selected, the EMER DEPRESS switch on the CABIN PRESS panel will: |
|
Definition
| Command both outflow valves to open |
|
|
Term
| When the ENG FIRE PUSH switch is pressed in, it will: |
|
Definition
A)Arm the fire bottle squibs
B)Close the fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shutoff valves (SOV’s)
C)Trips the engine driven generator relay to OFF |
|
|
Term
| The Cargo FIREX bottle is discharged: |
|
Definition
| By a switch on the CARGO FIREX panel |
|
|
Term
| Which area(s) have only an overheat detection system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following conditions would be the minimum required for the ground and flight spoilers to auto-deploy with the thrust levers at idle? |
|
Definition
| L or R MLG WOW, Wheel Speed greater than 16 kts |
|
|
Term
| With an aileron system jam, the ROLL DISC handle is pulled and the pilot with the operable controls selects the ROLL SEL switch to: |
|
Definition
| Gain control of the on-side spoileron |
|
|
Term
The HSTCU has a priority logic. Which one of the following has the highest priority?
A) Mach trim input
B) AFCS trim input
C) Auto-trim input
D) Pilot trim input |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE/FALSE: It takes both loops in the engine nacelle to detect a fire to generate an EICAS “ENG FIRE” warning message? (Both loops operable) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a PFD fails, PFD information can be displayed on the MFD by the: |
|
Definition
| Display Reversionary Panel |
|
|
Term
| Your main tanks were fueled to 4400 lbs each. What is the maximum amount of fuel allowed in the center tank for takeoff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum amount of fuel by pressure refueling: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ejector pumps are used to move fuel from the main tank to the collector tanks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the left main tank quantity is low (compared to the right main tank) and auto cross flow begins, the fuel will be taken from the following tank(s): |
|
Definition
| Left and Right main tanks |
|
|
Term
| You have just done a left engine in-flight shutdown. Which hydraulic pump(s) have you lost? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic system(s) are cooled by RAM air during flight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic pumps do the engines mechanically drive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic pump is powered by the ADG during total AC loss? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hydraulic system number 3 pumps are located: |
|
Definition
| In the fuselage just aft of the landing gear bays |
|
|
Term
| In flight, the cowl anti-ice system must be on when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system or when in visible moisture and less than 1 mile visibility and temperature is less than _________, except when the SAT is –40 degrees C or below. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which buttons on the EICAS control panel (ECP) remain active if the ECP loses power? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the gear handle fails, what brings the gear down safely when the emergency gear extension handle is pulled? |
|
Definition
| Gravity and Hydraulic system #2 |
|
|
Term
| The anti-skid system provides protection: |
|
Definition
| After a 35 knot wheel spin up and provides protection down to 10 knots |
|
|
Term
| When the EMER LTS switch is in the ARMED position, the emergency lights will come on automatically if: |
|
Definition
| The AC essential and / or DC essential bus(es) lose power |
|
|
Term
| The passenger oxygen system consists of: |
|
Definition
| Oxygen generators and masks that deploy automatically at 14,000’ cabin alt. |
|
|
Term
| During your preflight walkaround, you discover that the green blowout disk on the lower right side of the fuselage is missing. This indicates: |
|
Definition
| Over-pressure in the O2 bottle has occurred |
|
|
Term
| 10th stage bleed-air is used for: |
|
Definition
| Avionics cooling, air-conditioning, engine start and pressurization |
|
|
Term
| 14th stage bleed-air is used for: |
|
Definition
| Thrust reversers, wing and cowl anti-ice |
|
|
Term
| The lowest permissible altitude with the autopilot engaged during a visual approach is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 10th stage bleed air SOV’s are spring loaded (fail-safe) , and the 14th stage bleed air SOV’s are spring-loaded (fail-safe) . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During engine start, when will starter & ignition cutout automatically occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to introducing fuel during an engine start, the ITT should be ________ or less for all ground starts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does thrust reverse activation have on the anti-ice system? |
|
Definition
| Wing and cowl anti-ice valves are automatically closed |
|
|
Term
| Which DC TIE(s) have an automatic function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Auto-Flight Control System modes generate both lateral and vertical guidance? |
|
Definition
| Takeoff, Go-around and Approach |
|
|
Term
| Which power source feeds the emergency lighting system? |
|
Definition
| Independent rechargeable batteries for 15 minutes |
|
|
Term
| An APU fire on the ground will cause: |
|
Definition
| The APU to shut down, FIREX bottle to discharge, and an EICAS MSG |
|
|
Term
| The first item on this flow is to select Prior to takeoff, the First Officer performs the before takeoff flow. t XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN. Why is this done? |
|
Definition
| During takeoff the auto cross-flow system my inadvertently cross-flow fuel due to false fuel quantity indications during rotation on takeoff |
|
|
Term
| What is the Maximum speed to extend the flaps from 0 to 8 degrees? (AWAC Min.) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will the illumination of the overhead amber ICE light occur? |
|
Definition
| Wing and cowl anti-ice selected OFF and ice is detected |
|
|
Term
| Automatic Performance Reserve (APR) will produce a 2% increase in thrust in the event of an engine failure on takeoff. What is the 2% increase added to? |
|
Definition
| The current N1 thrust indication on ED1 |
|
|
Term
| During a GEAR BAY OVERHEAT warning, the QRH would instruct the pilot to first slow the aircraft to kts, and then lower the gear. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Maximum crosswind for dry conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When can the APU bleed air be used for engine starts in flight? |
|
Definition
| 13,000 ft. and below for a dual engine failure |
|
|
Term
| Data Concentrator Units (DCU’s) are located in the avionics bay and are used to |
|
Definition
| Process and format all aircraft operating information and transmits the data to EICAS displays, IAPS, lamp driver units, and the flight data recorder |
|
|
Term
| What is the generator priority for AC BUS 2? |
|
Definition
| Gen 2 – APU – Gen 1 – External AC |
|
|
Term
Compute the following landing distance problem with the information given. Please compute the headwind into the landing distance.
Airport condition: Moderate Rain
Flaps: 45
Landing weight: 45,900 LBS
Airport pressure altitude: 1920 ft
Runway: 9L (090º)
Wind: 030º @ 30 Kts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum runway depth of wet snow covering an appreciable part of the runway for takeoff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would be the maximum permissible ambient temperature for takeoff at Denver
International Airport, which has a field elevation of 5,400 FT?
A) 50* C
B) 35* C
C) 39* C
D) 34* C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Takeoff configuration warnings will occur during takeoff when |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The “B” Hydraulic pumps will come ON automatically in flight under what condition with the switches in AUTO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With the parking brake set and all hydraulic systems OFF, which brakes will hold for a prolonged period of time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will the passenger masks automatically deploy? |
|
Definition
| When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000’ |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal system fluid quantity for each hydraulic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe what happens from arming the ignition to pressing the start button for engine start. |
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Definition
| Pressing the A or B arms the ignition, pressing start energizes the ignition opens the start valve, 10th stage sovs and ISOL valve. It uses 10th stage bleed air to spin the starter which spins the n2. at 20%n2 and below 120ITT fuel is introduced by the pilot advancing the thrust lever. at 55% it closes the start valve and cuts out the starter. Ignition remains armed until the captain turns it off in his after start flow. |
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Term
| How long is the aircraft? |
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Definition
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