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Random Questions
Random System Questions for the CRJ-200
868
Aviation
Professional
08/23/2010

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Term
How long is the aircraft?
Definition
87' 1"
Term
How wide is the aircraft from wingtip to wingtip?
Definition
69' 8 "
Term
How tall is the CRJ from the ground to the top of the horizontal stabilizer?
Definition
20' 8"
Term
How wide is the track between the main wheels?
Definition
10' 4"
Term
How large is the APU exhaust danger area?
Definition
15'
Term
How large is the radar hazard area?
Definition
2'
Term
How large is the intake danger area at idle thrust?
Definition
12'
Term
How large is the intake danger area at max thrust?
Definition
25'
Term
How large is the exhaust danger area at idle thrust?
Definition
Approximately 70'.
Term
How large is the exhaust danger area at max thrust?
Definition
Approximately 170'.
Term
How far is it from the ground to the top of the winglet?
Definition
9' 6"
Term
How many external emergency lights are there?
Definition
8 ( Four per side )
Term
How much pavement is required to make a 180 degree turn?
Definition
75'
Term
How many degrees will the nose wheel turn when using the tiller?
Definition
70 degrees.
Term
How many degrees will the nose wheel turn using the rudder pedals?
Definition
5 degrees.
Term
What is the purpose of the winglets?
Definition
The winglets increase aspect ratio, decrease wingtip vorticies, and improve fuel efficiency and performance.
Term
How are the emergency lights powered?
Definition
4 rechargeable batteries that last 15 minutes.
Term
How long is the escape rope?
Definition
15'
Term
How many doors does the CRJ 200 have, and where are they located?
Definition
8 - avionics bay, main cabin, galley service, crew escape hatch, RT & LT overwing emergency, aft equipment bay, & the cargo bay.
Term
Which doors may be used in an evacuation?
Definition
The main cabin door, galley service door, escape hatch, & both overawing exits.
Term
What is the weight restriction on the main cabin door?
Definition
1000 lbs, or 4 passengers.
Term
Which doors are monitored by PSEU's?
Definition
All doors are monitored except for the escape hatch and the aft equipment bay.
Term
What secures the main cabin door?
Definition
Pre- Phase four doors have three locking pins, and two cam latches. Phase four doors have 4 pins two per side and two cam locks.
Term
Which doors are plug type doors?
Definition
The galley service door, escape hatch, cargo door, avionics bay door, & both overawing exits.
Term
How can you verify that the main cabin door is closed?
Definition
The green alignment marks on the locking pins and cam locks. Pre-phase four doors will also indicate locked when the handle is stowed.
Term
Can the escape hatch be opened from the outside?
Definition
Yes.
Term
Can the overawing exits be interchanged?
Definition
No.
Term
Can the overawing exits be opened from the outside?
Definition
Yes.
Term
Can the aft equipment bay be opened if the aircraft is pressurized ?
Definition
Yes, the aft equipment bay is not a pressurized compartment.
Term
How can you verify that the galley service door is closed?
Definition
There is a green indicator below the inside handle.
Term
Can any of the doors be controlled from the flight deck?
Definition
The escape hatch can be manually controlled from the flight deck. All others may be monitored only on EICAS.
Term
What external lights make the aircraft visible to other aircraft ?
Definition
Nav lights, anti-collision ( strobes ), rotating beacons, and logo lights.
Term
What lights must be on for the flight data recorder to operate?
Definition
The strobes, or the beacon.
Term
Where are the strobe lights located?
Definition
One on each wing tip and one on the tail.
Term
How many landing lights are there?
Definition
4 ( Two in the nose, and one on each wing ).
Term
How many taxi / recog lights are there?
Definition
2 ( One in each wing root ).
Term
How are the sidewall and ceiling lights in the cabin controlled?
Definition
They are controlled by switches on the flight attendant's panel.
Term
What compartments have service lights?
Definition
The avionics bay, aft equipment bay, cargo bay, and nose gear wheel well.
Term
How do you control the floodlight at the forward entrance?
Definition
With the dome switch on the flight attendants panel.
Term
What does the " Auto " position of the NO SMKG and SEAT BELTS switch do?
Definition
In the auto position, with the flaps extended, the seat belt sign will illuminate. When the gear is extended both lights illuminate. When the cabin altitude reaches 1000' both signs illuminate.
Term
What system activates the NO SMKG and SEAT BELTS sign when cabin altitude reaches 10000'?
Definition
CPAM.
Term
With the emergency switch in "Auto", when will the emergency lights come on?
Definition
When essential DC or essential AC power is lost.
Term
What will happen if the emergency lights are in the " Off" position, with power on the aircraft?
Definition
You will get an EMER LTS OFF caution message accompanied by a single chime.
Term
What do the emergency lights consist of?
Definition
The exit signs, ceiling emergency floodlights, floor level emergency floodlights, floor track emergency lights or illumine cent strips, floor level exit signs, and exterior emergency lights.
Term
What is the max pressure of the flight deck oxygen bottle ?
Definition
1850 psi
Term
Where is the flight deck oxygen bottle located ?
Definition
Under the floor on the right side of the flight deck
Term
Where can you read the flight deck oxygen pressure ?
Definition
On EICAS, and also on the gauge in the oxygen services panel
Term
What is the source of supplemental oxygen for the flight crew?
Definition
A pressurized oxygen cylinder provides emergency oxygen to the three masks on the flight deck.
Term
What are the three modes of the oxygen masks?
Definition
Normal, 100%, and Emergency.
Term
When do you get the " OXY LO PRESS " caution message?
Definition
When the oxygen pressure is at or below 1410 psi.
Term
A white flag in view on the oxygen mask indicates what?
Definition
The oxygen shutoff valve is open.
Term
How can you confirm oxygen flow to the mask?
Definition
A yellow cross on the oxygen blinker.
Term
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
Definition
When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000 ' or greater.
Term
At what altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically provide 100% oxygen?
Definition
30,000 '.
Term
How long does the passenger oxygen last?
Definition
13 minutes.
Term
How many medical oxygen bottles are on board?
Definition
2 ( Each bottle is charged to 1500-1800 psi ).
Term
Where is the oxygen services panel?
Definition
The right side of the forward fuselage.
Term
How can you identify an oxygen overpressure?
Definition
The green oxygen blow out plug on the fuselage will be missing. EICAS pressure will read 0 psi, and you will have an " OXY LO PRESS" caution message.
Term
How can you manually deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
Definition
By pressing the PASS OXY switch light.
Term
How do you purge the oxygen mask of smoke?
Definition
By pressing the emergency control knob on the mask.
Term
What controls the automatic dropping of the passenger masks?
Definition
CPAM ( cabin pressure acquisition module ).
Term
What provides oxygen to the passenger masks?
Definition
Chemical oxygen generators that provide 13 minutes of oxygen once the rubber tubing on the mask has been pulled.
Term
Why is it dangerous to touch an oxygen generator when in use?
Definition
They become very hot.
Term
How many potable water tanks are on the aircraft?
Definition
2 ( One forward and one aft ).
Term
Where are the controls for the potable water systems?
Definition
In the galley.
Term
Is potable water heated?
Definition
Yes. Both tanks have heaters. The drain masts, drain lines and hoses to the galley are also heated.
Term
Where are the fill ports for the water systems?
Definition
On the right side of the fuselage. One forward, and one aft.
Term
Where is the access panel for the waste system located?
Definition
On the right rear of the fuselage.
Term
How many volts are required to start the APU?
Definition
22
Term
What are the APU start cycle limits using ground power?
Definition
2 X 15 seconds ON - 20 minutes OFF. 2 X 15 seconds ON - 40 minutes OFF.
Term
What are the APU start cycle limits using the APU battery?
Definition
2 X 30 seconds ON - 20 minutes OFF. 2 X 30 seconds ON - 40 minutes OFF
Term
When does the white APU starter message go out?
Definition
At 50 % rpm.
Term
At what speed will the AVAIL light illuminate?
Definition
At 99 % rpm.
Term
What conditions will cause the APU to automatically shut down in flight?
Definition
Fire, Over speed, RPM signal loss, Loss of DC power, ECU loss, or a slow start ( less than 50% for 60 seconds ).
Term
What conditions will cause the APU to automatically shut down on the ground?
Definition
Fire, Over speed, RPM signal loss, Loss of DC power, ECU loss, Slow start, Over temp, Over current, Low oil pressure, High oil temp,EGT signal loss, or loss of door signal.
Term
What four things happen when you press the APU power fuel switch?
Definition
The APU SOV opens, the APU Door opens, APU gauges appear, and the APU in BITE status message appears.
Term
Starting the APU requires which battery?
Definition
Both ( The APU ECU gets power from main battery, and APU starter gets power from APU battery ).
Term
What is the maximum time you can leave an aircraft with the APU running?
Definition
5 minutes.
Term
What does the APU GEN OFF message indicate?
Definition
The APU has been at 100 % rpm for 30 seconds or more and the generator switch is OFF.
Term
What is the APU's primary function?
Definition
To drive the 30 KVA electric generator.
Term
When will the APU starter auto cut off?
Definition
At 50% rpm on a normal start, or with a start cycle greater than 60 seconds with the rpm below 50%.
Term
The APU ECU protects the APU compressor against surge by opening and closing what?
Definition
The APU variable diffusers.
Term
The APU requires which busses to start?
Definition
The APU battery direct bus ( Apu door, and starter ) The Main battery direct buss ( ECU interface ) and the battery buss ( PSEU's and APU ECU ).
Term
The APU modulates APU bleed air through what valve?
Definition
The APU LCV ( load control valve ).
Term
The APU ECU ensures priority is given to what APU function?
Definition
Electrical loads.
Term
What will happen if you have an APU fire on the ground?
Definition
The APU will shut down, the APU Firex bottle discharges, and an external horn will sound.
Term
Where does the APU get its fuel?
Definition
It is fed fuel directly from both main tanks via the APU/XFLOW pump.
Term
Will the APU shut down in flight for an over temp?
Definition
NO.
Term
APU provides pneumatic air for what two things?
Definition
Engine starts and air conditioning.
Term
What is the max altitude for using APU bleeds?
Definition
15,000'.
Term
When do the igniters energize during the APU start cycle?
Definition
They energize at 4% rpm, and remain on until 95% rpm.
Term
To get APU bleed air to the right pack what do you need to do ?
Definition
Open the 10th stage ISOL valve and the LCV
Term
Why do you not wait between pushing the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight and the start switchlight, when starting the APU in flight ?
Definition
Air entering the door will spin the turbine if it reaches 8% before the start switch is pushed the ECU will not allow the APU to start
Term
What is the max altitude for using APU bleed air to start the engine ?
Definition
13,000 '
Term
What does the APU LCV valve modulate ?
Definition
variable geometry diffusers
Term
What is the max rpm for the APU ?
Definition
107% above that shutdown occurs
Term
What is the max ITT for the APU ?
Definition
743 degrees C is the beginning of the red arc, temp may rise as high as 974 degrees during start with less than 50% rpm
Term
What is the purpose of the APU ECU ?
Definition
It controlls all functions of the APU
Term
What powers the APU ECU ?
Definition
The APU PWR/FUEL switchlight
Term
What maintains a constant 12000 APU rpm for the generator ?
Definition
APU gear box
Term
What is the electrical rating on the APU generator ?
Definition
30 KVA
Term
How long do you need to wait between start attemps on the APU ?
Definition
2- minutes
Term
APU bleed pressure read out can be monitered where ?
Definition
EICAS ECS synoptic page
Term
What is the max operating altitude of the APU ?
Definition
37,000'
Term
Is the APU ECU AC or DC powered ?
Definition
DC
Term
What are the three positions of the APU door ?
Definition
Closed, Mid, Open
Term
`What is the airspeed limitation if the APU is deffered, with the door open ?
Definition
300 kts
Term
How is the APU lubricated ?
Definition
It has its own self-contained lubrication system
Term
How many pounds per hour does the APU burn with a bleed and electrical load ?
Definition
Aprox. 120 lbs per hour
Term
How does the APU recieve its fuel if the XFLOW/APU pump fails ?
Definition
the APU negative gravity relief valve which is pressurized by the right engine fuel feed manifold
Term
How many igniters does the APU have ?
Definition
2- airgap igniter plugs
Term
Cant the APU be shut down from outside the aircraft ?
Definition
Yes there is a remote cut-off switch at the external services panel, and also in the aft equipment bay
Term
What does it mean if you get a white DOOR message on EICAS with amber dashes ---
Definition
The APU door position is unknown by the ECU
Term
What does pushing the START/STOP switch do when the APU is runnig ?
Definition
It simulates an overspeed condition > 107% and The ECU closes the fuel solenoid valve, shutting down the
Term
What is the purpose of the screened vent on the left rear fuselage ?
Definition
It allows air to get to the fan on the APU gearbox, which cools the APU oil and provides ventilation of the APU compartment
Term
What accesories are driven by the APU gear boix ?
Definition
The AC generator, The FCU ( fuel control unit ) , oil cooling fan, oil pump, and the electric starter
Term
Where is the APU located ?
Definition
Inside a fire proof enclosure in the aft equipment bay
Term
What is the secondary function of the APU ?
Definition
To provide bleed air for air conditioning and engine starts
Term
How do you open the APU fuel feed shut off valve SOV ?
Definition
Pressing the PWR/FUEL switchlight
Term
What are the four fire and overheat subsystems ( four areas ) ?
Definition
Engine, APU, Main landing gear, Jet pipe & pylons
Term
What areas have smoke detection ?
Definition
Lav and Cargo Bay
Term
Dual loop detection is provided where ?
Definition
Engines, jet pipes and pylons and the APU
Term
What area has single loop detection ?
Definition
Wheel wells
Term
What two areas have smoke detection capabilities ?
Definition
Cargo bay ( has two detectors ) and the Lavatory
Term
The cargo bay Firex bottles are designed to allow quick release of halon, followed by a slow relase charge that lasts how long ?
Definition
45 minutes
Term
How is the lavatory halon bottle discharged ?
Definition
A heat sensitive capsule that melts discharging the bottle
Term
Pushing the Engine fire pushlight does what ?
Definition
Closes the Fuel, Hydraulic, and Bleed SOV's, Takes the engine driven generator off line, and arms the squibs to the affected engine
Term
What will happen if an APU fire happens on the ground ?
Definition
APU will shut down, APU FIREX bottle will discharge , and a horn will sound
Term
How can you silence the fire bell ?
Definition
By pushing either Engine Fire Pushlight
Term
What happens when cargo smoke is detected ?
Definition
A cargo smoke EICAS message is generated, power is removed from the cargo compartment fan and heater, and the cargo compartment air is shut off
Term
What does the "FAIL" position on the fire test switch do ?
Definition
Simulates a system failure
Term
What does the "Warn" position off the fire test switch do ?
Definition
Simulates a fire condition
Term
What is the indication of a fire in the Lav ?
Definition
SMOKE TOILET " caution message and aural warning
Term
The fire protection system is made up two seperate subsystems , what are they ?
Definition
detection and extinguishing
Term
What busses provide power for the fire protection system ?
Definition
Detection is on the DC BATT BUS, and protection is provided by the DC EMER BUS
Term
What is the EICAS indication for a short in a fire loop ?
Definition
FIRE FAIL message
Term
What does a missing message during the fire WARN test indicate ?
Definition
The system has detected an open loop
Term
How does the fire detection control sense a fire ?
Definition
By monitoring the electrical resistance of the fire loops.
Term
What must the fire control unit sense in order to send a FIRE message to EICAS ?
Definition
It must detect the same decrease in loop resistance witin na preset time.
Term
What part of the engine has fire detecting capabilities , but no extinguishing ability ?
Definition
Jet pipe
Term
What ducting runs through the jet pipe area ?
Definition
10th and 14th bleed air ducts are contained in the jet pipe area
Term
What are two benefits of having the dual loop detection system ?
Definition
Aircraft can still be dispatched with one loop inoperable, and also minimizes false fire warnings
Term
What chemical is contained in the fire bottles ?
Definition
Halon that is pressurized by nitrogen
Term
Where are the engine fir extinguishers located ?
Definition
In the aft equipment bay
Term
Can the right engine bottle only be discharged into the right engine?
Definition
No it can be discharged into either engine determined by whichever switchlight is pressed
Term
Explain the positions of the ENG, JET, and APU selector switches on the fire detection control panel ?
Definition
A: the system only monitors loop A, B: the system only monitors loop B, Both monitors both loops at the same time
Term
What happens when the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight is pushed after it has been activated ?
Definition
An electrical current fires the squib on the associated bottle discharging it into the engine
Term
Does the APU have a single or dual loop detection syatem ?
Definition
Dual loop
Term
Will the Halon automatically discharge if an APU fire is detected ?
Definition
On the ground it will automatically discarge, In flight it must be discharged by the crew
Term
How many squbs does the APU bottle have ?
Definition
Two
Term
Where are the APU fire loops located ?
Definition
They are wrapped around the APU enclosure
Term
Where is the APU bottle located ?
Definition
In the aft equipment bay beside the APU enclosure
Term
What happens when the APU FIRE PUSH switch light is pressed ?
Definition
APU generator is taken off line, APU LCV is closed, APU fuel feed SOV is closed, APU shuts down by closing the fuel solenoid valve, and both squibs are armed illuminating the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switch light
Term
Can the cargo smoke detectors give a false alarm ?
Definition
Yes they can be set off by radios, exhaust from ground equipment or even fog
Term
What does the CARGO BOTTLE test switch on the fire detection panel do ?
Definition
Tests the fire extinguishing and smoke detection syatems in the cargo bay
Term
Where is the smoke detector in the lav ?
Definition
On the ceiling
Term
What happens when the smoke detector self test switch is pressed on the lavatory smoke detector ?
Definition
A red light on the detectoe illuminates accompanied by an alarm, and the EICAS will show an amber SMOKE TOILET message
Term
Can you reset the smoke detector in the lav ?
Definition
Yes by pushing the test/ reset button
Term
Where is fire extinguishing provided in the lav ?
Definition
In the waste bin only
Term
Where is the fire extiguisher on the flight deck ?
Definition
Behind the first officer
Term
What is the indication if the fire loop in the gear bay fails ?
Definition
MLG OVHT FAIL message
Term
What would the indication be if one fire loop detects a fire condition and the other does not ?
Definition
L or R FIRE FAIL message
Term
What type of engines does the CRJ 200 have ?
Definition
General Electric CF-34-3B1
Term
What is the sea level thrust ratings on the CF-34-3B1 ?
Definition
8729 lbs normal thrust, 9220 lbs APR operating
Term
Describe the CF-34-3B1 engine ?
Definition
It is a dual rotor free turbine engine,. The N1 fan is driven by a 4 stage low pressure turbine. The N2 section is a 14 stage compressor driven by a two stage high pressure turbine
Term
Which section of the engine drives the accessory gear box ?
Definition
The N2 section
Term
What two paths can air take through the engine ?
Definition
Either through the bypass fan , or through the core
Term
How much of the thrust is provided by the bypass fan ?
Definition
approximately 80 %
Term
At low power settings is the engine N1 or N2 speed controlled ?
Definition
At low power settings it is N2 controlled. At high power settings above 79% N1 with the engine speed switches on, it is N1 controlled
Term
What three sources of air pressure may be used to start the engine ?
Definition
APU bleed air, Ground air ( Huffer cart or bottle ), or tenth stage engine cross bleed air
Term
The engine start switch does what ?
Definition
Opens all tenth stage valves, Opens the ISOL valve, Opens the associated ATS ( air turbine starter ) valve
Term
What will the indication be if the ATS valve fails to disengage ?
Definition
NO START CUT OUT caution message
Term
When the APR is activated, how much will the N1 speed be increased ?
Definition
2%
Term
Where is the oil replenishment tank located ?
Definition
In the aft equipment bay
Term
What are the conditions to arm the APR ?
Definition
Both DCU's must be online, weight on wheels, APR switches armed, Speed switches on, and the N1 must be greater than 79%
Term
What does the sprague clutch do ?
Definition
Allows for the ATS to be engaged while the engine is turning
Term
What is the normal oil level for the engines ?
Definition
Above 4.8 quarts
Term
What does it mean if the fail light illuminates during the oil check ?
Definition
The respective oil level sensor has failed
Term
When must the oil level be checked?
Definition
3 minutes to 2 hrs after shut down
Term
When must the oil system be replenished if it is low ?
Definition
15 minutes to 2 hrs after shut down
Term
What is the max ITT to introduce fuel during the start cycle ?
Definition
120 degrees C
Term
What is the minimum N2 speed to introduce fuel during the start cycle ?
Definition
20% N2
Term
At what N2 speed does the starter motor disengage?
Definition
55% N2
Term
What 2 things are required for engine start?
Definition
pressurized air ( 40 psi minimum ) DC power ( 24 volts )
Term
What is the N1 trigger for configuration warnings?
Definition
70% N1
Term
What is the function of the variable geometry staters ?
Definition
Controls relative wind on the turbine blades to prevent compressor stalls and helps with faster spool ups
Term
What are the limits for dry motoring?
Definition
90 seconds ON - 5 minutes OFF, 30 seconds ON - 5 minutes OFF
Term
What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start ?
Definition
-40 degrees C
Term
What 2 things will decrease engine thrust ?
Definition
Increase in temperature, Increase in pressure altitude
Term
What is driven by the accesory gear box?
Definition
Engine lubrication pumps, Alternator that powers the N1 control amplifier, Hydraulic pump, Engine driven fuel pump and fuel control unit, IDG, the ATS is also mounted on the gearbox
Term
Describe the Engine fuel control unit
Definition
It is a hydromechanical metering device that meters the fuel supply to the engine, At low power settings The FCU hydromechanically schedules fuel, At high power settings the N1 control amplifier trims the FCU fuel output. It also controls and actuates VG inlet guides and stater vanes
Term
Are the ignition systems AC, or DC powered?
Definition
AC, ignition A is powered by the AC ESS BUS, Ignition B is powered by the DC BATT BUS through a static inverter
Term
What are the three ignition modes ?
Definition
Normal, continuous, and automatic
Term
Does continuous ignition energize syatem A, or B ?
Definition
Both
Term
How do the thrust levers work ?
Definition
Thrust lever position is electrically measured and a signal is sent to the DCU's, flight control computers, and the N1control amplifier
Term
What is 10th stage bleed air used for ?
Definition
Engine starting, air conditioning, avionics cooling, and presurization
Term
What is 14th stage bleed air used for ?
Definition
Thrust reverse, and Anti ice
Term
What is 7th stage bleed air used for ?
Definition
Oil seal pressurization and venting of oil sumps
Term
What are the two conditions to arm the thrust reversers ?
Definition
Switch is armed, and the respective 14th stage bleed air valves are open
Term
When can you activated the thrust reversers ?
Definition
Weight on wheels or a 16 knot wheel speed, and thrust levers at idle
Term
Do the thrust reversers deflect bypass , or core air ?
Definition
The translating cowl slides rearward deflecting bypass air
Term
Can you open the reversers in flight ?
Definition
NO, they are locked out
Term
Explain the EMER STOW function of the thrust reversers ?
Definition
When pressed the EMER STOW switch lights direct 14th stage bleed air to the PDU to drive the reverser closed
Term
Can the reversers and the anti-ice systems be used at the same time ?
Definition
When the reversers are activated, the anti ice valves close ensuring adequate pressure is supplied to the reversers
Term
When is the APR activated ?
Definition
When one engine N1 drops below 67% the APR activates increasing thrust by 2%
Term
When will N1 vib gauges appear on ED 1 ?
Definition
After engine start, when oil pressure indications are normal. Gauges turn amber at 2.7 mils
Term
When will N2 vib gauges appear on ED1 ?
Definition
Only when N2 vib exceeds 1.7 mils
Term
What will happen if a thrust reverser is accidentally deploy ?
Definition
The auto retard system will automatically retard the thrust lever to idle
Term
How long is the APR armed for ?
Definition
5 minutes
Term
The CF-34-3B1 is flat rated to what tempurature ?
Definition
ISA + 15 degrees C
Term
During a reduced thrust take off will the APR increase thrust ?
Definition
Yes , but it only increases the thrust by 2% of the reduced setting
Term
Are the N1 and N2 sections connected ?
Definition
No they are independent
Term
Where is ITT measured ?
Definition
Between the high and low pressure turbine
Term
How can you cut off fuel to the engine ?
Definition
Shut off on the thrust lever, or pushing the engine fire switch light
Term
What is the purpose of the fuel oil heat exchanger ?
Definition
To warm the fuel, and cool the engine oil
Term
What controls the VG inlet guide vanes and the stater vanes ?
Definition
The FCU fuel control unit
Term
What could happen if the engine speed switches were turned off in flight ?
Definition
There would be an increase in ITT and RPM that could exceed limits
Term
Will EICAS warn you of an impending oil filter clog ?
Definition
No, once a filter clogs oil is rerouted through the bypass
Term
How do you check the engine oil level ?
Definition
The engine oil test switch light located on the captains side panel
Term
How fast will the starter turn the N2 section with out introducing fuel ?
Definition
30%
Term
What are the starter limitations ?
Definition
two attempts 60 sec ON - 10 sec OFF, 3 attempts 60 sec ON - 5 min OFF
Term
During a start cycle , when are the ingnitors energized ?
Definition
They are energized when the starter is engaged and, de-energize when the starter cuts out
Term
When must continuous ignition be used ?
Definition
Take off's with 10 knots or greater cross wind, take off's and landings on contaminated runways, Flight in moderate or heavier intensity rain, Flight in moderate or heavier intensity turbulance, Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
Term
What determines the automatic function of the ignition ?
Definition
It is based on angle of attack, sensed by the stall warning system through the AOA vane
Term
Can the APR be activated on a go around ?
Definition
No, only on take off
Term
How can you tell that the APR has activated ?
Definition
The Green APR ARMED EICAS message is removed, and an APR appears on the N1 gauge
Term
What are the indications off a HOT start ?
Definition
A rapid rise in TTT, a Red HOT icon will appear inside the ITT gauge, and the ITT pointer will turn red
Term
What are the indications of a HUNG start ?
Definition
N2 will stagnate around 40% with a rather rapid ITT rise
Term
When will VIB gauges be removed from ED1 ?
Definition
When oil pressure drops below 25 psi
Term
When starting engines with DC power, which do you start first ?
Definition
The left must be started first because the left oil gauge is DC powered, Also use ignition B because it uses DC converted to AC through an inverter
Term
What is the procedure for aborting a start ?
Definition
Thrust lever to shut off, Ignition OFF, Dry motor untill ITT is below 120 degrees C respecting starter limits
Term
What does the ATS actually drive ?
Definition
The N2 section
Term
What is the purpose of the ATS valve ?
Definition
It meters air flow to control enginge rpm during starts
Term
What are the oil temp ranges ?
Definition
Green -40 - 154 degrees C, Amber 155 - 162 degrees C, Red 163 degrees C and above
Term
What are the oil pressure ranges ?
Definition
Red 0 - 25 psi, Green 26 - 115 psi, Amber 116 - 156 psi
Term
N2 spli must be no greater than ?
Definition
2% on the ground
Term
What is the max ITT on start ?
Definition
900 degrees C
Term
What is the ITT for max continuous thrust ?
Definition
860 degrees C
Term
What are the ratings of the CRJ's two batteries ?
Definition
APU battery is a 24v, 43amp nickle nicad battery, and the main battery is a 24v , 17 amp nickle nicad
Term
What does the green DC AVAIL light mean ?
Definition
External DC is plugged in and is the correct voltage and polarity
Term
What does the green AC AVAIL light mean ?
Definition
External AC is plugged in and is the correct frequency, phase and voltage
Term
What is the frequency and phase of the AC power ?
Definition
400hz, three phase AC
Term
What busses power the battery chargers ?
Definition
AC utility bus 1 powers the main battery charger, and AC utility bus 2 powers the APU battery charger
Term
What are the sources of 115v AC power ?
Definition
2 IDG's ( integrated drive generators ) APU generator, Air driven generator, And AC ground power
Term
What are the two components of the IDG ?
Definition
A constant speed drive that converts variable engine speed to a constant 12000 rpm, and A 30 KVA generator
Term
What provides electrical power if there is a complete loss of AC in flight ?
Definition
ADG, The air driven generator provides 15 KVA AC power
Term
How many circuit breaker panels are there, and where are they located ?
Definition
6- CB panels 1-4 are on the flight deck, 5 is in the AFT equipment bay, and there ias also one in the galley
Term
What is the KVA rating of the IDG's ?
Definition
30 KVA up to 35,000 feet, 25 KVA up to 41,000 feet
Term
What two conditions will cause an IDG FAULT ?
Definition
High oil temperature ( greater than 160 degrees C ) and low oil pressure
Term
Will the IDG automatically disconnect for a FAULT condition ?
Definition
NO
Term
What two conditions will cause the IDG to automatically disconnect ?
Definition
Over torque ( aproximately 3300 lbs ) and, Over temp ( 168 degrees C case temperature )
Term
If you manually disconnect an IDG, can you get it back in flight ?
Definition
NO, it can only be reset on the ground
Term
What is the purpose of the generator GCU's ?
Definition
They provide generator fault protection
Term
What conditions will a GCU pull a generator off line ?
Definition
Over/Under voltage, Over/Under frequency, or a generator or bus overcurrent
Term
What is the KVA rating of the APU generator ?
Definition
30 KVA to 37,000 feet
Term
When switching between APU gen and gen 2 why does YD 2 dissengage ?
Definition
There is a momentary loss of power on DC bus 2
Term
What are the AC busses ?
Definition
AC 1 & 2, Ac utility 1 & 2, AC essential, and the ADG bus ( ADG bus is not depicted on AC synoptic page )
Term
Where are AC bus 1 & 2 located ?
Definition
AC bus 1 is behind the captain, and AC bus 2 is behind the FO
Term
What is the AC bus priority ?
Definition
Onside, APU, Cross side, and external power
Term
How many TRU's does AC bus one power ?
Definition
Under normal ops only one - TRU 1
Term
How many TRU's does AC bus 2 power ?
Definition
Three - TRU 2, ESS TRU 2, and SERV TRU through the AC SERV bus
Term
How many TRU,s ( transformer rectifier units ) are there ?
Definition
Five, TRU 1, TRU 2, SERV TRU, ESS TRU 2, ESS TRU 1
Term
AC ESS bus in normally powered how ?
Definition
By AC bus 1, however it can be manually or automatically transfered to AC bus 2
Term
What would the indication be if AC ESS was being powered by AC bus 2 ?
Definition
The The AC ESS XFER ALTN light will come on
Term
What is the power priority of the AC ESS bus ?
Definition
AC bus 1, AC bus 2, ADG bus
Term
During ADG deployment the AC ESS bus is connected directly to the AGD bus, how can you disconnect it ?
Definition
By pressing the PWR XTFR OVERIDE button
Term
During flight the AC utility busses are shed when ?
Definition
During single generator operations
Term
When would you get an AUTO XFER FAIL annunciation
Definition
When the GCU senses greater than 37 KVA across a bus it isolates it by placing a " block" between the affected bus and the offside gen and the APU gen
Term
What will the indication be if the ADG has deployed ?
Definition
EMER POWER ONLY EICAS message
Term
What are the conditions to auto deploy the AGD ?
Definition
All AC power is lost, Last AC power source was internal, weight off wheels, and parking brake off
Term
What are the ten DC busses ?
Definition
DC bus 1 & 2, DC utility bus 1 & 2, DC ESS bus, DC SERV bus, DC Battery bus, DC EMER bus, MAIN BATT DIR bus, APU BATT DIR bus
Term
When will a TRU FAIL message be displayed ?
Definition
When the TRU drops below 18v
Term
What is the one TRU that will produce a caution message when it fails "
Definition
ESS TRU
Term
What does the DC SERV switch do ?
Definition
Connects the DC SERV bus to the APU BATT DIR bus
Term
What is on the DC EMER bus ?
Definition
Engine and APU fire extinguishers, and fuel and hyd. shut off valves
Term
What are the two functions of the battery master switch ?
Definition
Connects the APU BATT DIR bus and the MAIN BATT DIR bus to the BATT bus, and also arms the bridging of the BATT bus and DC ESS bus in flight
Term
When do the AC utility busses shed on the ground ?
Definition
Whith only one generator online and the flaps are greater than 0 degrees
Term
What bus ties are manual vs automatic ?
Definition
Ties 1 and 2 are automatic or manual, ESS tie is manual only
Term
Will the batteries charge when DC external is in use ?
Definition
NO, it takes the batteries off line
Term
What does switching the AUTO XFER switchlight to OFF do ?
Definition
It inhibits AC power priority to manually isolate an AC bus
Term
What is the "cardinal rule"
Definition
for pressing the ESS TIE light ?
Term
What does the ADG power ?
Definition
AC ESS bus, and HYD 3B
Term
How do you transfer power from the AGD back to a generator ?
Definition
Press the PWR XTFR OVERIDE button, and stow the AGD handle
Term
What does TIE 1 switch light do ?
Definition
Connects the SERV TRU to DC bus 1 and sheds DC utility 1
Term
What does TIE 2 switchlight do ?
Definition
Connects the SERV TRU to DC 2 and shed DC utility bus 2
Term
What does pressing the ESS TIE switchlight do ?
Definition
Connects the DC SERV bus to the DC ESS and DC BATT bus
Term
How long can the batteries provide back up power if all electrical is lost ?
Definition
Approximately 30 minutes
Term
If an Auto XFER condition occurs can you reset it in flight ?
Definition
NO
Term
When will the DC EMER bus appear on the DC synoptic page ?
Definition
When it loses one of its two sources of power,
Term
What condition will produce a generator overload condition ?
Definition
When the GCU detects 34.5 KVA on a bus
Term
What are the HOT busses ?
Definition
APU BAT DIR bus, MAIN BATT DIR bus, and DC EMER bus
Term
Why is it essential to pull the AGD handle , even if it has automatically deployed ?
Definition
Pulling the handle " locks the aircraft in a weight off wheels " condition preventing the loss of DC ESS on landing.
Term
What does DC utlity 1 & 2 bus power ?
Definition
Reading lights and passenger service units
Term
When will you get a MAIN BATT OFF or APU BATT OFF message ?
Definition
The applicable battery has dropped below 18v
Term
Why is there an alternator on the accessory gear box ?
Definition
It powers the engine ECU independent of aircraft power
Term
When will the battery chargers shut down ?
Definition
If a charging cycle exceeds 90 minutes , or if a battery fault or charger fault is detected
Term
What are the electrical ratings of the TRU's ?
Definition
28v, 100 amp
Term
Does the BATT MASTER need to be on for DC SERV CONFIG ?
Definition
YES, it connects the APU BATT DIR bus to the DC SERV bus
Term
How would you isolate an AC bus ?
Definition
By pressing the onside AUTO XFER INHIBIT switchlight and then turning off the affected generator
Term
Can The AGD be retracted in flight once it has deployed ?
Definition
NO, only on the ground
Term
What hydrualic system powers the landing gear ?
Definition
Hydraulic system 3 powers gear extension and retraction. Gear assist accuators are powered by hydraulic system 2
Term
What hydraulic system powers the brakes ?
Definition
Outboard brakes hydraulic 2, Inboard brakes hydraulic 3
Term
If hydraulics are lost will the brakes still work ?
Definition
In the event of a hydraulic failure,braking is still possible due to pressure stored in the brake accumulator, approximately 6 brake applications are possible with the anti-skid OFF
Term
How many PSEU's ( Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit ) are on the gear ?
Definition
Each Main gear has two, and the nose gear has two providing system redundancy
Term
How do the gear doors operate ?
Definition
MLG doors are mechanically linked to gear movement, Nose rear door is also linked to gear movement, while the nose forward doors are actuated hydraulically
Term
How is the gear held in position ?
Definition
MLG is held up by uplocks and down by down locks. NLG is held up by uplocks and down by an overcenter locking mechanism in the drag brace
Term
When will you get the "NOSE DOOR OPEN" aural warning ?
Definition
When the nose bay door is open for more than 10 seconds after the gear is up and locked, or if the airspeed is greater than 250 kts with the door open
Term
What happens when the manual gear release handle is pulled ?
Definition
1-The nose gear door uplock and all three gear uplocks are released. 2- Dump valves are opened routing hydraulic 3 pressure to the return. 3- Nose doors open as the NLG free-falls. 4- NLG extends rearward and is assisted down by by two overcenter springs. 5-MLG extends free-falls outward and is assisted by auxilary actuators that are powered by hydraulic system 2
Term
How does the anti skid system sense a skidding wheel ?
Definition
Speed transducers on each wheel monitor rotational speed and decceleration of the wheels and sends information to the anti-skid unit
Term
How does the anti-skid system prevent the wheels from locking up ?
Definition
By modulating hydraulic pressure to the brakes
Term
What are the ranges and colors of the BTMS numbers ?
Definition
0-5 green. 6-12 White. 13-20 Red. Each digit is 35 degrees C
Term
When are the BTMS numbers removed from EICAS ?
Definition
30 seconds after the gear and flaps are up and the BTMS temps are normal
Term
How long are the gear warnings inhibited on take off ?
Definition
2 minutes after take off. warnings are also inhibited during a windshear warning
Term
When will you get the "TOO LOW GEAR " aural ?
Definition
If any gear is not down and locked with a radar altitude less than 500 ' and airspeed less than 190 kts
Term
When is the anti-skid system armed ?
Definition
Anti-skid system arms with the switch and actuates when wheels spin up to 35 kts until wheels slow down to 10 kts
Term
When does the brake pressure read out turn amber ?
Definition
Less than 1000 psi
Term
How do the wheels stop rotating on retraction ?
Definition
The nose gear spins down. The MLG is stopped by hydraulic pressure that has been routed through the brake control unit during the retraction sequence
Term
How many detents does the manual gear extension handle have ?
Definition
4, one for the nose door, and one for each gear
Term
What prevents gear handle movement on the ground ?
Definition
The solenoid lock
Term
Where is brake pressure displayed ?
Definition
On EICAS hydraulic synoptic page
Term
What are the two conditions for checking the wear pins on the brakes ?
Definition
Hydraulic system 2 and 3 must beon, and the parking brake must be set
Term
What is the normal psi for the brake pressure ?
Definition
1000-3200 psi
Term
What is the minimum brake cooling period ?
Definition
15 minutes
Term
What hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering ?
Definition
Hydraulic 3
Term
What happens to the nose wheel steering and anti-skid systems after take off ?
Definition
They are disabled
Term
What provides shock absorbtion for all three gear ?
Definition
Nitrogen charged, oil filled struts
Term
What is the purpose of the brush seals ?
Definition
They provide an areodynamic seal
Term
How do you open the nose gear from outside the aircraft ?
Definition
The switch on the external services panel. Hydraulic 3 must be pressurized
Term
What is the maximum gear retraction speed ?
Definition
200 kts
Term
What is the maximum gear extension speed ?
Definition
220 kts
Term
How is over heat protection provided for the gear ?
Definition
A single loop sensing unit in the MLG wheel bin
Term
How is nose wheel steering accomplished ?
Definition
By the tiller 70 degrees either side, or by the rudder pedals 5 degrees either side
Term
How does the nose wheel steering operate ?
Definition
The nose wheel is moved hydraulically and controlled electrically by a steer by wire system
Term
How is the nose wheel centered on retraction ?
Definition
By centering cams as the strut extends
Term
Can you get a steering fault in flight ?
Definition
Yes , the system is continuosly monitored
Term
What are the chines on the nose wheel for ?
Definition
To direct water away from the engines
Term
What is the speed limitation for the tires ?
Definition
182 kts
Term
How are the tire protected from overheating ?
Definition
The mains each have 4 fusible plugs. when they overheat the plugs melt deflating the tire
Term
What will happen if the BTMS turn red ?
Definition
The system must be manually reset by pressing the overheat reset button. Maintenance should be notified
Term
How are the fuel tanks vented ?
Definition
By two NACA scoop vents
Term
How does the fuel system computer detect quantity information ?
Definition
Fuel quantity probes with a compensator unit in eachj main tank and the center tank
Term
What fuel information is displayed On the EICAS fuel synoptic page ?
Definition
Individual tank quantities, Total fuel Quantity, and Fuel used
Term
What maintains fuel symmetry between main tanks ?
Definition
Automatically controlled XFLO/APU pump and associated shut off valves
Term
How are the collector tanks kept full ?
Definition
Gravity feed lines, and scavenge ejectors
Term
What serves as a back up to the main ejectors ?
Definition
Two electric boost pumps
Term
From what source is the APU normally fed fuel ?
Definition
Directly from the main tanks by the XFLO/APU pump
Term
In case of a negative-G condition, or a XFLO/APU pump failure ?
Definition
From the right engine fuel line providing the line is pressurized
Term
With more than 500 lbs in the center tanks, how much fuel do you have to have in each main tank ?
Definition
At least 4400 lbs
Term
Explain the automatic fuel cross flow function ?
Definition
When one main tank is 200 lbs less less than the other, the XFLO/APU pumps fuel into the low tank until it is 50 lbs higher than the other main
Term
What are the three ways to balance fuel ?
Definition
Gravity, Auto, and Manual cross flow
Term
What is the max fuel imbalance ?
Definition
800 lbs
Term
Explain how fuel is transfered from the center tank to the mains ?
Definition
When the main tank drops below 94%, ( 4400 lbs ) the transfer ejector pumps transfer fuel from the center to the mains until they are at 100 %.
Term
Do both transfer ejectors operate at the same time ?
Definition
No, they are completely independent of each other
Term
How many fuel tanks does the CRJ 200 Have ?
Definition
5- two main tanks, one center tank, and two collector tanks
Term
What are the fuel quantities of each tank ?
Definition
Each main tank holds 4760 lbs, and the center tank holds 4998 lbs, total fuel 14518lbs
Term
What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go - around ?
Definition
450 lbs per wing
Term
What is the average fuel burn per hour ?
Definition
3400 lbs for the first hour, 2600 for the second hour
Term
Explain how the electric boost pumps work ?
Definition
When a fuel pressure of less than 9 psi is sensed, and the boost pump switch lights are pressed in, Pumps come on to supply positive pressure to the main ejectors
Term
Doe the electric pumps operate indepedantly ?
Definition
No, if one fuel line senses low pressure, both pumps come on
Term
How many ejector pumps are there ?
Definition
6 - two main, two scavenge, and two transfer ejectors
Term
What does a fail light on the fuel panel indicate ?
Definition
A fail light on the fuel panel indicates a valve failure, not a pump failure
Term
What does the manual cross flow switch light do ?
Definition
Inhibits Auto cross flow allowing fuel to be manually balanced
Term
What is the purpose of the engine driven fuel pumps ?
Definition
Supplies fuel to the motor and provides motive flow for the ejector pumps
Term
What are the two methods of refueling ?
Definition
Single point, or gravity overwing
Term
What will happen if a fuel tank is over pressurized ?
Definition
If a tank exceeds 5.0 psi, over pressure valves open to relieve pressure
Term
Are the APU fuel ditribution system and the Engine fuel distribution system independant of each other ?
Definition
Yes
Term
What is the purpose of the Scavenge ejectors ?
Definition
The scavenge ejectors operate by motive flow transfering fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks
Term
Where are the collector tanks ?
Definition
Collectors are located inside the forward section of the center taink. All fuel consumed by the engines comes from the collector tanks
Term
Where are the main ejector pumps ?
Definition
Main ejectors are located on top of the associated collector tank, and provide fuel pressure directly to each engine
Term
What are the two ways to close the Fuel shut off valves ?
Definition
Fuel shut off levers on the thrust levers, or by pressing the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light on the glare shield
Term
What is the purpose of the fuel heat exchanger ?
Definition
Fuel is heated by hot engine oil as it passes through the heat exchanger
Term
Where is fuel temperature indicated ?
Definition
EICAS fuel synoptic page
Term
What is the purpose of the MLI's ( magnetic level indicator ) ?
Definition
Each main tank has two MLI's and the center tank has one, they are used to manually detect tank quantities
Term
Where is the bulk fuel temperature sensor ?
Definition
It is located in the left main tank. Bulk fuel temp, as well as engine fuel feed temps can be read on the EICAS fuel synoptic page
Term
When will the fuel quantity read outs turn amber ?
Definition
Less than 900 lbs total fuel, or and imbalance of 800 lbs or more
Term
When will the bulk fuel temperature read out turn white ?
Definition
When fuel temperatures are less than -40 degrees C
Term
When will the engine fuel feed teperatures turn amber ?
Definition
Engine fuel feed temperatures less than 5 degrees C
Term
What does each tank have to prevent outward flow of fuel during wing low operations ?
Definition
One way valves attached to the internal wing ribs
Term
What monitors and controls the fuel system ?
Definition
A dual channel fuel system computer, Only one channel is active at any one time
Term
Where are the fuel filters located ?
Definition
Just aft of the engine oil tanks, Filters are monitered by an impending by-pass switch
Term
If a fuel filter becomes clogged will you be able to telll ?
Definition
Yes , an EICAS message is generated when a filter bypass occurs
Term
What color will the fuel lines be on EICAS if a fire has been detected, and the fuel SOV's have not closed ?
Definition
Red
Term
What is the max zero fuel weight ?
Definition
44000 lbs
Term
How many fuel injectors does each engine have ?
Definition
18
Term
How many psi do the electric fuel pumps provide ?
Definition
35 psi
Term
Do the transfer ejector pumps have a back up ?
Definition
NO
Term
Explain the construction of the wing tanks ?
Definition
The tanks are a "wet wing " design. A sealant is used to make the wings the tank
Term
How can De-fueling be accomplished ?
Definition
By inserting a de-fuel suction pump at the single point fuel port, or gravity de-fueling is possible by inserting a gravity de-fuel adapter into the fuel drain valves
Term
During a climb you notice fuel increasing in the center tank, what is happening ?
Definition
Fuel is entering the center tank through the venting system. This is a normal condition and may increase center tank quatity up to 300 lbs
Term
Can you manually transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks ?
Definition
No, this is completely automatic
Term
Where are re-fuel / de-fuel operations controlled ?
Definition
The re-fuel / de-fuel control panel on the right side of the fuselage just forward of the wing
Term
Why should you never open the gravity fuel caps if you don;t know the exact fuel quatities ?
Definition
The quantity may be above the gravity cap level causing a fuel spill
Term
Explain the path fuel takes from the center tank to the engine
Definition
Fuel is transfered fron the center to the mains by transfer ejector pumps, scavenge ejectors then move fuel to the collector tanks, from the collectors fuel is transfered to the engine by the main ejector pumps. engine driven pumps then increase fuel pressure and provide motive flow for the system
Term
How many hydraulic pumps does the CRJ 200 have ?
Definition
6- Two EDP's ( engine driven pumps ) and four ACMP's ( alternating current motor pump )
Term
How many hydraulic systems does the RJ have ?
Definition
Three
Term
How many pumps does each hydraulic system have ?
Definition
2- , System 1 & 2 consist of one EDP and one ACMP, System 3 has two ACMP's
Term
What hydraulic pump does not have an AUTO function ?
Definition
Hydraulic pump 3A
Term
With The hydraulic pump switches in AUTO, will the pumps automatically come on when pressure drops below 1800 psi ?
Definition
NO
Term
Explain cross side IDG logic of the ACMP's
Definition
Each "B" pump is powered by the cross side IDG.
Term
How many hydraulic accumulators are there ?
Definition
5- total, one for each system and two for the brakes
Term
How are the hydraulic systems cooled ?
Definition
System 1 & 2 are cooled by ram air. System 3 is not located near a heat source and needs no additional cooling
Term
What is the EICAS color logic for the hydraulic systems ?
Definition
White = pressurized, Amber = less than 1800 psi, Magenta = system pressure is unknown
Term
Explain cross side IDG Logic ?
Definition
ACMP 1,2 are powered by the cross side IDG. ACMP 3 is powered by either IDG. When the Aircraft senses weight of wheels, and flaps greater than Zero, Providing the ACMP pumps are in the AUTO position, they come on to provide a back up to the EDP's
Term
What powers hydraulic 3B in the event of a total electric failure ?
Definition
The ADG
Term
What is the purpose of the "B" pumps ?
Definition
The AUTO mode ensures hydraulic power is provided during certain phases of flight ( Take off, approach, and landing ) When selected ON they provide supplimentary hydraulic pressure for there respective system
Term
What is one condition for checking the hydraulic reservoir level ?
Definition
The system must be pressurized
Term
What is the hydraulic reservoir pressure ?
Definition
Reservoirs are kept at a constant 55 psi
Term
Where are the hydraulic systems located ?
Definition
All components of system 1 & 2 ( with the exception of the EDP's ) are located in the aft equipment bay. System 3 is located in or near the MLG bay ( right side wing root area )
Term
What system powers the main gear assist actuators ?
Definition
Hydraulic 2
Term
With hydraulic pump B in the OFF position, will it still be powered during ADG deployment ?
Definition
Yes, 3B is powered by the ADG regardless of switch position
Term
What is the normal psi for the hydraulic systems ?
Definition
2950 - 3050 psi
Term
When will you get a HYD LO PRESS caution message ?
Definition
When pressure drops below 1800 psi
Term
What is the pressure of the hydraulic accumulators ?
Definition
1500 psi
Term
What parameters will trigger a hydraulics HI TEMP caution ?
Definition
93 - 96 degrees C
Term
What is the normal level of the hydraulic reservoirs ?
Definition
45 - 85 %
Term
Gear extension and retraction is accomplished by which hydraulic system ?
Definition
System 3. ( Main gear assist actuators are powered by system 2 )
Term
What pressure will give you a hydraulics hiogh pressure caution ?
Definition
Greater than 3200 psi
Term
at what pressure is hydraulics pressure relief provided ?
Definition
Greater than 3750 psi
Term
On the ground with pumps in AUTO and flaps at 0 degrees, which pumps are operating ?
Definition
The A pumps only
Term
What pumps are available if you lose engine 1 ?
Definition
All pumps except pump 1 A
Term
What hydraulic system poweres the out board brakes ?
Definition
System 2
Term
Which hydraulic system operates the flaps ?
Definition
None the flaps are electric
Term
How are the hydraulic switches, and ACMP pumps powered ?
Definition
Switches are DC powered, Pumps are AC powered
Term
Which hydraulic pumps are powered during single engine taxi operations ?
Definition
Pump 2A and Pump 3A ( providing 3A is selected ON )
Term
What flight control systems are powered by which hydraulic system ?
Definition
Elevator & Rudder - 1,2,& 3, Left aileron & Spoileron 1 & 3, Right aileron & Spoileron 2 & 3, Left and right flight spoilers 1 & 2, Inboard GLD's 2, outboard GLD's 1
Term
Which pumps are EDP;s ( engine driven pumps ) ?
Definition
1A, & 2A
Term
What color is Skydrol ?
Definition
It is purple in color and highly corrosive
Term
When will hydraulic pump 1B or 2B be shed ?
Definition
When an engine driven generator fails, the opposite side hydrualic B pump will be load shed
Term
How would you close the hydraulic SOV's ?
Definition
By pressing the associated ENG FIRE PUSH switch light
Term
What is the job of the hydraulic accumulators ?
Definition
To provide pressure to meet instantaneuos demands of aircraft systems
Term
Which hydraulic system has the largest demand ?
Definition
Hydraulic 3
Term
When does hydraulic pump 3 A operate ?
Definition
It runs continuosly providing the switch is selected ON
Term
If pump 3A fails will 3B come on automatically ?
Definition
NO, it must be manually selected ON
Term
Will the APU generator power hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B if the engine generators are OFF?
Definition
Only on the ground. In flight the B pumps require that cross side logic be met
Term
In cruise flight with flaps up, which hydraulic pumps are operating ?
Definition
1A, 2A, and 3A
Term
How does the ice detector probe work ?
Definition
The probe vibrates at high frequency, when ice accumulates, the frequency is dampened sending a signal to EICAS
Term
How often is the Ice detector probe anti-iced ?
Definition
It is electrically anti-iced for 5 seconds every 60 second cycle
Term
When will you get a BLEED MISCONFIG caution ?
Definition
When the anti-ice is ON, and flaps are greater than 0 degrees or the gear is down
Term
True or False , the Anti Ice synoptic page depicts actual anti ice valve position.
Definition
False, it depicts comanded positions only
Term
Explain the Normal and Stanby functions of the wing anti ice switch.
Definition
In normal, the anti ice valves modulate to maintain a constant temerature ( approximately 8 degrees C ). In Stanby, the anti ice valves open and closed to maintain a constant lower temp ( approximately 4 degrees C )
Term
When the wings are selected ON, what happens to the N2 gauges ?
Definition
Amber arcs appear fro 0-77.9%
Term
On the Anti Ice synoptic page, what do amber "flow lines" indicate ?
Definition
Amber flow lines indicate low pressure or temperature. ( red indicates over heat )
Term
An ICE advisory is generated when ice is detected and the wing temperature is ?
Definition
39 degreesC in flight, and 18 degrees C on the ground
Term
How are the leading edges anti-iced ?
Definition
The piccolo tubes uniformly direct hot bleed air onto the inner surface of the leading edges
Term
How do the wing anti-ice valves close ?
Definition
Wing anti-ice and 14th stage bleed valves are spring loaded to the closed position. In the event of a loss of ellectric power, or loss of 14th stage bleed air pressure, the valves will close
Term
How are the engine cowls anti-iced ?
Definition
Cowl leading edges and T2 sensors are anti-iced by 14th stage bleed air that is routed through louvers on the underside of the engine nacelle
Term
How are the Air Data probes, and sensors anti iced ?
Definition
Electrically
Term
With the windshield heat in high, are the side windows heated ?
Definition
Yes, however they are in low
Term
What does a WINSHIELD HEAT caution mean ?
Definition
It can either mean a windshield over heat condition, or that the winshield heat is inoperative
Term
What happens to the ant ice during thrust reverser operations ?
Definition
During reverser operations anti ice valves are closed
Term
What does an ICE caution message indicate ?
Definition
The ice detector has detected an icing condition and the anti ice is OFF
Term
An ANTI ICE DUCT warning message means there is a bleed air leak where ?
Definition
In the wing anti ice duct or in the fuselage
Term
What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve ?
Definition
To allow cross side anti icing capabilities during single engine operations
Term
What does an ICE advisory message ( green ) mean ?
Definition
Ice has been detected, anti ice is ON, and pressure and temperatures are adequate to provide anti icing capabilities
Term
Which areas of the aircraft are ant iced ?
Definition
Wing leading edges, engine cowls, air data probes, windshields and side windows
Term
Where does the bleed air for anti icing come from ?
Definition
14th stage
Term
Which position do the cowl anti ice valves fail ?
Definition
They fail in the open position
Term
How is over pressure protection provided for the engine cowls ?
Definition
A pressure relief valve located on each engine
Term
What happens when a window overheats ?
Definition
The windows contain overheat protection, when an overheat occurs, power is removed from the affected surfce
Term
After a windshield overheat, how do you reset the system ?
Definition
Move the WSHLD switch to the OFF/RESET position
Term
What does the OVHT light in the wing switch light indicate ?
Definition
There is an overheat condition in the leading edge of the wing
Term
What does the DUCT FAIL light in the wing switch light indicate ?
Definition
A bleed air leak has occured in the left or right winganti ice duct
Term
At what speed will the wipers operate if the Captain and the FO both have there wipers ON and they are at different levels ?
Definition
The wipers will operate at the highest level commanded
Term
What provides monitoring and control of the probe and sensor heating ?
Definition
3 - ADSHC ( air data sensor heating control units )
Term
Where is the standby pitot probe ?
Definition
On the left side of the nose
Term
How is high pressure 14th stage bleed air reduced in pressure to provide cowl anti icing ?
Definition
The cowl anti ice valves reduces it to a suitable pressure to anti ice the cowls. If pressure is too high the overpressure relief valve will extend to relieve the pressure
Term
What keeps Ice from building on the engine nose cone ?
Definition
It is anti iced by hot engine oil
Term
How are movements of the cockpit controls transmitted to the control surfaces ?
Definition
Control movements are transmitted mechanically via cables and / or pushrods to the aileron,elevator, and rudder PCU's ( power control units ) which hydraulically move the control surface. Spoilerons are also moved hydraulically, but are controlled electronically using " fly-by-wire technology
Term
Which pilot controls which aileron ?
Definition
The Captain has control of the left aileron, and the First Officer has control of the right aileron. Normally the two systems are interconnected and controlled simultaneously
Term
How are the spoilerons controlled ?
Definition
The control wheel generates an electrical signal that is sent to the SECU's ( spoileron electronic control unit ) The SECU combines control inputs with other information to determine the amount of surface deflection
Term
Where can you see the flight controls individual positions ?
Definition
On the FLIGHT CONTROLS synoptic page
Term
Do the left and right spoilerons operate independently ?
Definition
Yes, spoilerons operate on the " down going wing only
Term
Are the ailerons active above 300 kts ?
Definition
No, spoilerons only
Term
What is installed on the ailerons to prevent fluttering ?
Definition
Double acting shock absorbers known as flutter dampers
Term
What does pulling the ROLL DISC handle do ?
Definition
Disconnects the control wheel torque making single-side roll control possible
Term
What happens 20 seconds after pulling the ROLL DISC handle ?
Definition
The SECU commands both ROLL SEL lights to illuminate on the glareshield. Pilot selection of the ROLL SEL switchlight tells the system which side has control and transfers control of the cross-side spoileron
Term
What is the purpose of the bungee breakout switch ?
Definition
If an uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs ( PCU runaway ) The switch sends a signal to the SECU which commands both spoilerons to respond to inputs from the operable control wheel
Term
Do you need to select the onside ROLL SEL switch in a PCU runaway condition ?
Definition
No, it is done automatically by the bungee breakout switch and the SECU
Term
How many PCU's does the rudder have ?
Definition
Three
Term
What will happen in the event of a rudder jam ?
Definition
The rudder PCU's are controlled by two seperate cable systems. Each cable has a spring tension break-out system which protects against jams. In the event of a jam, each side still has rudder controll, however, additional pedal force may be required
Term
What do the Yaw Dampers do ?
Definition
Eleviate dutch roll tendancies
Term
What does pulling the PITCH DISC handle do ?
Definition
Removes the interconnect feature of the control wheels. Each pilot has control of the on-side elevator
Term
How does the pitch trim work ?
Definition
The horizontal stabilizer angle is moved by jackscrews driven by two electric trim motors. The whole system is controlled by the HSTCU ( horizontal stabilizer trim control unit
Term
What is the control priority of the HSTCU
Definition
Pilot, Co-Pilot, Auto Pilot, Auto Trim, and then Mach Trim
Term
What happens if the Stab Trim is held for more than 3 seconds ?
Definition
The clacker will sound alerting the pilot of a possible trim runaway condition
Term
At what speed does the Mach Trim become active ?
Definition
When Mach Trim is engaged, it becomes active above 0.4 mach when hand flying the airplane.
Term
How are the flaps controlled ?
Definition
The flaps operate electrically
Term
How many spoilers are on each wing ?
Definition
Four,- 1 spoileron, 1 flight spoiler,an inboard and outboard ground spoiler
Term
When do the GLD;s arm ?
Definition
When the control switch is in auto, thrust levers are advanced to > 79 %, and the wheel speed is > 45 kts
Term
When do the GLD's auto retract ?
Definition
L or R thrust lever is idle, Wheel speed is < 45 kts for 10 seconds, or the plane is on the ground for 40 seconds
Term
What is the minimum speed and altitude to use the flight spoilers ?
Definition
Vref + 17 kts, 300 feet agl
Term
What conditions need to be met to deploy the GLD's ?
Definition
Thrust levers at idle, and two of the following three items, weight on wheels, radar altitude < 5 feet, wheel speed > 16 kts
Term
What message will appear if one channel of the FECU ( flap electronic control unit ) fails ?
Definition
Flaps Halfspeed
Term
How do you disconnect the stab trim ?
Definition
Stab trim disconnect on the yoke
Term
How can you de-activate the stick pusher ?
Definition
By pushing the auto pilot disconnect AP/SP on the yoke
Term
What power setting will trigger a take of configuration warning ?
Definition
When N1 is > 70 %
Term
How can you cancel the stick shaker ?
Definition
Shaker can only be cancelled by lowering the angle of attack
Term
How is the Stab trim system protected from a run away ?
Definition
Each trim motor has a brake system to prevent run away of the stab trim
Term
What will happen if the flaps do not extend simulateously ( split flap condition ) ?
Definition
If a split condition exsists > 3 degrees the PDU's are de-energized and the flap brakes are applied creating a FLAPS FAIL condition
Term
How many PCU's are on each aileron ?
Definition
2
Term
How many degrees will the rudder move ?
Definition
25 degrees in either direction
Term
Are the Yaw Dampers connected to the auto pilot ?
Definition
NO, they operate independenly. At least one yaw damper must be engaged in order to engage the auto pilot
Term
How do you operate the aileron trim ?
Definition
Both halfs of the AIL TRIM must be pushed left or right to activate the trim
Term
Do all of the rudder PCU's need to be operating in order for the trim to work ?
Definition
NO, a minimum of one PCU must be operating in order for the trim to work.
Term
Will moving the rudder trim move the rudder pedals ?
Definition
No, do to the position of the rudder trim actuator, the trim will not move the pedals
Term
Where does the HSTCU get its inputs ?
Definition
Auto Pilot, Mach Trim, Control wheel switches
Term
What is the " Normal" take off range of the stab trim ?
Definition
3 to 9 units is the green band
Term
What is auto trim ?
Definition
When the flaps are moving between 0 and 20 degrees , and there are no control inputs from the pilot or auto pilot, the aircraft will auto trim to compensate for the changes in areodynamic center of pressure
Term
Explain the design of the flaps.
Definition
The flaps are double slotted fowler flaps. Movement is rearward and down from 0-45 degrees
Term
Explain the BUTE ( bent up trailing edge ) doors, on the outboard flaps.
Definition
The BUTE doors direct airflow over the leading edge vanes when the flaps are extending
Term
When does the flap position indicator appear on EICAS ?
Definition
When any of the following occur: Flaps are greater than 0 degrees, BTMS numbers are in the red range, Landing gear is not up and locked
Term
When will the flap indications disappear from EICAS ?
Definition
When the gear is up and locked, flaps are at 0 degrees, and the BTMS is not red
Term
What is the degree range of the flight spoilers ?
Definition
0-50 degrees
Term
What spoilers make up the GLD system ?
Definition
All spoilers
Term
What will happen to the GLD's if a touch and go landing is neccesary ?
Definition
When thrust levers are advanced, the GLD's will retract and the system will re-arm
Term
How would you manually retract the GLD's ?
Definition
By selecting the spoilers switch to MAN DISARM
Term
How can a take off configuration warning be cancelled ?
Definition
The warning will cancel if the thrust levers are retarted, or the problem that caused the warning is corrected
Term
What is the purpose of the selector valves ?
Definition
They isolate the mach transducers from the pitot static system
Term
How can the stick pusher be de-activated ?
Definition
Press and hold the AP/SP disconnect, select the STALL PTCT PUSHER switch to off, the pusher will also auto disconnect if it senses less than 0.5 G's
Term
What monitors the aircraft for correct configuration ?
Definition
The proximity sensing system PSS wich uses PSEU's ( proximity sensing electronic units) to detect aircraft configuration
Term
What radios are monitored or tuned with the BTU ( back up tuning unit ) ?
Definition
Comm 1, and Nav 1
Term
With only DC power available, how can you make a radio call ?
Definition
By using the BTU
Term
How can you tune com 2 if RTU ( radio tuning unit ) # 2 fails ?
Definition
Select RTU 2 INHIB, and then use the 1/2 push button on RTU 1
Term
When is the erase function of the CVR anabled ?
Definition
With weight on wheels and the parking brake set
Term
Will swapping NAV 1 frequencies cancel the auto tune function ?
Definition
YES
Term
Does the TRU have any protection for a stuck mic situation ?
Definition
Yes, the RTU will stop any transmission that lasts for more than 2 minutes
Term
What does the call button do ?
Definition
When pressed the call button hot mics you to the flight attendant
Term
Can you adjust the volume of the aural warning system ?
Definition
No, aural warnings are not controlled by the volume knobs
Term
When selecting the R/T I/C switch to I/C, where can your transmisions be heard ?
Definition
At all interior and exterior interphone units
Term
What is the purpose of the VOICE/BOTH switch ?
Definition
Both allows morse code and voice messages from the station. Voice filters out the morse code portion
Term
Explain the EMER function of the EMER/NORM switch.
Definition
When in EMER, the pilot has control of comm 1 and nav 1. the co-pilot has controll of com 2 and nav 2. the observer station is inoperative
Term
Who has priority over the PA system ?
Definition
The flight deck. The flight deck PA will overide the FA's
Term
Can you adjust the PA volume in the cabin and the lav ?
Definition
No, it adjusts automatically depending on back ground noise
Term
What happens in the cabin when the call switchlight is pressed on the flight deck ?
Definition
The flight light illuminates green on the FA's handset, there is a hi/lo chime, and a red light illuminates on the exit sign in the middle of the cabin
Term
At what locations can maintenance use the interphone system to communicate with the flight deck ?
Definition
Avionics bay, aft equipment bay, refuel/defuel panel, external services panel
Term
What frequencies will be displayed on the BTU when in standby ?
Definition
It will duplicate com 1 and nav 1
Term
What is the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch used for ?
Definition
When in INHIBIT, the remote tuning function of the FMS is inhibited
Term
Where is the CVR located ?
Definition
In the tail cone section of the aircraft
Term
What are the four locations that are recorded by the CVR ?
Definition
Pilot, Co-pilot, Mixed PA audio and the observers station, and ambient flight deck noise
Term
When does the CVR start recording ?
Definition
When electrical power is applied to the aircraft
Term
Why is there a headphone jack on the CVR ?
Definition
It allows monitoring of a recorded tone during the test function
Term
Where is the FDR ( flight data recorder ) located ?
Definition
In the tail section of the aircraft
Term
How long will the FDR record ?
Definition
It records the last 25 hours of aircraft flight parameter data
Term
When does the FDR start recording ?
Definition
When one of the following three things occur: beacon is turned on, strobes are turned on, or weight off wheels condition is sensed
Term
What is the purpose of the FDR event switch ?
Definition
When selected, it will highlight or mark a particular event
Term
What is the max pressure differential ?
Definition
8.7 psi
Term
When will you get the cabin alt caution message ?
Definition
Cabin alt of 8500 feet
Term
When will you get the cabin alt warning ?
Definition
Cabin alt of 10,000 feet
Term
What is the altitude limitation for single pack operations ?
Definition
FL 250
Term
What is 10th stage bleed air used for ?
Definition
Pressurization, air conditioning, and engine starts
Term
What is 14th stage bleed air used for ?
Definition
Thrust reverse, and anti- ice
Term
What is 7th stage bleed air used for ?
Definition
Pressurization of oil seals
Term
What is low pressure ground air used for ?
Definition
Cooling of the aircraft on the ground. cooling uses the manifolds, not the packs in this configuration
Term
How can you change from one pressure controller to the other ?
Definition
Push the controller switch twice, or land
Term
Duct Test, tests which bleed air system ?
Definition
Both 10th and 14th stage bleed air systems are tested. the test simulates a duct failure
Term
At what temperature will a pack overheat occur ?
Definition
88 degrees C
Term
When will the passenger oxygen masks drop automatically ?
Definition
When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet plus or minus 500 feet
Term
What is the max Take Off, Land, and Taxi pressure ?
Definition
0.1 PSI
Term
What position do the 10th and 14th stage valves fail ?
Definition
14th stage valves fail open. 10th stage valves fail closed. The APU LCV valve fails in what ever position it is modulated
Term
At what cabin altitude will the CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING and SEAT BELT signs ?
Definition
When switches are in AUTO and the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet
Term
What is the max negative pressure differential ?
Definition
-0.5
Term
What PSI will cause a pack overpressure ?
Definition
53 PSI
Term
What is high pressure ground air used for ?
Definition
Air Conditioning ( through the packs ), and Engine starting
Term
With engine cowl / and or wing anti-ice on, 10th stage valves must be in which position for take off and landing ?
Definition
Closed
Term
What is the normal pressure for dual pack and single pack operations ?
Definition
Dual pack pressure is normally 30 psi. In single pack operations the pressure is increased to 41 PSI
Term
When the thrust levers are advanced, the automatic pressurization system pressurizes the aircraft to what altitude ?
Definition
minus 150 feet of feild elevation
Term
What happens when the emergency depress switchlight is pressed in ?
Definition
Both outflow valves open allowing depressurization. Above 14,000 feet cabin will depressurize to 14,000 feet plus or minus 700 feet. below 14,000 feet cabin will depressurize completely
Term
Where can you read the pressure of the APU bleed air ?
Definition
EICAS ECS synoptic page
Term
What happens when the pressure controller is selected to manual, and the alt selector knob is selected to the up position ?
Definition
The outflow valves are opened allowing the cabin altitude to increase
Term
Explain the return to feild parameters of the automatic pressurization system.
Definition
below 6000 feet or a descent of 1000 feet per min within 10 minutes. The feild elevation does not need to be reset during a return to feild
Term
When is the auto pressurization activated during take off ?
Definition
At 85% power lever angle.
Term
What four things happen when a pack fails ?
Definition
The Pack shuts down, The pack valve closes, 10th stage ISOL valve closes, and the affected 10th stage valve closes
Term
Where is the flight compartment exhaust air routed ?
Definition
Exhaust air is routed through the avionics bay and out the outflow valves in the aft equipment bay
Term
How do you supply APU bleed air to the right pack ?
Definition
Open the LCV and 10th stage ISOL valve
Term
When is the pressurization info displayed on the PRI, STA, and the ECS synoptic pages ?
Definition
When in manual mode
Term
To test the 14th stage ISOL valve, what needs to be on ?
Definition
Wing anti-ice must be in norm, and the 14th stage valves must be open
Term
Will the oxygen masks auto deploy if there is a CPAM failure ?
Definition
NO
Term
What is the EICAS color logic of the packs ?
Definition
White = Not running, Green = working, Amber = failed
Term
Explain APU LCV interlock.
Definition
Inter lock looks at switch position and uses logic to open/close the LCV. This serves as a back up to the APU check valve ( not shown on EICAS ) to protect the APU from back pressure
Term
What does a pack fault light indicate ?
Definition
A pack high temp or high pressure
Term
How do the outflow valves open ?
Definition
The are electropnuematically controlled
Term
When would you use the manual pressurization mode ?
Definition
Failure of both auto controllers
Term
Do outflow valves require 10th or 14th stage air to open ?
Definition
10th stage
Term
Where are the packs located ?
Definition
In the aft equipment bay
Term
How is moisture removed from pack air ?
Definition
Pack discharge air passes through a water seperator
Term
How is the pack air distributed through the aircraft ?
Definition
70 % of the left pack air is routed to the flight deck, 70 % of the right pack air is routed to the cabin
Term
What is the purpose of the PRSOV's ( pressure regulating shut off valves ) ?
Definition
To reduce bleed air pressure prior to entering the packs
Term
What is used to cool the air to air heat exchangers ?
Definition
Ram air
Term
How is cargo bay air conditioning provided ?
Definition
Recirculated cabin exhaust air is drawn into the cargo bay by a fan to maintain positive air flow. Intake and exhaust shut off valves are used to control airflow within the cargo compartment
Term
Explain the positions of the Cargo air switch.
Definition
OFF = disables the system. FAN energizes the fan and opens the recirculation and exhaust shut off valves. COND AIR = provides automatic temp control by opening the COND AIR SOV allowing right pack air to be routed to the cargo bay and also activates an electric heater. A thermostat automatically controls the temperature in the cargo bay
Term
When will you get a Cargo overheat message ?
Definition
When the cargo bay temp reaches 35 degrees C
Term
In auto mode , at what rate will the cabin climb and descend ?
Definition
Climb at 500 fpm, descend at 300 fpm
Term
What areas does the bleed air leak detection system monitor ?
Definition
Wings ,fuselage, and the engine pylons
Term
What is the altitude limit for the APU to provide bleed air for air conditioning ?
Definition
15,000 feet
Term
What must you do when using low pressure air for cooling on the ground ?
Definition
Make sure that the main cabin door, avionics bay door, or service door is open to prevent the aircraft from pressurizing on the ground
Term
What happens to the cargo air when smoke is detected int he cargo bay ?
Definition
The cargo intake and exhaust air valves close. The cargo fan shuts down. The conditioned air valve closes and the heater shuts down
Term
What is the source of the vaccum required to operate the outflow valves ?
Definition
10th stage bleed air and a jet pump
Term
When do VIB gaauges appear on EICAS ?
Definition
After engine start. Before start oil pressure gauges appear
Term
What are the requirements to "BOX" messages?
Definition
Status messages will " BOX " at any time. Caution messages require both main generators to be online, and less than one page of messages
Term
When are landing gear indications removed from EICAS ?
Definition
30 seconds after the gear is up and locked and the flaps are at 0 degrees
Term
Explain the automatic unboxing of CAS messages.
Definition
Status messages will un box when a new message is recieved. Caution messages will not un box. The new message will go on top of the box
Term
What page will appear on the MFD ( multi function display ) when EICAS is selected on the DRP ( disply reversionary panel ) ?
Definition
Primary if one is not already displayed. Status if a primary page is already displayed
Term
What is the function of the source select panel ?
Definition
It allows pages other than the primary to be displayed on the screen selected
Term
Explain protection of the primary page >
Definition
Primary page is protected ( cannot be changed ) until its screen source is selected on the source select panel
Term
If you have selected ED1 or ED2 on source select panel and a warning occurs, what will happen ?
Definition
Primary page will appear on the selected screen
Term
What buttons on the ECP will still work when the ECP proccesor fails ?
Definition
PRI, CAS, STAT, and STEP
Term
What are the Take Off configuration warnings produced by EICAS ?
Definition
Auto Pilot, Flaps, Spoilers, Stabilizer, Rudder, Aileron, & Brakes. Example : the warning for flap configuration would be " CONFIG FLAPS "
Term
When warning messages are generated by EICAS, they are accompanied by ?
Definition
A trrple chime, a flashing master warning light, and a voice advisory
Term
Where are EICAS advisory messages displayed ?
Definition
At the top of the status page
Term
When a caution message is generated it will be accom[panied by ?
Definition
A single chime, and a flashing master caution light
Term
When are Take Off configuration warnings generated ?
Definition
70% N1
Term
When the master warning lights are illuminated, pressing either light will do what ?
Definition
Cancel the alarm, and reset the system for future messages
Term
What color are warning messages ?
Definition
RED
Term
What color are caution messages ?
Definition
Amber
Term
What color are status messages ?
Definition
White
Term
What color are advisory messages ?
Definition
Green
Term
Where do caution messages appear if there is a warning message ?
Definition
Cautions will appear below warning messages
Term
What does EICAS stand for ?
Definition
Engine Indicating Crew Alerting System
Term
How can you get rid of a warning message ?
Definition
Warning messages will only go away if the problem is fixed
Term
What will happen if you lose ED1 ?
Definition
The primary page will transfer to ED2
Term
What sends signals to EICAS to generate warnings ?
Definition
DCU's data concentrator units. Most planes have 2 DCU's, however some older models have 3
Term
How are the CRT's powered , by AC or DC ?
Definition
They are DC powered
Term
Are the CRT cooling fans AC or DC powered ?
Definition
AC. That is reason for the 5 minute limit on dc power only
Term
What does the LDU ( lamp driver unit ) do ?
Definition
The unit controls the panel and glareshield switch light illumination
Term
How is the lamp intensity set to bright or dim ?
Definition
The IND LTS switch
Term
What does the PRI button on the ECP do ?
Definition
When pressed a primary page will be displayed on ED2
Term
What does the STAT button on the ECP do ?
Definition
When pressed a status page will be displayed on ED2
Term
Can you view all of the synoptic pages on ED2 when the ECP fails ?
Definition
Yes, by using the step button you can navigate through all the pages
Term
What is the function of the MENU button on the ECP ?
Definition
Reset the fuel used, and the N1 reference can be set to display on the primary page
Term
What types of messages are displayed on ED1 ?
Definition
Warning, and Caution
Term
What types of messages are displayed on ED2 ?
Definition
Status and Advisory
Term
What does the magenta color indicate on EICAS color logic ?
Definition
Insufficient data
Term
Explain the phases of flight that the DCU inhibits EICAS messages ?
Definition
Take off -Condition 1 : N1 > 79 % and less than 100 kts . Condition 2 : greater than 100 kts. Landing- Condition 3 : less than 400 ft AGL until 30 seconds after touch down or 400 ft AGL on go-around
Term
How do you get the maintenance screen on ED1 ?
Definition
The red gaurded switch on the circuit breaker panel
Term
What condition will cause the ECP to become inactive ?
Definition
Automatic transfer of the primary page to ED2, or a failure of ED2
Term
What does the DRP ( display reversionary panel do ?
Definition
It allows either a PFD or EICAS to be displayed on the MFD
Term
Can an advisory message be cleared or boxed ?
Definition
No an advisory message can only be cleared by deselecting the switch that created it
Term
How can you view all the caution messages if there are more than one page ?
Definition
Pressing the CAS button will cycle through all the pages of caution messages
Term
Where does the Co-pilots PFD and MFD recieve their air data, altitude, and heading information from ?
Definition
ADC 2 and AHARS 2
Term
In the event of a DCP failure, both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP by making a selection on the :
Definition
Source Select Panel
Term
Where is the slip/skid indicator ?
Definition
It is the rectangle underneath the roll pointer
Term
What is the primary purpose of the altitude alert system ?
Definition
To provide altitude awareness
Term
What is the scale of CDI deflection in FMS mode ?
Definition
5 nm per dot
Term
AHARS present alignment flags for how long during alignment ?
Definition
30 -70 seconds
Term
When are windshear warnings enabled ?
Definition
From 1500 to 10 feet AGL
Term
What does a yellow IAS flag indicate ?
Definition
An airspeed mismatch between sides of 10 kts or more. A yellow IAS flag will be acompanied by an EFIS COMP MON on the right hand side of the airspeed tape
Term
What does a Red IAS flag indicate ?
Definition
Airspeed data has failed. It will appear in place of the airspeed tape
Term
What is the purpose of the mach transducer levers ?
Definition
To isolate the mach transducers from the pitot static system
Term
How long will the AHARS operate in battery power ?
Definition
Approximately 11 minutes
Term
At what distance is DME shown in tenths ?
Definition
Less than 100 miles
Term
Describe the standby attitude indicator ?
Definition
It is a 28V DC gyro that displays GS and LOC information.
Term
How long will the standby attitude indicator last in the event of a power failure ? Approximately 9 minutes
Definition
approximately 9 minutes
Term
How long does it take for the AHARS to initialize ?
Definition
30 - 70 seconds in MAG. 10 -10 1/2 minutes in DG. Airborne 10 - 35 seconds in straight and level flight
Term
On the ground prior to engine start, what does a 1/2 lateral deviation of the side slip indicator mean ?
Definition
AHARS failure
Term
Which pitot static system provides information for the standby altimeter ?
Definition
Pitot static 3
Term
Where does the DH recieve its info from ?
Definition
From the radar altimeter
Term
What are the information inputs to the AFCS ?
Definition
AHARS, ADC, FMS
Term
When will radio altitude information be displayed on the PFD ?
Definition
Below 2500 feet AGL. Tape is displayed below 1500 feet AGL
Term
When would you get a TCAS RA ?
Definition
When intruding traffic is detected and closer rate detects a possible collision is within 25 seconds
Term
When will radar generate a PAC alert ?
Definition
When the all of the radar energy is being attentuated by a storm
Term
What is IAPS ?
Definition
Integrated Avionics Proccesing System
Term
How can you get cross side information displayed on the MFD ?
Definition
Push the cross side knob on the DCP
Term
What is the green line on the airspeed indicator display ?
Definition
The Low speed awareness cue. It represents approximately 1.26 VS
Term
What do the TAT probes provide information to ?
Definition
The ADCs
Term
What conditions will produce a winshear caution ?
Definition
Increasing performance conditions. A headwind or updraft
Term
When is half bank automatically engaged ?
Definition
Passing through 31,600 feet
Term
True or false . The EGPWS automatically displays terrain info if there is a terrain warning regardless of what is displayed on the MFD ?
Definition
TRUE
Term
Does an RA provide command bar information ?
Definition
No. You will get avoidance information on the VSI only
Term
WX and Terrain information can be displayed on which pages ?
Definition
Navaid sector, TCAS, FMS map. ( any page with range )
Term
What is the name of the panel that allows the airspeeds to be set ?
Definition
ARP The Air data reference panel
Term
What is the name of the panel that allows autopilot commands to be input ?
Definition
FCP The flight control panel
Term
What does a heading message on the PFDs indicate ?
Definition
A disagreement of 6 degrees or more between each AHARS
Term
What does an amber ROL message indicate ?
Definition
A difference of more than 4 degrees of roll ( 3 degrees if the glideslope has been captured )
Term
What does ann amber pit message indicate ?
Definition
A difference of 4 degrees or more oif pitch ( 3 degrees if glideslope has been captured )
Term
What does an amber ALT message indicate ?
Definition
A difference of 60 feet or more between PFDs
Term
What does an amber LOC message mean ?
Definition
There is a difference between localizer recievers
Term
What does an amber GS message mean ?
Definition
There is a difference between glideslope recievers
Term
What does an amber RA message indicate ?
Definition
A difference between radio altimeters below 1000 feet AGL
Term
Where is the TAT probe located ?
Definition
Underneath the First Officer's side window
Term
How can you remove MDA/DH settings from the PFD ?
Definition
By pressing the center of the knob
Term
What is considered a good radar altimeter check ?
Definition
When the RA TEST button is pressed it should indicate a RAD ALT of 50 feet
Term
How do you change the speed reference between IAS and MACH ?
Definition
By pressing the center of the speed knob
Term
How are high and low speed cues presented to the pilot ?
Definition
The red checker board on the airspeed scale. High speed indicates MMO/VMO and the Low speed indicated 1.06 VS
Term
What does the trend vector represent ?
Definition
Predicted Aircraft speed in 10 seconds
Term
When does the MACH window appear ?
Definition
It appears whe airspeed reaches .45 mach, and disappears when airspeed drops below .40 mach
Term
What is the range of the barometeric altimeter ?
Definition
from - 1000 ft to 50,000 ft
Term
What happens to the altitude alert when the aircraft is passing through 1000 ft above or below selected altitude ?
Definition
The aural tone sounds and the altitude bug flashes
Term
What happens when the aircraft deviates from a selected altitude ?
Definition
At 200 ft deviation the aural tone sounds and the altitude bug flashes yellow ( a minor deviation will cause the bug to flash magenta )
Term
What is the indication for a failed radio altimeter ?
Definition
An RA in a red box appears, and the RA tape and digital readouts disappear
Term
What happens when the ADC airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed fails ?
Definition
Red air data flags will replace the information on the PFD
Term
What will happen if the aircraft descends to a negative altitude ?
Definition
A yellow NEG will be displayed next to the altimeter
Term
What are the components of the AHARS system ?
Definition
AHARS is made up of 2 computers, 2 flux detectors, and 2 compensator units
Term
When would you use DG mode on the compass control panel ?
Definition
In areas of magnetic field disruptions or during an AHARS heading failure
Term
What happens when you select DG on the compass selector panel ?
Definition
The flux detector no longer provides heading information
Term
What is the value of the vertical deviation dots on the glide slope ?
Definition
Each dot is 1/4 degree
Term
What is the AMI ( alpha margin indicator ) ?
Definition
During a windshear warning the AMI indicates the maximum pitch angle up to 30 degrees that can be acheived before the stick shaker will be activated
Term
How long will the AMI be present during a windshear warning ?
Definition
60 seconds
Term
If the heading bug is turned more than 180 degrees in heading mode which way will the aircraft turn ?
Definition
It will follow the bug
Term
If DME hold is selected will the FMS auto tune ?
Definition
No
Term
How can you tell if DME hold has been selected ?
Definition
An amber H repaces the NM of the navigation source on the PFD
Term
How can you find out what VOR and DME stations the FMS is currently using ?
Definition
By pulling up the VOR/DME status page
Term
What is the lateral deviation of the HSI ?
Definition
1 dot = 5 miles in VOR, 1 dot = 1 dgree in LOC, 1 dot = 5 NM in FMS
Term
What does an amber A or E in a box on the attitude indicator mean ?
Definition
Ailerons or Elevator is out of trim
Term
What does a red boxed DCP mean ?
Definition
A DCP failure
Term
How do you display radar on the MFD ?
Definition
Select the radar ON, and press the WX/TERR button on the DCP
Term
What is the purpose of the FMS PLAN MAP function ?
Definition
To verify flight plans.
Term
Is electrical power required for stand by instruments ?
Definition
No, however the vibrator for the stanby altimeter is electric
Term
What is the NAV source for the standby attitude indicator, LOC, and GS ?
Definition
The VHF navigation reciever, or the BTU ( BTU will display com1, NAV 1 when in standby )
Term
What will happen if a disply over temps ?
Definition
You will get a DISPLAY TEMP message , and information will be removed from the display. ( information returns once display has cooled )
Term
What does the De-Clutter function do ?
Definition
During an unusual attitude all non-essential information will be removed from the PFD
Term
Where are the DME antennas ?
Definition
On the bottom of the fuselage just forward of the wing
Term
How many DME signals is the NAV sytem capable of recieving at one time ?
Definition
6 - each VHF NAV reciever can recieve up to three stations at one time
Term
Can you use the FMS to tune the NAV radios ?
Definition
Yes, on the FMS radio page
Term
Where are the marker beacon antennas ?
Definition
Just forward of the aft equipment bay door
Term
How many transponders are installed ?
Definition
2
Term
Where are the transponder antennas ?
Definition
Each transponder has two antennas, one on the upper forward fuselage, and one on the lower forward fuselage for each
Term
What is the purpose of the EGPWS ?
Definition
To prevent CFIT 9 controlled flight into terrain ) and to provide windshear warnings
Term
What MFD formats allow terrain info to be displayed ?
Definition
FMS map, and Nav sector
Term
When is the EGPWS active ?
Definition
The EGPWS is always active
Term
What will happen if the WX display is being used and the EGPWS produces a terrain warning ?
Definition
Terrain info will replace the radar
Term
Can the EGPWS warnings be inhibited ?
Definition
Yes, by pressing the GRD PROX over ride switch light
Term
When will the EGPWS produce a windshear warning ?
Definition
During decreasing performance conditions. Tailwind or a downdraft
Term
What is the monitoring range of the TCAS ?
Definition
40 NM
Term
What TCAS warnings are accompanied by an aural alert ?
Definition
TA traffic advisory, and RA resolution advisory
Term
When will a threat symbol on TCAS produce an up/down arrow ?
Definition
When climbing or descending at at least 500 fpm
Term
What are the two types of RA's ?
Definition
Preventative tells the pilot not to fly a certain direction. Corrective tells the pilot to change his present vertical flight path
Term
How fast should you respond to an RA ?
Definition
Within 2.5 seconds
Term
How do you know what the correct vertical speed to maintain would be during an RA ?
Definition
The green arc on the VSI
Term
When are RA warnings inhibited ?
Definition
Descending below 900 feet agl, and climbing below 1100 feet agl
Term
What are the 3 selectable modes of the TCAS ?
Definition
STBY = all interrogations are prohibited AUTO = RAs and TAs will be provided. TA ONLY = only TAs will be provided
Term
What is the difference between REL and ABS on the TCAS ?
Definition
ABS is absolute altitude based on barometric pressure. REL is relative altitude based on the difference between the altitude of the two aircraft
Term
Explain NORM, ABOVE, BELOW functions of the TCAS.
Definition
NORM scans 2700 feet above and below the aircraft. ABOVE scans 9900 feet above and 2700 feet below. BELOW scans 9900 feet below and 2700 feet above the aircraft
Term
Does the OFF mode of the radar park the antenna ?
Definition
Yes
Term
Does the radar transmit during the test ?
Definition
No
Term
What is the danger zone in front of the radar ?
Definition
2 feet
Term
What is the degree range of the radar tilt ?
Definition
Plus or minus 15 degrees
Term
How wide is the radar beam ?
Definition
12 degrees
Term
What tilt setting would you use to put the bottom of the beam level with the aircraft ?
Definition
Plus six degrees
Term
What does the STAB button on the radar do ?
Definition
Automatically stabalizes the radar to maintain desired tilt during turns and pitch changes
Term
What does the SEC button do ?
Definition
Cycles the radar sweep between 60 degrees and 30 degrees allowing for a faster return during shorter sweep
Term
What is the purpose of auto-tilt ?
Definition
To maintain a constant tilt angle during changes to altitude and range
Term
What is the MAP function of the radar used for ?
Definition
Mapping terrain ( PAC alerts and GCS are disabled )
Term
What is GCS ?
Definition
Ground clutter suppresion. Used to reduce ground returns on radar
Term
True or False. The TCF ( Terrain Clearance Floor ) data base contains all airports with a runway greater than 3500 feet ?
Definition
TRUE
Term
True or False. The TAAD ( Terrain awareness alerting and display ) data base contains terrain information for the U.S and Canada ?
Definition
TRUE
Term
When no sensor data is available, what mode will the FMS NAV in ?
Definition
DR dead reckoning mode
Term
What happens when ALT is pressed on the FCP ?
Definition
The auto pilot will maintain the pressure altitude at the time of selection
Term
When the auto pilot is engaged, will the FD sync switch be operative ?
Definition
No
Term
What does the TURB button do ?
Definition
It reduces auto pilot gain making adjustments more subtle
Term
What does pushing the center of the ALT knob do ?
Definition
It cancels altitude alerts both aural, and visual
Term
What doe the witness lights on the FCP indicate ?
Definition
They indicate that the FCC has acknowledged the input
Term
Will the loss of one FCC disable the auto pilot ?
Definition
Yes
Term
What is the primary means of determining the flight director mode of operations ?
Definition
The FMA flight mode annunciator
Term
What are the three modes of the " speed " button ?
Definition
1- Climb or descend 2- IAS or Mach 3- Pitch
Term
What does pushing the AP XFER button on the FCP do ?
Definition
It transfers auto pilot control from FCC 1 to FCC 2
Term
Does pushing the TOGA buttons disconnect the auto pilot ?
Definition
Yes
Term
Selecting various FD modes is accomplished how ?
Definition
Making selections on the FCP
Term
If a new FD mode becomes active what will the indication be ?
Definition
It will flash green five times then then turn green
Term
When is the missed approach shown on the MFD ?
Definition
When missed approach is active, or when it has been selected
Term
What two ways can the FD command bars be flown ?
Definition
Manually, or by the auto pilot
Term
How many FCC's ( flight control computers ) are there ?
Definition
2
Term
Where do the FCC's recieve their information from ?
Definition
ADC's and AHARS
Term
IAre the yaw dampers part of the auto pilot system ?
Definition
No they are independant. The auto pilot is a two axis system that works in conjunction with the yaw dampers
Term
How long does the command generated by the TOGA button last ?
Definition
60 seconds
Term
Is the TURB mode available on approach ?
Definition
No it will dissengage when the LOC is captured
Term
What are the lateral modes on the FCP ?
Definition
TO, ROLL, HDG, NAV, APPR, B/C, 1/2 BANK
Term
What is the default lateral mode ?
Definition
ROLL
Term
What is the default vertical mode ?
Definition
PITCH
Term
What will the indication be when the aircraft reaches 1000 ft of the selected ALT ?
Definition
An aural tone will sound, and a flashing ALTS
Term
When the aircraft deviates from a selected ALT by + or - 100 feet what will the indication be ?
Definition
The altitude bug will flash and be accompanied by an aural tone
Term
What does each click of the pitch wheel equate to when in VS mode ?
Definition
A climb or descent rate of 100 ft per minute
Term
What two systems are integrated by the AFCS ?
Definition
The FD ( flight director ) and the auto pilot
Term
What are the four system components of the AFCS ?
Definition
The FCP, 2 FCCs, 2 auto pilot servo motors, and both yaw dampers
Term
Where does the FD recieve its data from ?
Definition
The FCC's
Term
During normal ops both one FD is supplying info to both PFD's, When would both FD's be active and providing onside info ?
Definition
Take Off mode, Approach mode, and Go Around mode
Term
What happens when a FD fails ?
Definition
A FD FAIL status message is generated and a red FD in a box will appear on the PFD's
Term
What are the two fields of the FMA ?
Definition
The left side is active and the right side is armed
Term
What will the indication be if any of the information in the FMA is invalid ?
Definition
It will be replaced by a red line where the information would normally be displayed
Term
What is the purpose of the FD SYNC button ?
Definition
When the auto pilot is not active it will sync the FD to the current vertical and lateral modes
Term
Explain the TO mode.
Definition
When a TOGA button is pressed, a green TO will be displayed on the FMA. in the vertical and lateral modes. The lateral mode will hold aircraft heading at the time of take off and the pitch mode will set to 15 degrees pitch up.
Term
When the LOC is captured what will automatically clear if engaged ?
Definition
Heading mode, half bank, and the turbulence mode
Term
What course must be selected when activating the B/C mode ?
Definition
The front course must be set for B/C mode to work
Term
What does the 1/2 bank button do ?
Definition
It limits the FD bank angle to 15 degrees
Term
How is a pre-selected altitude armed when it is set in the altitude alerter ?
Definition
It becomes armed when a vertical mode is selected
Term
How is the altitude capturing point of the FD determined ?
Definition
It is determined by closure rate.
Term
What are the vertical modes or the FD ?
Definition
ALTS, PITCH, TO, GA, GS, VS, IAS, DES, CLB, ALT
Term
With the FD in TO mode what will happen if an engine fails ?
Definition
The FD pitch will reduce to 10 degrees
Term
What must you do before selecting a vertical mode on the FCP ?
Definition
Select a new ALT in the ALT pr-select
Term
At what altitude does the airspeed automatically change from IAS to MACH ?
Definition
31,600 feet
Term
When you press the TOGA during a go-around what will the pitch angle of the FD be ?
Definition
10 degrees
Term
What control surfaces do the auto pilot servos control ?
Definition
Elevators and ailerons only. rudder control is accomplished by the yaw dampers
Term
What conditions must exsist before the auto pilot can be engaged ?
Definition
The aircraft must be in a stable flight condition. both FCCs must be operating, At least one yaw damper must be engaged, At least one channel of horizontal stabilizer is engaged and the HSTCU detects no faults
Term
With the auto pilot engaged, what will the indication be if the aircraft is out of trim ?
Definition
You will recieve an AP trim caution message. example AP trim is LWD, RWD, ND or NU
Term
How do you know the AP has been disconnected ?
Definition
A red AP will flash on the PFD and an aural warning ( cavalry charge ) sounds for five seconds
Term
What are the methods of disconnecting the auto pilot ?
Definition
Pressing the YD DISC, Pressing either TOGA, pressing the AP ENG button, AP DISC on the FCP, Stab trim split switches, AP/SP DISC on the yoke
Term
What will cause the auto pilot to automatically disengage ?
Definition
Windshear, Stall warning, Failure of both Yaw Dampers, or Unusual attitudes
Term
What are the eight ways the auto pilot will disconnect ?
Definition
1- If both yaw dampers dissengage 2- AP button on the FCP is pressed 3- TOGA buttons 4- operating the manual pitch trim 5- switching to the standby FCC 6- lowering the AP disc bar 7- auto pilot DISC on the yoke is pressed 8- 2 seconds after a winshear warning it will auto disconnect
Term
Will the auto pilot disconnect during a windshear warning ?
Definition
During a warning ( red ) it will dissconnect in 2 seconds. During an alert ( amber ) it will not disconnect
Term
The APU exhaust danger area is:
Definition
15 ft.
Term
The maximum landing weight for the CL-65 is.....
Definition
47,000 lbs.
Term
Following the first unsuccessful engine start attempt (less than 1 minute), it is recommended that an additional start attempt be made after observing what time?
Definition
10 seconds
Term
What is the minimum battery voltage required on both batteries to start the APU?
Definition
22 volts
Term
The fuel for the APU is delivered by the APU/XFLOW pump from the following tank(s)
Definition
Both wing tanks
Term
The APU LCV serves what purpose?
Definition
A) Pressurizes the left 10th stage bleed air manifold with APU bleed air

B)Helps limit the turbine temperature so that the APU doesn’t exceed max EGT

C)Prevents high pressure 10th stage engine bleed air from back-flowing into the APU
Term
Which parameter will not cause a take-off configuration warning?

A) Flaps
B) Spoilers
C) Doors
D) Trim
Definition
C) Doors
Term
What do the galley service door and the avionics bay door have in common?
Definition
Both are displayed in AMBER on the DOORS page when opened
Term
A single TRU has an output capability of:
Definition
28 Volts / 100 Amps
Term
Which TRU is powered by the ADG indirectly during an ADG deployment?
Definition
Essential TRU 1
Term
In flight, when will both AC UTILITY busses automatically load shed?
Definition
During single generator operations
Term
The illumination of the IDG FAULT light indicates?
Definition
High oil temperature
Term
The ADG supplies AC power to:
Definition
ESS AC Bus
Term
Single pack operation is limited to:
Definition
FL 250
Term
The CL-65 has two outflow valves;
Definition
Both require 10th stage bleed air, that generates vacuum to open the valves
Term
When selected, the EMER DEPRESS switch on the CABIN PRESS panel will:
Definition
Command both outflow valves to open
Term
When the ENG FIRE PUSH switch is pressed in, it will:
Definition
A)Arm the fire bottle squibs

B)Close the fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shutoff valves (SOV’s)

C)Trips the engine driven generator relay to OFF
Term
The Cargo FIREX bottle is discharged:
Definition
By a switch on the CARGO FIREX panel
Term
Which area(s) have only an overheat detection system?
Definition
Main landing gear bay
Term
Which of the following conditions would be the minimum required for the ground and flight spoilers to auto-deploy with the thrust levers at idle?
Definition
L or R MLG WOW, Wheel Speed greater than 16 kts
Term
With an aileron system jam, the ROLL DISC handle is pulled and the pilot with the operable controls selects the ROLL SEL switch to:
Definition
Gain control of the on-side spoileron
Term
The HSTCU has a priority logic. Which one of the following has the highest priority?

A) Mach trim input
B) AFCS trim input
C) Auto-trim input
D) Pilot trim input
Definition
D) Pilot trim input
Term
TRUE/FALSE: It takes both loops in the engine nacelle to detect a fire to generate an EICAS “ENG FIRE” warning message? (Both loops operable)
Definition
TRUE
Term
If a PFD fails, PFD information can be displayed on the MFD by the:
Definition
Display Reversionary Panel
Term
Your main tanks were fueled to 4400 lbs each. What is the maximum amount of fuel allowed in the center tank for takeoff?
Definition
500 lbs
Term
What is the maximum amount of fuel by pressure refueling:
Definition
14,518 lbs.
Term
Which ejector pumps are used to move fuel from the main tank to the collector tanks?
Definition
Scavenge ejectors
Term
If the left main tank quantity is low (compared to the right main tank) and auto cross flow begins, the fuel will be taken from the following tank(s):
Definition
Left and Right main tanks
Term
You have just done a left engine in-flight shutdown. Which hydraulic pump(s) have you lost?
Definition
1A and 2B
Term
Which hydraulic system(s) are cooled by RAM air during flight?
Definition
1 and 2
Term
Which hydraulic pumps do the engines mechanically drive?
Definition
1A and 2A
Term
Which hydraulic pump is powered by the ADG during total AC loss?
Definition
3b
Term
Hydraulic system number 3 pumps are located:
Definition
In the fuselage just aft of the landing gear bays
Term
In flight, the cowl anti-ice system must be on when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system or when in visible moisture and less than 1 mile visibility and temperature is less than _________, except when the SAT is –40 degrees C or below.
Definition
TAT 10 degrees C
Term
Which buttons on the EICAS control panel (ECP) remain active if the ECP loses power?
Definition
PRI, STAT, CAS, and STEP
Term
If the gear handle fails, what brings the gear down safely when the emergency gear extension handle is pulled?
Definition
Gravity and Hydraulic system #2
Term
The anti-skid system provides protection:
Definition
After a 35 knot wheel spin up and provides protection down to 10 knots
Term
When the EMER LTS switch is in the ARMED position, the emergency lights will come on automatically if:
Definition
The AC essential and / or DC essential bus(es) lose power
Term
The passenger oxygen system consists of:
Definition
Oxygen generators and masks that deploy automatically at 14,000’ cabin alt.
Term
During your preflight walkaround, you discover that the green blowout disk on the lower right side of the fuselage is missing. This indicates:
Definition
Over-pressure in the O2 bottle has occurred
Term
10th stage bleed-air is used for:
Definition
Avionics cooling, air-conditioning, engine start and pressurization
Term
14th stage bleed-air is used for:
Definition
Thrust reversers, wing and cowl anti-ice
Term
The lowest permissible altitude with the autopilot engaged during a visual approach is?
Definition
400ft
Term
The 10th stage bleed air SOV’s are spring loaded (fail-safe) , and the 14th stage bleed air SOV’s are spring-loaded (fail-safe) .
Definition
Closed, Open
Term
During engine start, when will starter & ignition cutout automatically occur?
Definition
55% N2
Term
Prior to introducing fuel during an engine start, the ITT should be ________ or less for all ground starts.
Definition
120*c
Term
What effect does thrust reverse activation have on the anti-ice system?
Definition
Wing and cowl anti-ice valves are automatically closed
Term
Which DC TIE(s) have an automatic function?
Definition
TIE 1 and TIE 2
Term
Which Auto-Flight Control System modes generate both lateral and vertical guidance?
Definition
Takeoff, Go-around and Approach
Term
Which power source feeds the emergency lighting system?
Definition
Independent rechargeable batteries for 15 minutes
Term
An APU fire on the ground will cause:
Definition
The APU to shut down, FIREX bottle to discharge, and an EICAS MSG
Term
The first item on this flow is to select Prior to takeoff, the First Officer performs the before takeoff flow. t XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN. Why is this done?
Definition
During takeoff the auto cross-flow system my inadvertently cross-flow fuel due to false fuel quantity indications during rotation on takeoff
Term
What is the Maximum speed to extend the flaps from 0 to 8 degrees? (AWAC Min.)
Definition
200KIAS
Term
When will the illumination of the overhead amber ICE light occur?
Definition
Wing and cowl anti-ice selected OFF and ice is detected
Term
Automatic Performance Reserve (APR) will produce a 2% increase in thrust in the event of an engine failure on takeoff. What is the 2% increase added to?
Definition
The current N1 thrust indication on ED1
Term
During a GEAR BAY OVERHEAT warning, the QRH would instruct the pilot to first slow the aircraft to kts, and then lower the gear.
Definition
250Kias
Term
Maximum crosswind for dry conditions?
Definition
27kias
Term
When can the APU bleed air be used for engine starts in flight?
Definition
13,000 ft. and below for a dual engine failure
Term
Data Concentrator Units (DCU’s) are located in the avionics bay and are used to
Definition
Process and format all aircraft operating information and transmits the data to EICAS displays, IAPS, lamp driver units, and the flight data recorder
Term
What is the generator priority for AC BUS 2?
Definition
Gen 2 – APU – Gen 1 – External AC
Term
Compute the following landing distance problem with the information given. Please compute the headwind into the landing distance.

Airport condition: Moderate Rain
Flaps: 45
Landing weight: 45,900 LBS
Airport pressure altitude: 1920 ft
Runway: 9L (090º)
Wind: 030º @ 30 Kts
Definition
5292 ft.
Term
What is the maximum runway depth of wet snow covering an appreciable part of the runway for takeoff?
Definition
1.00”
Term
What would be the maximum permissible ambient temperature for takeoff at Denver
International Airport, which has a field elevation of 5,400 FT?


A) 50* C
B) 35* C
C) 39* C
D) 34* C
Definition
C) 39* C
Term
Takeoff configuration warnings will occur during takeoff when
Definition
N1 > 70%
Term
The “B” Hydraulic pumps will come ON automatically in flight under what condition with the switches in AUTO?
Definition
Flaps > 0*
Term
With the parking brake set and all hydraulic systems OFF, which brakes will hold for a prolonged period of time?
Definition
Inboard
Term
When will the passenger masks automatically deploy?
Definition
When CPAM detects a cabin altitude of 14,000’
Term
What is the normal system fluid quantity for each hydraulic system?
Definition
45% - 85%
Term
Describe what happens from arming the ignition to pressing the start button for engine start.
Definition
Pressing the A or B arms the ignition, pressing start energizes the ignition opens the start valve, 10th stage sovs and ISOL valve. It uses 10th stage bleed air to spin the starter which spins the n2. at 20%n2 and below 120ITT fuel is introduced by the pilot advancing the thrust lever. at 55% it closes the start valve and cuts out the starter. Ignition remains armed until the captain turns it off in his after start flow.
Term
How long is the aircraft?
Definition
87' 1"
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