| Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1) Reduction in blood flow 2) Changes in the blood vessel wall
 3) Increased coagulability of the blood
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is mediated by __________. |  | Definition 
 
        | Thrombin (which is mediated by Xa) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The extrinsic pathway of clotting involves Factor __ while the intrinsic pathway involves exposure of Factor __. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____________ can cause megakaryocyte suppression while __________ and _________ are most common to cause platelet destruction. |  | Definition 
 
        | Thiazide diuretics...............quinidine and quinine. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A hereditary connective tissue disorder than results in vascular abnormalities (which do not affect PT or PTT). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia |  | Definition 
 
        | Telangiectasies replace capillaries; causes AVMs primarily in PULMONARY and MUCOSAL areas. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___________ is the most common acquired coagulation disorder and results in _____________. |  | Definition 
 
        | Vitamin K deficiency.........increased PT. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Heparin is reversed by _________, and Coumarin is reversed by _________. |  | Definition 
 
        | Protamine sulfate........FFP. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Amyloidosis causes a Factor X clotting deficiency (True/False) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Mild: 5-25% of normal amount 
 Moderate: 2-5%
 
 Severe: <2%
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | HIV is defined as having a CD4 count of less than ___. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Elevated PTT in vitro but hypercoagulability in vivo! |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Thrombin time tests...... |  | Definition 
 
        | The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin to cross-linked fibrin; the test can also be modified to measure fibrinogen levels. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Type II diabetes is generally resistant to ketoacidosis (true/false). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Diabetics have a fasting glucose levels of _______. |  | Definition 
 
        | >126 mg/dl; normal is <110 mg/dl. 
 Other values for diabetics are >200 mg/dl in other tests.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1) <7%  good control 2) 7-9% fair control
 3) >9%  poor control
 
 This test shows glycemic control over the last 8-12 weeks.  Use serum fructosamine level for preceding 2 weeks (normal = 2.0-2.8 mmol/L).
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Receptors for advances glycation end products; recruits and activates inflammatory pathways. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Avoid dental treatment in diabetics if their blood glucose is above ______. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | One option for a hypoglycemic diabetic with an IV in place is...... |  | Definition 
 
        | 25-30 mL of D50 (dextrose solution). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dental complication of SLE. |  | Definition 
 
        | Pulpal obliteration leading to decreased pain perception. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly linked to MHC Class II antigens (true/false). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The inflammatory myopathies of connective tissue diseases include: |  | Definition 
 
        | Polymyositis (CPK and adolase levels) and  dermatomyositis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | _________ and _________ are often the primary symptoms of perennial allergic rhinitis. |  | Definition 
 
        | Nasal congestion and post nasal drip. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A non-steroidal nasal spray that can prevent symptoms if given before exposure. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Prednisone burst can be used in an acute asthma attack when SABA alone is not effective (true/false). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Need more than a rescue bronchodilator when: 
 1) Use quick relief inhaler more than 2 times per week
 2) Have night asthma attacks more than 2 times per month
 3) Refill inhaler more than 2 times per year.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia |  | Definition 
 
        | High risk of progression to SCC (70%); more common in males. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The more differentiated the tumor, the more responsive it is to radiotherapy (true/false). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A radioprotective drug that scavenges free radicals and promotes repair of damaged DNA. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which three NRTIs can cause oral ulcerations? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) Didanosine 2) Zalcitabine (can also cause esophageal ulceration)
 3) Abacavir
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | __________ is a protease inhibitor than can cause perioral paresthesia. |  | Definition 
 
        | Ritonavir 
 Protease inhibitors can help induce shingles.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Glomerular disease is a common cause of acute renal failure (true/false). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___________ is the most common cause of acute renal failure. |  | Definition 
 
        | Tubulointerstitial diseases; acute interstitial nephritis (eosinophils in urine) and acute tubular necrosis (renal ischemia or nephrotoxins). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | BEANS treatment of renal failure: |  | Definition 
 
        | Blood pressure lower than 130/85 Erythropoietin to maintain hemoglobin at 10-12 g/dl.
 Access for dialysis created when creatinine >4.0 mg/dl.
 Nutritional monitoring
 Specialty evaluation by a nephrologist when creatinine >3.0 mg/dl.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Oral manifestations are common for renal failure patients (true/false). |  | Definition 
 
        | True 
 Uremic stomatitis (two forms), xerostomia, metallic taste, etc.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Ground glass bone, radiolucent giant cell lesions, metastatic soft tissue calcifications, and sclerotic bone in extraction healing sites. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___________ is an antibiotic that should be avoided in renal failure patients; _________ is an analgesic that is ok to give. |  | Definition 
 
        | Tetracyclin.......acetaminophen |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ALT/AST is found primarily in the liver. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | _______________ is a very sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease but is not specific to the liver. |  | Definition 
 
        | Gamma Glutamyltransferase (GGT) levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Normal weight of serum albumin is _____. |  | Definition 
 
        | 500g; 20 day half-life so it does not help diagnose acute liver disease. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hepatocellular/Necro-Inflammatory liver failure is marked by...... |  | Definition 
 
        | AST/ALT levels >5 times normal and ALP levels >2-3 times normal. 
 Cholestatic liver failure is marked by ALP levels >5 times normal.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stigmata of liver failure: |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) Jaundice 2) Spider angiomas
 3) Gynecomastia
 4) Palmar erythema
 5) Leukonychia
 6) Ascites
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which type of hepatitis develops in a superinfection? |  | Definition 
 
        | HDV occurring on top of a HBV infection; chronicity. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Risk of HBV infection is 10 times higher if __________ is present in the patient's blood along with HBsAg. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Oral manifestations of liver disease include...... |  | Definition 
 
        | Glossitis and Sjogren's-like syndrome/lichen planus (HCV). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Limit Xylocaine to __ carpules in patients with severe liver disease. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Autoimmune hypothyroidism resulting in a goiter for 20-50% of women. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Primary adrenal insufficiency is only evident when....... |  | Definition 
 
        | 90% of the cortex is nonfunctional. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Mild risk adrenal insufficiency requires ____mg of hydrocortisone the day of dental surgery; moderate to major adrenal insufficiency requires ____mg. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |