Term
| List the 4 overall functions of the digestive system |
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Definition
1. peristalsis
2. secretion
3. digestion
4. absorption |
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Term
| Name the 4 major layers of the g.i. tract will and the major tissue type in each layer |
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Definition
1. mucosa - surface epithelium, connective tissue in the lamina propria, smooth muscle in the muscularis mucosae
2. submucosa - connective tissue
3. muscularis externa - smooth muscle
4. serosa - connective tissue |
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Term
| How does the surface epithelium in the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus and anal canal differ from the rest of the g.i. tract? Why? |
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Definition
| Stratified squamous epithelium vs. simple columnar epithelium; to protect areas subject to abrasion from big chunks of food |
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Term
| How does the muscularis externa in the stomach differ from that in the rest of the g.i. tract? Why? |
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Definition
| 3 layers (circular, longitudinal, oblique) v 2 layers (circular, longitudinal) for mixing and churning of food in the stomach |
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Term
| How does the muscularis externa in the esophagus differ from that in the rest of the g.i. tract? Why? |
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Definition
| It also contains skeletal muscle for voluntary control of swallowing |
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Term
| What kind of digestion occurs in the oral cavity? (mechanical and / or chemical) |
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Definition
| both; mechanical (teeth and tongue) and chemical (lingual lipase, salivary amylase |
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Term
| What is a protein found in saliva that binds food into a bolus? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the function of antibodies and lysozyme in saliva? |
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Definition
| Antibodies are involved in the immune response; lysozyme breaks down bactreial cell wall |
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Term
| Explain the 2 types of reflexes involved in the secretion of saliva. Make sure to include the stimuli for each reflex. |
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Definition
1. Simple reflex- stimulus stimulates chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors in mouith; sensory impulse sent to salivary centre in medulla oblongata; motor impulse is then sent to salivary glands via autonomic nerves
2. Conditional reflex - other input such as smell, image, etc. Stimulates sensory receptors (ex. eyes) impulse is sent to cerebral cortex and then relayed to salivary center in medulla oblongata; motor impulse is then sent to salivary glands via autonomic nerves. |
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Term
| What kind of digestion occurs in the stomach? mechanical or chemical? |
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Definition
| Both; mechanical digestion breaks up big chunks of food and chemical (mostlly pepsin and HCl) |
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Term
| What enzyme is involved in protein digestion in the stomach? |
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Definition
| inactive form is pepsinogen, active form is pepsin, activated by HCl |
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Term
| What 2 types of cells are found in the gastric pits of the stomach mucosa? |
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Definition
1. parietal cells
2. Chief cells |
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Term
| What gastric cells produce HCl? |
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Definition
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Term
| What gastric cells produce pepsinogen? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is an enzyme produced in children that acts on the milk protein casein? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name 2 hormones produced by the stomach? |
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Definition
1. Gastrin - stimulates secretion of HCl and pepsinogen
2. somatostatin - inhibits release of gastrin, therefore inhibiting secretion of HCl and pepsinogen |
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Term
| Describe how gastric mucosal barrier protects the stomach mucosa from HCl? |
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Definition
1. Bicarbonate buffer neutralizes acid at epithelial cell surface
2. mucouis secreted by goblet cells coats surface of eptihelial cells
3. Tight junctions between epithelial cells
4. H+ entry into epithelial cells is blocked |
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Term
| Describe the 3 structures of the small intestines increasing surface area for absorption/secretion in the small intestine. |
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Definition
1. Plicae circulares = deep folds in mucosa and submucosa
2. Vili 0 finger like projections formed by mucosa (surface epithelium at surface of vlius; lamina propria inside vilus
3. Microvilli - folded plasma membrane of epithelial cells |
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Term
| What kind of digestion occurs in the small intestine? |
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Definition
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Term
| What secretions are involved in chemical digestion in the small intestines? |
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Definition
a. intestinal enzymes
b. Bile from liver
c. Pancreatic secretions (enzymes, bicarbonate buffer) |
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Term
| What enters the duodenum through the hepatopancreatic ampulla? |
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Definition
| Bile and pancreatic secretions |
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Term
| What is the function of bile in lipid digestion? |
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Definition
| Emulsification of lipids )increase surface area for lipase to perform chemical digestion) emulsification breaks large fat globules into smaller fat droplets |
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Term
| Where does nucleic acid digestion begin and end? |
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Definition
| Begins and ends in small intestines. |
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Term
| Where does most nutrient absorption occur in the digestive tract? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where does most water absorption occur? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the function of the colon? |
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Definition
| Stores and concentrates feces by absorbing water, vitamins, and minerals |
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Term
| How is water reabsorbed in the colon? |
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Definition
| Active transport of sodium, water follows |
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Term
| Why is it important that newborns can absorb undigestion proteins? |
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Definition
| Passive immunity - receive protective antidbodies from their mother's milk |
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Term
| What is a portal triad composed of? |
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Definition
| Hepatic arter, hepatic portal vein, bile duct |
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Term
| What type of capillaries are found in liver lobules? What is their function? |
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Definition
| sinusoid lobules - blood percolates (moves slowly) through thems o that nutrient rich blood from the intestins can be processed by hepatocytes. |
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Term
| What veins carry low oxygen, unprocessed nutrient rich blood from the small intestine to the liver to be processed? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the major digestive function of the liver? |
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Definition
| Bile production for the emulsification of lipids |
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Term
| Where do bile salts come from? |
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Definition
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Term
| Pre haptic (hemolytic) jaundice |
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Definition
| caused by anything which cuases an increased rate of hemolysis (breakdown of red blood cells |
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Term
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Definition
| causes include acute hepatitis, hepatotoxicity, and alcoholic liver disease, w hereby cell necrosis reduces the liver's ability to metabolise and excrete bilirubin leading to a build up in the blood. Jaundice seen in the newborn, known as neonatal jaundice, is common, occurring in almost every newborn as hepatic machinery for the conjugation and excretion of bilirubin does not fully mature until approximately two weeks of age |
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Term
| Post hepatic (or obstructive) jaundice (or cholestasis) |
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Definition
| caused by an interruption to the drainage of bile in the biliary system. The most common causes are gallstones in the common bile duct, and pancreatic cancer in the head of the pancreas. Also a gropu of parasites known as "liver flukes" live in the common bile duct, causing obstructive jaundice |
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Term
| How dose the liver regulate blood glucose levels? |
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Definition
| It stores glucose as glycogen and it breaks down glycogen into glucose (under the direction of the hormone glucagons) to maintain homeostasis of BGL. |
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Term
| Liver phagocytes are called ____________ cells remove microbes and worn out rbcs |
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Definition
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Term
| Vitamin D is activated in the ____ by ____________. the kidneys and _____ participate in converting this activated vitamin D into the hormone _________ What is the target of this hormone? __________. What is the function of this hormone?______________________ |
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Definition
| Vitamin D is activated in the SKIN by ULTRAVIOLET RAYS_. the kidneys and LIVER participate in converting this activated vitamin D into the hormone CALCITRIOL What is the target of this hormone? SMALL INTESTINES. What is the function of this hormone?INCREASES ABSORPTION OF CALCIUM FROM YOUR DIET |
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Term
| What vitamin and mineral are stored in the liver? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why does cholesterol need another compound to transport it in the blood? |
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Definition
| It is nonpolar and water is polar |
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Term
| How is ATP produced from a carb? |
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Definition
| glycolysis, pyruvic acid oxidation, Kreb's cycle, ETC |
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Term
| Identify the enzymes involved in protein digestion |
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Definition
| pepsin (stomach) and pancreatic and intestinal enzymes |
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Term
| When amino acids are used to make ATP, what toxic compound is produced? |
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Definition
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Term
| How are amino acids used to make ATP? |
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Definition
| some amino acids can be converted into glucose by the liver |
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Term
| In what form are proteins absorbed in the small intestines? |
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Definition
| Mostly amino acids, and they are transported by Active Transport |
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Term
| Explain the structure of a chylomicron |
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Definition
| Globules of triglycerides that are coated with protein to form water solbule lipoproteins droplets |
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Term
| What happens to residual bile salts after lipids are absorbed by epithelial cells? |
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Definition
| Reabsorbed and returned to lvier via the hepatic portal system. |
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Term
| What happens to residual chylomicron material after triglycerides are digested in the blood? |
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Definition
| The residual chylomicron material is combined with proteins by liver cells and these "new" lipoproteins are used to transport cholesterol in the blood |
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Term
| How are fatty acids used for ATP synthesis? |
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Definition
| fatty acids are chopped up into acetyl molecules (2C) and fed into Kreb's cycle |
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Term
| How is glycerol used for ATP synthesis? |
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Definition
| 2 glycerol molecules (3 C e ach) can be combined to form 1 glucose molecule (6 C) |
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Term
| How can lipid metabolism lead to acidosis of the blood? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what provides energy for liver cells to convert proteins into glucose? |
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Definition
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Term
| What enzyme digests triglycerides in the blood? |
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Definition
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Term
| Identify the enzymes involved in nucleic acid digestin? |
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Definition
| Pancreatic and intestinal enzymes |
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Term
| Give 5 examples of hormones that are amino acid or protein based? |
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Definition
| Calcitonin, ACTH, MSH, TSH, oxytocin, ADH, LH, FSH, PTH, GH, thyroxine |
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Term
| How does this type of hormone have an effect on its target cell? |
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Definition
| G protein (2nd messenger) mechanism; except thyroxine which uses direct gene activation |
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Term
| Give 5 examples of hormones that are cholesterol or steroid based? |
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Definition
| Adrenal cortex hormones; Aldosterone, androgens, hydrocortisone, cortisone, cortisol, Sex hormones; testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone. |
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Term
| How do cholesteol steroids have an effect on its target cell? |
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Definition
| direct gene activation. Hormones diffuse through phospholipid bilayer and bind to a specific gene in the DNA molecule; |
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Term
| WHere do prostaglandins come from? What is their function, and How can they be inhibited? |
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Definition
| Prostaglandins come from fatty acid tails of phospholipids in plasma membranes they function to induce fever and the sensation of pain and they can be inhibited by acetaminophen or ibuprofen. |
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Term
| What triggers the release of renin and the production of angiotensin II? |
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Definition
| Released in response to dilute filtration (low Pressure) filtrate is moving too slow through the tubule and too much salt is reabsorbed |
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Term
| What do hydrocortisone, cortisone and cortisol do? |
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Definition
| convert compounds other than carbs into glucose that can then be converted to ATP; provides resistance to stress; anti inflammatory compounds (decrease edema) reduce pain by inhibiting prostaglandins |
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Term
| Name 2 hormones that can turn on the production of aldosterone? |
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Definition
| Angiotensin II and Adrenocorticotropic Hormone |
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Term
| What gland and hormone is an important source of estrogen for postmenopausa women ? |
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Definition
| Adrenal cortex - androgens |
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Term
| Why does estrogen contniue to be important to a postmenopausal woman? |
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Definition
| maintenance of bony matrix; specifically targets osteoblasts and builds bone |
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Term
| Thymic hormones function in the development of leukocytes called? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Congential Adrenal Hyperplasia |
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Term
| If the body lacks the enzymes to convert compounds into cortisol, sompounds are instead converted into? what? What are the symptoms of this disease? |
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Definition
| androgens; Masculinization in females (male like physique, enlargement of clitoris to resemble a penis, infrequent or absent menstruation) in males, rapid development of reproductive organsa nd male characteristics |
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Term
| Exopthalmos is associated with what condition? |
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Definition
| Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism) |
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Term
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Definition
| Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone |
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Term
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Definition
| hyposecretion of thyroid hormone in children |
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Term
| What causes aldosteronism? |
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Definition
| hypersecretion of aldosterone resulting in high blood pressure |
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Term
| What syndrome is characterized by the redistribution of fat ( moon face, bufalo hump) hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, hypertension and mood swings? |
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Definition
| Addison's disease or hyposecretion of cortisone / hydrocortisone |
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Term
| What part of the testes produces testosterone? |
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Definition
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Term
| What part of the testes produce the sperm? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the ducts that carry sperm/semen/urine from the epididymis to the outside of the body |
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Definition
1. vas deferens
2. ejaculatory duct
3. prostatic urethra
4. membranous urethra
5. penile urethra |
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Term
| Name the 3 glands that contribute seminal fluid to semen |
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Definition
1. seminal vesicles
2. prostate gland
3. bulbourethral gland |
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|
Term
| what gland produces most of the seminal fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
| Seminal vesicles produce a secretion containing what 3 things? |
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Definition
1. fructose
2. prostaglandins
3. clotting factors |
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Term
| What is the functions of the secretions from the bulbourethral gland (Cowper's gland) |
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Definition
| washes the residual urine out of the urethra before ejaculation of semen occurs and acts as a lubricant for intercourse; alkalinity also acts to neutralize the lactic acid in the vagina. |
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Term
| Ova develop in sac like structures called? |
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Definition
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Term
| the fluid filled cavity of an ovarian follicle is called an? |
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Definition
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Term
| Ovarian follicle cells produce what 2 hormones? |
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Definition
| Estrogen and progesterone |
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Term
| What is a primary follicle? |
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Definition
| A primary follicle is one in which only a few layers of cuboidal cells surrounding an oocyte (there is no antrum) A primary follicle co ntains a primary oocyte |
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Term
| A mature follicle is called a? |
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Definition
| Graafian follicle. This type of follicle contains a SECONDARY oocyte and has a large fluid filled antrum |
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Term
| What develops from an ovulated follicle? |
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Definition
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Term
| What do we call the diploid cells in the ovaries and testes that divided to form the gametes? |
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Definition
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Term
Germ cells in the testes are called what?
Germ cells in the ovaries are called what? |
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Definition
| testes are called spermatocytes, in the ovaries they are called oocytes |
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Term
| During what phase of meiosis does crossing over occur? |
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Definition
| Prophase 1 - occurs between homologous pairs |
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Term
| Meiosis in males is called? |
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Definition
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Term
| Diploid germ cells in the testes are called? |
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Definition
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Term
| Meiosis in male germ cell results in 4 haploid? |
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Definition
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Term
| Spermatids must go through a maturation process called? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are sperm called when the process is complete? |
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Definition
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Term
| What hormone stimulates cell division in the seminiferous tubule cells? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What gland produces this hormone? |
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Definition
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Term
| What hormone stimulates testosterone production by the interstitial cells? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
| What are the functions of testosterone? |
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Definition
| Development of reproductive organs to adult size, sex drive, development of secondary sex characteristics (deepening of voice, increased hair growth, enlargement of skeletal muscles and bones) and final stages of sperm production (spermiogenesis) |
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Term
| Meiosis in females is called? |
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Definition
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Term
| Diploid germ cells in the ovaries are called? |
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Definition
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Term
| When do primary oocytes development? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When do primary follicles develop? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| When does the anterior pituitary gland start to release FSH and LH? |
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Definition
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Term
| What stimulates several primary follicles to develop into secondary follices at the start of each cycle? |
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Definition
| FSH and LH from adenohypohysis |
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Term
| One of these follices outgrows the other follices and is referred to as the ? |
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Definition
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Term
| At what follicular stage does Meiosis I (first meiotic division) take place? |
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Definition
| Secondary follicle (primary oocyte) |
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Term
| Meiosis I produces what kind of oocyte? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What hormone causes ovulation ? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Development of a Graafian follicle usually takes about 14 days |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Why do the polar bodies produced during meiosis deteriotate? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| When does Meiosis II begin? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| In females meiosis arrests at what phase? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When is Meiosis II completed? |
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Definition
| After fertilization by the sperm (occurs between fusion of the nuclei to form the zygote) |
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Term
| What causes the ruptured Graafian follicle to change into the corpus luteum? |
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Definition
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Term
| The corpus luteum will continue to produce what to prepare the uterine endometrium for implantation by the zygote? |
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Definition
| estrogen and progesterone |
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Term
| What hormone changes bring on menses? |
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Definition
| Decline in estrogen/progesterone levels |
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Term
| What is happening to the ovaries when a woman is on her period? |
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Definition
| FSH levels begin rising and several primary follicles tart to grow and develop into secondary follices |
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Term
| What happens on around the 14th day of a woman's cycle? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Over the counter ovulation kits detect a surge in what hormone? |
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Definition
| Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) |
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|
Term
| Explain the difference between fraternal and identical twins |
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Definition
fraternal twins are two secondary oocytes are ovulated, each one is fertilized by a different sperm
Identical twins: one secondary oocyte is ovulate; it is then fertilized by one sperm; the zygote later splits into 2 zygotes. |
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