Term
| Pt position for a lateral skull: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Part position for a lateral skull: |
|
Definition
- MSP of head parallel to IR
- IPL perpendicular to IR
- IOML parallel to transverse axis of cassette |
|
|
Term
| The CR enters _" superior to the EAM on a lateral skull. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Part position for PA/PA axial skull (Caldwell): |
|
Definition
- OML perpendicular to IR plane
- MSP perpendicular to IR
- IR centered to nasion |
|
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Term
| The CR for a PA axial skull (Caldwell) is angled __ degrees ______ and exits the _____. |
|
Definition
- 15 degrees caudad
- exits the nasion |
|
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Term
| The CR for a PA skull is angled __ degrees and exits the _____. |
|
Definition
- 0 degrees (perpendicular)
- exits the nasion |
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Term
| The PA/PA axial skull is preferred over the AP/AP axial because the resulting image is less: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Part position for AP/AP axial skull (inverse Caldwell): |
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Definition
| - MSP & OML perpendicular to IR |
|
|
Term
| Part position for AP axial (Towne method) skull: |
|
Definition
- MSP perpendicular to IR
- OML or IOML perpendicular to IR |
|
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Term
| The CR for an AP axial (Towne method) skull is directed __ degrees ______ to the OML or __ degrees ______ to the IOML and exits the _______ _______. |
|
Definition
- OML = 30 degrees caudal
- IOML = 37 degrees caudal
- exits the foramen magnum |
|
|
Term
| What is the part position for PA axial (Haas) skull / aka inverse Towne? |
|
Definition
- MSP perpendicular to IR
- OML perpendicular to IR |
|
|
Term
| The CR for a PA axial (Haas) is directed at a _______ angle of __ degrees to the OML. It enters a point __" below the external occipital protuberance and exits __" superior to the nasion. |
|
Definition
- 25 degrees cephalad to the OML
- Enters 1.5" (3.8 cm) below the external occipital protuberance
- Exits 1.5" (3.8 cm) superior to the nasion |
|
|
Term
| What is the part position for an SMV skull (Schuller)? |
|
Definition
- MSP perpendicular to IR
- IOML parallel with IR |
|
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Term
| On an SMV skull, the CR enters the MSP of the throat between the angles of the _______. It passes through the _____ ______ at a point __" anterior to the level of the EAM. |
|
Definition
| - enters between angles of the mandible - passes through the sella turcica 3/4" (1.9 cm) anterior to the level of the EAM |
|
|
Term
| Name 2 structures that are seen in profile on a lateral skull: |
|
Definition
1. Orbital roofs
2. Sella turcica |
|
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Term
| In a PA skull, the ______ ridges fill up the orbits, and the _____ ____ is located in-between the superior orbital margins. |
|
Definition
1. Petrous
2. Crista galli |
|
|
Term
| On a Caldwell skull, the petrous ridges lie in the _____ ___ of the orbits. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anatomy is projected within the foramen magnum on a Towne skull? |
|
Definition
| Dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid processes |
|
|
Term
| On an SMV skull, what anatomy is projected within the foramen magnum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When giving a patient a signed consent form it is imperative that the radiographer tell the patient his/her rights; name them: |
|
Definition
- the right to read the signed consent
- the right to have somebody else read the signed consent to him/her
- the right to have someone else explain the signed consent to him/her in detail |
|
|
Term
| Are abbreviations allowed on a signed consent form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A signed consent form is a ____ document. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who must be the last person to sign a consent form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is a VCUG a sterile procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (True or False) All sterile procedures are invasive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (True or False) All invasive procedures are sterile. |
|
Definition
| False - not all invasive procedures are sterile |
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|
Term
| Aseptic technique is aka what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The uterine tubes open into the _________ cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of the uterine tubes? (medial to lateral) |
|
Definition
1. Isthmus
2. Ampulla
3. Infundibulum |
|
|
Term
| The uterus is situated in the central part of the ______ cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A uterus of a woman who has never given birth: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The four parts of the uterus: (superior to inferior) |
|
Definition
1. Fundus
2. Body
3. Isthmus
4. Cervix |
|
|
Term
| The inner mucosal lining of the uterine cavity: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormal erosion of the endometrium that causes a lot of bleeding and is a contraindication of an HSG: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An HSG is a radiographic-diagnosis procedure, but it also has a ________ potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the prep for an HSG? |
|
Definition
- performed 10 days after menstruation (avoids irradiating a fertilized egg)
- no sex for 10 days prior to exam
- Blood pregnancy test the day of the exam |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| KUB (CR 2" superior to pubis symphysis) |
|
|
Term
| What specialized catheter is used for an HSG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What overhead images are usually taken during an HSG? |
|
Definition
| AP, two 45 degree obliques, and post suction |
|
|
Term
| Is the contrast used for an HSG water soluble? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two divisions of the CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two different tissue portions of the CNS? |
|
Definition
- gray matter = outer portion/cortex
- white matter = inner portion |
|
|
Term
| The ____ substance of the spinal cord forms an H-shape seen on transverse sectional images. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The spinal cord extends from the brain to the L_ - L_ space. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cauda equina refers to spinal nerves and literally means: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 layers of the meninges: (deep-shallow) |
|
Definition
1. Pia mater
2. Arachnoid
3. Dura mater |
|
|
Term
| The three continuous, protective membranes that enclose the brain and the spinal cord: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The inner sheath membrane of the meninges. It is highly vascular and closely adhered: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The delicate central sheath membrane of the meninges: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The widest of subarachnoid cisterns. It is located in the lower posterior fossa between the base of the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla oblongata. It works as a filter to stop certain chemicals from reaching the brain: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A wide space between the arachnoid and pia mater. It is continuous with the ventricular system: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Areas of subarachnoid space that are increased in width: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The outermost meningeal layer. It is strong and fibrous: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the sac that encloses the cauda equina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A general term applied to the radiologic examination of the CNS structures situated in the vertebral canal. It requires contrast introduction into the subarachnoid space by spinal puncture: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The spinal puncture for a Myelogram is made at the L_ - L_ space or the L-_ - L_ space. |
|
Definition
L2 - L3 or L3 - L4
On quiz/test may say between L2 and L5 |
|
|
Term
| The thecal sac is commonly located between L_ and L_. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the contrast for a myelography injected (above/below/in) the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long are patients who have had a myelogram held in recovery before being allowed to be released home? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During a myelogram, CSF is usually withdrawn to check what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Caffeine is sometimes given to the pt S/P myelogram because it is a _____________ that prevents leakage of contrast into the brain, and it keeps the contrast in the spinal canal longer to improve diagnostic quality for follow-up CT. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Instructions to give to pt to avoid spinal headache: |
|
Definition
- rest for 24 hrs
- drink extra clear fluids |
|
|
Term
| What type of contrast does a Sialogram require? |
|
Definition
| Oil based iodinated contrast |
|
|
Term
| How many pairs of salivary glands are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 3 pairs of salivary glands: |
|
Definition
1. Parotid
2. Submandibular
3. Sublingual |
|
|
Term
| The salivary glands produce about _ L of saliva per day. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the largest pair of salivary glands? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the smallest pair of salivary glands? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arthrography is only performed on what type of joints? |
|
Definition
| synovial joints that have at least one bursa |
|
|
Term
| The wrist has how many chambers? How many injections of contrast media are needed on a wrist arthrogram? |
|
Definition
| 3 chambers; 3 different injections |
|
|
Term
| The radiologist accesses the bursa of a joint with what type of needle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common projections of a wrist arthrogram? |
|
Definition
- PA
- Lateral
- Both obliques |
|
|
Term
| Hip arthrograms are most often performed to: |
|
Definition
- evaluate congenital hip dislocation in children
- detect loose hip prosthesis in adults
- Confirm infection in adults |
|
|
Term
| Shoulder arthrograms are most often performed to evaluate: |
|
Definition
- partial or complete tears in the rotator cuff or glenoid labrum
- persistent pain or weakness
- frozen shoulder |
|
|
Term
| In which joints can double contrast be used during an arthrogram? |
|
Definition
| the shoulder and knee joints |
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