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Phys Test One BRS Ch. 1 & 3
Phys Test One BRS Ch. 1 & 3
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Physiology
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01/12/2013

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Term
_____ permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells.
Definition
Gap Junctions
Term
Simple diffusion moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient?
Definition
Downhill
Term
Cotransport moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient?
Definition
Uphill, One or more solutes transported uphill; Na+ is transported downhill
Term
Primary Active Diffusion moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient?
Definition
Uphill
Term
Facilitated Diffusion moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient?
Definition
Downhill
Term
Counter transport moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient?
Definition
Uphill, One or more solutes transported uphill; Na+ is transported downhill
Term
Simple diffusion, Carrier Mediated?
Definition
No
Term
Cotransport, Carrier Mediated?
Definition
Yes
Term
Primary Active Transport, Carrier Mediated?
Definition
Yes
Term
Facilitated Diffusion, Carrier Mediated?
Definition
Yes
Term
Counter transport, Carrier Mediated?
Definition
Yes
Term
Simple diffusion, Metabolic Energy Required?
Definition
No
Term
Cotransport, Metabolic Energy Required?
Definition
Indirect
Term
Primary Active Transport, Metabolic Energy Required?
Definition
Yes
Term
Facilitated Diffusion, Metabolic Energy Required?
Definition
No
Term
Counter transport, Metabolic Energy Required?
Definition
Indirect
Term
Simple diffusion, Na+ Gradient?
Definition
No
Term
Cotransport, Na+ Gradient?
Definition
Yes, Same Direction
Term
Primary Active Diffusion, Na+ Gradient?
Definition
Doesn't Apply
Term
Facilitated Diffusion, Na+ Gradient?
Definition
no
Term
Counter transport, Na+ Gradient?
Definition
Yes, Opposite Direction
Term
Counter transport, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump?
Definition
Inhibits
Term
Facilitated Diffusion, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump?
Definition
Doesn't Apply
Term
Primary Active Transport, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump?
Definition
Inhibits (if Na+-K+ pump)
Term
Cotransport, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump?
Definition
Inhibits
Term
Simple diffusion, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump?
Definition
Doesn't apply
Term
_____ is the only form of transport that is not carrier-mediated.
Definition
Simple Diffusion
Term
Simple diffusion, passive or active?
Definition
Passive
Term
Diffusion can be measured with the equation: _______.
Definition
J= -PA(C1-C2)

J= Flux (flow)
P= Permability
A= Area
C1/C2 = Concentration
Term
Permability variable: _____.
Definition
P
Term
Factors that increase permeability: _______.
Definition
Increase Oil/Water Partition Coefficient
Decrease Radius of solute
Decrease Membrane thickness
Term
Variable for Oil/Water Partition Coefficient ______.
Definition
K
Term
Permeability (P) = _____
Definition
P = K (Partition Coefficient) x {Diffusion Coefficient(D)/ Membrane Thickness(DeltaX)}
Term
______ solutes have the highest permeabilities in lipid membranes.
Definition
small hydrophobic (ex O2)
Term
If a hydrophilic solute is charged then its flux will depend on _____.
Definition
both the [] difference and the potential difference across the membrane
Term
Carrier Mediated Transport includes: ____, ____, & _____ transport.
Definition
Facilitated Diffusion
Primary & Secondary Active Transport
Term
Three Characteristics of Carrier Mediated Transport: _______.
Definition
Stereospecificity
Saturation
Competition (Comp inhibitors, structural analogs)
Term
Does simple diffusion display Stereospecificity?
Definition
No
Term
For Carrier Mediated Transport, the variable ____ is analogous to Vmax.
Definition
Tm (Transport Maximum)
Term
What is more rapid, simple or facilitated diffusion?
Definition
Facilitated
Term
Facilitated diffusion, passive or active?
Definition
Passive
Term
Example of Facilitated diffusion?
Definition
Glc transport in M. and Adipose Cells, downhill, carrier mediated, and is inhibited by others sugars, therefore Facilitated diffusion
Term
Primary active transport goes against the gradient and requires energy (directly/indirectly) in the form of ______.
Definition
Directly

Metabolic energy as ATP
Term
Examples of Primary Active Transport: _____
Definition
Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump)

Ca2+ ATPase (Ca2+ Pump)

H+,K+ ATPase (Proton Pump)
Term
Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) transports Na+ from ____ to _____.
Definition
intracellular to extracellular
Term
Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) maintains low intracellular [__] and high intracellular [__].
Definition
Na+ Low

K+ High
Term
Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) example of ____ transport.
Definition
Primary Active Transport
Term
Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) which ions are pumped against their gradient?
Definition
Both
Term
Stoichiometry of Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump)?
Definition
3Na+ out/ 2K+ in
Term
Specific inhibitors of Na+,K+ ATPase are the _____ drugs: _____ & ______.
Definition
Cardiac Glycosides

Ouabain and Digitalis
Term
Ca2+ ATPase (Ca2+ Pump) are found where?
Definition
In the SR
Term
Ca2+ ATPase (Ca2+ Pump) in the sarcoplasmic and endoplasmic reticulum are called ______.
Definition
SERCA
Term
H+,K+ ATPase (Proton Pump) transports H+ into ______.
Definition
the lumen of the stomach
Term
H+,K+ ATPase (Proton Pump) is inhibited by proton pump inhibitors, such as _____.
Definition
Omerprazole
Term
_____ active transport involves the coupled transport of two or more solutes.
Definition
Secondary
Term
In secondary active transport, one of the solutes is transported downhill, usually _____, in order to ____.
Definition
Na+

provide energy for the solute transported uphill
Term
Energy is provided directly/indirectly for secondary active transport.
Definition
indirectly
Term
Energy is indirectly provided for secondary active transport by _____ gradient.
Definition
Na+
Term
Inhibition of _____ will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, decrease the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit _______.
Definition
Na+, K+ ATPase

secondary active transport
Term
Two types of secondary active transport: ______.
Definition
Cotransport

Countertransport (Exchange/Antiport)
Term
Na+ - Glucose ____ transporter.
Definition
Cotransporter (secondary active)
Term
In the Na+-Glucose Cotransporter, Glc is transported _____hill and Na+ is transported _____hill, in the _____ direction.
Definition
up

down

same
Term
Na+-Ca2+ ________transporter.
Definition
Countertransporter (exchanger)
Term
Na+-Ca2+ Countertransporter (exchanger) moves Ca2+ _____hill and Na+ _____hill, in the _____ direction.
Definition
up

down

opposite
Term
Osmolarity is the [] of ______ particles in a solution.
Definition
Osmotically active
Term
Two solutions that have the same Osmolarity are said to be _____.
Definition
isosmotic
Term
Osmolarity can be calculated using equation: _______.
Definition
Osmolarity = g X C

g= number of particles in solution
{ex. gCl = 2, gGlc = 1}
C= Concentration
(ex. 1M)
Term
If solution one contains high [solute] and solution two contains pure water, which one produces osmotic pressure.
Definition
Solution 1
Term
Osmotic pressure of one solution causes _____.
Definition
Water to flow to the other solution
Term
Formula for Osmotic Pressure: ______.
Definition
Pi = g x C x RT

Pi = Osmotic Pressure
G = number of particles
C = []
Term
The osmotic pressure increases when the _____ increases.
Definition
[Solute]
Term
The higher the osmotic pressure the (less/greater) the water flow into it.
Definition
Greater
Term
Reflection Coefficient (sigma) is a number between __ & ___ that describes the _____.
Definition
0 and 1

ease at which a solute permeates a membrane
Term
Colloidosmotic pressure, or oncotic pressure, is the osmotic pressure created by ______.
Definition
Proteins (eg Plasma Proteins)
Term
If the Reflection Coefficient (sigma) is one the solute is ______.
Definition
Impermeable
Term
If the Reflection Coefficient (sigma) is 0 the solute is ______.
Definition
solute is completely permeable
Term
A solute with a reflection coefficient (sigma) of ___ creates osmotic pressure that causes water flow, while a solute with a sigma of _____ will do neither.
Definition
1

0
Term
_____ has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.
Definition
Serum Albumin
Term
____ has a reflection of close to zero and it is, therefore, an ineffective _____.
Definition
Urea

Osmole
Term
How do you calculate Effective Osmotic Pressure?
Definition
Effective Osmotic Pressure = Osmotic Pressure (Calculated by Van Hoff's) times the reflection coefficient (sigma)
Term
If the reflection coefficient is ____, the solute will exert maximal effective osmotic pressure.
Definition
one
Term
If the reflection coefficient is ____, the solute will exert no effective osmotic pressure.
Definition
0
Term
A small ion channel lined with anions will be selective for _____.
Definition
small cations
Term
Can ion channels be closed?
Definition
Yes (can be opened or closed)
Term
Voltage-Gated channels are opened and closed by changes in _____.
Definition
Membrane Potential
Term
The activation gate of the Na+ channel in nerve is opened by ______.
Definition
Depolarization
Term
When the activation gate of the Na+ channel is opened, the membrane is permeable to ____.
Definition
Na+
Term
The inactivation gate of the Na+ Channel is closed by _____.
Definition
Depolarization
Term
The inactivation gate of the Na+ channel is closed by depolarization during ___ phase of an action potential.
Definition
Repolarization
Term
Ligand Gated Channels are opened or closed by _____, _____, or _____.
Definition
hormones second messengers or neurotransmitters
Term
The _____ receptor for ACh is an example of a ligand-gated channel.
Definition
Nicotinic Receptor
Term
The ligand-gated Nicotinic Receptor is an ion channel that opens when it binds ACH making it permeable to _____ and _____, causing the motor end plate to ______.
Definition
Na+

K+

Depolarize
Term
A ______, is the potential difference generated across a membrane, because of a [] difference of an ion.
Definition
diffusion potential
Term
Diffusion potential can be created only if _____.
Definition
The membrane is permeable to the ion
Term
The sign of the diffusion potential depends on whether the diffusion ion is ______.
Definition
+ or -
Term
Diffusion potentials are created by the diffusion of _____ ions and, therefore, do not _____.
Definition
very few

result in a change in the []
Term
The equilibrium potential (E) is the _______ that exactly balances (opposes) the tendency for _____ caused by a [] difference.
Definition
diffusion potential

diffusion
Term
At electrochemical equilibrium, the ____ & ______ driving forces that act on an ion are equal and opposite.
Definition
chemical and electrical
Term
At electrochemical equilibrium there is no more net _____ of ions.
Definition
diffusion
Term
The potential difference that exactly counterbalances the diffusion of Na+ down its concentration gradient is the _____.
Definition
Na+ Equilibrium Potential
Term
_____ equation is used to calculate the equilibrium potential.
Definition
Nernst Equation
Term
Nernst Equation for equilibrium potential: ________.
Definition
E = -2.3 * RT/zF log [Ci]/[Ce]

z = charge of ion
Term
Equilibrium potential tells us at what potential would the ion be at _______.
Definition
Electrochemical Equilibrium
Term
2.3 * RT/zF = ______ at 37 degrees.
Definition
60mv
Term
The Vm is expressed by convention as the ____cellular relative to the _____cellular potential. So a -70mV means a 70mV, cell (+/-)
Definition
intra

extra

-
Term
The resting membrane potential is established by _____.
Definition
diffusion potentials
Term
Each permeable ion attempts to drive the membrane potential towards ______.
Definition
Its equilibrium potential
Term
Ions with the highest _____ or _____, will make the greatest contributions to the resting membrane potential.
Definition
permeability or conductances
Term
The nerve membrane has a resting potential of -70mV, ENa+ = +65, EK+ = -85, therefore the nerve membrane is more permeable to _____ at rest.
Definition
K+
Term
Depolarization makes the membrane potential ____ negative.
Definition
Less
Term
Depolarization makes the membrane potential Less negative, meaning the cell interior becomes _____ negative.
Definition
Less negative
Term
Hyperpolarization makes the membrane potential _____ negative.
Definition
more
Term
Inward current is flow of ____ into the cell.
Definition
positive
Term
Inward current (depolarizes/hyperpolarizes) the membrane.
Definition
depolarizes
Term
Outward current is the flow of positive charge _____ the cell.
Definition
out
Term
Outward current (depolarizes/hyperpolarizes) the membrane.
Definition
hyperpolarizes
Term
Upstroke aka ______.
Definition
Depolarization
Term
_______ is the membrane potential at which action potential is inevitable.
Definition
Threshold potential
Term
At Threshold potential, net _____ current becomes larger than net _____ current.
Definition
inward

outward
Term
If net ____ current is less than net _____ current, no action potential will occur.
Definition
inward

outward
Term
Resting membrane potential of excitable cells is potentially ______.
Definition
-70mV, cell negative
Term
Resting membrane potential is the result of the high resting conductance to ___, which drives the membrane potential towards its _______.
Definition
K+

EK+
Term
At rest the Na+ channels are _____.
Definition
Closed
Term
Depolarization causes rapid opening of the ________.
Definition
activation gates of Na+ channels
Term
Depolarization causes rapid opening of the activation gates of Na+ channels, at the Na+ ______ promptly increases.
Definition
Conductance
Term
The rapid depolarization during the upstroke is caused by an inward/outward Na+/K+ current.
Definition
inward

Na+
Term
______ closes the inactivation gates of Na+ channel, but more slowly.
Definition
Depolarization
Term
_____ slowly opens K+ channels and increases K+ conductance.
Definition
depolarization
Term
Repolarization is caused by an (inward/outward) _+ current.
Definition
Outward (K+ channels open in repolarization)

K+
Term
Undershoot aka ___________.
Definition
Hyperpolarizing afterpotential
Term
During the absolute refractory period the ______ gates of _+ channel are closed.
Definition
inactivation gates of the Na+
Term
Accommodation occurs when the cell membrane is held at a ______ level such that the threshold potential is passed without firing of an action potential.
Definition
depolarized
Term
Accommodation occurs because depolarization closes the _________.
Definition
inactivation gates on the Na+ channels
Term
Accommodation is demonstrated in hyperkalemia, in which skeletal muscle membranes are depolarized by the ________.
Definition
High serum [K+]
Term
Hyperkalemia causes _____ symptom.
Definition
muscle weakness
Term
Propagation of action potentials occurs by the spread of _____ to adjacent areas of the membrane.
Definition
local currents
Term
Conduction velocity is increased by _____ & _____.
Definition
Increase in fiber size (diameter)

Myelination
Term
Increase in the fiber diameter increases conduction velocity by reducing ______.
Definition
Internal Resistance
Term
Action potentials can only be generated at _____ along an myelinated axon.
Definition
Nodes of Ranvier
Term
An action potential in the presynaptic cell causes depolarization of the _______.
Definition
Presynaptic terminal
Term
An action potential in the presynaptic cell causes depolarization of the presynaptic terminal. As a result of the depolarization ____ enters the presynaptic terminal, causing a _______.
Definition
Ca2+

release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
Term
Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and combine with ________ on the _____ cell membrane.
Definition
receptors on the postsynaptic
Term
Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and combine with receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane, causing a change in its _________, and consequently a change in its ______.
Definition
permeability to ions

membrane potential
Term
Inhibitory Neurotransmitters _____ the postsynaptic membrane.
Definition
hyperpolarize
Term
Excitatory Neurotransmitters ______ the postsynaptic membrane.
Definition
depolarize
Term
At a neuromuscular junction, the neurotransmitter released from the motoneuron is ____ and the postsynaptic membrane on the muscle contains a ____ receptor.
Definition
ACh

Nicotinic
Term
ACh is synthesized and stored in the ______.
Definition
presynaptic terminal
Term
______ catalyzes the formation of ACh from _____ and ____ in presynaptic terminal.
Definition
Choline Acetyltransferase

acetyl coenzyme A (CoA) & Choline
Term
ACh is stored in _______ with _____ and proteoglycans for later release.
Definition
synaptic vesicles with ATP
Term
______ blocks release of ACh from presynaptic terminals.
Definition
Botulinus Toxin
Term
Botulinus Toxin effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______.
Definition
Total Blockage
Term
_______ competes with ACh for receptors on the motor end plate.
Definition
Curare
Term
Curare effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______.
Definition
Decrease size of end plate potential (EPP); maximal doses produce paralysis of resp muscle & death
Term
_______ inhibits actetycholinesterase.
Definition
Neostigmine
Term
Neostigmine effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______.
Definition
Prolongs and enhances action of ACh at muscle end plate
Term
________ blocks reuptake of choline into presynaptic terminal.
Definition
Hemicholinium
Term
Hemicholinium effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______.
Definition
Depletes ACh stores from presynaptic terminal
Term
Depolarization of the presynaptic terminal results in ___ uptake.
Definition
Ca2+
Term
Depolarization of the presynaptic terminal opens ____ channels.
Definition
Ca2+
Term
After the presynaptic terminal opens Ca2+ channels have opened and increased Ca2+ permeability, Ca2+ then rushes (into/out of) the presynaptic terminal (down/against) its electrochemical gradient.
Definition
Into

down
Term
Ca2+ uptake by the presynaptic terminal causes ______.
Definition
the release of ACh into the synaptic cleft
Term
ACh is released into the synaptic cleft through ______.
Definition
exocytosis, vesicles fuse with the presynaptic terminal and release their contents into the synaptic cleft
Term
In a Neuromuscular Junction, the postsynaptic membrane is aka _______.
Definition
Muscle End Plate
Term
ACh binds to ______ in a Neuromuscular Junction.
Definition
Nicotinic Receptors
Term
Nicotinic ACh Receptors serve as _____ channels
Definition
Na+ & K+
Term
Binding of ACh to the Nicotinic ACh Receptor's _ subunit, causes a conformation change that ______ and increases its _______.
Definition
alpha

opens up the channel

conductance to Na+ and K+
Term
ACh Nicotinic Receptors are an example of ______ gated ion channels.
Definition
Ligand
Term
Because the channels opened by ACh conduct both Na+ & K+ ions, the postsynaptic membrane potential is _____ to a value ________.
Definition
depolarized

to a value between ENa+ & EK+ (aprrox 0mV)
Term
The contents of one synaptic vesicle produce a _________, the smallest possible EPP.
Definition
MEPP Miniature end plate potential
Term
MEPPs summate to produce a full-fledged ______.
Definition
EPP
Term
The EPP is not an ______, but simply a ______ of the specialized muscle end plate.
Definition
AP

Depolarization
Term
The EPP is transient because ACh is _____.
Definition
Degraded
Term
The EPP is transient because ACh is degraded into _____ and _____ by _______ on the muscle end plate.
Definition
acetyl CoA and Choline by acetylcholineesterase
Term
One half of the degraded choline by AChE is taken back to the presynaptic terminal through a _____transport.
Definition
Na+-Choline Cotransporter
Term
Example of a AChE inhibitor: _____.
Definition
Neostigmine
Term
AChE inhibitors (Neostigmine) block the degradation of ACh, which does what?
Definition
Prolongs ACh's action at the motor end plate and increases the size of the EPP
Term
EPP (______)
Definition
End Plate Potential
Term
EPP is a sum of ______.
Definition
MEPP (Minature End Plate Potential)
Term
Hemicholinum blocks ______, which ______.
Definition
Blocks Choline reuptake

which depletes the presynaptic endings of ACh stores
Term
Myasthenia Gravis is caused by the presence of antibodies to the _______.
Definition
ACh Receptor
Term
Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by ______ and fatigability resulting from a reduced number of ACh Receptors on the ______.
Definition
skeletal muscle weakness

muscle end plate
Term
In Myasthenia Gravis the size of the ____ is reduced; therefore it is more difficult to ________ and to produce ______.
Definition
EPP

depolarize the cell to the threshold and produce action potentials
Term
Myasthenia Gravis is treated with _______.
Definition
AChE Inhibitors (neostigimine)
Term
Two types of synaptic transmission arrangements: ______ & ______.
Definition
One-to-One Synapses

Many-to-One Synapses
Term
What type of synaptic arrangement is found at neuromuscular junctions?
Definition
One-to-one synapse
Term
What happens in a One-to-one synapse arrangement?
Definition
An action potential in the presynaptic element produces an action potential in the postsynaptic element
Term
What happens in a Many-to-One Synapses synapse arrangement?
Definition
An action potential in a single presynaptic cell is insufficient to produce an action potential in the postsynaptic cell. Instead many presynaptic cells synapse on the postysnaptic cell in order to depolarize it enough to create an AP
Term
The postsynaptic cell integrates ____ and ___ inputs.
Definition
Excitatory and Inhibitory inputs
Term
Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) are inputs that _____ the postsynaptic cell, doing what?
Definition
Depolarize

bring it closer to threshold and firing
Term
Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) are caused by ___________.
Definition
opening of channels that are permeable to Na+ & K+
Term
Excitatory Neurotransmitters that can open channels to cause Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) include: ______.
Definition
ACh, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Dopamine, Glutamate, and Serotonin
Term
Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs) are inputs that ______ the postsynaptic cell, doing what?
Definition
hyperpolarize

moving it farther away from threshold and farther from firing a AP
Term
Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs) are caused by the opening of _____ channels.
Definition
Cl-
Term
Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) are caused by the opening of _____ channels.
Definition
Na+ and K+
Term
Inhibitory Neurotransmitters include: _______.
Definition
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) & Glycine
Term
Spatial summation occurs when two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron ______.
Definition
simultaneously
Term
Temporal summation occurs when two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron ______.
Definition
in rapid succession
Term
In spatial summation the simultaneous excitatory inputs _______.
Definition
Produce Greater Depolarization
Term
In Temporal summation the simultaneous rapid successive inputs _______.
Definition
overlap in time and add in a stepwise fashion
Term
Epinephrine synthesis pathway: _____
Definition
Tyrosine -> L-Dopa -> Dopamine -> Norepinephrine -> Epinephrine
Term
Norepinephrine is the primary transmitter released from _______ neurons.
Definition
Postganglionic Sympathetic Neurons
Term
Norepinhephrine is synthesized in the nerve terminal and released into the synapse to bind with _____ or ____ receptors on the _____ membrane
Definition
alpha or beta receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
Term
Norepinephrine is removed from the synapse by ______ or it is metabolized in the presynaptic terminal by ______ and ______.
Definition
reuptake

Monoamine OXidase (MAO) and Catechol-O-Methyltransferase (COMT)
Term
Epinephrine is synthesized from _______.
Definition
Norepinephrine
Term
Epinephrine & Norepinephrine are secreted from the ______.
Definition
Adrenal Medulla
Term
Dopamine is prominent in _____ neurons.
Definition
Midbrain
Term
Dopamine is released from the ______.
Definition
Hypothalamus
Term
Dopamine inhibits _____ secretion, making it known as __________
Definition
prolactin-inhibiting factor
Term
Dopamine is metabolized by _____ and ______.
Definition
MAO and COMT
Term
What two neurotransmitters are metabolized by MAO and COMT.
Definition
Dopamine & Norepinephrine
Term
Two types of receptors for Dopamine: ____ & _____.
Definition
D1 & D2
Term
D1 dopamine receptor ______ adenylate cyclase via a ____ protein.
Definition
Activates adenylate cyclase via a Gs protein
Term
D2 dopamine receptor ______ adenylate cyclase via a ____ protein.
Definition
Inhibits adenylate cyclase via a Gi protein
Term
Two diseases associated with Dopamine: _____ & _____.
Definition
Parkinson's

Schizophrenia
Term
Parkinson's Disease involves degeneration of dopaminergic neurons that use the _____ receptors.
Definition
D2
Term
Schizophrenia involves _____ levels of ____ receptors.
Definition
Increased

D2
Term
Serotnin is present in high [] in the _____.
Definition
Brain Stem
Term
Serotonin is formed from _____.
Definition
Tryptophan
Term
Serotonin is converted into _____ in the _____.
Definition
Melatonin

Pineal Gland
Term
Histamine is formed from _____.
Definition
Histidine
Term
Histamine is present in the neurons of the ______.
Definition
Hypothalamus
Term
______ is the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.
Definition
Glutamate
Term
There are ___ subtypes of Glutamate receptors.
Definition
4
Term
Three of the subtypes of Glutamate Receptors are _____ receptors
Definition
ionotropic (ligand-gated ion channels)
Term
One of the subtypes of Glutamate Receptors is a _____ receptors, which is coupled to ion channels via a _______.
Definition
Metabotropic receptor

heterotrimeric G Protein
Term
GABA is a _______.
Definition
Inhibitory Neurotransmitter
Term
GABA is synthesized from ______ by _______.
Definition
Glutamate by Glutamate Decarboxylase
Term
GABA has 2 receptors: ____ & ____.
Definition
GABAa Receptor

GABAb Receptor
Term
GABAa Receptor increase ____ conductance and is the site of action of ____ & _____.
Definition
Cl-

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates
Term
GABAb Receptor increases ___ conductance.
Definition
K+
Term
Glycine is a _____ neurotransmitter.
Definition
Inhibitory
Term
Glycine is found primarily in the ____ and ____.
Definition
Spinal Cord

Brain Stem
Term
Glycine increases ____ conductance.
Definition
Cl-
Term
NO is a ___-acting ____ neurotransmitter found in:_____.
Definition
short-acting inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the GI tract, bld vessels, and the CNS
Term
NO is synthesized in the presynaptic terminals, where the enzyme NO synthase converts ____ to citrulline and NO.
Definition
NO synthase

Arginine
Term
Each skeletal muscle fiber contains bundles of ___, surrounded by ____ and invaginated by ____.
Definition
myofibrils

SR

Transverse Tubules (T Tubules)
Term
A sarcomere runs from the __ to ___.
Definition
Z Line to Z Line
Term
____ filaments are present in the A band.
Definition
Thick
Term
Thick Filaments contain _____.
Definition
Myosin
Term
Myosin has ___ polypeptide chains, including one pair of ______ and two pairs of _____.
Definition
6

one pair of heavy chains

two pairs of light chains
Term
Each myosin molecule has __ heads attached to how many tails?
Definition
2 heads one tail
Term
The myosin heads bind ____ and ____ and are involved in _____ formation.
Definition
ATP and Actin

Cross-Bridge Formation
Term
Thin Filaments are anchored at the _____.
Definition
Z lines
Term
Thin Filaments are present in the ___ bands.
Definition
I
Term
Thin Filaments interdigitate with the thick filaments in a portion of the ____ band.
Definition
A
Term
Thin Filaments contain the proteins: ______.
Definition
Actin, Tropomyosin, and Troponin
Term
Troponin is the regulatory protein that permits _____ when it binds _____.
Definition
Cross-Bridge Formation

Ca2+
Term
Troponin is a complex of three globular proteins: ________.
Definition
Troponin T
Troponin I
Troponin C
Term
Troponin T is for ("______") its function is to ______.
Definition
"T" for tropomyosin

attaches the troponin complex to tropomyosin
Term
Troponin I is for ("______") its function is to ______.
Definition
"I" for Inhibition

inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin
Term
Troponin C is for ("______") its function is to ______.
Definition
C is for Ca2+

is the Ca2+ binding protein that, when bound to Ca2+, permits the interaction of actin and myosin
Term
T tubules are open to the _____ space.
Definition
Extracellular
Term
T tubules carry the depolarization from the ____ to the _____.
Definition
Sarcolemmal Membrane to the cell interior
Term
In skeletal muscle T Tubules are located at _____.
Definition
The junctions of A bands and I bands
Term
T Tubules in skeletal muscle contain a ____-sensitive protein called the _______.
Definition
voltage

dihydropyridine receptor
Term
T Tubules in skeletal muscle contain a voltage-sensitive protein called the dihydropyridine receptor, _______ causes a ______ in the dihydropyridine receptor
Definition
depolarize

conformational change
Term
SR of skeletal muscle is the internal tubular structure that is the site of ____ & _____ for _____-_____ coupling.
Definition
Ca2+ storage and release

excitation-contraction
Term
SR has _____ that make intimate contact with the T Tubules in a triad arrangement in skeletal muscle.
Definition
Terminal Cisternae
Term
SR membranes of the skeletal muscle contain _____, which transports Ca2+ from _____ into ____, keeping ______ [Ca2+] low.
Definition
Ca2+-ATPase (Ca2+ Pump)

from intracellular to SR interior

intracellular low
Term
SR of skeletal muscle contains Ca2+ loosely bound to _____.
Definition
Calsequestrin
Term
SR of skeletal muscle contains a Ca2+ release channel called the ______.
Definition
Ryanodine Receptor
Term
_____ in the muscle cell membrane initiate depolarization of the _____.
Definition
Action Potentials

T Tubules
Term
Depolarization of the T Tubules causes a conformation change in its ______, which ______ in the nearby SR.
Definition
Dihydropyridine Receptor

which opens Ca2+ Release Channels (ryanodine Receptors)
Term
In skeletal muscle, after the Ca2+ release channels (Ryanodine Receptors) are opened, ______ [Ca2+] increases.
Definition
Intracellular
Term
Myosin "walks" towards the ____ end of actin to produce shortening and force generation.
Definition
(+)
Term
After Ca2+ has been released from the SR and the intracellular [Ca2+] has risen, the Ca2+ then _______, causing a conformational change in _____ that causes ______.
Definition
Ca2+ then binds to Troponin C on the thin filaments causing a conformational change of Troponin that moves tropomyosin out of the way.
Term
After Tropomyosin has been moved out of the way following the binding of Ca2+ to TnC, ______ process beings.
Definition
Cross-Bridge Cycle
Term
At the beginning of the cross-bridge cycle for skeletal muscle, myosin is bound to _____.
Definition
Actin (Not ATP or ADP)
Term
In the absence of ____, myosin is permanently bound to actin in a state called ______.
Definition
ATP

Rigor
Term
In skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle, once ATP binds to myosin it produces a conformational change in myosin that causes myosin to _____.
Definition
Be released from Actin
Term
In skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle, With ADP bound to myosin following its displacement towards the (_) end of the actin, myosin then _____, which constitutes the _______.
Definition
+

attaches to actin

power (force-generating) stroke
Term
In the Rigor state of the skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle, what is myosin bound to?
Definition
nothing
Term
The skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle repeats as long as _____.
Definition
Ca2+ is bound to troponin C
Term
Relaxation of skeletal muscle in the cross bridge cycle occurs when __________.
Definition
when Ca2+ is re-accumulated and intracellular [Ca2+] decreases.
Term
Relaxation of skeletal muscle in the cross bridge cycle occurs when Ca2+ is re-accumulated by _________ causing the intracellular [Ca2+] to ______.
Definition
SR Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA)

decrease
Term
After the intracellular [Ca2+] has decreased by the action of SERCA, Ca2+ is the released from ________, and ______ then again blocks the myosin-binding site on actin.
Definition
Troponin C

Tropmoyosin
Term
As long as ______, cross-bridge cycling cannot occur in skeletal muscle.
Definition
Intracellular [Ca2+] is low
Term
A single AP causes the release of a standard amount of Ca2+ from the _____ and produces a single _____.
Definition
SR

twitch
Term
When the muscle is unable to relax because of constant Ca2+ release, it is called ______.
Definition
Tetanus
Term
In skeletal muscle contraction, first there is a ______, then a rise in ______, finally followed by the _____.
Definition
AP

Intracellular [Ca2+]

Twitch Tension
Term
Isometric contractions are measured when the ______ is held constant.
Definition
length
Term
There is no _____ in isometric contractions.
Definition
shortening
Term
Isotonic contractions are measured when the _____ is held constant.
Definition
load
Term
In Isometric contractions, muscle length (___load) is fixed.
Definition
preload
Term
In Isotonic contractions, the load against which the muscle contracts (___load) is fixed.
Definition
afterload
Term
Relaxation of skeletal muscle in the cross bridge cycle occurs when __________.
Definition
when Ca2+ is re-accumulated and intracellular [Ca2+] decreases.
Term
Length-Tension relationship is measures tension developed during _____ contractions when the muscle is set to fixed _____ (____load)
Definition
isometeric

lengths

pre
Term
Passive tension is the tension developed by ______.
Definition
Stretching the muscle to different lengths
Term
Total Tension is the tension developed when ________.
Definition
the muscle is stimulated to contract at different lengths
Term
Active tension is the ______.
Definition
Difference between total and passive tension
Term
Active tension represents the ______ developed from contraction of the muscle.
Definition
active force
Term
Active tension can be explained by _____ model.
Definition
cross-bridge
Term
Active tension is proportional to the number of ______.
Definition
Cross-Bridges formed
Term
Total and active tension in skeletal muscle will be maximum when there is ______.
Definition
Maximum overlap of thick and thin filaments, maximum overlap of cross bridges
Term
Force-Velocity relationship measures the velocity of shortening ______ contractions when the muscle is challenged with different _______.
Definition
Iostonic

afterloads
Term
According to the Force-Velocity relationship, the velocity of shortening _____ as the afterload increases.
Definition
decreases
Term
Does smooth muscle have thick and thin filaments?
Definition
Yes
Term
Does smooth muscle have sarcomeres?
Definition
No
Term
Two types of smooth muscle: ____ & ____.
Definition
Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle
Unitary (single-unit) Smooth Muscle
Term
Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle behaves as ______.
Definition
Separate motor units
Term
_____ smooth muscle is spontaneously active (exhibits slow waves) and exhibits "pacemaker" activity.
Definition
Unitary (single-unit)
Term
______ smooth muscle has a high degree of electrical coupling between cells.
Definition
Unitary (single-unit)
Term
______ smooth muscle is densely innervated.
Definition
Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle
Term
Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle is densely innervated; contraction is controlled by _______.
Definition
neural innervation (e.g. ANS)
Term
______ smooth muscle has little or no electrical coupling between cells.
Definition
Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle
Term
______ smooth muscle has properties of both multi-unit and single-unit smooth muscle.
Definition
Vascular Smooth Muscle
Term
Does smooth muscle have troponin?
Definition
No
Term
Smooth muscle has no troponin, instead, _____ regulates myosin on the thick filaments.
Definition
Ca2+
Term
Depolarization of the smooth muscle membrane opens ________ and ____ flows down its electrochemical gradient, increasing the _______[___].
Definition
Voltage-Gated Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ glows into the cell

intracellular [Ca2+]
Term
In smooth muscle, _____ & _____ may open ligand-gated Ca2+ channels in the cell membrane.
Definition
Hormones & Neurotransmitters
Term
Hormones & Neurotransmitters in smooth muscle, Hormones & Neurotransmitters may open ligand-gated Ca2+ channels in the cell membrane or they may also directly release Ca2+ from the SR through _________ gated channels.
Definition
IP3-gated Ca2+ Channels
Term
In smooth muscle following the rise in intracellular [Ca2+], Ca2+ then binds to _______.
Definition
Calmodulin
Term
The Ca2+-Calmodulin complex in smooth muscle binds to and activates ________.
Definition
Myosin Light-Chain Kinase
Term
When activated by the Ca2+-Calmodulin complex, Myosin Light-Chain Kinase phosphorylates ______, which allows it to ______, thus initiating ______.
Definition
myosin

to bind actin

cross-bridge cycling
Term
The amount of tension generated by the cross-bridge cycle in smooth muscle is proportional to _____
Definition
intracellular [Ca2+]
Term
_____ produces relaxation in smooth muscle.
Definition
Decrease in intracellular [Ca2+]
Term
Does cardiac muscle have an SR?
Definition
Yes
Term
In cardiac muscle the action potential spreads from _____ to _____.
Definition
the membrane to the T tubules
Term
During the plateau of the action potential in Cardiac Muscle, ____ conductance is increased and ____ enters the cell from the extracellular fluid (inward ____ current) through _____ channels.
Definition
Ca2+

Ca2+

Ca2+

L-type Ca2+ channels (Dihydropyridine Receptors)
Term
The Ca2+ entry through the L-type Ca2+ channels (Dihydropyridine Receptors) in cardiac muscle then triggers the release of even more Ca2+ from the ____ through _____ channels.
Definition
SR

Ca2+ Release Channels (ryanodine receptors)
Term
After the intracellular [Ca2+] has risen in cardiac muscle, the Ca2+ then binds to _____, which causes ______.
Definition
Troponin C

Tropomyosin to be moved out of the way
Term
The magnitude of the tension that develops in cardiac muscle is proportional to _____.
Definition
Intracellular [Ca2+]
Term
Relaxation of cardiac muscle occurrs when Ca2+ is reaccumulated into the _____, by an active ______ pump.
Definition
SR

Ca2+ ATPase Pump (just like in skeletal)
Term
Length-tension relationship in ventricles describes the effect of ventricular muscle length on _____.
Definition
Force of contraction
Term
Preload in the ventricles is the ________.
Definition
end-diastolic volume
Term
Preload in the ventricles is the end-diastolic volume, which is related to ______.
Definition
right atrial pressure
Term
When _____ increases, end-diastolic volume increases and ______ the ventricular muscle fibers.
Definition
venous return

stretches or lengthens
Term
Afterload for the left ventricle is ______.
Definition
Aortic Pressure
Term
Afterload for the right ventricle is ______.
Definition
Pumponary Artery Pressure
Term
Increases in Aortic Pressure causes increases in the _______ of the _____ ventricle.
Definition
Afterload

Left
Term
Increases in _______ causes an increase in afterload of the right ventricle
Definition
pulmonary artery pressure

Right
Term
_________ of cardiac muscle determines the maximum number of cross-brdiges that can be formed between _____ & ______.
Definition
Sarcomere length

myosin and actin
Term
Sarcomere length determines the maximum _______ in addition to the max number of cross-bridges.
Definition
Tension/force of contraction
Term
Velocity of contraction at a fixed cardiac muscle length is maximal when _______.
Definition
the afterload is 0
Term
Velocity of contraction at a fixed cardiac muscle length is decreased by increases in ______.
Definition
Afterload
Term
Frank-Starling relationship describes the ______ in stroke volume and cardiac output that occur in response to an ______ in venous return or end-diastolic volume.
Definition
increases

increases
Term
Increases in end-diastolic volume cause an increase in _____, which produces an increase in developed tension.
Definition
ventricular fiberlength

increase
Term
Frank-Starling relationship is the mechanism that matches _____ to ____.
Definition
Cardiac output to venous return
Term
Changes in contractility shift the Frank-Starling relationship curve in what direction?
Definition
Upwards
Term
Venous return and Cardiac output have a ____ relationship.
Definition
Direct (Greater the venous return, the greater the cardiac output)
Term
Increased contractility causes a ____ in cardiac output for any level of _______ in the Frank Starling Relationship.
Definition
increase

right atrial pressure (end-diastolic volume)
Term
Stroke Volume is the volume ______ on each beat.
Definition
Ejected from the ventricle
Term
Stroke Volume = _______.
Definition
SV = End Diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume
Term
Cardiac Output = ______.
Definition
CO = SV x HR

Stroke volume x Heart Rate
Term
The baroreceptor for regulating arterial pressure is ____ mediated and (slow/fast).
Definition
neurally

fast
Term
Arterial Pressure is also hormonally regulated using an ______-______ mechanism.
Definition
reninangiotensin-aldosterone
Term
Two types of arterial pressure: ____ & ____.
Definition
Diastolic

Systolic
Term
Baroreceptor Reflex is a _____ feedback system that is responsible for the _____ time regulation of arterial blood pressure.
Definition
negative feedback

minute-minute
Term
Baroreceptors are ____ receptors located within the walls of the ______ near the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries.
Definition
stretch

carotid sinus
Term
A ____ in arterial pressure decreases the stretch on the walls of the carotid sinus.
Definition
Decrease
Term
Because the Baroreceptors are most sensitive to changes in _____ pressure, so rapid decreases in _____ produce the greatest response.
Definition
Arterial

Arterial
Term
Additional Baroreceptors are found in the _____ which respond to ______, but not _____ in arterial pressure.
Definition
aortic arch

increases

not decreases
Term
Decreased stretch for a Baroreceptor results in a _____ of the firing rate of the _____ nerve which carries information to the ______ center in the _____.
Definition
Decreases

Carotid Sinus Nerve

Vasomotor center in the brain stem
Term
The set point for mean arterial pressure in the ______ center is about ____.
Definition
vasomotor center

100mm Hg
Term
If the mean arterial pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, a series of autonomic responses is coordinated by the _____.
Definition
Vasomotor Center
Term
The responses by the vasomotor center to a mean arterial blood pressure below 100 mm Hg are decreased ______ outflow to the heart & increased ____ outflow to the heart and blood vessels.
Definition
para (vagal)

sympathetic
Term
An increase in heart rate will have ___ affect on the BP.
Definition
increase
Term
Increase in heart rate in effort to raise BP results from decreased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic tone to the ____ of the heart.
Definition
SA node
Term
In an attempt to raise BP, (increase/decrease) contractility
Definition
increase
Term
In an attempt to raise BP, (increase/decrease) stroke volume
Definition
increase
Term
In an attempt to raise BP, their is increased vasoconstriction of ____ & _____.
Definition
Arterioles and Veins
Term
As a result of vasoconstriction of Arterioles there is an increase in _____ & arterial pressure.
Definition
TPR
Term
vasoconstriction of veins causes a decrease in _____ & an increase in _______.
Definition
decrease in unstressed volume and an increase in venous return to the heart
Term
The increase in venous return to the heart caused by vasoconstriction of veins causes and increase in _____ by the Frank-Starling Mechanism.
Definition
Cardiac Output
Term
Acute Hemorrhage results in a (decrease/increase) in arterial pressure?
Definition
decrease
Term
As a result of the decrease in arterial pressure following acute hemorrhage, there is a decrease in the ________.
Definition
stretch on carotid sinus baroreceptor
Term
The decrease in the stretch on carotid sinus baroreceptor following an acute hemorrhage, results in a decreased ______.
Definition
Firing rate of carotid sinus nerve (Hering's Nerve)
Term
The decreased Firing rate of carotid sinus nerve (Hering's Nerve), results in a decrease in ______ and an increase in _________.
Definition
para outflow to heart

sympathetic outflow to heart and vessels
Term
The integrity of the baroreceptor mechanism can be tested with the _______.
Definition
Valsalva maneuver
Term
Valsalva maneuver results in an increase in intrathoracic pressure, which _____ venous return.
Definition
decrease
Term
Valsalva maneuver results in an increase in intrathoracic pressure, which decrease venous return, this decrease in venous return causes a decrease in ____ and ____.
Definition
CO

Arterial Pressure
Term
The decrease in CO & Arterial Pressure following the Valsalva maneuver is sensed by the baroreceptor and causes an ______.
Definition
Increase in heart rate
Term
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is (slow/fast) and (neural/hormonal).
Definition
slow

hormonal
Term
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is used for _____ regulation of blood pressure.
Definition
long term
Term
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is used for long term regulation of blood pressure, through adjustments in _____.
Definition
blood volume
Term
_____ of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is an enzyme.
Definition
Rennin
Term
Angiotensin _ is inactive, Angiotensin _ is active.
Definition
I

II
Term
Angiotensin II is degraded by ______.
Definition
angiotensinase
Term
A ________ causes the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to secrete _____.
Definition
decrease in renal perfusion pressure

renin
Term
Renin is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of ____ to ____ in the plasma.
Definition
conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
Term
_______ catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, primarily in the ______.
Definition
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme ACE

Lungs
Term
ACE Inhibitors block the conversion of _____ to _______, thereby _____ blood pressure.
Definition
Angiotensin I to angiotensin II

decreasing
Term
Angiotensin receptor (AT1) antagonists block the action of _____ at its receptor and ____ blood pressure.
Definition
angiotensin II

decrease
Term
Angiotensin II stimulates the synthesis and secretion of ______.
Definition
Aldosterone
Term
Angiotensin II stimulates the synthesis and secretion of Aldosterone, by the ____.
Definition
Adrenal Cortex
Term
Aldosterone increase _______ by the renal distal tubule, thereby _______ extracellular fluid volume, blood volume, and therefore arterial pressure.
Definition
Na+ Reabsorption

Increasing
Term
The action of aldosterone through Angiotensin II is (slow/fast).
Definition
slow
Term
Angiotensin II increases ___-___ exchange in the proximal convoluted tubule.
Definition
Na+-H+ exchange
Term
By increasing Na+-H+ exchange, Angiotensin II directly increases _______, complementing the indirect stimulation of _______ via aldosterone.
Definition
Na+ Reabsorption

Na+ Reabsorption
Term
Angiotensin II also increases the physiological feeling of _____.
Definition
Thirst
Term
Angiotensin causes (vasodialtion/vasoconstriction) of _____, thereby increasing _____ & ______.
Definition
vasoconstriction

arterioles

TPR

Arterial Pressure
Term
When the brain is ischemic, the partial pressure of CO2 in the brain ______.
Definition
Increases
Term
Chemoreceptors in the vasomotor center of the brain respond to increases PCO2 by increasing ________ to the heart and vessels.
Definition
sympathetic outflow
Term
Constriction of arterioles causes intense _______ and increased _____.
Definition
peripheral vasoconstriction

TPR
Term
____ reaction is an example of the response to cerebral ischemia.
Definition
Cushing
Term
Increases in intracranial pressure cause compression of the cerebral blood vessels leading to cerebral _____ and increased cerebral ____.
Definition
ischemia

PCO2
Term
End result of cushing reaction is a profound _____ in arterial pressure.
Definition
increase
Term
Chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies have high rates of ___ consumption and are very sensitive to _______ in the partial pressure of ____.
Definition
O2

Decreases

PO2
Term
Decreases in PO2 activate vasomotor centers that produce _____, an increase in ______, and in increase in ______.
Definition
Vasoconstriction

increase in TPR and Arterial Pressure
Term
Vasopressin aka (_____)
Definition
ADH
Term
Vasopressin (ADH) is involved in the regulation of blood pressure in response to _______, but not in _______ regulation of normal blood pressure.
Definition
Hemorrhage

minute-to-minute
Term
_____ receptors respond to a decrease in blood volume (or pressure) and cause the release of vasopressin (ADH) from the ______.
Definition
Atrial Receptors

Posterior Pituitary
Term
Vasopressin has two effect that tend to _____ blood pressure.
Definition
Increase
Term
Vasopressin (ADH) is a potent ______ that increases TPR by activating _____ receptors on the arterioles.
Definition
Vasoconstrictor

V1 Receptors
Term
Vasopressin (ADH) increases ______ by the renal distal tubule and collecting ducts by activating _____ receptors.
Definition
water reabsorption

V2
Term
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is released from the ____ in response to an (decrease/increase) in _____ and _____ pressure.
Definition
Atria

Increase in blood volume and atrial pressure
Term
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) causes _______ of vascular smooth muscle, ______ of the arterioles, and ____ TPR.
Definition
relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

dilation

decreased
Term
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) causes increased _____ of Na+ and Water.
Definition
excretion
Term
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) inhibits _____.
Definition
Renin Secretion
Term
_____ branch into the capillary beds.
Definition
Metarterioles
Term
At the junctions of the arterioles and capillaries is a smooth muscle band called the _______.
Definition
precapillary sphincter
Term
True capillaries do not have _______; they consist of a single layer of endothelial cells surrounded by a basement membrane.
Definition
smooth muscle
Term
Blood flow through the capillaries is regulated by contraction and relaxation, of the _____ & ______.
Definition
arterioles & precapillary sphincters
Term
Lipid soluble substances cross the membrane of capillaries by ______.
Definition
simple diffusion
Term
Lipid soluble substances that can cross through capillaries include ____ and _____.
Definition
CO2 and O2
Term
Small Water-Soluble Substances cross the capillary membrane via the _______ between the endothelial cells. These include: ______, _____, and ______.
Definition
water filled clefts

water, glucose, and amino acids
Term
In the _____ the water filled clefts of the capillaries are extremely tight, forming the ______.
Definition
Brian

Blood Brain Barrier
Term
In the liver and intestine the water filled clefts of the capillaries are wide and allow passage of _____, these capillaries are called ______.
Definition
Proteins

Sinusoids
Term
Large Water-Soluble substances can cross into the capillaries by _______.
Definition
Pinocytosis
Term
The Starling Equation is the equation for fluid movement in/out of a capillary _______.
Definition
J = Kf[(Pc-Pi)-(πc - πi)]

Kf Hydraulic Conductance
Pc Capillary hydrostatic pressure
πc capillary oncotic pressure
Term
Jv is fluid flow, when Jv is positive there is net fluid movement ________ (______).
Definition
out of the capillary (filtration)
Term
Jv is fluid flow, when Jv is negative there is net fluid movement ________ (______).
Definition
into the capillary (absorption)
Term
Kf, filtration coefficient, in the starling equation for fluid flow, is the _______ of the capillary wall.
Definition
hydraulic conductance (water permeability)
Term
Pc stands for what in the starling equation for fluid flow?
Definition
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Term
An increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) favors (filtration/absorption).
Definition
filtration
Term
Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is determined by ______
Definition
arterial and venous pressures/resistances
Term
An _______ in arterial and venous pressures produces an increase in Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc).
Definition
Increase
Term
Increases in venous pressure have a (lesser/greater) effect on Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc).
Definition
Greater
Term
Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is higher on the _____ end of the capillary than at the ______ end.
Definition
arteriolar

venous
Term
A ________ in Interstitial hydrostatic pressure (Pi) opposes filtration out of the capillary.
Definition
increase
Term
Interstitial hydrostatic pressure (Pi) is normally close to _____ mm Hg.
Definition
0
Term
An increase in Capillary oncotic pressure (πc) ______ filtration out of the capillary.
Definition
Opooses
Term
Capillary oncotic pressure (πc) is increased by ________.
Definition
Increases in the [protein] in the blood
Term
Capillary oncotic pressure (πc) is decreased by _______.
Definition
Decreases in the [protein] in the blood
Term
______ do not contribute to Capillary oncotic pressure (πc).
Definition
Small Solutes
Term
An increase in Interstitial oncotic pressure (πi) ______ filtration.
Definition
favors
Term
Interstitial oncotic pressure (πi) is dependent on the [_____] of the Interstitial fluid, which is normally low, because very little _____ is filtered.
Definition
Protein

Protein
Term
Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) Pc
Definition
Increase
Term
Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) Pi
Definition
Decrease
Term
Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) πc
Definition
Decrease
Term
Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) πi
Definition
Increase
Term
Increases in Pc are caused by increased _____ or _____.
Definition
arterial or venous pressure
Term
A decrease in πc (favors filtration) is caused by a _____ in [protein] in the blood.
Definition
Decrease
Term
An ______ in πi can be caused by inadequate lymphatic function.
Definition
increase
Term
Normally (filtration/absorption) of fluid is slightly greater than (filtration/absorption) for the capillaries.
Definition
filtration > absorption
Term
Excess filtered fluid is returned to circulation via _____.
Definition
the lymph
Term
Edema occurs when?
Definition
The volume of interstitial fluid > capacity of the lymphatics system to return it
Term
Edema can be caused by ____ filtration or _____ lymphatics.
Definition
excess

blocked
Term
Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) is produced in the _____ cells and causes local ______.
Definition
Endothelial Cells

Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
Term
Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) mechanism of action involves the activates of ______ enzyme that produces _____.
Definition
guanylate cyclase

cGMP
Term
Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) example: ______
Definition
Nitric Oxide (NO)
Term
Circulating ___ causes vasodilation by stimulating the production of NO (an EDRF) in vascular smooth muscle.
Definition
ACh
Term
Blood flow to an organ is regulated by altering _____.
Definition
Arterial Resistance
Term
Blood flow to an organ remains _____ over a wide range of perfusion pressures.
Definition
constant
Term
Organs that exhibit autoregulation
Definition
Brain
Heart
Kidney
Term
Organs that exhibit active Hyperemia, receive blood flow proportional to ______.
Definition
Metabolic Activity
Term
In reactive hyperemia an increase in blood flow to an organ occurs after ______.
Definition
A period of occlusion of flow
Term
Myogenic Hypothesis (for local control of blood flow) is based on the observation that vascular smooth muscle ______ when it is stretched.
Definition
cotnracts
Term
Three types of local (intrinsic) control of blood flow: ______
Definition
Autoregulation
Active Hyperemia
Reactive Hyperemia
Term
What tissue has the highest density of sympathetic innervation.
Definition
skin
Term
Decreases in sympathetic tone cause vaso____.
Definition
dilation
Term
Histamine causes Arteriolar _____ and venous ______.
Definition
Dilation and Constriction
Term
Histamine causes Arteriolar Dilation and venous Constriction, whose combined effects cause _______ Pc and _____ filtration, resulting in ______.
Definition
Increased Pc

Increased Filtration

Local Edema
Term
Histamine is released in response to _____.
Definition
Local tissue Trauma
Term
Bradykinin causes Arteriolar _____ and venous ______.
Definition
Dilation and Constriction
Term
Bradykinin causes _____ filtration.
Definition
Increased
Term
Bradykinin causes Increased filtration, resulting in _____.
Definition
Local Edema
Term
Serotonin causes arteriolar ______ and is released in response to ______ in order to help prevent _____.
Definition
constriction

blood vessel damage

blood loss
Term
Coronary Circulation is controlled almost entirely by ______.
Definition
Local Metabolic Factors
Term
Coronary Circulation exhibits _____regulation.
Definition
auto
Term
In addition to autoregulation Coronary Circulation exhibits two other types of local control: _____ & _____.
Definition
reactive and active hyperemia
Term
The most important local metabolic factors for coronary circulation are _____ and _____.
Definition
hypoxia and adenosine
Term
Increases in myocardial contractility are accompanied by an increased demand for _____.
Definition
O2
Term
During (systole/diastole) mechanical compression of the coronary vessels reduces blood flow, after a period of occlusion, blood flow increases to repay the O2 debt, exhibiting ______ type of local control.
Definition
systole

Reactive Hyperemia
Term
Cerebral Circulation is controlled almost entirely by ______.
Definition
Local metabolic factors
Term
Cerebral Circulation exhibits _____ blood flow control.
Definition
Autoregulation
Term
Just like in coronary circulation, cerebral circulation exhibits: ______ control mechanisms for local control of blood flow
Definition
Autoregulation, reactive/ active hyperemeia
Term
The most important local vasodilator for the cerebral circulation is _____.
Definition
CO2
Term
Increases in PCO2 cause ______ of the cerebral ______(type of vessel) and increase blood flow to the brain.
Definition
vasodilation

arterioles
Term
Skeletal muscle blood flow is controlled by the ________ of blood vessels in skeletal muscle and by _______.
Definition
sympathetic innervation and local metabolic factors
Term
_____ is the primary regulator of blood flow to the skeletal muscle at rest.
Definition
Sympathetic innervation
Term
The _____ of skeletal muscle are densely innervated by sympathetic fibers.
Definition
Arterioles
Term
There are both ___ and ____ receptors on the blood vessels of skeletal muscle for the sympathetic innervation.
Definition
alpha one

beta two
Term
Stimulation of the alpha1 receptors of skeletal muscle causes _____.
Definition
Vasoconstriction
Term
Stimulation of the beta2 receptors of skeletal muscle causes _____.
Definition
Vasodilation
Term
The state f constriction of skeletal muscle arterioles is a major contributor to the _____.
Definition
TPR
Term
In addition to extrinsic sympathetic control, flood flow in skeletal muscle exhibits _______.
Definition
Local control: active/ reactive hyperemia and autorregulation
Term
Demand for _____ in skeletal muscle varies with metabolic activity level, and blow flow is regulated to meed the demand.
Definition
O2
Term
During exercise when O2 demand is high in skeletal muscle _____ control of blood flow is dominant.
Definition
local metabolic control
Term
The local vasodilator substances for local metabolic control in skeletal muscle are: ________.
Definition
lactate, adenosine, and K+
Term
Reactive Hyperemia results from ____ in skeletal muscle.
Definition
The temporary occulsion of arteries that results from contraction
Term
Skin blood flow is regulated by _____.
Definition
Extrinsic sympathetic control
Term
_______ is the principal function of the cutaneous sympathetic nerves that regulate its blood flow.
Definition
Temp regulation
Term
Increased ambient temperature leads to cutaneous (vasoconstriction/vasodilation), allowing the dissipation of excess body heat.
Definition
Vasodialtion
Term
______ produces the "triple response" in skin: ________.
Definition
Trauma

red line, red flare, and a wheal
Term
A wheal is ______.
Definition
local edema
Term
A wheal is local edema that results from the local release of ______.
Definition
histamine
Term
Histamine _____ capillary filtration.
Definition
increases
Term
When a person stands, a significant amount of blood pools in the _____, because of the high ______ of veins.
Definition
lower extermination

compliance
Term
As a result of venous pooling following standing and increased local venous pressure, ____ in the legs increases and fluid is (adsorbed/filtered).
Definition
Pc increases

Filtered
Term
Following standing venous return ______.
Definition
Decreases
Term
As a result of the lowered venous return following standing, both _____ and ______ (decrease/increase) according to the Frank-Starling Relationship.
Definition
Cardiac Output and Stroke Volume Decrease
Term
Upon standing arterial pressure ______.
Definition
Decreases
Term
Upon standing arterial pressure decreases, because of the reduction in ______.
Definition
Cardiac Output
Term
If ____ pressure becomes low enough from the decrease in arterial pressure upon standing, fainting may occur.
Definition
cerebral
Term
Initial Response upon standing, Arterial Blood Pressure: _______
Definition
Decrease
Term
Initial Response upon standing, Heart Rate: _______
Definition
no initial effect
Term
Initial Response upon standing, Cardiac Output: _______
Definition
Decrease
Term
Initial Response upon standing, Stroke Volume: _______
Definition
Decrease
Term
Initial Response upon standing, TPR: _______
Definition
no initial effect
Term
Initial Response upon standing, Central Venous Pressure: _______
Definition
Decrease
Term
Compensatory Response upon standing, Arterial Blood Pressure: _______
Definition
Increase (towards normal)
Term
Compensatory Response upon standing, Heart Rate: _______
Definition
Increase
Term
Compensatory Response upon standing, Cardiac Output: _______
Definition
Increase (towards normal)
Term
Compensatory Response upon standing, TPR: _______
Definition
Increase
Term
Compensatory Response upon standing, Central Venous Pressure: _______
Definition
Increase (towards normal)
Term
Compensatory Response upon standing, Stroke Volume: _______
Definition
Increase (towards normal)
Term
Upon standing blood pools in the veins, which causes a decrease in ____.
Definition
Arterial Pressure
Term
The decrease in Arterial Pressure upon standing is sensed by the _____ and results in an increase in ______.
Definition
Baroreceptor

sympathetic outflow
Term
Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter affects: _____, ____, and _____.
Definition
heart

arterioles

veins
Term
Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter causes (constriction/dilation) of the veins, which results in an increase in ______.
Definition
constrict

venous return
Term
Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter causes (constriction/dilation) of the arterioles, which causes an increase in _____.
Definition
Constrict

TPR
Term
Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter causes the heart to increase: ____, ____, & _____.
Definition
Heart Rate

Contractility

Cardiac Output
Term
The ____ respond to the decrease in the arterial pressure upon standing.
Definition
Carotid sinus baroreceptors
Term
The Carotid sinus baroreceptors respond to the decrease in the arterial pressure upon standing, by (increasing/decreasing) the firing rate of the nerve.
Definition
Decreasing
Term
Orthostatic hypotension is _______.
Definition
fainting or lightheadedness on standing
Term
Orthostatic hypotension may occur in individuals who _______.
Definition
have an impaired baroreceptor reflex mechanism
Term
The cardiac resting membrane potential is determined by the conductance to ___ and approaches __equilibrium.
Definition
K+

K+
Term
For a cardiac AP, _____ current brings _____ charge into the cell and depolarizes the membrane.
Definition
inward

positive
Term
For a cardiac AP, _____ current takes positive charge into the cell and hyperpolarizes the membrane.
Definition
outward
Term
The ventricles, atria, and the Purkinje system of the heart have a (stable/unstable) resting potential of about _____ (close to the __ equilibrium)
Definition
stable

-90 mV

K+
Term
AP of the ventricles, atria, and the Purkinje are of short/long duration.
Definition
long
Term
Phase 0 of the Cardiac AP is the _______ of the AP.
Definition
Upstroke
Term
The upstroke of the Cardiac AP in phase 0 is caused by a transient increase in _____ conductance, this increases a ______ward ___ ion current that depolarizes the membrane.
Definition
Na+

inward

Na+
Term
At the peak of the AP for cardiac muscle, the membrane potential approaches ___ equilibrium.
Definition
Na+
Term
Phase 1 of the cardiac AP, is a brief period of initial _____.
Definition
repolarization (hyperpolarizing)
Term
The initial repolarization in phase one is caused by an _____ward current, in part because of the movement of ___ ions out of the cell.
Definition
Outward

K+
Term
Phase 2 is the ______ of the cardiac AP.
Definition
plateau
Term
The plateau in phase 2 is caused by a transient increase in ____ conductance, which results in an _____ward ____ ion current, and by an increase in K+ conductance.
Definition
Ca2+

Inward Ca2+
Term
During phase 2, ____ & _____ currents are approx equal and results in a plateau in the membrane potential.
Definition
inward and outward (Ca2+ and K+)
Term
Phase 3 of the cardiac AP is _____.
Definition
Repolarization
Term
During phase 3 of the cardiac AP, ____ conductance decreases, and ____ conductance increases and therefore predominates.
Definition
Ca2+

K+
Term
During Phase 3 of the Cardiac AP, the high ___ conductance results in a large outward __ ion current, which hyperpolarizes the membrane potential back towards ____ equilibrium.
Definition
K+

K+

K+

K+
Term
Phase 4 of the cardiac AP is _____.
Definition
Resting Membrane Potential
Term
____ is normally the pacemaker of the heart.
Definition
SA node
Term
SA node has a (stable/unstable) resting membrane potential.
Definition
unstable
Term
SA node exhibits Phase __ depolarization, or autmoaticity.
Definition
4
Term
The AV node and the His-Purkinje Systems are ______ that may exhibit automaticity and override the SA node if it is ______.
Definition
Latent Pacemakers

Suppressed
Term
The intrinsic rate of phase 4 depolarization (and heart rate) is fastest in the _____ and slowest in the ______.
Definition
SA node

His-Purkinje
Term
Phases ___ & ___ are not present in SA node AP.
Definition
1 & 2
Term
Phase 0 of the SA AP, is the ______.
Definition
Upstroke of AP
Term
Phase 0 of the SA AP is caused by an increase in ____ conductance.
Definition
Ca2+
Term
Phase 0 of the Ventricles, Atria, and the Purkinje system is caused by an increase in the ______ conductance.
Definition
Na+
Term
Phase 0 of the SA AP is caused by an increase in Ca2+ conductance. This causes an ____ ward Ca2+ current.
Definition
inward
Term
Phase 3 of the SA node AP is ______.
Definition
Repolarization
Term
Phase 3 of the SA node AP is caused by an increase in ___ conductance.
Definition
K+
Term
Phase 3 of the SA node AP is caused by an increase in K+ conductance, resulting in an ___ward K+ current that causes _____polarization of the membrane potential.
Definition
K+

outward

Repolarization (hyperpolarizing)
Term
Phase 4 of SA node Ap, is a (slow/fast) _____polarization.
Definition
slow depolarization
Term
Phase _ of the SA node accounts for the pacemaker activity of the SA node (Automaticity).
Definition
4
Term
Phase 4 of the SA node AP, is caused by an increase in ___ conductance, which results in an ____ward ____ ion current called _____.
Definition
Na+

inward

Na+

If
Term
If is turned on by _______.
Definition
repolarization of the membrane potential during the preceding AP
Term
Phases of the SA AP: _____.
Definition
Phase 4,0,3
Term
Phase 4 of SA AP, I_.
Definition
If
Term
Phase 0 of SA AP, I_.
Definition
Ic
Term
Phase 3 of SA AP, I_.
Definition
Ik
Term
Phase 0 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_.
Definition
INa
Term
Phase 2 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_.
Definition
ICa
Term
Phase 3 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_.
Definition
IK
Term
Phase 4 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_.
Definition
IK1
Term
AV node, the upstroke of the AP is the result of an ______ (as in the _____).
Definition
inward Ca2+

SA node
Term
Conduction velocity reflects the time required for _______.
Definition
Excitation to spread throughout the cardiac tissue
Term
Conduction velocity reflects the recovery of channels that carry the _______ of the AP.
Definition
Upstroke
Term
Changes in excitability over the course of an action potential are described by ______.
Definition
Refractory periods
Term
Absolute Refractory Period (ARP) in cardiac AP, begins with the _____ and ends after the _____.
Definition
Upstroke of the AP

ends after it plateaus
Term
Absolute Refractory Period (ARP) in cardiac AP, reflects the time during which __________.
Definition
no AP can be initiated, regardless of how much inward current is applied
Term
Which is longer, Absolute or Effective Refractory Period ERP for Cardiac AP?
Definition
Effective Refractory Period ERP
Term
Effective Refractory Period ERP is the period in which a _____.
Definition
conducted AP cannot be elicited
Term
Relative Refractory Period (RRP) is the period immediately after the ______ when _____ is almost complete.
Definition
ARP

Repolarization
Term
Relative Refractory Period (RRP) is the period during which an action potential ______, but ______.
Definition
Can be elicited, but more than the usual inward current is required
Term
Chronotropic Effects produce changes in _____.
Definition
Changes in Heart Rate
Term
A negative chronotropic effect ____ heart rate, by ______.
Definition
decreases

decreasing the firing rate of the SA node
Term
A positive chronotropic effect ____ heart rate, by _____ the firing rate of the SA node
Definition
increases

increasing
Term
Dromotropic Effects produce changes in ______.
Definition
Conduction velocity
Term
Dromotropic Effects produce changes in Conduction velocity, primarily in the ____.
Definition
AV node
Term
A negative dromotropic effect ____ conduction velocity through the ______.
Definition
decreases

AV node
Term
A negative dromotropic effect decreases conduction velocity by slowing the conduction of ______ from the ____ to _____.
Definition
AP atria to the ventricles
Term
Negaitve Dromotropic effects ____ the PR interval.
Definition
increase
Term
A positive dromotropic effect increases ______ through the ______ node.
Definition
conduction velocity

SA node
Term
Positive Dromotropic effects ____ the PR interval.
Definition
decrease
Term
What in the heart has parasympathetic innervation & what does not?
Definition
SA node, atria, and AV node have para vagal innervation

Ventricles do not
Term
The neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic in the heart is _______, which acts on ____ receptors.
Definition
ACh

Muscarinic Receptors
Term
Parasympathetic decreases contractility of ____ only in the heart.
Definition
Atria (Ventricles do not have para innervation)
Term
Vascular smooth muscle of the skeletal muscle has _____ receptors for constriction and ____ receptors for relaxation for sympathetic innervation.
Definition
alpha one constriction

beta2 relaxation
Term
The heart has _____ receptors for the sympathetic system.
Definition
beta1
Term
The heart has ____ receptors for the para system.
Definition
Muscarinic
Term
The mechanism of the positive dromotropic effect is increased _______.
Definition
inward Ca2+
Term
Contractility is the intrinsic ability of cardiac muscle to develop force at a ______.
Definition
given muscle length
Term
Negative Chronotropic effect of the PNS decreases the heart rate by decreasing the rate of ______.
Definition
Phase 4 depolarizaiton
Term
The mechanism of Negative Chronotropic effect is decreased I_, the inward __ current that is responsible for phase 4 depolarization in SA node.
Definition
If

Na+
Term
Order of phases for SA AP: ______.
Definition
4 depolarization, 0 upstroke, 3 repolarization
Term
Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS decreases the _____ through the AV node.
Definition
conduction velocity
Term
Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS causes APs to be conducted more slowly from _____ to _____.
Definition
atria to ventricles
Term
Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS ____ the PR interval.
Definition
Increase
Term
The mechanism of Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS is decreased _____ward ___ current & increased _____ward ____ current.
Definition
decreased inward Ca2+

increased outward K+
Term
Positive Chronotropic effect of the SNS increases heart rate by increasing the ______.
Definition
Rate of phase 4 depolarization
Term
The result of the increase in the rate of phase 4 depolarization following Positive Chronotropic effects, results in ____ action potential per unit time.
Definition
More
Term
The mechanism of Positive Chronotropic Effect on the heart rate is (increased/decreased) I_.
Definition
Increased

If (SA node, phase 4)
Term
The mechanism of Negative Chronotropic Effect on the heart rate is (increased/decreased) I_.
Definition
Decreased

If (SA Node, phase 4)
Term
If is the inward current of _____ that is responsible for phase 4 depolarization of the SA node.
Definition
Na+
Term
Positive Chronotropic Effect causes ______ to be conducted more rapidly
Definition
action potentials
Term
The mechanism of Positive Chronotropic Effect is ______ inward Na+ current.
Definition
increased
Term
The mechanism of Negatie Chronotropic Effect is ______ inward Na+ current.
Definition
Decreaseed
Term
Contractility is related to (intra/extracellular) [___].
Definition
intra

Ca2+
Term
Contractility can be estimated by the _______.
Definition
Ejection Factor
Term
Ejection Factor = _______.
Definition
(Stroke Volume / End Diastolic Volume)
Term
_____ agents increase contractility.
Definition
Positive Inotropic
Term
_____ agents decrease contractility.
Definition
negative Inotropic
Term
Factors that increase contractility (Positive Inotropism): _______.
Definition
Increased Heart Rate
Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via beta one receptors
Cardiac Glycosides (Digitalis)
Term
When more action potentials occur per unit time, more ___ enters the myocardial cells during the action potentials ______.
Definition
Ca2+

plateaus
Term
When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+ enters the myocardial cells during the action potentials plateaus, causing more ________ and greater ______ produced as a result.
Definition
Ca2+ released from the SR

tension during contraction
Term
Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via Beta-One receptors increases the force of contraction by two mechanisms: ________
Definition
Increase inward Ca2+ current during plateau

Increases activity of the Ca2+ pump of the SR
Term
Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via Beta-One receptors increase the activity of Ca2+ pump of the SR by _________.
Definition
Phosphorylation of phospholamban
Term
Cardiac Glycosides (digitalis) increase the force of contraction by ________.
Definition
inhibiting Na+,K+-ATPase in the myocardial membrane
Term
Long: How does inhibiting Na+,K+-ATPase in the myocardial membrane by Cardiac Glycosides (digitalis) increase the force of contraction?
Definition
Na+-Ca2+ exchange (a mechanism that extrude Ca2+ from the cell) depends on the Na+ gradient and thus is diminished, producing an increase in intracellular [Ca2+]
Term
Parasympathetic stimulation (____neurotransmitter via ____ receptors) decreases the force of contractions in the ______ by decreasing the inward Ca2+ during ______.
Definition
ACh

Muscarinic Receptors

Atria (no para in ventricles)

plateau
Term
Preload is the _______, which is related to ______.
Definition
end-diastolic volume

right atrial pressure
Term
When ______ increases, end-diastolic volume increases and ______ the ventricular muscle fibers.
Definition
venous return

stretches
Term
Afterload for the left ventricle is the _____ pressure.
Definition
Aortic
Term
Afterload for the Right ventricle is the _____ pressure.
Definition
Pulmonary pressure
Term
The diastolic pressure curve is the relationship between _____ and ____ in the ventricle.
Definition
Diastolic Pressure and Diastolic Volume in the ventricle
Term
The systolic pressure curve is the relationship between _____ and ____ in the ventricle.
Definition
systolic Pressure and systolic Volume in the ventricle
Term
A single left ventricular cycle: ____, ____, ____, & ______, can be observed by combining the systolic and diastolic pressure curve.
Definition
contraction, ejection, relaxation, and refilling
Term
The mitral valve closes when the ____ pressure is greater than the _____ pressure.
Definition
ventricular

atrial
Term
Aortic valve opens when the ____ pressure is greater than the _____ pressure.
Definition
L. ventricular

Aortic
Term
The volume ejected during the ejection phase is the _____.
Definition
Stroke Volume
Term
The stroke volume is equivalent to the ______ of the pressure-volume curve.
Definition
width
Term
The volume remaining in the left ventricle following the ejection phase is the ______.
Definition
End systolic volume
Term
The volume at the end of ventricular filling is the ______.
Definition
End diastolic volume
Term
Increased preload refers to an increase in ________ and is the result of _______.
Definition
Increase in an end diastolic volume

increase in venous return
Term
Increased preload causes an (increase/decrease) in _______.
Definition
increase in stroke volume
Term
Increased preload causes an increase in increase in stroke volume, based on the _____ relationship.
Definition
Frank-Starling relationship
Term
The increased preload is reflected how in the pressure-volume loop?
Definition
Shift to the right, increased preload results from increased venous return, which increases SV, which will be reflected by an increase in the width of the loop
Term
Increased refers to an increase in _____.
Definition
Aortic Pressure
Term
With increased afterload from an increase in Aortic Pressure, the ventricle must eject blood now against a ______, resulting in a ______ of stroke volume.
Definition
higher aortic pressure

decrease
Term
The decrease in stroke volume from increased afterload is reflected in the pressure volume curve by ______.
Definition
Decrease in width
Term
The decrease in stroke volume from increased afterload results in an (increase/decrease) in _____ volume.
Definition
increase in end-systolic volume
Term
With Increased contractility the ventricle develops greater ______ than usual during systole causing an (increase/decrease) in ________.
Definition
Tension

Increase

Stroke Volume
Term
The increase in contractility causes a increase in stroke volume and subsequently a (increase/decrease) in ______.
Definition
End systolic volume
Term
The cardiac output curve shows the frank-starling relationship and how cardiac output is a function of _____.
Definition
end-diastolic volume
Term
The vascular function curve plots the relationship between _______ and right atrial pressure.
Definition
blood flow through the vascular system (venous return)
Term
Mean systemic pressure is the point along the vascular function curve where ________.
Definition
it intersects the x axis
Term
Mean systemic pressure = ______, when there is no flow.
Definition
Right atrial pressure (x intersection)
Term
Mean systemic pressure is increased by an increase in _______ or by a decrease in ________.
Definition
increase in blood volume
or
decrease in venous compliance (where blood is shifted from the veins to the arteries)
Term
An increase in systemic pressure is reflected in a shift of the ____ function curve to the _______.
Definition
Vascular Function curve

Right
Term
Mean systemic pressure is decreased by a decrease in _______ or by an increase in _______.
Definition
decrease in blood volume
or
increase in venous compliance (where blood is shifted from the arteries to the veins)
Term
An decrease in systemic pressure is reflected in a shift of the ____ function curve to the _______.
Definition
vascular

left
Term
Slope of the Vascular Function (Venous Return) curve is determined by the ________.
Definition
Resistance of the arterioles
Term
A clockwise rotation of the Vascular Function (Venous Return) curve indicates a (increase/decrease) in _______.
Definition
Decreases

Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)
Term
When TPR is decreased for a given right atrial pressure, there is an (increase/decrease) in _______.
Definition
increase

venous return
Term
Vasodilation of the _____ allows more blood to flow from the arteries to the veins and back to the heart.
Definition
arterioles
Term
A counterclockwise rotation of the Vascular Function (Venous Return) curve indicates a (increase/decrease) in _______.
Definition
increase in TPR
Term
When TPR is increase for a given right atrial pressure, there is an (increase/decrease) in _______.
Definition
decrease in venous return
Term
The point at which the Vascular Function (Venous Return) and Cardiac output curves intersect is the _________.
Definition
equilibrium, or steady-state point (single value for right atrial pressure)
Term
Example of Positive Intropic agents: _____.
Definition
digitalis
Term
Positive Intropic agents (digitalis) produce increased contractility and (decreased/increased) ______.
Definition
increased Cardiac Output
Term
Positive Intropic agents shift the equilibrium to _______ on the Cardiac Output & Venous Return Curve.
Definition
a higher CO
Term
Right arterial pressure (decreases/increases) with Positive Intropic agents causing increased contractility.
Definition
Decreases (because higher SV is ejected with each beat)
Term
Positive intropic agents rotate the cardiac output curve (clockwise/counterclockwise)?
Definition
Counterclockwise
Term
Negative Intropic agents produce decreased contractility and (decreased/increased) CO.
Definition
decreased
Term
Changes in blood volume or venous compliance change the _____ curve.
Definition
Venous Return
Term
(decreases/increases) in blood volume or (decrease/increases) in venous compliance increase the mean systemic pressure, shifting the venous return curve to the (left/right) in a parallel fashion.
Definition
increase

decrease

right
Term
(decreases/increases) in blood volume or (decrease/increases) in venous compliance decrease the mean systemic pressure, shifting the venous return curve to the (left/right) in a parallel fashion.
Definition
Decrease

Increase

Left
Term
Changes in TPR change which curves?
Definition
Cardiac Output and Venous Return simultaneously
Term
Increasing TPR causes a (decrease/increase) in cardiac out & a (decrease/increase) in venous return.
Definition
Decrease in both cardiac output and venous return
Term
Increasing TPR causes a _____ change in the venous return curve.
Definition
Counterclockwise rotation (decreasing venous return)
Term
Increased TPR results in decreased venous return as blood is _______.
Definition
retained on the arterial side
Term
A _____ shift of the cardiac output curve results from increased TPR, with the increased arterial pressure (increased ____load) the heart has to pump against a higher pressure.
Definition
downward

afterload
Term
Changes in TPR result in a shift of both the Cardiac output and venous return curves, this results in a change in the ______, but _____ remains the same.
Definition
new equilibrium set point

right arterial pressure is unchanged
Term
Decreasing TPR causes an (decrease/increase) in cardiac out & a (decrease/increase) in venous return.
Definition
Increase

Increase
Term
Decreasing TPR causes a _______ shift in the venous return curve.
Definition
Clockwise rotation
Term
Decreasing TPR causes a _______ shift in the cardiac output curve.
Definition
upward
Term
Decreasing TPR results in a ______ in afterload.
Definition
decrease
Term
Ejection Fraction is related to _______.
Definition
Contractility
Term
Ejection fraction is the fraction of the ________ volume ejected in each _______ volume.
Definition
end-diastolic volume ejected in each stroke volume
Term
Ejection fraction is normally ____%.
Definition
55%
Term
Ejection Fraction Formula: ______.
Definition
Ejection Fraction = Stroke Volume/End Diastolic Volume
Term
Stroke Work is the work the heart performs on _______.
Definition
Each Beat
Term
Work = _____ x _____.
Definition
Pressure x Volume
Term
Stroke Work = ______. (For Left Ventricle)
Definition
Stroke Work = Aortic Pressure x Stroke Volume
Term
_______ are the primary energy source for stroke work.
Definition
Fatty Acids
Term
Cardiac Oxygen Consumption is directly related to the _______ developed by the ______.
Definition
Amount of tension developed by the ventricles
Term
Cardiac Oxygen Consumption is increased by: _______.
Definition
Increased afterload (increased Aortic Pressure)

Increased Size of the Heart (Tension is proportional to the radius of a sphere)

Increased Contractility

Increased Heart Rate
Term
Cardiac = ______ (In terms of 02)
Definition
Cardiac Output = O2 consumption/ [02]pulmonary vein - [O2]pulmonary artery

O2 consumption for the whole body
Term
When all valves are closed, ______ volume is constant, and the phase is called ________.
Definition
ventricular volume

isovolumetric
Term
Atrial Systole is preceded by the ____ wave.
Definition
P wave
Term
P wave represents electrical activation of the (atria/ventricles)
Definition
atria
Term
Atrial Pressure (_____ pressure)
Definition
Venous
Term
The increase Atrial Pressure (Venous pressure) caused by atrial systole is the _____ wave on the venous pulse curve.
Definition
A
Term
Filling of the ventricle by atrial systole causes the ____ heart sound, which is not audible in normal adults.
Definition
4th
Term
Isovolumetric ventricular contraction begins after the onset of the _____ wave in the ECG, which represents electrical activation of the ______.
Definition
QRS complex

ventricles
Term
When _____ pressure becomes greater than ____ pressure, the AV valve closes.
Definition
ventricular

arterial
Term
Closure of the AV valve corresponds to the ____ heart sound.
Definition
First
Term
Which of the AV valve closes first, Mitral or tricuspid?
Definition
Mitral
Term
No blood leaves during Isovolumetric ventricular contraction in the left ventricle because the ____ valve is closed.
Definition
Aortic
Term
The onset of the ____ wave in the ECG, which represents the repolarization of the ventricles, marks the end of both _____ contraction and rapid ventricular ejection
Definition
T

Ventricle
Term
Repolarization of the ventricles is complete at the end of the ____wave.
Definition
T
Term
The aortic valve closes, followed by the ____ valve.
Definition
Pulmonary
Term
Semilunar Valves: _______.
Definition
Pulmonary & Aortic
Term
Closure of the _____ corresponds to the second heart sound.
Definition
Semilunar Valves
Term
After the ______ valve closes isovolumetric ventricular relaxation begins.
Definition
aortic
Term
The _____ valve opens at the end of isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
Definition
Mitral
Term
When ventricular pressure becomes less than atrial pressure, the _____ valve opens.
Definition
Mitral
Term
Rapid blood flow from the atria to the ventricles causes the ______ heart sound, normal in children, but associated with disease in adults.
Definition
third
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