Term
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Definition
| group of severe psychological disorders, including schizophrenia, featuring delusions and hallucinations; behaviors that involve delusions (irrational beliefs) and/or hallicinations (sensory experiences in the absence of external events); schizophrenia involves psychotic behaviors |
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Term
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Definition
| devastating psychotic disorder that may involve characteristic disturbances in thinking (delusions), perception (hallucinations), speech, emotions, and behavior (also movement); characterized by a broad spectrum of cognitive and emotional dysfunctions including delusions and hallucinations, disorganized speech and behavior, and inappropriate emotions. |
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Term
| How many individuals are affected by schizophrenia? |
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Definition
| 1 out of 100 individuals are affected by schizophrenia at some time in their lives |
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Term
| 3. What three symptoms were included under the term “Dementia Praecox” by Emil Kraepelin? |
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Definition
| Kraeplin: unified the distinct categories of schizophrenia (hebephrenic, catatonic, and paranoid) under the name dementia praecox; catatonia, hebephrenia, and paranoia |
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Term
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Definition
| alternating immobility and excited agitation |
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Term
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Definition
| silly and immature emotionality |
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Term
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Definition
| delusions of grandeur or persecution |
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Term
| What are the three symptom clusters of schizophrenia? |
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Definition
| Positive, negative, and disorganized symptom clusters |
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Term
| What falls under the Positive Symptom Cluster? |
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Definition
| Positive symptoms: most obvious signs of psychosis, where there is an excess of behavior or addition of abnormal behavior; Delusions and Hallucinations |
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Term
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Definition
a disorder of thought content; a belief that would be seen by most members of society as a misrepresentation of reality (significant symptom) § Delusion of grandeur: believing one is a famous or important person
§ Delusion of persecution: believing others are 'out to get them'
§ Capgras syndrome--unusual, belief that someone they know has been replaced by a double; cotard's syndrom: belief that the individual (w/ schizo) is dead
§ Reason: possibly because It is a way to cope with stressful world (motivational) or because there is missing brain function (deficit) |
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Term
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Definition
experience of sensory events without any input from external environment § Auditory Hallucination: hearing things that aren't there; most common form
§ Brain imaging show it's misinterpreted internal speech |
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Term
| What falls under the Negative Symptom Cluster? |
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Definition
| indicate the absence or insufficiency of normal behavior (emotional and social withdrawal, apathy, and poverty of thought or speech, and approximately 25% of people with schizo display these); avolition, alogia, anhedonia, and affective flattening |
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Term
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Definition
| inability to initiate and persist in activities |
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Term
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Definition
| relative absence of speech ("pulling teeth") |
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Term
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Definition
| lack of pleasure experienced |
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Term
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Definition
| flat affect, where there is little/no expression of emotion |
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Term
| Disorganized Symptom Cluster |
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Definition
| the least understood, variety of erratic behaviors, that affect speech, motor behavior, and emotional reactions; disorganized speech and inappropriate affect |
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Term
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Definition
| jumping from topic to topic, talking illogically; communication problems; |
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Term
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Definition
| laughing or crying at improper times; sometimes they exhibit bizarre behaviors such as hoarding objects or acting unusual ways in public; catatonic immobility and waxy flexibility |
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Term
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Definition
| fearful of something terrible happening if they move |
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Term
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Definition
| the tendency to keep their bodie and limbs in the position they are put in by someone else |
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Term
| Criteria A of the diagnosis for Schizophrenia |
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Definition
Criteria: Two or more of the following, each present for a significant portion of time during a one month period.
-Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, negative symptoms (affective flattening, alogia, or avolition) |
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Term
| the five subtypes of schizophrenia |
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Definition
| paranoid, disorganized, catatonic, undifferentiated, and residual types |
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Term
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Definition
| strong delusions and hallucinations cognitive skills intact, no disorganized, and better prognosis than other subtypes (usually a delusion of grandeur or persecution) |
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Term
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Definition
| show marked disruption in speech/behavior; innapropriate affect; self-absorbed, more fragmented delusions; often chronic/lacking in remission |
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Term
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Definition
| unusual motor responses, grimacing, waxy flexibility, and ngative withdrawal |
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Term
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Definition
| people with the major symptoms of schizophrenia who do not meet the subtype criteria |
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Term
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Definition
| have had at least one episode of schizophrenia but who no longer manifest major symptoms; however, even if they don't present major symptoms, they can still have negative beliefs and be slightly delusional |
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Term
| Schizophreniform Disorder |
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Definition
| experiences the symptoms of schizophrenia for a few months, only to later resume a normal life; can disappear from successful treatment or just random unknown |
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Term
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Definition
| characterized by the presence of one or more positive symptoms or disorganized speech for one month or less; usually precipitated by extreme stress or trauma, but return to baseline |
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Term
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Definition
| devastating psychotic disorder that may involve characteristic disturbances in thinking (delusions), perception (hallucinations), speech, emotions, and behavior (also movement) |
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Term
| 10. How do Schizophreniform Disorder, Brief Psychotic Disorder, and Schizophrenia differ? |
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Definition
| - THEY DIFFER IN LENGTH (1 month or less is brief psychotic, less that 6 months is schizophreniform, more than 6 months is schizophrenia). |
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Term
| What percentage of those with Schizophreniform disorder progress to schizophrenia? |
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Definition
| “just know that if you have schizophreniform for more than 6 months, chances are the diagnosis would be changed to schizophrenia” |
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Term
| What is unique about Schizoaffective disorder? |
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Definition
○ Schizoaffective Disorder: symptoms of schizophrenia and characteristics of mood disorders
a. Symptoms for schizophernia plus a mood disorder; disorders are independent (delusions for 2 weeks in absence of mood) |
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Term
| How good of a prognosis does on with this disorder have? |
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Definition
| 1. Prognosis: similar to schizophrenia; persistent; no improvement without treatment |
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Term
| 13. What is the prevalence of delusional disorder? What are its defining characteristics? |
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Definition
-prevalence: 24 to 30/100,000
; Rare; later age of onset (avg. 40-49), with Females more prevalent than males (55% > 45%).
• Better prognosis than schizophrenia but worse than other psychotic disorders
-defining characteristics: a persistent belief that is contrary to reality, in the absence of other characteristics of schizophrenia. |
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Term
| Name and be able to identify the seven subtypes of delusional disorder |
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Definition
| Erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, somatic, mixed, and unspecified types |
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Term
| Erotomanic type (delusional disorder) |
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Definition
| irrational belief that one is loved by another person, usually one of higher status |
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Term
| Grandiose type: (delusional disorder) |
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Definition
| being inflated in ones worth, power, knowledge, identity, or special relationship to someone famous |
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Term
| Jealous type (delusional disorder) |
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Definition
| believes his/her sexual partner is unfaithful § Somatic delusions: person feels afflicted by physical defect or general medical condition |
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Term
| Somatic delusions: (delusional disorder) |
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Definition
| person feels afflicted by physical defect or general medical condition |
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Term
| mixed type (delusional disorder) |
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Definition
| delusions characteristic of the different categories |
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Term
| unspecified type (delusional disorder) |
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Definition
| doesn't fit into the other categories of |
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Term
| 15. What usually precipitates the onset of a Brief Psychotic Disorder? What is the duration? |
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Definition
| -usually precipitated by an extremely stressful event. Lasts 1 month or less. |
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Term
| What must occur in order for a Shared Psychotic Disorder? |
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Definition
| -An individual develops delusions simply as a result of a close relationship with a delusional individual. |
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Term
| 17. Regarding schizophrenia, what is the typical prognosis for those with good vs. poor premorbid functioning? |
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Definition
| 1. Those with good premorbid functioning are more likely to be affected by milder, schizophreniform disorder, with returning to normal lives, whereas this is less likely for those with poor premorbid functioning |
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Term
| When does schizophrenia emerge? |
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Definition
| The more severe symptoms of schizophrenia first occur in late adolescence or early adulthood, although there may be signs in early childhood. |
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Term
| In schizophrenia, Are there gender differences? Who has the better prognosis? |
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Definition
-prevalence roughly equivalent in men and women. Likelihood of onset diminishes with age for men. Women are usually more affected later in life.
- Women tend to have a more favorable outcome than men. (pg. 479) |
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Term
| What have family and twin studies shown regarding the genetics of schizophrenia? |
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Definition
-Family studies: The severity of the parent’s disorder influences the likelihood of the child’s having the disorder. Schizophrenia is seen within families meaning you inherit a general predisposition to it. Families suffering from Schizophrenia are at risk for all psychological disorders.
Twin studies: You have a 48% chance of having schizophrenia if it has affected your identical twin and have a 17% chance if it has affected your fraternal twin. |
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Term
| In Schizophrenia, 19. What is the dopamine hypothesis? Why is it problematic and overly simplistic? |
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Definition
| -Dopamine hypothesis is the reasoning that the dopamine system is too active in people with Schizophrenia. This is a problem because a significant amount of schizophrenics are not helped by dopamine antagonists, symptoms subside only after several days or weeks, and drugs are only partly helpful in reducing the negative symptoms. |
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Term
| How do the following play a role in schizophrenia? Stress. Family Interactions. Psychological Factors |
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Definition
-Stress: it is believed that stressful life experiences cause the symptoms of Schizophrenia to worsen.
-Family interactions: families that have high levels of criticism (disapproval), hostility (animosity), and emotional over-involvement (intrusiveness) tended to have high incidence of relapse.
-Psychological: umm, everything else, right? |
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Term
| What were the initial treatments of schizophrenia? |
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Definition
• Up until the 1950's, it was considered appropriate to treat schizophrenia with a frontal lobotomy; in some cultures, there are still barbaric treatments
• Insulin coma therapy; psychosurgery; electroconvulsive therapy |
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Term
| 22. When were neuroleptic medications introduced? What symptoms were they to treat? Side effects? |
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Definition
-introduced in 1950s.
-helped people think more clearly and help to reduce positive symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and agitation. They also work to a lesser extent on the negative and disorganized symptoms such as social deficits. (pg. 489)
-side effects: grogginess, blurred vision, dry mouth, and extra pyramidal symptoms (motor difficulties similar to those who suffer from Parkinson’s disease). Others include akinesia (expressionless face, slow motor activity, and monotonous speech), also tardive dyskinesia (involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw. |
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Term
| 23. I will not test you on this, but I want you to know the generic names for the following: Risperdal(risperidone), Haldol(haloperidol), Clozaril(clozapine), and Thorazine(chlorpromazine) (use google if needed). |
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Definition
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Term
| 24. How are patients with schizophrenia treated (therapy and treatment) today? |
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Definition
| -a combination of psychosocial therapy and medication, or a combo of drugs and support or education, or a combo of drugs and skills training, or a combo of drugs and family stress management. |
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Term
| Define developmental psychopathology |
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Definition
| study of changes in abnormal behavior that occur over time. |
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Term
| 2. What are the primary characteristics/central features of ADHD? |
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Definition
-pattern of inattention (such as not paying attention to school or work related tasks, or of hyperactivity and impulsivity.
-tasks often go unfinished, they are fidgety in school, and acting without thinking. |
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Term
| 3. What is the prevalence of ADHD? When do symptoms first present? Gender ratio? |
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Definition
-prevalence: 3-7% in U.S. and 5.2% across the world. Ages 3-6. abt 3:1 male to female
-first present: age 3 or 4
-gender ratio: boys 3 times more likely to be diagnosed than girls |
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Term
| What percentage of children with ADHD have difficulties as adults? |
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Definition
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Term
| What genes have been implicated in ADHD? |
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Definition
| -dopamine D4 receptor gene, the dopamine transporter gene (DAT1), and dopamine D5 receptor gene |
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Term
| 6. What is one of the most reliable neuroimaging findings regarding ADHD? |
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Definition
| -brain is 3-4% smaller in ADHD sufferers (pg. 505) |
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Term
| 7. Do toxins play a role in the prevalence of ADHD? How about maternal smoking? |
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Definition
-little evidence supports the association of toxins such as allergens and food additives as playing a role in ADHD
-Maternal smoking in some studies seems to interact with genetic predisposition to increase the risk for hyperactive and impulsive behavior. (pg. 505) |
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Term
| 8. How do psychosocial factors play a role in ADHD? |
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Definition
| -Negative responses by parents, teachers, and peers to the affected child may contribute to feelings of low self-esteem, negative self image, and affect their ability to make friends. (pg. 506) |
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Term
| 9. How do biological and psychosocial treatments for ADHD differ in their goals? |
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Definition
-biological: goal is to reduce the children’s impulsivity and hyperactivity and to improve their attentional skills.
-psychosocial: focuses on border issues such as improving academic performance, decreasing disruptive behavior, and improving social skills. |
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Term
| 10. How many children are currently being treated in the U.S. with stimulant medications? |
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Definition
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Term
| 11. What are the typical effects (positive/negative) of stimulant medications? |
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Definition
-positive: temporarily reducing hyperactivity and impulsivity and improving concentration on tasks
-negative: potential for abuse, increased risk for substance abuse later |
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Term
| How are behavioral treatments applied to ADHD? What benefits does a combined treatment provide? |
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Definition
| -behavioral treatments: are applied with set goals such as increasing the amount of time the child remains seated, increasing the amount of math papers completed, and appropriate play with peers. Other programs teach families how to respond constructively to their child’s behavior.-Combined: treatment can be individualized targeting both short-term management issues (decreasing hyperactivity and impulsivity) and long-term concerns (preventing and reversing academic decline and improving social skills. |
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Term
| What are the three types of learning disorders? What criteria must one meet? |
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Definition
-3 types: reading disorder, mathematics disorder, disorder of written expression
criteria: achievement must be below expected performance of a typical person of the same age, cognitive ability, and educational background. |
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Term
| How does a reading disorder differ in its definition from a mathematics or written expression disorder |
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Definition
| -they differ according to their performance in the different subjects. |
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Term
| What is the prevalence of learning disorders in the U.S.? Where are the diagnoses higher? |
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Definition
| -U.S.: 5-10%-diagnoses are higher in wealthier regions of the country that have better access to diagnostic services. |
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Term
| Which area is the most common of the learning disabilities? |
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Definition
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Term
| What percentage of students with learning disabilities drop out of school? |
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Definition
| 20% (versus 8% of normal population) |
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Term
| Which disorders fall into the group of “communication and related disorders”? |
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Definition
| § Communication disorders may be related: stuttering, expressive language disorder, selective mutism, and tic disorder; |
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Term
| Treatment of learning disorders can be grouped into what three categories? |
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Definition
-Educational interventions, specific skills instruction, strategy instruction.;
1. Educational interventions, broken down into:
a. Specific skills instructions (vocabulary, discerning meaning, fact finding)
b. Strategy Instruction (decision making, critical thinking)
c. Compensatory skills |
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Term
| Can behavioral interventions change the way your brain works? |
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Definition
| yes, some studies have shown that with intensive training on a computer program children improved reading skills, and their brains began functioning similar to their peers. |
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Term
| What problems do all persons with pervasive developmental disorders all experience? |
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Definition
| All experience problems with language, socialization, and cognition |
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Term
| What disorders are included under the heading of pervasive developmental disorders? |
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Definition
| -autistic disorder, Asperger’s disorder, Rhett’s disorder, childhood disintegrative disorder, and pervasive developmental disorder. |
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Term
| What are the three major characteristics of autism from the DSM-IV-TR? |
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Definition
| -impairment in social interactions, impairment in communication, restricted patterns of behavior, interest, and activities. |
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Term
| What percentage of persons with Autism never acquire useful speech? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the prevalence of autism? What percentage are MR? When do symptoms develop? |
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Definition
| Prevalence: 1/500 births, Mental Retardation: 40-55% Symptoms: Develop before 36 months. |
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Term
| What percentage of persons with autism are macrocephalic? |
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Definition
| Anywhere from 15-30%, probably about 20% |
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Term
| Historically, how did people view autism and its causes? What is the current understanding? |
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Definition
| -Historically: autistic disorder was seen as the result of failed parenting. Mothers and Fathers of children with autism were characterized as perfectionistic, cold, and aloof, with relatively high socioeconomic status and higher IQs than the general population.-Current: Current understanding believes that deficits in socialization and communication appear to be biological in origin. |
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Term
| 29. How does Asperger’s disorder differ from Autism? What is the prevalence? |
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Definition
-involves a significant impairment in the ability to engage in meaningful social interaction, along with restricted and repetitive behaviors. However, they do not suffer from the severe delays in language or other cognitive skills characteristic of autism.
-prevalence: 1 or 2/10,000 |
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Term
| What causes have been found for Asperger’s disorder? |
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Definition
| It is believed that a possible genetic contribution is suspected. Asperger’s is also believed to run in families. However, to this date there is no conclusive evidence for a specific biological or psychological model. (pg. 515-516) |
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Term
| What overarching generalization is made about the treatment of autism and other PDDs? |
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Definition
| -no completely effective treatment exists. |
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Term
| What is the focus of most treatments for PDDs? |
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Definition
| -treatments focus on enhancing their communication and daily living skills and on reducing problem behaviors, such as tantrum and self-injury. |
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Term
| What advantages does the use of an integrated treatment provide in PDD? |
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Definition
-An integrated approach combines the various approaches to treat the many facets of this disorder.;
1. Preferred model, uses a multidimensional, comprehensive focus
a. Involves children, families, schools, and homes |
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Term
| What is the definition of mental retardation? Does the range of impairment differ across persons? |
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Definition
-Mental retardation: Significantly subaverage intellectual functioning paired with deficits in adaptive functioning such as self-care or occupational activities, appearing before age 18.;
Yes the range of impairment differs across persons. People with MR display a broad range of abilities and personalities. |
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Term
| 35. Know the different labels of MR and be able to correctly identify the IQ score ranges. |
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Definition
-mild: IQ between 50-55 and 70
-moderate: IQ range of 35-40 to 50-55
-severe: IQ range from 20-25 to 35-40
-profound: IQ scores below 20-25 |
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Term
| How do the classification systems of MR differ with the AAMR and MR in educational settings? |
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Definition
1. The American Association of Mental Retardation AAMR
a. Based on level of assistance requires
b. based on level of support needed: intermittent, limited, extensive, or pervasive (system identifying the range of supports necessary to function, also the types)
2. Educational Systems Classification
educable mental retardation, (IQ 50-75), trainable mental retardation (IQ30-50) and severe mental retardation (IQ<30); addresses the type of skills that individuals may be able to learn
AAMR is by needed support, DSMV is by ability, and educational is educability |
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Term
| What is the prevalence of mental retardation in the general population? How many are mild? |
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Definition
| -Prevalence: 1-3% Mild: 90% |
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Term
| 38. What is the male to female ratio in mental retardation? What is the course? |
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Definition
-Male to Female ratio: 1.6:1 (lecture slides)
-Course: The course is chronic meaning that people do not go through periods of remission, such as with substance use disorders or anxiety disorders. |
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Term
| How many causes are there of mental retardation? What % can be attributed to a known cause? |
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Definition
-# causes: hundreds of known causes (pg. 521) including environmental, prenatal, perinatal, postnatal
-25% attributed to known cause; 75% cannot be attributed to a known cause. |
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Term
| How do the prenatal, perinatal, and postnatal causes play a role? |
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Definition
§ Prenatal: exposure to disease or drugs in womb (e.g., fetal alcohol syndrome)
§ Perinatal: such as difficulty during labor/delivery
§ Postnatal: e.g., infections and head injury |
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Term
| What is cultural-familial retardation and why is it the least understood? |
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Definition
| -cultural-familial retardation: Mild mental retardation that may be caused largely by environmental influences. It is less understood because it is thought to have cognitive impairments that result from a combination of psychosocial (abuse, neglect, and social deprivation) and biological influences and the specific mechanism is not understood; 75% of cases |
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Term
| What are the main goals in the treatment of mental retardation? |
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Definition
| -treatment parallels that of PDD attempting to teach them the skills they need to become more productive and independent. Mild MR specific learning deficits are identified and addressed to help the student improve such skills as reading and writing. (pg. 524) |
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Term
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Definition
| delirium: characterized by impaired consciousness and cognition during the course of several hours or days. A temporary state of confusion and disorientation that can be caused by brain trauma, intoxication by drugs or poisons, surgery, and a variety of other stressful conditions, especially among older adults. |
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Term
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Definition
| the inability to learn new information or to recall previously learned information |
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Term
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Definition
| A progressive and degenerative condition marked by gradual deterioration of a range of cognitive abilities including memory, language, and planning, organizing, sequencing, and abstracting information. |
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Term
| How do persons with delirium present? |
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Definition
| People with delirium appear confused, disoriented, and out of touch with their surroundings. They cannot focus and sustain their attention on even the simplest tasks. There are marked impairments in memory and language. Usually symptoms do not come on gradually, but develop over hours or a few days. |
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Term
| What percentage of persons entering acute care facilities can be diagnosed with delirium? |
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Definition
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Term
| How does age play a role in delirium? |
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Definition
| older adults are more susceptible to developing delirium. |
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Term
| What are the subtypes of delirium? What are their defining features? |
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Definition
-delirium due to a general medical condition
-substance-induced delirium
-delirium due to multiple etiologies
-delirium not otherwise specified
DEFINING FEATURE: CAUSE |
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Term
| What drug is used in the treatment of acute delirium? What psychosocial treatments are used? |
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Definition
| The anti-psychotic drug Haloperidol is used. Psychosocial treatments help the person deal with the agitation, anxiety, and hallucinations of delirium. A Person in the hospital may be comforted by familiar personal belongings such as family photographs. Also, a patient who is included in all treatment decisions retains a sense of control. |
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Term
| How does prevention play a role in delirium? |
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Definition
| Preventive efforts may be most successful in assisting people who are susceptible to delirium. Proper medical care for illnesses and therapeutic drug monitoring can play significant roles in preventing delirium. Then there is a more appropriate use of prescription drugs among the elderly. |
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Term
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Definition
| lost his memory due to infection; now only has 30 seconds of memory useable to him. The only things he’s not forgotten are his wife (whom he believes is visiting him after a long absence whenever she leaves and comes back; has retrograde and anterograde amnesia. |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of an amnestic disorder? What are the typical causes? |
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Definition
| Inability to learn new information or the inability to recall previously learned information. It is typically caused from the physiological effects of a medical condition, such as head trauma, or the long term effects of a drug. |
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Term
| 10. How do the acute and insidious onsets of amnestic disorder differ? When do persisting impairments occur? |
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Definition
- the difference between acute and insidious is acute is sudden and insidious subtle, so the difference would be an event versus gradual deterioration
- persisting impairments generally occur when it is gradual, whereas most accidents cause temporary damage |
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Term
| What is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? How does it occur? |
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Definition
| the most common type of amnestic disorder, a memory disorder usually associated with alcohol abuse, and caused by damage to the thalamus. |
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Term
| Which disorder is the gradual deterioration of brain functioning? What are some of the causes? |
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Definition
| Dementia, and is caused by a variety of things, such as traumas to the brain such as stroke, the infectious diseases of syphilis and HIV, severe head injury, the introduction of certain toxic or poisonous substances, and diseases such as Parkinson’s, Huntington’s, and the most common cause of dementia- Alzheimer’s. |
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Term
| How does the progression of dementia differ in the initial and later stages? |
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Definition
| It’s slow onset, rapid deterioration in the middle stages and slow again at the end |
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Term
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Definition
| inability to recognize and name objects; one of most familiar symptoms |
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Term
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Definition
| inability to recognize even familiar faces |
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Term
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Definition
| inability to perform complex movements: the inability to perform complex movements, often as a result of brain damage, e.g. following a stroke |
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Term
| Do patients die of dementia or some other disease? |
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Definition
| die from inactivity or infections pneumonia |
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Term
| When does dementia occur? How do the prevalence rates change over time? |
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Definition
| __5%_ 65-75; __20-40%_ 85: _afterwards, rate of development doubles every five years, until 100% rate in centenarians_>85 |
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Term
| Know the incidence of dementia as stated in the lectures |
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Definition
Book states new case every 7 seconds.
- the incidence (new cases) doubles for every five years older people are (not to be confused with prevalence (overall cases), which does not double with every five years of age) |
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Term
| 18. Remember that dementia occurs equally in men and women and across educational level and social class |
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Definition
| *DEMENTIA DOESN’T DISCRIMINATE* |
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Term
| What are the five classes of dementia? Which is the sixth type? |
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Definition
1. dementia of Alzheimer’s type
2. vascular dementia
3. dementia due to other general medical conditions
4. substance induced persisting dementia
5. dementia due to multiple etiologies
6. dementia not otherwise specified (when cause cannot be determined) |
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Term
| What are the primary presenting problems in Alzheimer’s dementia? How do symptoms change in a day? |
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Definition
| -presenting problems: impairment of memory, orientation, judgment, and reasoning, and inability to integrate new information.-symptoms become more pronounced late in the day this is known as “sundowner syndrome” (pg. 538) |
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Term
| How is a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s dementia made? How many dementia cases are AD? |
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Definition
| -definitive diagnosis can only be made after an autopsy determines that certain characteristic type of damage are present in the brain. (pg. 538)-50% of dementia cases are AD |
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Term
| What is the average survival time following a diagnosis of AD? How many Americans are affected? |
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Definition
| -ave survival time: 8 years -5 million American affected. (pg. 539) |
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Term
| Which dementia is the second most cause? How is this dementia caused? What type of an onset? |
|
Definition
-Vascular Dementia-cause: caused when the blood vessels in the brain are block or damaged and no longer carry oxygen and other nutrients to certain areas of brain resulting in damage.
-onset: onset is typically more sudden than onset for Alzheimer’s type usually associated with having a stroke. |
|
|
Term
| What do the cognitive disturbances look like in vascular dementia? What is the incidence? |
|
Definition
| cognitive disturbances: same as Alzheimer’s including aphasia (difficulty with language), apraxia (impaired motor functioning), agnosia (failure to recognize objects), or difficulty with planning, organizing, sequencing, or abstracting information.incidence: 1.5% in 70-75 yrs. and 15% in >80 yrs.; trouble with working |
|
|
Term
| Understand the basic differentiation of the Dementias Due to GMCs from lecture. HIV disease, head trauma, Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| causes neurological impairments and dementia (cognitive slowness, impaired attention, forgetfulness, clumsiness, repetitive movements- tremors/leg weakness, apathy and social withdrawal) occurs in sub-cortical regions |
|
|
Term
| (Dementia GMC) Head trauma |
|
Definition
| accidents are most often cause, memory loss is primary symptom, postconcussive syndrome, polytrauma (additive effects |
|
|
Term
| (Dementia GMC) Huntington’s disease |
|
Definition
| degenerative brain disorder with dopamine pathway damage. mainly suffer from motor problems (tremors, posture, walking, speech). also has sub-cortical impairment pattern |
|
|
Term
| (Dementia GMC) Pick’s disease |
|
Definition
| genetic autosomal dominant disorder on chromosome 4, early onset (40s or 50s), motor symptoms (chorea- involuntary limb movements), sub cortical dementia pattern |
|
|
Term
| (Dementia GMC) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease |
|
Definition
| rare neurological condition, with cortical impairment pattern and early onset (40s or 50s) |
|
|
Term
| (Dementia GMC) Parkinson’s disease |
|
Definition
| 1 in 1,000,000 and might be linked to mad cow disease. Prion disease affecting muscular movements, speech, and memory. |
|
|
Term
| What is substance-induced persisting dementia? |
|
Definition
| Prolonged drug use, especially combined with poor diet, can damage the brain, and in some circumstances, lead to dementia. |
|
|
Term
| What % of alcohol dependent persons meet criteria? (dementia) |
|
Definition
| 7% of individuals dependent on alcohol meet the criteria for dementia |
|
|
Term
| What have the neurobiological findings identified regarding Alzheimer’s disease? |
|
Definition
| the only way to definitively diagnose Alzheimer’s is through autopsy, because the brain will have large numbers of tangled, strandlike filaments (neurofibrillary tangles) and gummy protein deposits (amyloid plaques) accumulated in the brain. Also, most people with Alzheimers will have their brains atrophy (shrink) to a greater extent than would be expected by normal aging. |
|
|
Term
| What are the psychological and social contributors to dementia? What role do they play? |
|
Definition
| few would claim they directly cause dementia, but they may help to determine onset and course. Lifestyle issues such as diet, exercise, and stress influence CVD and therefore help determine who experiences vascular dementia. Educational attainment may affect the onset of dementia. cultural factors such as hypertension and strokes are more prevalent among African Americans and certain Asians, which may explain why vascular dementia is more often observed in members of these groups. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three major areas of focus regarding the treatment of dementia? |
|
Definition
| prevention, delaying onset, and symptom management |
|
|
Term
| What medical treatments are employed? What is the main goal of these treatments? |
|
Definition
| aimed at stopping the cerebral deterioration. many medical treatments are used including neuronal preservation and restoration by using glial cell-derived neurotrophic factor, cholinesterase-inhibitors (aricept, exelon, reminyl), antioxidants (vitamin E, aspirin), antidepressants for the often comorbid depression (SSRI’s), and antipsychotics to help alleviate some of the symptoms. all of these treatments are only modestly effective for short periods of time |
|
|
Term
| What psychological and social treatments are employed? What are their goals? |
|
Definition
| directed at helping patients and caregivers cope. Cognitive stimulation (like games and problems), teaching adaptive skills (such as making maps of places you often go), and memory enhancement prosthetic devices (like memory wallets) are used for patients with dementia. For caregivers of people with dementia, treatments such as coping strategies, stress reduction, dealing with depression, preventing burnout, and preventing elderly abuse are implemented. |
|
|
Term
| What methods are used to assist in the prevention of dementia? Do they work? |
|
Definition
| control your blood pressure, and stay socially and physically active! also you can avoid head trauma, neurotoxins exposure, and drug/alcohol abuse. they help prevent developing dementia |
|
|
Term
| Define psychological disorder. |
|
Definition
| A psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected. |
|
|
Term
| Define atypical or not culturally expected? |
|
Definition
| Atypical: When behavior deviates from the average; the more deviation the more abnormal the person is thought to be. Not culturally expected: if you are violating social norms. |
|
|
Term
| What is the science of psychopathology |
|
Definition
| The scientific study of psychological disorders. (Within this field are specially trained professionals, including clinical and counseling psychologists, psychiatrists, psychiatric social workers, and psychiatric nurses, as well as marriage and family therapists and mental health counselors.) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is often said that a patient “presents” with a specific problem or set of problems or we discuss the presenting problem. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how many people in the population as a whole have the disorder. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how many new cases occur during a given period |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An individual pattern; whether it’s a chronic course, episodic course, time-limited course, etc. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The anticipated course of a disorder. ie: We might say, “the prognosis is good” or “the prognosis is guarded” meaning the outcome doesn’t look good. |
|
|
Term
| What are defense mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| Because the ego is constantly fending off the id and superego, the produced anxiety is a signal that alerts defense mechanisms, which are unconscious protective processes that keep primitive emotions associated with conflicts in check so that the ego can continue its coordinating function |
|
|
Term
| What is the diathesis-stress model and how does it work? |
|
Definition
| The diathesis-stress model is the idea that individuals inherit tendencies to express certain traits or behaviors, which may then be activated under conditions of stress. A tendency is a diathesis meaning, a condition that makes someone susceptible to developing a disorder. An example of how it works can be related to a person having a genetic vulnerability to becoming an alcoholic. If that person at some point in life is subjected to long bouts of drinking, say in college, they are much more likely to become an alcoholic than a person who did not have the genetic vulnerability drinking the same amount. |
|
|
Term
| What makes up the central nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Consists of the brain and the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
| Define and differentiate reliability and validity |
|
Definition
reliability: the degree to which a measurement is consistent
validity: the degree to which a technique measures what it is designed to measure |
|
|
Term
| Define and differentiate between dependent and independent variables. |
|
Definition
-dependent variable: some aspect of the phenomenon that is measured and is expected to be changed or influenced by the independent variable. “depends on the independent”
-independent variable: the aspect manipulated or thought to influence the change in the dependent variable. what you control/change |
|
|
Term
| Define Correlation and know positive, negative, and 0 correlations? How are correlation and causation related? |
|
Definition
| Correlation- degree to which two variables are associated. In a positive correlation, the two variables increase or decrease together. in a negative correlation, one variable decreases as the other increases. Correlation DOES NOT imply causation. |
|
|
Term
| Why would it be important to use a double-blind control? |
|
Definition
| It is important that both the patient and the researcher are “blind” so that they do not allow a preference (whether intentional or not) to affect their results. |
|
|
Term
| What are the general requirements for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? |
|
Definition
| At least 6 months of excessive anxiety and worry must be ongoing more often than not, it must be difficult to turn off or control the worry process. Characterized by muscle tension, mental agitation, susceptibility to fatigue, some irritability, and difficulty sleeping. |
|
|
Term
| What is GAD’s course? What treatment options are available? |
|
Definition
GAD is chronic and does not usually go away over time. When onset occurs, it usually will continue even after recovery. 12 years after beginning of an episode, there was only a 58% chance of recovery. But 45% of those individuals who recovered were likely to relapse later. Waxing and Waning of symptoms throughout life.
Treatment: Medications- Benzodiazepines (some relief, many risks), antidepressants
Psychological- teaching patients how to relax deeply, CBT (cognitive behavioral treatment) have patients encounter anxiety-provoking images head-on and then learn to combat these emotions. |
|
|
Term
| To what type of exposure must one be exposed to be diagnosed with PTSD? |
|
Definition
1. The person experienced, witnessed, or was confronted with an event or events that involve actual or threatened death or serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others.
2. The person’s response involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror. (pg. 154) |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common traumas experienced in PTSD? |
|
Definition
| Combat, sexual assault, and accidents |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Psychoanalytic therapy - relive emotional trauma through imaginal exposure, then cognitive behavioral therapy to correct negative assumptions about the trauma |
|
|
Term
| Define hypochondriasis. What is misinterpreted in this disorder? |
|
Definition
| Somatoform disorder involving severe anxiety over belief in having a disease without any evident physical cause. -Bodily symptoms are misinterpreted. |
|
|
Term
| Define Somatization Disorder and know what it was previously known as? |
|
Definition
| Somatoform disorder involves extreme and long-lasting focus on multiple physical symptoms for which no medical cause is evident. -Previously known as Briquet’s Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| If you were to describe the typical patient with Somatization disorder (gender, SES, etc), who would it be? |
|
Definition
-Somatization disorder occurs in females in a 2:1 ratio compared to males.
-Onset= adolescence
-typically occurs in unmarried, low SES
“woman, late teens early twenties, unmarried, poor.” |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Depersonalization- Altering of perception that causes people to temporarily lose a sense of their own reality. There is often a feeling of being observers of their own behavior.
. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Derealization- Situation in which the individual loses a sense of the reality of the external world |
|
|
Term
| What is depersonalization disorder and with what does it have high comorbidity? |
|
Definition
| -Dissociative disorder in which feeling of depersonalization are so severe they dominate the client’s life and prevent normal functioning.-High comorbidity with anxiety and mood disorders. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of a Major Depressive Disorder? How do they differ? |
|
Definition
a. major depressive disorder single episode- defined by the absence of mania or hypomanic episodes before or during the disorder. (single episode)
b. major depressive disorder recurrent- If two or more major depressive episodes occurred and were separated by at least 2 months during which the individual was not depressed.
--in class he defined recurrent as 4 episodes in lifetime and a duration of 4-5 months per episode |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| individuals find extreme pleasure in every activity, they become hyperactive, require little sleep, and believe they can accomplish anything they desire. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a less severe version of a manic episode that does not cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| condition in which the individual experiences both elation and depression or anxiety at the same time. |
|
|
Term
| How do Bipolar I and II differ? What is the primary difference? |
|
Definition
Bipolar 1- major depressive episodes alternate with full manic episodes
Bipolar 2- major depressive episodes alternate with hypomanic episodes. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of cases of Bipolar I progress to II? |
|
Definition
| Only 10-13% of bipolar 2 cases progress to Bipolar 1. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three course specifiers of mood disorders? |
|
Definition
| Longitudinal Course Specifiers, Rapid-cycling Specifier (only for Bipolar I and II), Seasonal Pattern specifier (accompanies episodes that occur during certain seasons) |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of Bulimia Nervosa? What are the two subtypes? |
|
Definition
| Binge (eating more than a normal person would in similar circumstances) and purge (a compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain) these people are not successful in losing weight. Two subtypes include purging type: vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, enemas, and non purging type: fasting or exercise. |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of Anorexia Nervosa? |
|
Definition
1. Refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height. (Weight loss leading to maintenance of body weight less than 85% of that expected or failure to make expected weight gain during period of growth, leading to body weight less than 85% of that expected.) average of 25-30% below expected
2. Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight.
3. Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced; undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
4. In post-menarcheal females, amenorrhea, that is, the absence of at least three consecutive menstrual cycles. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two subtypes of Anorexia Nervosa? |
|
Definition
| Two subtypes include: Restricting type: During the episode of anorexia nervosa, the person does not regularly engage in binge eating or purging behavior. (Self induced vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics) Binge-eating/purging type: During the episode of anorexia nervosa, the person has regularly engaged in binge eating or purging behavior. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| individuals find extreme pleasure in every activity, they become hyperactive, require little sleep, and believe they can accomplish anything they desire. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a less severe version of a manic episode that does not cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| condition in which the individual experiences both elation and depression or anxiety at the same time. |
|
|
Term
| How do Bipolar I and II differ? What is the primary difference? |
|
Definition
Bipolar 1- major depressive episodes alternate with full manic episodes
Bipolar 2- major depressive episodes alternate with hypomanic episodes. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of cases of Bipolar I progress to II? |
|
Definition
| Only 10-13% of bipolar 2 cases progress to Bipolar 1. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three course specifiers of mood disorders? |
|
Definition
| Longitudinal Course Specifiers, Rapid-cycling Specifier (only for Bipolar I and II), Seasonal Pattern specifier (accompanies episodes that occur during certain seasons) |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of Bulimia Nervosa? What are the two subtypes? |
|
Definition
| Binge (eating more than a normal person would in similar circumstances) and purge (a compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain) these people are not successful in losing weight. Two subtypes include purging type: vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, enemas, and non purging type: fasting or exercise. |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of Anorexia Nervosa? |
|
Definition
1. Refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height. (Weight loss leading to maintenance of body weight less than 85% of that expected or failure to make expected weight gain during period of growth, leading to body weight less than 85% of that expected.) average of 25-30% below expected
2. Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight.
3. Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced; undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
4. In post-menarcheal females, amenorrhea, that is, the absence of at least three consecutive menstrual cycles. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two subtypes of Anorexia Nervosa? |
|
Definition
| Two subtypes include: Restricting type: During the episode of anorexia nervosa, the person does not regularly engage in binge eating or purging behavior. (Self induced vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics) Binge-eating/purging type: During the episode of anorexia nervosa, the person has regularly engaged in binge eating or purging behavior. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| individuals find extreme pleasure in every activity, they become hyperactive, require little sleep, and believe they can accomplish anything they desire. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a less severe version of a manic episode that does not cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| condition in which the individual experiences both elation and depression or anxiety at the same time. |
|
|
Term
| How do Bipolar I and II differ? What is the primary difference? |
|
Definition
Bipolar 1- major depressive episodes alternate with full manic episodes
Bipolar 2- major depressive episodes alternate with hypomanic episodes. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of cases of Bipolar I progress to II? |
|
Definition
| Only 10-13% of bipolar 2 cases progress to Bipolar 1. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three course specifiers of mood disorders? |
|
Definition
| Longitudinal Course Specifiers, Rapid-cycling Specifier (only for Bipolar I and II), Seasonal Pattern specifier (accompanies episodes that occur during certain seasons) |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of Bulimia Nervosa? What are the two subtypes? |
|
Definition
| Binge (eating more than a normal person would in similar circumstances) and purge (a compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain) these people are not successful in losing weight. Two subtypes include purging type: vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, enemas, and non purging type: fasting or exercise. |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of Anorexia Nervosa? |
|
Definition
1. Refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height. (Weight loss leading to maintenance of body weight less than 85% of that expected or failure to make expected weight gain during period of growth, leading to body weight less than 85% of that expected.) average of 25-30% below expected
2. Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight.
3. Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced; undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
4. In post-menarcheal females, amenorrhea, that is, the absence of at least three consecutive menstrual cycles. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two subtypes of Anorexia Nervosa? |
|
Definition
| Two subtypes include: Restricting type: During the episode of anorexia nervosa, the person does not regularly engage in binge eating or purging behavior. (Self induced vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics) Binge-eating/purging type: During the episode of anorexia nervosa, the person has regularly engaged in binge eating or purging behavior. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of those with anorexia die as a result of their disorder? What percentage from suicide? |
|
Definition
| Approx. 20% of those with anorexia die as a result of their disorder. 50% of those deaths are suicides |
|
|
Term
| Define dyssomnia. What six disorders are under this heading? |
|
Definition
| Problems gettig to sleep or in obtaining sufficient quality sleep; defined by the quantity, quality, and sleep onset; (Primary insomnia, primary hypersomnia, narcolepsy, brathing-related sleep disorder, circadian rhythm sleep disorder, and dyssomnia NOS) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or sleep that is not restorative. unrelated to anything else- no anxiety, depression, etc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Complaint of excessive sleepiness that is displayed as either prolonged sleep episodes or daytime sleep episodes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Irresistible attacks of refreshing sleep occurring daily, accompanied by episodes of brief loss of muscle tone (cataplexy) |
|
|
Term
| Circadian rhythm sleep disorder |
|
Definition
| Persistent or recurrent sleep disruption leading to excessive sleepiness or insomnia that is due to a mismatch between the sleep-wake schedule required by a person’s environment and his or her circadian sleep-wake pattern. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disturbances in arousal and sleep stage transition that intrude into the sleep process. abnormal behaviors; nightmare disorder, sleep terror disorder, and sleepwalking disorder |
|
|
Term
| Nightmare disorder (dream anxiety disorder) |
|
Definition
| Repeated awakenings with detailed recall of extended and extremely frightening dreams, usually involving threats to survival, security, or self-esteem; the awakenings generally occur during the second half of the sleep period. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Recurrent episodes of abrupt awakening from sleep, usually occurring during the first third of the major sleep episode and beginning with a panicky scream. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Repeated episodes of arising from bed during sleep and walking about, usually occurring during the first third of the major sleep episode. |
|
|
Term
| Know the basic diagnostic criteria for insomnia. |
|
Definition
Diagnostic criteria for insomnia in general are:
1. Trouble falling asleep at night.
2. Waking up frequently or too early and can’t go back to sleep
3. sleeping a reasonable number of hours, but still not feeling rested the next day. |
|
|
Term
| How do insomnia and primary insomnia differ? |
|
Definition
Primary insomnia differs in the fact that it is not related to other medical or psychiatric problems. Whereas insomnia relates to the three criteria mentioned in general.
-Primary insomnia differs in that it has no other related medical complaints such as anxiety or depression. pg. 291 |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of sleep terror disorder? How does it begin? |
|
Definition
Recurrent episodes of abrupt awakening from sleep usually occurring during the first third of sleep awakening with a panicky scream.
Intense fear and signs of autonomic arousal such as tachycardia (rapid heart beat), rapid breathing and sweating during each episode.
Relative unresponsiveness to efforts of others to comfort the person during episode.
No detailed dream is recalled and there is amnesia for the episode.
The episodes cause clinically significant distress and impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
The disturbance is not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance or a general medical condition. |
|
|
Term
| How is sleep terror disorder treated? |
|
Definition
| Usually begins with a recommendation to wait and see if it disappears on its own. If problem is frequent or continues a long time, anti-depressants or benzodiazepines are recommended. One approach is the use of scheduled awakenings (Derand and Mindell instructed parents to wake their suffering children at intervals throughout the night and this was pretty successful). |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining diagnostic features of sleepwalking disorder? |
|
Definition
Repeated episodes of rising from bed through sleep and walking about. Occurs in the first third of sleeping.
While sleep walking, blank staring face, unresponsive to communications from others and can be awakened only with great difficulty.
On awakening, they have amnesia for the episode.
Within several minutes of awakening from the episode there is no impairment of mental activity or behavior or there may be a short period of confusion or disorientation.
The sleepwalking causes distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
The disturbance is not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance or a general medical condition. |
|
|
Term
| When does sleep walking occur? |
|
Definition
| During the first few hours while the person is in the deep stages of sleep. (Typically during the first third of sleeping). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| are considered to be one of the body’s first lines of defense.; phagocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes create immunoglobins (antibodies) that identify invading antigens as dangerous ( B cells: (humoral branch) release molecules that seek antigens in the blood and other bodily fluids with the purpose of neutralizing them. Produce highly specific molecules call immunoglobulins that act as antibodies, which neutralize them.; T Cells: Killer, memory, helper, and suppressor) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| study of cancer: the branch of medicine that deals with the study and treatment of malignant tumors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tudy of psychological factors involved in the course and treatment of cancer.
Contributors: (pg. 320)
1. Perceived lack of control
2. inadequate coping responses
3. overwhelmingly stressful life events
4. use of inappropriate coping responses (denial)
5. Life-style risk behaviors |
|
|
Term
| What is biofeedback? How does it work? With what difficulties is it often used? |
|
Definition
-biofeedback: Use of physiological monitoring equipment to make individuals aware of their own bodily functions, such as blood pressure or brain waves, that they cannot normally access, with the purpose of controlling these functions (visible on a screen).
-How it works: The patient is made aware of their condition through monitoring equipment and then works with a therapist to learn to control the response.
-Difficulties: those suffering from headaches and muscle tension. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three major groupings of sexual and gender identity disorders? |
|
Definition
| -gender identity disorder, sexual dysfunction, and paraphilia (pg. 345) |
|
|
Term
| For males, which sexual disorders are tied to the following: desire, arousal, orgasm, and pain? |
|
Definition
Arousal: male erectile disorder (difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection); desire is there, just not arousal
Desire:
Sexual Aversion Disorder: little interest in sex, extream fear/panic/disgust; more tied to females than males
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder: little to no interest in sexual activity; more likely female
Orgasm:
Male orgasmic disorder; Adequate desire and arousal, but unable to reach orgasm (rare in males)
Premature Ejaculation (before it is wished; more likely in younger/inexperienced males)
Pain: more associated with female disorders
Dyspareunia: extreme pain during intercourse; 1-5% |
|
|
Term
| For females, which sexual disorders are tied to the following: desire, arousal, orgasm, and pain? |
|
Definition
Arousal: female Sexual arousal disorder; difficulty achieving and maintaining adequate lubrication
Desire:
Sexual Aversion Disorder: little interest in sex, extream fear/panic/disgust; more tied to females than males
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder: little to no interest in sexual activity
Orgasm: female Orgasmic Disorder
Adequate desire and arousal, but unable to reach orgasm
Rare in males; mostly female
Pain
Dyspareunia: extreme pain during intercourse, not for medical reasons; 10-15% of females experience
Vaginismus: females only; involuntary pelvic spasms (outer third); feelings of ripping; 5% of females, largely due to conservative inhibition |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sexual attraction/arousal for socially inappropriate people/objects; often multiple; high comorbidity of mood issues |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sexual attraction to nonliving objects (inanimate, tactile, partialism?) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Observing unsuspecting individual undressing or naked; rick is necessary for arousal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Exposure of genitals to unsuspecting strangers; compulsive (out of control); thrill and risk are necessary for sexual arousal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sexual arousal via cross-dressing; males may show highly masculine compensatory behaviors (most do not); many are married (behavior is known to spouse) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sexual Sadism: inflicting pain or humiliation
Some rapists are sadists; arousal to violent material is the key feature
Sexual Masochism: suffering pain or humiliation; different from hypoxiphilia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sexual attraction to young children
90% of perpetrators are male; not aroused by adult women
Victims are children/young adults; typically female
Incest: sexual attraction to one's own children
Male perps may be aroused by adult women |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the general causes of paraphilia? |
|
Definition
-low levels of arousal to appropriate stimuli
-sexual problems
-social deficits
-early experiences: inappropriate arousal/fantasy
-high sex drive
-low suppression of urges/drive
-reinforcement via orgasm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ingestion of psychoactive substances in moderate amounts that does not significantly interfere with functioning |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| physiological reaction to ingested substances |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| using the substance disrupts education, job, relationships, is physically dangerous or puts you in dangerous situations, and/or creates legal problems |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is physiologically dependent on the drugs, requires increasingly greater amounts of the drug to get the same effect, and responds negatively when it is taken away; also exhibits drug-seeking behaviors |
|
|
Term
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Definition
| more substance needed to get the same reaction |
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Term
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Definition
| physical negative response to absence of substance |
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Term
| Criteria for: Substance Dependence |
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Definition
| a need for increased amounts of the drug to reach the desired effect |
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Term
| Criteria for: Substance Abuse |
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Definition
| continual use of drug in spite of negative social, cultural, emotional, or physical problems that occur or result from use of drug |
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Term
| Criteria for: Substance Withdrawal |
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Definition
| reducing or not using drug initiates withdrawal effect. withdrawal effects are only taken away by recontinued use of drug |
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Term
| Criteria for: Substance Intoxication |
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Definition
| state in which persons normal responses are inhibited by substance |
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Term
| What is Fetal alcohol syndrome and what are the physical and cognitive characteristics? |
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Definition
FAS- pattern of mental and physical defects that can develop in a fetus when a woman drinks alcohol during pregnancy.
Physical- craniofacial abnormalities, small head circumference, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum (groove between nose and lip), decreased eye width
Cognitive- learning disabilities, affected memory, social perception, communication, etc. |
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Term
| Which drug is the most widely consumed drug in the U.S.? |
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Definition
| Caffeine which is a stimulant among the psychoactive drugs |
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Term
| Why are personality disorders coded on Axis II of the DSM-IV and DSM-IV-TR? |
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Definition
| They are included in a separate axis because the characteristic traits are more ingrained and inflexible in people who have personality disorders, and the disorders themselves are less likely to be successfully modified (pg.431) |
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Term
| What is the defining feature of paranoid personality disorder? |
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Definition
| A pervasive unjustified distrust; Mistrust and suspicion (pervasive and unjustified) |
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Term
| What is the defining feature of schizoid personality disorder |
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Definition
| Appear to neither enjoy nor desire relationships; lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, emotional coldness, and apathy. |
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Term
| What disorder does schizoid personality disorder resemble, though no links have been made? |
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Definition
| Paranoid personality disorder (pg 440); SPD is not the same as schizophrenia, although they share some similar characteristics, such as detachment or blunted affect. |
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Term
| What is the defining feature of schizotypal personality disorder? |
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Definition
| Psychotic-like symptoms, odd or unusual behavior and/or appearance, socially isolated, and highly suspicious |
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Term
| How is abuse related to borderline personality disorder? What is the link with PTSD? |
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Definition
Majority of people who are diagnosed with BPD have suffered terrible abuse or neglect from both parents, sexual abuse, physical abuse by others, or a combination of these.
Many resemblances between PTSD and BPD behavior patterns: difficulties in the regulation of mood, impulse control, and interpersonal relationships. |
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Term
| What is the most promising treatment for borderline personality disorder? |
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Definition
§ Dialectical behavior therapy
Reduce “interfering” behaviors
§ Self-harm
§ Treatment
§ Quality of life |
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Term
| What is the cognitive style associated with histrionic personality disorder? |
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Definition
| Impressionistic--> which is characterized by a tendency to view situations in global, black-and-white terms.; "pattern of excessive emotionally and attention seeking, beginning by early childhood and present in a variety of contexts."(DSM-III-R , Pg. 348 |
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Term
| What is the defining feature of narcissistic personality disorder? |
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Definition
| unreasonable sense of self-importance and are so preoccupied with themselves that they lack sensitivity and compassion for others |
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Term
| What causes have been posited for narcissistic personality disorder? |
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Definition
| Arises largely from a profound failure of modeling empathy by the parents early in a child’s development. Another view is that it is a consequence of large-scale social changes, including greater emphasis on short-term hedonism, individualism, competitiveness and success. |
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Term
| What are the defining features of dependent personality disorder? |
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Definition
Rely on others to make ordinary decisions as well as important ones, which results in an unreasonable fear of abandonment.; § Rely on others for major and minor decisions
§ Unreasonable fear of abandonment
§ Clingy
§ Submissive
§ Timid
§ Passive
§ Feelings of inadequacy
§ Sensitivity to criticism
§ High need for reassurance |
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