Term
Traditional amalgams (GV Black) have the following features
a. have a powder that is close to Ag3Sn
b. have a powder that is close to Ag2 Hg3
c. had powders of irregular or lathe cut shape
d. a and c
e. b & c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Traditional amalgams are mixed in a process known as
a. spatulation
b. trituration
c. condensation
d. blending
e. none above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. The two phases that form the matrix ( the new phases that form) of a set amalgam are
a. Ag3Sn
b. Ag2Hg3
c. Gamma-2
d. a &b
e. b &c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The equation : Sn8Hg + _____ Sn-OH- Cl + SnO + Hg
a. describes the amalgamation reaction
b. describes the corrosion of gamma-2
c. should also contain saliva as the missing component
d. a & b
e. b & c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. Marginal integrity is important consideration for amalgam restorations
Which of the following statements concerning amalgam margins are (is) true?
a. amalgams are self-sealing due to corrosion at the amalgam-tooth interface
b. amalgam margins deteriorate with time
c. Low Cu amalgams without Zn have improved marginal integrity
d. a & b
e. All above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. In comparing Tytin and Dispersalloy amalgams
a. Dispersalloy is high Cu, Tytin is not
b. Tytin has all spherical particles
c. Tytin requires less Hg for trituration
d. a & b
e. b & c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. The gamma phase of dental amalgam is
A) Ag-Sn
B) Ag-Hg
C) Sn-Hg
D) Cu-Sn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. Which particle type requires the least Hg for proper trituration
A) lathe cut or irregular
B) spherical
C) blended lathe cut and spherical
D) all require the same Hg/alloy ratio |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. The primary reason why conventional amalgams are "self sealing" is
A) expansion of the amalgam with time
B) creep of the gamma 1 phase
C) corrosion product formation
D) the amalgamation reaction finally goes to completion |
|
Definition
| C) corrosion product formation |
|
|
Term
10. Megalloy is considered to be what type of amalgam?
A) Dispersed phase
B) Lathe cut
C) Modified hybrid
D) Spherical
E) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. The term 'spill' in reference to amalgam means
A) the amount of alloy and mercury in a capsule
B) the total mixing time of the alloy
C) the proper placement of the alloy into the cavity preparation
D) that you've dropped some mercury on the floor |
|
Definition
| A) the amount of alloy and mercury in a capsule |
|
|
Term
11. When carving an amalgam restoration just after condensation with a ½ Hollenbeck instrument, the blade of the instrument should be positioned ________ to the cavosurface margin.
A) 45 degrees
B) 60 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) parallel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Which of the following statements is false?
A. formation of a thick biofilm on metal restoration can lead to corrosion
B. amalgam is used in dentistry because of its high corrosion resistance
C. formation of pits and crevices on metal surfaces can lead to corrosion
D. corrosion often occurs at grain boundaries in alloys
E. chromium forms a passive oxide-film layer that inhibits corrosion |
|
Definition
| B. amalgam is used in dentistry because of its high corrosion resistance |
|
|
Term
2. Which of the following is not a good method for avoiding corrosion in the oral
environment?
A. use titanium
B. avoid contact of dissimilar metals
C. use passive metals
D. use noble metals
E. use base metals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. Which phase is responsible for decreasing the strength of dental amalgam: a. gamma 1 and gamma 2 phases only B. Ag-Sn C. Ag-Cu D. gamma 2 E. a, b and c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. Which phase is responsible for corrosion of dental amalgam:
a. gamma 2
b. gamma 1
C. Both 1 and 2 phases
D. Ag-Cu phase
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
38. Which component of cement is antibacterial and has anesthetic properties
a. Zinc oxide
b. Zinc phosphate
c. Glass ionomer
d. Eugenol
e. None above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The rationale for use of liners and bases is to prevent leakage so that
a. secondary caries can be avoided
b. bacterial by-products do not reach the pulp and cause inflammation
c. aid in healing of pulp exposures
d. a & b
e. b & c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
40. The traditional cement by which most others are judged is
a. zinc oxide eugenol
b. zinc phosphate
c. glass ionomer
d. polycarboxylate
e. calcium oxide-salicylate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. Which of the following cements are used as permanent restorations?
a. zinc oxide eugenol
b zinc phosphate
c. glass ionomer
d. polycarboxylate
e. calcium oxide-salicylate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. Temporary restorations are often made from
a. ZOE
b. Glass ionomer
c. Portland cement
d. a.& b |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. The lowest P/L ratio used for cements would be appropriate for
A. a liner
B. a base
C. luting
D. a temporary restoration
E. all would use the same P/L ratio |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. The cement type that can be controlled to provide the longest working and setting
times are
A. polycarboxalate
B. glass ionomer
C. ZOP
D. ZOE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. Which cement has the potential to form chemical bonds to tooth structure?
A. ZOP
B. ZOE
C. glass ionomer
D. silicate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
65. Which of the following materials is simplest to use and most predictable for bonding
to dentin?
A. Amalgam
B. Gold foil
C. Glass ionomer
D. Composite resin
E. Compomer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. What is the instrument of choice for clearing fresh amalgam from the marginal ridge area of a Class II amalgam restoration?
a. Marginal ridge knife
b. 1/2 Hollenbeck
c. Full Hollenbeck
d. Explorer
e. F-burnisher |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36. When restoring multiple Class II restorations the contra-angle Tofflemire matrix retainer is ideally placed on the ___________ side of the tooth to be restored.
a. Facial
b. Lingual
c. Facial OR Lingual
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. The primary determinant of cavity preparation out form is:
A. Dental caries
B. Decalcified enamel
C. Undermined enamel
D. Extension for prevention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Place the Seven Principles of Cavity Preparation in order.
1 retention form
2 convenience form
3 plane / smooth enamel wall
4 outline form
5 resistance form
6 remove remaining caries in dentin
7 cleanse the preparation
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
B. 4,2,1,5,3,6,7
C. 4,1,5,2,6,3,7
D. 4,5,1,2,3,6,7 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. The proximal extensions in a Class II amalgam
A. Should always have a 0.5 mm separation to allow floss to get through.
B. Are made as part of our convenience form.
C. Should be angled at a 45 degree bevel to the cavo-surface
D. Should be a straight line extending from the isthmus through the triangular
ridge, to the cavo-surface. |
|
Definition
| B. Are made as part of our convenience form. |
|
|
Term
11. It is okay to maintain contact in our restorations as long as:
A. All enamel is healthy.
B. We do not risk damaging the adjacent tooth
C. The patient's caries index is not a factor
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. The internal walls in a Class II amalgam:
A. Should be sharp and well-defined
B. Should be macroscopically smooth
C. May diverge up to 45 degrees
D. Are properly prepared with a #34 or #56 carbide bur |
|
Definition
| B. Should be macroscopically smooth |
|
|
Term
5. After roughing out the occlusal outline form for an MO amalgam preparation, the first floor/wall to be established in it final positions is the:
A) Distal wall
B) Pulpal floor
C) Axial wall
D) Gingival floor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Amalgam proximal retention points are placed:
A) In the axial wall
B) From the pulpal floor on into the gingival floor
C) In the axial facial and axial lingual line angles at the expense of the facial and lingual proximal walls
D) In the facial and lingual proximal walls in the DEJ |
|
Definition
| C) In the axial facial and axial lingual line angles at the expense of the facial and lingual proximal walls |
|
|
Term
5. Proper placement of the gingival floor is determined by all except:
A) Proximal caries
B) The height of the inter-dental gum tissue
C) ½ mm separation from the adjacent tooth
D) removing the proximal contact
E) preserving the strength of enamel above the CEJ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. The major benefit of adding Ag-Cu spheres to conventional amalgam was
A) less Hg contamination
B) little or no gamma-2 formation
C) formation of more gamma-1 matrix
D) easier condensation
E) a much stronger amalgam |
|
Definition
| B) little or no gamma-2 formation |
|
|
Term
14. Amalgams that have the worst clinical survival in the clinical trials discussed
contain
A) high Cu and little Zn
B) high Cu, but no Zn
C) low Cu and little Zn
D) low Cu but no Zn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. In comparing Disperalloy and Tytin amalgams
A) Both contain similar Cu content
B) Both reduce or eliminate the gamma-2 phase
C) Tytin has only spherical alloy particles
D) a & b
E) all above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. The Tofflemire matrix ban must be burnished in order to achieve proper proximal
contour and contact.
A) True
B) False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. For Class II amalgam restorations, the wooden wedge should be positioned
between the adjacent tooth and the matrix band in addition to being occlusal to
the gingival floor of the prepared tooth.
A) True
B) False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11. The strength of High-Cu is increased because: A. of elimination of gamma 2 and increase in Cu content B. increase in gamma 1 and percent decrease in Ag C. of higher amounts of Ag D. of elimination of Sn E. all of the above |
|
Definition
| A. of elimination of gamma 2 and increase in Cu content |
|
|
Term
12. Corrosion of dental amalgam results in:
A. lower strength
B. sealing margins between restorations and tooth
C. increased creep
D. increased porosity
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. Which phase is responsible for decreasing the strength of dental amalgam: gamma 1 and 2 phases only B. Ag-Sn C. Ag-Cu D. gamma 2 E. a, b and c |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14. Which phase is responsible for corrosion of dental amalgam:a. gamma 2 b. gamma 1 C. Both gamma 1 and gamma 2 phases D. Ag-Cu phase E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. Facial and lingual walls of Class II slot preparation should be less than 90 degree to
avoid undercutting enamel wall thus reduce the chipping of enamel rods.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. Retention grooves are place at facial-axial and lingual-axial line angles in the direction
of pointing toward axial wall
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. After using your hatchet to get your facial & lingual extensions, you notice that the
gingival floor did not go apically enough to get proper separation. What would you do
next?
A. Get the hatchet and further plane the gingival floor
B. Get a 245 carbide bur to lower the gingival floor, then use a hatchet to
re-define the facial and lingual walls
C. Get a #330 diamond bur to lower the gingival floor
D. Get a #34 Diamond bur to lower the gingival floor, then use a hatchet to re-define the facial and lingual walls |
|
Definition
| D. Get a #34 Diamond bur to lower the gingival floor, then use a hatchet to re-define the facial and lingual walls |
|
|
Term
6. Why do we have a 'S' curve in our Class II amalgam designs?
A. It looks good and is traditional
B. It acts as a transition between the box form and isthmus
C. It allows us to minimize the size of the isthmus
D. Both B&C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. G.V. Black was the first to describe caries removal and placement of a filling
alternative to extraction.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Which of the following is not an objective of cavity preparation?
A. design the prep so that the tooth will not fracture
B. extension for prevention
C. remove all caries
D. provide pulp protection
E. design the prep so that the restoration will not fracture or be displaced |
|
Definition
| B. extension for prevention |
|
|
Term
10. It is perfectly permissible to make the outline form of a cavity preparation larger
(more extensive) when retention and resistance form are lacking.
A. T
B. F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. In a proximal slot preparation for amalgams the cavo-surface needs to be at 90
degrees and sharp because:
A. The properties of the amalgam material require it.
B. We want to be able to have a well-delineated junction to be able to carve our
amalgam.
C. We need to avoid unsupported enamel rods
D. All of the above
E. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. The outline of the slot preparation is:
A. dictated by the opposing tooth
B. dictated by caries
C. determined by the size of the adjacent tooth
D. cut according to a pre-determined design given in lectures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19. The axial wall of the slot preparation is parallel to the DEJ with a minimal cavity because:
A. it makes the preparation look nice
B. it minimizes the chance of entering the pulp chamber
C. all caries is parallel to the DEJ
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
| B. it minimizes the chance of entering the pulp chamber |
|
|
Term
20. Slot preparation designs are based on the following factors except:
A. photoelastic studies
B. isthmus width and its effect on cusp fracture
C. the type of material used
D. the increased wear resistance of amalgam materials |
|
Definition
| D. the increased wear resistance of amalgam materials |
|
|
Term
21. When cutting a proximal slot preparation:
A. It is not necessary to use water spray because the preparation is so minimal
B. The internal line angles are sharpened
C. We want a ½ mm separation with the adjacent tooth
D. We may keep contact with the adjacent tooth if we can place a matrix band and
see that all caries is removed
E. Both C&D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. Which of the following statements regarding the fit of the iso-form temporary crown
is true?
1. The marginal ridges are even with that of the approximating tooth.
2. The margins of the preparation are protected.
3. The crown is in proper occlusion.
4. The crown establishes proper proximal contacts.
A. 1 only
B. 1 an2
C. 1,2 and 3
D. All of the above
E. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. Which of the following situations would require a full coverage restoration?
A. Endodontically treated teeth
B. Teeth with large restorations
C. Teeth with large fillings
D. All of the above
E. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
25. Which of the following margin designs is most appropriate for a gold restoration?
A. Shoulder
B. Long bevel
C. Chamfer
D. Shoulder with a bevel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. The pulpal floor of Class II amalgam preparations:
A. Are always perpendicular to the occlusal plane
B. Are generally smooth and must be flat
C. Must remain in dentin only and be 1/2mm past the DEJ
D. Must have a minimum depth of 1.5mm between the central groove of the amalgam carving and the pulpal floor. |
|
Definition
| D. Must have a minimum depth of 1.5mm between the central groove of the amalgam carving and the pulpal floor. |
|
|
Term
Retention grooves in a Class II amalgam:
A. Extend into the axial wall with a #6 round bur
B. Follow the curvature of the DEJ
C. May be placed in resilient enamel
D. Are only required if there is a lack of retention |
|
Definition
| B. Follow the curvature of the DEJ |
|
|
Term
31. Your patient came in complaining of a sensitive tooth on #15. You notice a broken
amalgam with no obvious decay. The periodontal condition is normal and the
radiographs reveal no decay or pathoses. What critical information do you need to
decide which restoration to recommend?
A. Transillumination
B. Occlusion
C. Caries indicating liquid
D. Patient's diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
32. Which patient scenario is appropriate for a Class II Amalgam restoration?
A. A deep Class II restoration with normal occlusion
B. A shallow proximal area with little occlusal stress
C. A shallow proximal area with high aesthetic concerns
D. A deep class II restoration with significant occlusal strain and loss of tooth
structure. |
|
Definition
| A. A deep Class II restoration with normal occlusion |
|
|
Term
33. Which dental stone(s) is/are used to pour your single die for waxing?
A. Die-keen
B. Mounting stone
C. Microstone
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. Finishing amalgam restorations means obtaining highest surface luster.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36. To maintain the longevity and integrity of high-copper amalgam, polishing is
mandatory.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
37. One should polish amalgam right after condensation to minimize oxidation of the
silver molecule within the alloy.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 38. Rouge polishing compound is the ideal material to use in obtaining the highest luster for amalgam in patient's mouth. A. True B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39. As demonstrated by the upper classmates, one should use heavy force on the
prophylaxis cup with highest rotation speed to ensure every grooves and pit are
polished.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. A recommended technique when making an alginate impression is to smear some
alginate materials onto the occlusals/incisals prior to inserting the impression tray
filled with alginate onto the teeth.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. When trimming your die, it is best to leave natural tooth structure below your
preparation margin to allow you to follow its contour for waxing.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
43. The articulator that you are using in the lab is a
A. semi-adjustable articulator
B. fully-adjustable articulator
C. non-adjustable articulator |
|
Definition
| A. semi-adjustable articulator |
|
|
Term
| 76. Which of the following stones has the fastest rate of set? A. Die-Keen B. Microstone C. Mounting Stone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
75. Which of the following stones is used for its hardness and resistance to abrasion?
A. Die-Keen
B. Microstone
C. Mounting stone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44. Mr. Johnson has deep decay subgingivally and it is virtually impossible to isolate the
area well to place an amalgam. You elect to use Megalloy because:
A. it contains high amounts of copper
B. it does not contain zinc and therefore will not have delayed expansion
C. it is easier to carve due to it's faster setting time
D. it creates less heat when triturated for an extra minute |
|
Definition
| B. it does not contain zinc and therefore will not have delayed expansion |
|
|
Term
45. When condensing amalgam, we want to:
A. use the largest condenser first, using vertical pressure
B. use the smallest condenser first using lateral condensation
C. doesn't matter which condenser to use first and only use vertical
D. condense from tooth towards amalgam |
|
Definition
| B. use the smallest condenser first using lateral condensation |
|
|
Term
46. The use of bonded amalgams has shown:
A. that it is far superior for retention in normal sized class II restorations
B. that it is far inferior for retention in normal sized class II restorations
C. neither, it is unclear if it plays a significant difference in the retention of normal sized class II amalgam restorations |
|
Definition
| C. neither, it is unclear if it plays a significant difference in the retention of normal sized class II amalgam restorations |
|
|
Term
47. The purpose of the wedge in the matrix is to:
A. adapt the metal matrix against the preparation
B. minimize the amount of excess amalgam material that may be condensed beyond the preparation at the gingival margin
C. provide separation between the preparation and the adjacent tooth
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
49. After completing his carving, Dr. Check everything pulled out his floss and checked
the contact area. The floss was tight but went through snugly. Upon removing the
floss occlusally, the floss shredded. What should he do?
A. strip open the contact more so that the floss will go through easier
B. get a carving instrument and remove any flash that is existing at the gingival margin
C. tell the patient to floss down, but not occlusally
D. he should do nothing |
|
Definition
| B. get a carving instrument and remove any flash that is existing at the gingival margin |
|
|
Term
50. In Class II Proximal caries, once the caries reaches the DEJ, it:
A. Spreads rapidly along the DEJ and follows the dentinal tubules towards the pulp
B. Spreads slowly along the DEJ and undermines the cusps
C. Follows the dentinal tubules towards the pulp only
D. Spreads rapidly towards the pulp and does not undermine the DEJ |
|
Definition
| A. Spreads rapidly along the DEJ and follows the dentinal tubules towards the pulp |
|
|
Term
51. Proximal white spot lesions which are not cavitated:
A. Should be restored with glass ionomer restorations
B. May be remineralized with toothpaste
C. Require definitive restorations such as composites or amalgams
D. Should be remineralized with fluoride trays or rinses |
|
Definition
| D. Should be remineralized with fluoride trays or rinses |
|
|
Term
56. Dr. Lynn placed a matrix band and wedge on a class II amalgam preparation. She washed the preparation and rinsed, but noticed that bleeding was still occurring. What is the most likely explanation?
A. Gingival tissue may have been trapped between the matrix band and tooth preparation
B. The patient has gingivitis
C. She should have rinsed more vigorously
D. She forgot to burnish the matrix band |
|
Definition
| A. Gingival tissue may have been trapped between the matrix band and tooth preparation |
|
|
Term
57. Dr. Meticulous uses his explorer every time after he places his matrix band to run
it along the gingival floor's cavo-surface. He later rinses the area well. Why
would he do this?
A. to make sure that the floor is perfectly flat
B. to make sure that all caries has been removed
C. because he can make sure that the matrix band is well burnished
D. to make sure that there are no loose enamel rods that could flake away while placing the restorative material |
|
Definition
| D. to make sure that there are no loose enamel rods that could flake away while placing the restorative material |
|
|
Term
63. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using amalgam in a class V
preparation?
A. Good strength
B. Inhibition of decay by fluoride release
C. Somewhat tolerant of moisture
D. Insoluble in oral fluids |
|
Definition
| B. Inhibition of decay by fluoride release |
|
|
Term
65. Which of the following materials is simplest to use and most predictable for bonding
to dentin?
A. Amalgam
B. Gold foil
C. Glass ionomer
D. Composite resin
E. Compomer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44. Which of the following muscle must contract to move the mandible anteriorly?
a. The Lateral Pterygoid muscles
b. The Medial Pterygoid muscles
c. The Masseter muscles
d. The Temporalis muscles |
|
Definition
| a. The Lateral Pterygoid muscles |
|
|
Term
47. During the swallowing process, the teeth are in centric occlusion. Which of the
following muscles are contracting during this process?
a. Temporalis Muscle
b. Masseter Muscle
c. Medial Pterygoid Muscle
d. Digastrics Muscle
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
50. Which of the following muscles is not considered an elevator muscle?
a. Temporalis Muscle
b. Masseter Muscle
c. Medial Pterygoid Muscle
d. Digastrics Muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. Which of the following statements is most descriptive of preformed provisional
restorations?
1. They are primarily most useful for temporizing single restorations.
2. They are most useful when temporizing multiple restorations.
3. They are appropriate when temporizing for a short period.
4. They are most useful when temporizing for an extended period of time.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 4
E. 3 and 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Which of the following burs is not recommended for preparing the interproximal surfaces of a tooth?
A) 856-016
B) 8855-012 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. What material is the iso-form anatomical crowns used to temporize tooth #18 made of?
A) Silver-tin
B) Aluminum
C) Stainless steel
D) Uranium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Which of the following mandibular positions is not considered an eccentric movement?
A. Right lateral
B. Left lateral
C. Protrusive
D. Centric occlusion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. When the mandible moves to the right side, the articulation of the teeth on the right side of the face is referred to by which of the following terms?
A. The working side
B. The non-working side
C. The balancing side |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What is the proper amount of reduction for the functional cusp bevel?
A. 0.7-1.0 mm
B. 1.0 - 1.5 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 1.0 mm |
|
Definition
|
|
