(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits.

The correct answer was:
B) CG 83.4, within limits.

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

(Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are

C) 080° at 21 knots and -7 °C.

(Refer to figure 36.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?

A) 11.2 gallons per hour.

B) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

The definition of nighttime is

The definition of nighttime is

A) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

C) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

B) All aircraft.

Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

C) 075°.

(Refer to figure 19, area B.) What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

B) 31 minutes.

(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

C) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

C) Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

C) 165 MPH.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

C) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is

B) light to moderate rime.

(Refer to figure 19, area D.) What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?

A) North at 17 knots.

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

B) 9900 and less than 5 knots.

(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.

A) 79.2, normal category.

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to

A) produce stratus type clouds.

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

C) Poor surface visibility.

C) Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are

C) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 31, illustration 8.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135°, the magnetic heading is

C) 360°.

A) look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

A) Scud running.

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

C) loss of RPM.

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

(Refer to figure 18.) What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?

A) Cold.

(Refer to figure 18.) What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A) "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.''

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

B) When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits.
Front seat occupants..................415 lb
Rear seat occupants...................110 lb
Fuel, main tanks..........................44 gal
Fuel, aux. tanks..........................19 gal
Baggage....................................32 lb

C) Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

C) Air Traffic Control Tower.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

C) An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

C) squall line thunderstorms.

(Refer to figure 29, illustration 1.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

What is a characteristic of stable air?

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

B) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

B) 1 mile.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

A) Advection fog and upslope fog.

(Refer to figure 25.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?

Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.

A) 1,341 feet MSL.

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.

B) 816 feet.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A) continuous snow.

B) Glenmar Airport.

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected

A) Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land.

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

(Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is

(Refer to figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

(Refer to figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?

A) 3 statute miles.

B) 030°.

C) 1,549 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.

(Refer to figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

C) to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway 17R and Runway 35R.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

B) 4,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?

(Refer to figure 27.) Determine the magnetic course from Breckheimer (Pvt) Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).

A) 180°.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

C) 122.0 MHz.

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

C) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.

B) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

B) 14 CFR Part 43.7.

A) 200 knots.

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than

B) September 30, 1995.

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

B) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

A) Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs).

C) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

(Refer to figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.

B) 80.8, utility category.

C) ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

B) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

A) immediately.

B) 100 MPH.

(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?

B) 1,700-foot decrease.

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

B) 118°.

B) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.

(Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are

B) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

A) 3,449 feet MSL.

B) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

C) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

) Flight over a densely populated area.

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

C) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

A) visible moisture.

(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is

B) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to

C) Aviation Area Forecasts.

Refer to figure 16.) What sky conditon and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?

C) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.

C) 169°.

(Refer to figure 22, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A) 122.9 MHz.

) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Which action can adjust the airplane's weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?

A) Drain 9 gallons of fuel.

(Refer to figure 53.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Your answer:

A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

B) 90.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

C) speed of the airplane.

C) 60 to 100 MPH.

C) Air temperature warmer than standard.

(Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings

(Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots.

A) 118°.

(Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

B) 13 minutes.

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

C) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

B) the circulation of lubricating oil.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

A) a right turn is entered from a north heading.

Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

C) 331°.

(Refer to figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.

C) 352°.

C) 208°.

(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

A) 1030 MST.

) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

(Refer to figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.

A) Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

C) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

C) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

A) 5 miles.

(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.

A) 3,527 feet MSL.

A) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

C) Actual lapse rate.

(Refer to figure 22, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 39 minutes 30 seconds N latitude and 100° 53 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

B) Crooked Lake.

A) Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.

B) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?
Your answer:

A) The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

C) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

B) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
Your answer:

A) 1,300-foot increase.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Your answer:

A) Air temperature warmer than standard.

(Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is

B) 16,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

C) 331°.

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

C) 078°.

Refer to figure 26.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

C) 003°.

A) Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.