Term
| How does the US public health care system differ from other parts of the health care system? |
|
Definition
| primary emphasis is PREVENTING disease and disability, and it focuses on POPULATION rather that individual health |
|
|
Term
| What is the common point or concept among defintions of public health? |
|
Definition
| prevention of disease and promotion of health |
|
|
Term
| What is Category A of public health? |
|
Definition
| tools and science of public health: epidemiology and statistics |
|
|
Term
| What is Category B of public health? |
|
Definition
| Health science research and investigation: biomedical sciences and environmental health sciences |
|
|
Term
| What is Category C of public health? |
|
Definition
| social and medical care sytem: social and behavioral science, and health care administration and medical care system |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic science of public health, and the study of anything that affects the population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who often provides first indication of the nature of a new disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a sudden and widespread outbreak of disease within a population, group or specific area |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the ongoing presence of a disease within a population, group or specific area |
|
|
Term
| What is the defining characteristic of a pandemic? |
|
Definition
| it occurs over a large geographic area, possibly worldwide |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The number of new cases of disease or injury in a population per unit of time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the total number of cases of disease or injury in a population at a given time |
|
|
Term
| Prevalence is affected by which main two factors? |
|
Definition
| Indidence and duration of disease in a population |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| proportion of diseased people who test positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the proportion of well people who test negative |
|
|
Term
| Describe primary prevention |
|
Definition
| promotion of health at individual and community levels by promoting healthier behavior, preventing the onset of risk, eliminating exposure to environmental hazards - risk reduction, decrease indicidence |
|
|
Term
| Describe secondary prevention |
|
Definition
| strategies that seek to identify and control disease processes in early stages, reduces prevalence, - screening and treatment |
|
|
Term
| Describe tertiary prevention |
|
Definition
| strategies that prevent disability by restoring affected individuals to their optimal level of functioning after a disease or injury is established and damage is done - prevent recurrance and slow progression |
|
|
Term
| Dietary factors are asssociated with which 5 of the 10 leading causes of death? |
|
Definition
| coronary heart disease, cancer (colon), stroke, NIDDM, atherosclerosis |
|
|
Term
| What did Dr. Burkett have to say about health in US vs. Africa? |
|
Definition
| entire US constipated, african medical students go through 5 years training without seeing CAD or appendicitis, large stools = small hospitals |
|
|
Term
| What was the major killer of humans throughout history until the beginning of the 20th century? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sort of public health measures helped to conquer infectious diseases? |
|
Definition
| drinking water purification, proper sewage disposal, milk pasteurization, immunization, improved nutrition and personal hygiene |
|
|
Term
| In general, what are Koch's postulates? |
|
Definition
| a set of rules used to investigate the spread of infectious disease and prove that a specific organism caused a specific disease |
|
|
Term
| Who added the 4th rule for experimental proof of pathogenicity to Koch's 3 rules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rule 1 of Koch's Postulates - the organism must be present in... |
|
Definition
| every active case of the disease |
|
|
Term
| Rule 2 of Koch's Postulates - the organism must be... |
|
Definition
| isolated and grown in laboratory culture |
|
|
Term
| Rule 3 of Koch's Postulates - When injected with laboratory culture... |
|
Definition
| susceptible test animals must develop the disease. If introduced to a different host it must produce the same infectious disease. |
|
|
Term
| Rule 4 of Koch's Postulates - The organism must be isolated from the newly infected animals and... |
|
Definition
| the repeated process must produce the same results. |
|
|
Term
| What are protozoa? They can cause different diseases in a community according to what factors? |
|
Definition
| a single celled animal that lives as a parasite in the human body, depends on the environment and health status of the individual |
|
|
Term
| What is cryptosporidium parvum? What is the disease it causes? What epidemic did it cause? Where can it live? How is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
| a protozoan, diarrheal disease cryptosporidiosis, caused Milwaukee diarrhea epidemic in '93, can live in intestine of humans/animals, passed in stool of infected person/animal |
|
|
Term
| What is Giardia intestinalis? Also known as what? Which illness does it cause? Where does it live? How is it passed? Can it survive outside the body? |
|
Definition
| a protozoan, giardia lamblia, causes giardiasis aka beaver fever, lives in intestine of people and animals, passed in stool, can survive outside for a long period because it is protected by an outer shell |
|
|
Term
| Giardia has become recognizes as one of the most common causes of which type of disease? Where are they found? In what sort of water? |
|
Definition
| waterborn, worldwide and in all regions of US, recreational and drinking water |
|
|
Term
| What type of organism are nematodes? What are their primary locations in the body? Name a few types. |
|
Definition
| parasites, intestines and tissue. Roundworms, whipworm, hookworms, pinworms. |
|
|
Term
| What organisms are the most common source of infection in the world? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is direct vs. indirect transmission? |
|
Definition
| direct: from one person to another, indirect: via other means like water, air, food, vectors |
|
|
Term
| Bacteria and viruses cause what sort of respiratory infections? How are they transmitted? |
|
Definition
| colds, influenza, TB. transmitted thru air on aerosols, water droplets produce infection after infected person coughs or sneezes. Can also be transmitted thru touching objects and transferring to nose. |
|
|
Term
| How did early European settlers conduct germ warfare? |
|
Definition
| Gave smallpox patients' blankets to American Indians |
|
|
Term
| how are GI infections generally spread? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do vector borne diseases generally cause a more complex route of transmission? |
|
Definition
| the disease has its own pattern of development after a person is infected |
|
|
Term
| The public health approach to controlling infection diseases is to... |
|
Definition
| interrupt the chain of infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the four links in the chain of infection? |
|
Definition
| 1. pathogen, 2. reservoir, 3. method of transmission, 4. susceptible host |
|
|
Term
| Vaccination not only keep an individual from contracting a disease but also... |
|
Definition
| makes it harder for the pathogen to find susceptible hosts |
|
|
Term
| Describe the 3 steps of epidemiological surveillance |
|
Definition
| 1. identify the cause, 2. break the chain of infection and halt the spread, 3. identify host, reservoir, vector and environment |
|
|
Term
| Rabies causes which fatal condition? How is it transmitted? What is the virus family? |
|
Definition
| viral encephalitis, through saliva of infected bats and some animals, rhabdoviridae |
|
|
Term
| Why is routine rabies vaccination not recommended? |
|
Definition
| expensive (may be up to $1500), inconvenient, several injections over a month |
|
|
Term
| The rabies virus infects only... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first line of defense in protecting people from rabies? |
|
Definition
| manditory immunzation of dogs because they are animals most likely to bite humans, cat vaccination is recommended as well |
|
|
Term
| What is the status of an animal capable of transmitting rabies in its saliva? |
|
Definition
| already has brain involvement, will exhibit symptoms, will die in a few days |
|
|
Term
| _____s are the most dangerous rabies threat to humans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease is believed to have first emerged in Asia around the time of Christ, and spread in major epidemics claiming millions of lives during the Roman Empire, and in China, Japan, Europe and Americas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What observation inspired the idea of vaccination? |
|
Definition
| survivors of the disease were immune to future infection |
|
|
Term
| What did Edward Jenner prove? |
|
Definition
| innoculation with cowpox provided immunity against smallpox |
|
|
Term
| By the year _____, routine immunization had eliminated smallpox in the US and other industrialized countries, but it was still widespread in underdeveloped countries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which countries supported the WHO's program to eliminate smallpox? The last case was seen where and when? |
|
Definition
| US and Soviet Union, Somalia in '77 |
|
|
Term
| Where is smallpox remaining today? |
|
Definition
| CDC in Atlanta, Russian lab in Siberia |
|
|
Term
| What organisms does poliovirus infect? Where has it been essentially eliminated? |
|
Definition
| only humans, western hemisphere |
|
|
Term
| Measles vaccine became available in what year? What two problems interferred with eradication? |
|
Definition
| 1963, outbreaks occured among high school and college students who were vaccinated as babies, immunity conferred by vaccination in infancy wears off and booster is needed in older children |
|
|
Term
| A 1991 study in NYC found that up to ___% of cases of ____ were not reported. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| infectious diseases transmitted from animals to humans |
|
|
Term
| Most zoonosis are acquired when humans... |
|
Definition
| intrude into the animal's environment, or handle animals or their carcasses |
|
|
Term
| Transmission of zoonosis can occur my consumption of... |
|
Definition
| untreated/uncooked products like milk, cheese and preserved meat |
|
|
Term
| What causes brucellosis? Describe the pathogen. |
|
Definition
| infectious disease caused by bacterium of genus brucella, gram negative aerobic coccobacillus |
|
|
Term
| Name the 3 species of brucella (out of 6) that have public health implications. |
|
Definition
| brucella melitensis, suis, abortus |
|
|
Term
| Which species of brucella is the most pathogenic, invasive and frequently occurring? Which species follow it, in order? |
|
Definition
| melitensis, suis, abortus |
|
|
Term
| Describe the incubation period of brucellosis. |
|
Definition
| 1-2 mo, intermittant or regular fever, sweats, malaise, headache. Any organ or system may be involved with variable presentation, but liver is always involved |
|
|
Term
| How long do blood cultures take for brucellosis? Why would you do a bone marrow culture? What is the most common lab method for diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| 7-21 days, in patients with neg blood cultures, serology most common - IgM and IgG titers against 3 major pathogens, ELISA for sensitivity and specificity |
|
|
Term
| What type of cell does brucella survive within? What is the treatment of choice? What offers the best chance of recovery? What should you never use? |
|
Definition
| phagocytes (tx needs to penetrate cells), tetracycline + rifampin or doxycycline + gentamicin for 6 wks. Kids: trimethoprim-suldamethoxazole + rifampin. best change of recovery with doxycycline + aminoglycoside. never use single drug |
|
|
Term
| What is Plague caused by? Describe the pathogen. Where does it exist? |
|
Definition
| Yersinia pestis, aerobic gram-negative bacilli. Flea-born disease of rodents, exists in many rural and wooded areas througout the world |
|
|
Term
| Urban environmental transmission of plague can exist if what happens? What are most human cases acquired from? other cases from what? |
|
Definition
| if wild animals, humans and rats share the same environment. from inoculation by flea-bite transmission or handling infected rodents. other - inhalation of organism, or from infected pet |
|
|
Term
| In addition to rats, plague can be transmitted by... |
|
Definition
| chipmunks, ground squirrels, other wild rodents |
|
|
Term
| Describe the incubation period, onset of disease, and manifestations of plague? |
|
Definition
| 1-7d, can be up to 12d, onset abrupt with fever, tremor and chills. toxemia and bacteremic as well as local disease. hemorrhagic manifesttion, buboes |
|
|
Term
| What are buboes? What are the most often involved areas? untreated cases result in what? |
|
Definition
| enlarged and suppurating regional LNs, surrounded by boggy, often hemorrhagic edema. inguinal nodes. pus discharge after a week or two. |
|
|
Term
| If large number of pts are presenting to ER with hemoptysis and severe rapidly progressive pneumonia, consider... |
|
Definition
| biologic attack with Y pestis |
|
|
Term
| Which organism can cause skin and mucous membrane petchial and ecchymotic lesions, intense hemorrhagic rash in bactermic case, pneumonitis less commonly but often rapidly fatal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are pts with Y pestis pneumonitis infective? How might Dx be made? |
|
Definition
| highly infective, spreads by droplet. CXR, gram stain of LN aspirate or sputum |
|
|
Term
| What is a highly sensitive and specific test for Y pestis? How is definitive dx made? What are complications of this illness? |
|
Definition
| rapid ELISA antigen test, sputum and blood cx that are slow. Hemorrhagic necrosis resulting in parenchymal degeneration of most organs, body cavities may be filled with blood, death |
|
|
Term
| What is the prophylactic tx for plague? |
|
Definition
| doxycycline 100mg q12h for 7d |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for plague? What type of antibiotics are highly effective? |
|
Definition
| streptomycin with or without tetracycline. broad-spectrum. quinolones, aminoglycosides, tetracycline and chloramphenicol are all effective. doxycycline or ciprofloxacin are also effective. |
|
|
Term
| What is tularemia? Describe the pathogen. What do you need to grow it? How is it transmitted to humans? |
|
Definition
| disease of rodents and birds caused by Francisella tularensis, gram negative coccobacilli. non-motile, aerobic, stains poorly. need special media with cysteine. transmitted to humans cutaneously or by innoculation from bite, scratch, or injuires acquired while handling or skinning carcasses |
|
|
Term
| Contact with what sorts of animals can cause tularemia? It is usually a sporadic disease, affecting which sorts of people? When/where is it more common? |
|
Definition
| Rabbits, muskrats, beaver, squirrels, deer, birds, ticks. Hunters, trappers, tourists to rural or forested areas. In temperate climates during summer months and hunting season. |
|
|
Term
| Presentation of tularemia is similar to what other disease? Describe the incubation period and onset. |
|
Definition
| plague. Incubation - 7-10d, up to 21d. Extremely rapid onset, fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, abd pain, diarrhea. acutaneous-lymphatic presentation (ulceroglandular), typhoidal presentation |
|
|
Term
| Which type of presentation of tularemia is common? Describe the presentation and the primary lesion. |
|
Definition
| acutaneous-lymphatic (ulceroglandular). nodular or sppurative lesion develops at innoculation site, with extension up the lymphatic channel, enlargement of draining LNs, which are often very tender and painful. Primary lesion appears as painful conjunctival ulcer. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the less common presentation of tularemia. |
|
Definition
| typhoidal presentation, feature of bacteremic disease, some cases develop widespread pneumonitis and respiratory failure, splenomegaly and transient rash are sometimes seen |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for significant Ab titers to develop in pts with tularemia? The organism can be identified by culturing which sites? |
|
Definition
| 2 weeks, skin lesion or sputum |
|
|
Term
| What is the DOC for tularemia? Is treatment always warrented? What are alternatives? |
|
Definition
| gentamicin, YES. Dox or streptomycin + tetracycline, chloramphenicol, TMP-SMZ |
|
|
Term
| What are two well-recognized examples of zoonotic streptococcal infections? |
|
Definition
| steptococcus suis of pigs, streptococcus zooepidemicus |
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus suis is gram-____, and an important pathogen of ___s. Epidemiology is similar to _______ in humans. It is carried in the _______, particularly in ______s. When subject to stresses of _____ or ____, the animal may develop clinical _____. Humans are infected through _____ ____ and tend to develop _______ with bacteremia. |
|
Definition
| positive, pigs, meningococcus, nasopharynx, piglets, crowding, transportation, meningitis, close contact, meningitis |
|
|
Term
| What type of strep is S. suis? What is the treatment? It is more common in animal herds with what conditions? |
|
Definition
| Beta-hemolytic, Lancefield R or S, benzylpenicillin with or without an aminoglycoside, course of 10-14d, poor ventilation and excessive crowding |
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus zooepidemicus causes ____ or ____-tissue infection, usually in people who have close contact with _____. Lancefield group? Treatment is? |
|
Definition
| bacteremic or soft-tissue, horses, C, benzylpenicillin plus aminoglycoside |
|
|
Term
| What causes toxoplasmosis? What type of organism is it? What is the definitive host? |
|
Definition
| toxoplasma gondii, protozoan, domestic cat |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis? What about in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine. spiramycin. |
|
|
Term
| The tachyzoites of toxoplasmosis localize in what tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is lyme disease transmitted by? What does primary disease, secondary and tertiary result in? |
|
Definition
| small nymph tick. primary - erythema migrans. secondary - bell's palsy, meningitis, carditis. tertiary - monoarticular arthritis and encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
| How is diagnosis of primary lyme disease done vs. later forms? |
|
Definition
| clinical for primary, ELISA for later |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common insect-borne disease in the US? What is it caused by? |
|
Definition
| Lyme disease, Borrelia burgdorferi spirochete |
|
|
Term
| How is lyme disease transmitted? |
|
Definition
| by Ixodes nymph tick from deer to white-footed mouse to humans, must attach 36-48 hrs to transmit the spirochete |
|
|
Term
| Erythema migrans and a painless red-centered macular expansion lesion of 15cm which may cause itching are seen in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| describe secondary lyme disease. what is Bannworth syndrome? |
|
Definition
| flu-like illess, generalized lymphadenopathy, migratory bone, joint, tendon and muscle pain. elevated CSF protein, CN V11's deficits with peripheral neuritis called Bannworth syndrome. CV involvement in a minority of cases |
|
|
Term
| Describe tertiary lyme disease |
|
Definition
| months to years after primary disease, musculoskeletal complaints, CNS - encephalopathy, mood/cognitive/sleep disorders, chronic skin infection containing spirochetes |
|
|
Term
| In diagnosing lyme disease, what lab tests would be used? |
|
Definition
| ELISA and western blot to confirm |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for primary lyme disease? What about disseminated disease with CN palsy? |
|
Definition
| amoxicillin or doxycycline x 10d. Doxycycline x 21d or IM ceftriaxone x 14d |
|
|
Term
| What is the actual leading cause of death in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was the first export of the New World? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ is a cluster of cognitive, behavioral and physiological symptoms indicating an individual continues use of a substance despite significant substance-related problems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The need for greatly increased amounts of the substance to achieve intoxication (or the desired effect) or a markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount of the substance is called... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Maladaptive pattern of substance use manifested by recurrent and significant adverse consequences related to the repeated use of substance is called... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In order to be considered substance abuse, the substance-related problem must have occurred... |
|
Definition
| repeatedly during the same 12-mo period or have been persistent |
|
|
Term
| What is the objective of Healthy People 2010? |
|
Definition
| decrease adult cigarette use in the US |
|
|
Term
| What are the quantitative goals of Healthy People 2010? |
|
Definition
| Decrease prevalence of adult use from 22.5% to <12%. Decrease prevalence of high school student use from 21.9% to <16% |
|
|
Term
| What is the most expensive addictive behavior in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Roughly how many deaths could be attributed to tobacco annually? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long after starting to smoke a cigarette do nicotine levels reach their peak? They gradually return to baseline within how long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the physiological explanation for the notion that smoking a cigarette has a positive effect on mood? |
|
Definition
| a continuous flux of blood nicotine levels, endless cycle of highs and lows |
|
|
Term
| As with cocaine, amphetamines, and morphine, addiction to nicotine is believed to result from ... |
|
Definition
| increased release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens |
|
|
Term
| Where are the neurons that become more active with nicotine administration? This leads to an increase into which area? |
|
Definition
| the ventral tegmental area, the nucleus accumbens |
|
|
Term
| What false beliefs do many smokers have that create psychological dependence? Why are these false? |
|
Definition
| smoking increases concentration, treats stress and gives pleasure, smoking actually causes decline in physical and intellectual functioning |
|
|
Term
| Name some risk factors for developing a smoking habit |
|
Definition
| living with a smoker, single parent home or strained relationship with parent, comorbid psychiatric disorders, low self-esteem and self-worth, increased adolescent perception of parental approval of smoking, affiliation with smoking peers, availability of cigarettes, genetics |
|
|
Term
| What are risk factors for developing a smoking habit in BOYS particularly? |
|
Definition
| high levels of aggression and rebelliousness |
|
|
Term
| What are risk factors for developing a smoking habit in GIRLS particularly? |
|
Definition
| preoccupation with weight and body image |
|
|
Term
| Approx how much do current forms of NRT increase smoking cessation rates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which enzyme is reduced by 30-40% in the brain of smokers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What proportion of lung cancer patients are current or past smokers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In comparison to nonsmokers, smokers are __ times more likely to develop lung cancer if male and __ times more likely if female |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Behavioral interventions for smoking cessation include... |
|
Definition
| physician advice and counseling, individual/group/telephone counseling |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacologic interventions for smoking cessation include... |
|
Definition
| NRT, sustained-release bupropion, clonidine, and nortriptyline |
|
|
Term
| Alternative interventions for smoking cessation include... |
|
Definition
| Hypnosis, acupuncture, exercise, lobeline, anxiolytics, mecamylamine, and opioid agonists |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 A's in approaching smoking cessation? |
|
Definition
| Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange |
|
|
Term
| What are the most cost-effective methods of behavioral intervention in smoking cessation? What is the main disadvantage of this approach? |
|
Definition
| Group sessions, few smokers are interested in attending specific classes at any given time |
|
|
Term
| About __% of patients who smoke say they would like to quit, but only 7.9% are able to do so without physician help |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The advice of a physician alone can increase the smoking cessation rate to... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the first time pharmacologic interventions for smoking cessation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 forms of NRT available? |
|
Definition
| patch, lozenge, gum, inhaler, nasal spray |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse reactions associated with NRT patches? |
|
Definition
| mild skin irritation, usually alleviated by rotating hte site. Sleep disruption, relieved by removing the patch at bedtime |
|
|
Term
| What does bupropion do? For whom would it be appropriate? |
|
Definition
| it's an atypical antidepressant with both dopaminergic and adrenergic actions. Slow release prep- Zyban. For smokers who don't want NRT, or tried NRT and failed. |
|
|
Term
| Nasal nicotine spray - each spray contains how much nicotine? How does quit rate for spray and inhaler compare to patch or gum? |
|
Definition
| 0.5, some studies suggest it might have higher quit rate |
|
|
Term
| What is varenicline tartrate? How long is the course of treatment? For increased likelihood of long-term cessation, pts may continue for how long? |
|
Definition
| partial agonist for nicotinic Ach receps (Chantix). 12 weeks, 12 weeks. |
|
|
Term
| An astonishing __% of children in the US are regularly exposed to secondhand smoke |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of death among Americans aged 45-65? What is the second? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholesterol levels of ___ mg/dl or below are considered ideal: persons with that level of cholesterol have less than ___ the heart attack risk of those with levels between 250 and 275 mg/dl. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the main sources of cholesterol in the American diet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| American Cancer Society estimates that almost ____ of cancer deaths in the US are due to tobacco us |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CDC estimates that what proportion of people with diabetes are aware they have it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of study in epidemiology? What does it involve? |
|
Definition
| Cohort study: The disease rate among those exposed to a particular factor is compared with the rate among the unexposed in the same cohort to determine if there is an association between the studied factor and the disease. |
|
|
Term
| _____________ is also known as follow-up, longitudinal, concurrent or classic types of Cohort studies. |
|
Definition
| prospective cohort study. |
|
|
Term
| What is involved with a Case-Control study? What is the most difficult problem with this type of study? |
|
Definition
| Two groups are compared: one group of people with the disease and the other without the disease. Problem is with selecting an appropriate control or comparison group |
|
|
Term
| In a cross-sectional study, subjects are selected regardless of what factors? This can also be referred to by which other names? |
|
Definition
| exposure or disease status, prevalence study or survey. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| incorrect finding of association between exposure and disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| incorrect finding of NO association (so there really is an association) between exposure and disease |
|
|
Term
| Most Type I and Type II errors occur because of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the probability of obtaining the results by chance alone rather than by true association |
|
|
Term
| What does this describe? "The exposure has no effect on disease incidence rates and that differences in disease rates are due solely to natural variation." |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A P value of 0.05 gives what CI? What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| 0.95, 95% confidence that the finding is NOT due to chance alone |
|
|
Term
| The probability that a person with the disease was exposed is called... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the formula for Odds Ratio? |
|
Definition
a*d/b*c, or
(+exposure +disease) x (-exposure -disease) / (+exposure -disease) x (-exposure +disease) |
|
|
Term
| OR = 2. How much more likely is it that someone with the disease had the exposure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The probability that someone with the exposure will develop the disease compared to someone without the exposure |
|
|
Term
| What is the formula for risk ratio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the attributable risk? |
|
Definition
| The amount of risk that is added with exposure. (exposed risk of disease - nonexposed risk of disease) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The proportion of people who test positive who actually have the disease. i.e. percent of positives that are true positives. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The proportion of people who test negative who actually do not have the disease. i.e. percent of negatives that are true negatives. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the proportion of those who are disease free but test positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the proportion of people who actually have the disease but test negative |
|
|
Term
| What does Bayes' Theorem say? |
|
Definition
| Bayes’ Theorem teaches us that pretest probabilities influence PV. Since we know there are FP and FN test results, Bayes’ Theorem helps us analyze these results and places them in clinical context |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 steps of the role of the practitioner in the event of bioterrorism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Category A bioterrorism agents are ____ priority. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some Category A agents? |
|
Definition
| anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, viral hemorrhagic fevers |
|
|
Term
| Category B agents result in _____ morbidity rates and ____ mortality rates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some Category B agents? |
|
Definition
| Brucella, epsilon toxin of C. perfringens, food safety threats (salmonella, e. coli, shigella), glanders, melioidosis, psittocosis, Q fever, ricin toxin, staph enterotoxin B, typhus fever, viral encephalitis, alphaviruses, water safety threats (chorera, cryptosporidium) |
|
|
Term
| Which category of bioterrorism agents includes pathogens with the capability to be engineered for mass dissemination in the future? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Category C agents are generally what sorts of diseases? |
|
Definition
| emerging infectious diseases like hantaviruses or Nipah virus |
|
|
Term
| What are the ideal qualities for an agent of biological terrorism? |
|
Definition
| high attack rate, high fatality rate, short time until death of victim, low level of immunity in the population, no effective treatment, transmitted person to person, easy to produce and disseminate, difficult to diagnose |
|
|
Term
| What are some priority biological agents (not viral)? |
|
Definition
| anthrax, plague, tularemia, brucellosis, Q fever, food and water borne pathogens |
|
|
Term
| What are some priority viral agents? |
|
Definition
| smallpox, viral hemorrhagic fevers, viral encephalitis |
|
|
Term
| What are some priority toxins (in bioterrorism)? |
|
Definition
| botulism, staph enterotoxin B, ricin, tricothecene mycotoxins |
|
|
Term
| What is an important factor in differentiating between a natural epidemic and a terrorist or warfare attack? |
|
Definition
| The developing disease pattern - gradual rise in incidence for natural epidemics, stark immediate rise in incidence for warfare attack |
|
|
Term
| HIV uses _____ as its genetic material |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the target of HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was the first major step in fighting HIV? |
|
Definition
| development of a screening test in 1985 |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common route of infection for HIV in the US? |
|
Definition
| IV drug users sharing needles |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common means of HIV transmission in Asia and Africa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What proportion of infants born to HIV+ mothers will be infected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most emergent viruses are... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The probability of transfer of viruses from endogenous animal hosts to man has increased due to... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of animals are most commonly involved in direct transfer of different infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are important reservoirs for transfer by arthropods? |
|
Definition
| animals, especially primates |
|
|
Term
| Approximately ____ of the more than 520 known arthropod-borne viruses (____viruses) cause human disease. Approx __ might fulfill the criteria for emerging viruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The arbovirus infections are maintained in nature or through biological transmission between susceptible ______ hosts by _______ insects |
|
Definition
| vertebrate, blood-sucking |
|
|
Term
| What influences the names by which arboviruses are known? |
|
Definition
| places - West Nile, or clinical presentation - yellow fever |
|
|
Term
| How does the arbovirus get into the arthropod? Where does it penetrate into? What does it do next? |
|
Definition
| ingestion, tissue/gut wall/elsewhere, multiply |
|
|
Term
| What are some ecological factors in the emergence of infectious diseases? |
|
Definition
| population movements, deforestation, irrigation, long distance air travel, long distance livestock transportation, new routing of long distance bird migration |
|
|
Term
| What caused the fever, headache, hemorrhage and acute renal failure experienced by US troops during the Korean War? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What animal is hantavirus associated with? It causes what disease in China? How is it transmitted to humans? |
|
Definition
| rodents, epidemic hemorrhagic fever, inhalation of aerosolized excreta |
|
|
Term
| A highly pathogenic hantavirus was found in what area of the US? What did it cause? |
|
Definition
| New Mexico, acute respiratory distress and death |
|
|
Term
| What is hantavirus infection characterized by? What animal was transmitting it in the US? Pts had exposure to what? |
|
Definition
| initial fever, abrupt onset of acute pulmonary edema and shock, deer mice, mouse droppings |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the reasons China is an especially fertile source of new flu strains? |
|
Definition
| animals reservoirs for the virus, like pigs and ducks, live in close proximity to humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus |
|
|
Term
| What is the main method of transmission of SARS? |
|
Definition
| close person-to-person contact, respiratory droplets. Can also spread from touching an object contaminated with droplets and touching mouth, nose or eyes. |
|
|
Term
| ______ virus, member of the FIloviridae family, emerged with outbreaks of severe hemorrhagic fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Outbreaks of Ebola virus continue to appear periodically in which regions? |
|
Definition
| east, central and southern Africa |
|
|
Term
| Ebola virus has been associated with what type of animals that were imported to US from Philippines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ebola has been associated with which animals in Africa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the central lesions of Ebola infection? |
|
Definition
| affect vascular endothelium and platelets, result in bleeding (esp from mucosa, abd, pericardium and vagina), capillary leakage leads to loss of intravascular volume, bleeding and shock |
|
|
Term
| What is the histopathologic change in Ebola infection? |
|
Definition
| focal necrosis of organs where the virus replicates, such as liver, lymphatic organs, kidneys, ovaries, testes |
|
|
Term
| Severe cases of ebola have acute respiratory disorders, and high fevers causing... |
|
Definition
| delirium, combative behavior |
|
|
Term
| Legionella bacteria were able to flourish in what environment? What regulation has been effective in limiting spread? |
|
Definition
| water towers for a/c, animicrobial agent use in the water |
|
|
Term
| What is the reservoir for lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| the white footed mouse, on which the deer tick feeds and becomes infected |
|
|
Term
| What strain of streptococci is more lethal and has been increasing in frequency? What did it cause in the early 20th century? |
|
Definition
| Group A strain, scarlet fever. |
|
|
Term
| The new strain of E Coli acquired a gene for what? Where did it come from? |
|
Definition
| shiga toxin, from a dysentery-causing bacteria, the gene jumped from one species to another while both present in human intestines |
|
|
Term
| E coli is commonly found in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The jumping gene phenomenon has been found in what types of bacteria? |
|
Definition
| e coli, cholera and diphtheria bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Relative to medical applications, more antibiotics are used for... |
|
Definition
| animal food, to make livestock grow bigger and healthier |
|
|
Term
| One study has shown salmonella to be resistant to one more more abx in __% of cases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unfamiliar features of imported diseases include... |
|
Definition
Presenting features
Diagnostic method
Management requirement
Unexpected complication
Unexpected infections |
|
|
Term
| Pandemic of influenza begins in _____ and spreads ______ across the world following the ______ season. |
|
Definition
| eastern Asia, westwards, winter |
|
|
Term
| Immunization against influenza provides __% protection in health recipients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pathogen remains the prevalent epidemic organism in Europe and North America? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do Group A meningococci epidemics occur? |
|
Definition
| Middle East, Africa, South America |
|
|
Term
| Local outbreaks of group A and C meningococci also occur in many countries, particularly... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The meningococcus vaccine contains polysaccharide antigens of which groups? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is traveler's diarrhea, and what causes it? |
|
Definition
| at least 3 abnormally loose stools in any day, also vomiting, abd cramps and fever. More than 50% from enterotoxigenic E coli - ETEC |
|
|
Term
| When do symptoms of traveler's diarrhea begin most often? How long does the illness last? |
|
Definition
| on 3rd day after reaching destination, 4 days |
|
|
Term
| Elderly people traveling are advised to take 2-3d course of ______ at the first sign of diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you avoid eating in order to prevent traveler's diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| chopped fresh fruit, sandwiches with mixed fillings, raw or lightly cooked seafood, untreated water including ice cubes |
|
|
Term
| What causes typhoid and paratyphoid fever? |
|
Definition
| salmonella typhi and S. Paratyphi type A or B |
|
|
Term
| Typhoid and paratyphoid fever occur under what conditions? |
|
Definition
| when sanitation is poor or drinking water is insufficiently safe |
|
|
Term
| With modern treatment, morbidity of typhoid and paratyphoid fever is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Typhoidal fever is the typical ____ fever. The incubation period varies from ____ to ____, with an average of ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of typhoid fever? |
|
Definition
| fever, headache, abd discomfort, constipation, dry cough, confusion, delirium and psychosis |
|
|
Term
| After ____ - ____days, the fever of typhoid reaches its peak. What happens then? |
|
Definition
| 7-10d, rose spots often appear on flanks, buttocks or costal margins and diarrhea begins. |
|
|
Term
| in untreated cases of typhoid fever, what can be expected during the second week? |
|
Definition
| complications - intestinal bleeding or perforation due to deeply ulcerated Peyer's patches, which can be large and require emergent surgery |
|
|
Term
| What are the main causes of fatalities from enteric fevers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is an important feature of typhoid, with an incidence rate of 10-15%. It is more likely after ______, less likely after tx with _______. |
|
Definition
| relapse, inadequate treatment, ciprofloxacin |
|
|
Term
| The choice of abx for enteric fever lies between... |
|
Definition
| ciprofloxacin, high dose amoxicillin, trimoxazole and chloramphenicol |
|
|
Term
| In cases of enteric fever, resistance to the usual choice of abx may be found, and then _______ in standard doses may be effective. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drinking fecally contaminated water, ingesting shellfish may also be a vehicle |
|
|
Term
| In most countries, Cholera is due to infection with which biotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The new Cholera serotype O139 has appeared as a cause of epidemic illness in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There was a small outbreak of Cholera infection in Texas and Louisiana due to unique strain of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the usual incubation period of cholera? In classic cholera, there is an abrupt onset of what? What are the characteristics of this and what does it lead to? |
|
Definition
| 3-4d, severe diarrhea, at first watery and brown, then pale fluid with little mucus and cell debris - rice water stool, continuous fluid loss leads to shock |
|
|
Term
| What type of treatment is successful in over 90% of cholera cases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are abx for cholera? |
|
Definition
| oxytetracycline orally or by NG tube, alternatively - ciprofloxacin or tetracycline |
|
|
Term
| Trypomastigotes and the Tsetse fly are associated with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cercariae, Miracidia and snails are associated with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four levels of disease study? |
|
Definition
| submolecular or molecular, tissue/organ, patient, community/population |
|
|
Term
| Which type of epidemiology is population-oriented/community-based, studies the origins of health problems (particularly those related to nutrition, environment, human behavior, social/psychological/spiritual state of a population), and seeks to discover risk factors in a population in order to prevent or delay disease or death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of epidemiology involves the study of actual patients in health care settings to improve diagnosis, treatment and prognosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of epidemiology is concerned with the nature and pathogenesis of infection, the structure and classification of pathogens, and is heavily dependent on laboratory support? |
|
Definition
| infection disease epidemiology |
|
|
Term
| What type of epidemiology is mainly concerned with diseases like heart disease, cancer, diabetes, arthritis and Alzheimers, and uses complex sampling and statistical methods as investigational tools? |
|
Definition
| chronic disease epidemiology |
|
|
Term
| What is phamacoepidemiology? |
|
Definition
| the study of the use and the effect of drugs in large numbers of people |
|
|
Term
| What are the triad of factors in the causes of disease? |
|
Definition
| host, agent, environment, sometimes also vector |
|
|
Term
| Environment influences the contact between... |
|
Definition
| the host and the agent of disease |
|
|
Term
| Body temperature is regulated by which area of the brain, in combination with other neural structures? Which region is thought to be primarily responsible for maintaining core body temp? |
|
Definition
| anterior hypothalamus, region of hypothalamus near optic chiasm |
|
|
Term
| When core body temp drops below the set point, what happens? |
|
Definition
| the nervous system increases body metabolism and stimulates shivering and chills |
|
|
Term
| When core body temp exceeds set point, what happens? |
|
Definition
| the nervous system increases peripheral blood flow and sweating |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Core temp is lower in the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sweating, discomfort, flushing and skin that is warm to the touch often accompanies... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| temp of 99-100.4 (37.2-38) is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| temp of 100.5-104 (38-40) is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fever greater than 106 (41.1) causes... |
|
Definition
| unconsciousness, brain damage if sustained |
|
|
Term
| Fever is a consequence of the anterior hypothalamus responding to... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the mediators thought to stimulate a rise in the normal core temp set point? What releases them? In response to what? |
|
Definition
| IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a, IFN-y, from monocytes and macrophages, invasion by pathogens and other inflammatory stimuli |
|
|
Term
| Why might fever be detrimental in heart disease? |
|
Definition
| increased HR and O2 demands may lead to ischemia |
|
|
Term
| What response might a fever elicit in an elderly pt with limited mental capacity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In association with high fever, children can suffer from... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pharmacologic agents used to reset thermal set point all have what action? |
|
Definition
| inhibit prostaglandin E2 production |
|
|
Term
| In children, ASA should be avoided because of increased risk of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for FUO? |
|
Definition
| illness at least 3 weeks, fever of more than 38.3 on several occasions, no dx after routine work up for 3 days in hospital or after 3 or more outpt visits |
|
|
Term
| To exclude the possibility of factitious fever, you should use what type of thermometer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 major categories of causes of FUO? |
|
Definition
| infection, neoplasm, autoimmune disorder |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 most common miscellaneous causes of FUO? |
|
Definition
| granulomatous disease, regional enteritis, FMF, drug fever, pulmonary emboli, factitious fever |
|
|
Term
| In pts under 65, what is the most common cause of FUO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| While investigating for infectious causes of FUO, which parts of the physical exam may be especially helpful? |
|
Definition
| skin, nail neds, fundi, cardiac ausculation |
|
|
Term
| Abdominal abscesses, miliary TB and disseminated fungal infections can be... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In elderly patients, what is the most frequent cause of FUO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is probably responsible for most allergic drug reactions, including fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the absence of any clear cause for fever, a history of health care training should raise the clinician's suspicion of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Travel to which parts of the US are of special interest in epidemiology of FUO? |
|
Definition
| southwest US and Ohio River Valley |
|
|
Term
| Most infections that cause FUO require... |
|
Definition
| prolonged abx treatment and surgical drainage |
|
|
Term
| When a connective disorder appears to be the most likely explanation for FUO, empiric use of what drugs are often considered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With FUO, which diseases should be carefully excluded because delay in diagnosis worsens the outcome? |
|
Definition
| intra-abdominal abscess, miliary TB, disseminated fungal infection and pulmonary emboli |
|
|
Term
| What disease can be caused by a bite or contact with fluids from a rat? Where does the pathogen live? |
|
Definition
| rate bite fever, upper respiratory system of rodents |
|
|
Term
| What two organisms may be transmitted from the bites of rats? What are their incubation periods? Which one causes rat bite fever? |
|
Definition
| streptobacillus moniliformis (7-10d, US), spirillum minus (1-4w, mostly Asia). moniliformis. |
|
|
Term
The fever tends to be ______ when caused by S. Minus
The fever tends to be _______ when caused by S. Moniliformis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Both types of infection from rat bites may cause ____ with rash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathogen from rat bites does not grow well in artificial media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rickettsia rickettsii causes what disease? More common in which age range? What geographic locations? |
|
Definition
| Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, 5-14, middle + southern Atlantic seaboard and central Mississippi River Valley |
|
|
Term
| What is RMSF most commonly transmitted by? |
|
Definition
| dog ticks, wood ticks, lone star ticks |
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period of RMSF? Initial symptoms? What often occurs early in the disease? |
|
Definition
| 2-14d, median of 7, fever, chills, headache, nausea, vomiting, cough and pneumonitis |
|
|
Term
What disease does this describe:
Rash (not always found) begins as faint macule that progresses to large maculopapules and often petechiae
Rash begins in the wrist and ankles, characteristically involves palms and soles and then spreads to arm, legs, and trunk
About 3-5% of recognized cases in the United States are fatal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A history of tick bite, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, hepatitis, and low glucose in CSF is often seen in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ is a zoonosis caused by a strictly intracellular pathogen, Coxiella burnetii. It occurs worldwide, except in ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which zoonotic bacteria affects mostly sheep, goats, cattle, dogs, cats, birds, rodents and is shed in urine, feces, birth products and milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does this describe:
Incubation Period: 1-3 weeks
Febrile illness with headache, myalgias and nonproductive cough
Pneumonitis
Endocarditis
usually of aortic valve (in chronic cases)
Clinical course is variable from acute to chronic and relapsing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main diagnostic test in Q fever? |
|
Definition
| A rise in the complement-fixing antibody titer is the main diagnostic |
|
|
Term
| What is Dengue fever? How is it transmitted? Where is it found? |
|
Definition
| very common togavirus infection, transmitted by bite of Aedes mosquito, Found throughout the tropics, also in southern Texas-Mexico border and Puerto Rico |
|
|
Term
| I am in the tropics. I have a benign acute febrile self-limiting illness, incubation was 7-10 d, my illness lasted 3-4d. What do I have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In severe cases of Dengue, what bleeding disorder develops? In 20-30% of these cases, the pt develops what syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Tick-Born relapsing fever caused by? What characterizes the fevers? |
|
Definition
| acute febrile illness caused by Borrelia spirochetes, high fevers spontaneously decline and recur |
|
|
Term
| Louse-born relapsing fever is caused by what? Is it more or less severe than tick-born? |
|
Definition
| Borrelia recurrentis, more severe |
|
|
Term
| Over __% of the world's population is at risk of malaria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Malaria is not only the leading killer above all other diseases, but it is also a leading cause of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Humans (intermediate host) contract malaria after being bitten by the... |
|
Definition
| anophiline female mosquito |
|
|
Term
| What are the four plasmodium species that infect human? Which are more common causes of malaria? |
|
Definition
| plasmodium FALCIPARUM, malariae, ovale, VIVAX |
|
|
Term
| What are the two phases of the life cycle for malaria? Where do they occur? And what is the alternate name? |
|
Definition
| Sexual cycle: in mosquito, sporogony. Asexual cycle: in humans, schizogony |
|
|
Term
Transmission of malaria starts when female mosquito (anopheles) feeds on a person with malaria and ingests blood containing ______.
Following 1-2 weeks gametocytes inside the mosquito reproduce sexually and produces infective _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In contracting malaria, sporozoites quickly travel via human blood stream to the ____ and invade _____s within 30 minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within the hepatocytes, most sporozoites mature to tissue ______ and some become ______. This form is called a _______, and takes __-__ months to activate into a tissue ______. |
|
Definition
| schizonts, dormant, hypnozoite, 6-11, schizont |
|
|
Term
| Relapses are seen in which forms of malaria because they produce a latent form in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each schizont that infected the hepatocytes produces 10,000 - 30,000 _____ that are released into the blood stream following cell lysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each merozoite can invade a single _____ and asexually replicate five times over 48 – 72 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once the merozoite enters the RBC, it matures into a ______. This form looks like a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most west Africans have complete resistance to P. ____ because their RBCs don’t have ___ receptor, which is required for invasion of RBC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Development of plasmodium in RBC is stopped/slowed in patients with... |
|
Definition
| G6PD, hemoglobin C and S as well as thalassemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of all forms of malaria? What are the cold and hot stages of malaria? |
|
Definition
Fever. Cold stage: occurs 15-60 minutes before the onset of fever. During this phase patient feels cold and shaking chills. Hot stage: body temp. rises to 41ºC. fever associated with loss of appetite and bone pain
After 2-6 hours fever falls and perfuse sweating occurs for 2-3 hours followed by extreme fatigue |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common, most dangerous and most severe form of malaria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only species of malaria to cause fatal disease if untreated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which forms of malaria have incubation periods of 1-14d, 12-17d, 16-20d, one month or longer? |
|
Definition
| falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae |
|
|
Term
| What are most congenital cases of malaria caused by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOA for malaria chemotherapy is... |
|
Definition
| inhibit the heme polymerase required for plasmodium to produce malaria pigment. Inhibition of this function kills the organism |
|
|
Term
| ________ derivatives bind iron in the malarial pigment to produce free radicals that damage parasite proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ inhibits parasite mitochondrial transport |
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Definition
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Term
| Chloroquine-resistant malaria strains have... |
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Definition
| energy-dependent chloroquine efflux mechanism that prevents the drug from concentrating in the parasite |
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Term
| For prophylaxis of malaria, the safety of ______ during pregnancy has not been established but limited experience suggest that it may be used when the benefit are judged to outweigh the risk |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the formula for BMI? |
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Definition
| height in meters / (weight in kg)^2 |
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Term
| An ideal BMI is said to be... |
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Definition
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Term
| Most studies show that weight-associated risks do not appear until BMI is over... |
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Definition
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Term
| People with BMI between __ and __ live longest |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is more overweight, white or black women? |
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Definition
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Term
| Obesity increases with age but declines past the age of... |
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Definition
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Term
| The prevalence of obesity in ____ does not vary much with income. |
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Definition
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