Term
| _____ permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simple diffusion moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cotransport moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient? |
|
Definition
| Uphill, One or more solutes transported uphill; Na+ is transported downhill |
|
|
Term
| Primary Active Diffusion moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Facilitated Diffusion moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Counter transport moves (downhill/uphill) the Electrochemical Gradient? |
|
Definition
| Uphill, One or more solutes transported uphill; Na+ is transported downhill |
|
|
Term
| Simple diffusion, Carrier Mediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cotransport, Carrier Mediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary Active Transport, Carrier Mediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Facilitated Diffusion, Carrier Mediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Counter transport, Carrier Mediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simple diffusion, Metabolic Energy Required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cotransport, Metabolic Energy Required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary Active Transport, Metabolic Energy Required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Facilitated Diffusion, Metabolic Energy Required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Counter transport, Metabolic Energy Required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simple diffusion, Na+ Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cotransport, Na+ Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary Active Diffusion, Na+ Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Facilitated Diffusion, Na+ Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Counter transport, Na+ Gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Counter transport, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Facilitated Diffusion, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary Active Transport, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits (if Na+-K+ pump) |
|
|
Term
| Cotransport, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simple diffusion, Inhibition of na+-K+ Pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is the only form of transport that is not carrier-mediated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simple diffusion, passive or active? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diffusion can be measured with the equation: _______. |
|
Definition
J= -PA(C1-C2)
J= Flux (flow)
P= Permability
A= Area
C1/C2 = Concentration |
|
|
Term
| Permability variable: _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase permeability: _______. |
|
Definition
Increase Oil/Water Partition Coefficient
Decrease Radius of solute
Decrease Membrane thickness |
|
|
Term
| Variable for Oil/Water Partition Coefficient ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| P = K (Partition Coefficient) x {Diffusion Coefficient(D)/ Membrane Thickness(DeltaX)} |
|
|
Term
| ______ solutes have the highest permeabilities in lipid membranes. |
|
Definition
| small hydrophobic (ex O2) |
|
|
Term
| If a hydrophilic solute is charged then its flux will depend on _____. |
|
Definition
| both the [] difference and the potential difference across the membrane |
|
|
Term
| Carrier Mediated Transport includes: ____, ____, & _____ transport. |
|
Definition
Facilitated Diffusion
Primary & Secondary Active Transport |
|
|
Term
| Three Characteristics of Carrier Mediated Transport: _______. |
|
Definition
Stereospecificity
Saturation
Competition (Comp inhibitors, structural analogs) |
|
|
Term
| Does simple diffusion display Stereospecificity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For Carrier Mediated Transport, the variable ____ is analogous to Vmax. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is more rapid, simple or facilitated diffusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Facilitated diffusion, passive or active? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Example of Facilitated diffusion? |
|
Definition
| Glc transport in M. and Adipose Cells, downhill, carrier mediated, and is inhibited by others sugars, therefore Facilitated diffusion |
|
|
Term
| Primary active transport goes against the gradient and requires energy (directly/indirectly) in the form of ______. |
|
Definition
Directly
Metabolic energy as ATP |
|
|
Term
| Examples of Primary Active Transport: _____ |
|
Definition
Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump)
Ca2+ ATPase (Ca2+ Pump)
H+,K+ ATPase (Proton Pump) |
|
|
Term
| Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) transports Na+ from ____ to _____. |
|
Definition
| intracellular to extracellular |
|
|
Term
| Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) maintains low intracellular [__] and high intracellular [__]. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) example of ____ transport. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump) which ions are pumped against their gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stoichiometry of Na+ K+ ATPase (Na+ K+ Pump)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Specific inhibitors of Na+,K+ ATPase are the _____ drugs: _____ & ______. |
|
Definition
Cardiac Glycosides
Ouabain and Digitalis |
|
|
Term
| Ca2+ ATPase (Ca2+ Pump) are found where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ca2+ ATPase (Ca2+ Pump) in the sarcoplasmic and endoplasmic reticulum are called ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| H+,K+ ATPase (Proton Pump) transports H+ into ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| H+,K+ ATPase (Proton Pump) is inhibited by proton pump inhibitors, such as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ active transport involves the coupled transport of two or more solutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In secondary active transport, one of the solutes is transported downhill, usually _____, in order to ____. |
|
Definition
Na+
provide energy for the solute transported uphill |
|
|
Term
| Energy is provided directly/indirectly for secondary active transport. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Energy is indirectly provided for secondary active transport by _____ gradient. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inhibition of _____ will decrease transport of Na+ out of the cell, decrease the transmembrane Na+ gradient, and eventually inhibit _______. |
|
Definition
Na+, K+ ATPase
secondary active transport |
|
|
Term
| Two types of secondary active transport: ______. |
|
Definition
Cotransport
Countertransport (Exchange/Antiport) |
|
|
Term
| Na+ - Glucose ____ transporter. |
|
Definition
| Cotransporter (secondary active) |
|
|
Term
| In the Na+-Glucose Cotransporter, Glc is transported _____hill and Na+ is transported _____hill, in the _____ direction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Na+-Ca2+ ________transporter. |
|
Definition
| Countertransporter (exchanger) |
|
|
Term
| Na+-Ca2+ Countertransporter (exchanger) moves Ca2+ _____hill and Na+ _____hill, in the _____ direction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osmolarity is the [] of ______ particles in a solution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two solutions that have the same Osmolarity are said to be _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osmolarity can be calculated using equation: _______. |
|
Definition
Osmolarity = g X C
g= number of particles in solution
{ex. gCl = 2, gGlc = 1}
C= Concentration
(ex. 1M) |
|
|
Term
| If solution one contains high [solute] and solution two contains pure water, which one produces osmotic pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osmotic pressure of one solution causes _____. |
|
Definition
| Water to flow to the other solution |
|
|
Term
| Formula for Osmotic Pressure: ______. |
|
Definition
Pi = g x C x RT
Pi = Osmotic Pressure
G = number of particles
C = [] |
|
|
Term
| The osmotic pressure increases when the _____ increases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The higher the osmotic pressure the (less/greater) the water flow into it. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reflection Coefficient (sigma) is a number between __ & ___ that describes the _____. |
|
Definition
0 and 1
ease at which a solute permeates a membrane |
|
|
Term
| Colloidosmotic pressure, or oncotic pressure, is the osmotic pressure created by ______. |
|
Definition
| Proteins (eg Plasma Proteins) |
|
|
Term
| If the Reflection Coefficient (sigma) is one the solute is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the Reflection Coefficient (sigma) is 0 the solute is ______. |
|
Definition
| solute is completely permeable |
|
|
Term
| A solute with a reflection coefficient (sigma) of ___ creates osmotic pressure that causes water flow, while a solute with a sigma of _____ will do neither. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ has a reflection coefficient of nearly one. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ has a reflection of close to zero and it is, therefore, an ineffective _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate Effective Osmotic Pressure? |
|
Definition
| Effective Osmotic Pressure = Osmotic Pressure (Calculated by Van Hoff's) times the reflection coefficient (sigma) |
|
|
Term
| If the reflection coefficient is ____, the solute will exert maximal effective osmotic pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the reflection coefficient is ____, the solute will exert no effective osmotic pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A small ion channel lined with anions will be selective for _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can ion channels be closed? |
|
Definition
| Yes (can be opened or closed) |
|
|
Term
| Voltage-Gated channels are opened and closed by changes in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The activation gate of the Na+ channel in nerve is opened by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the activation gate of the Na+ channel is opened, the membrane is permeable to ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The inactivation gate of the Na+ Channel is closed by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The inactivation gate of the Na+ channel is closed by depolarization during ___ phase of an action potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ligand Gated Channels are opened or closed by _____, _____, or _____. |
|
Definition
| hormones second messengers or neurotransmitters |
|
|
Term
| The _____ receptor for ACh is an example of a ligand-gated channel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ligand-gated Nicotinic Receptor is an ion channel that opens when it binds ACH making it permeable to _____ and _____, causing the motor end plate to ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ______, is the potential difference generated across a membrane, because of a [] difference of an ion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diffusion potential can be created only if _____. |
|
Definition
| The membrane is permeable to the ion |
|
|
Term
| The sign of the diffusion potential depends on whether the diffusion ion is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diffusion potentials are created by the diffusion of _____ ions and, therefore, do not _____. |
|
Definition
very few
result in a change in the [] |
|
|
Term
| The equilibrium potential (E) is the _______ that exactly balances (opposes) the tendency for _____ caused by a [] difference. |
|
Definition
diffusion potential
diffusion |
|
|
Term
| At electrochemical equilibrium, the ____ & ______ driving forces that act on an ion are equal and opposite. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At electrochemical equilibrium there is no more net _____ of ions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The potential difference that exactly counterbalances the diffusion of Na+ down its concentration gradient is the _____. |
|
Definition
| Na+ Equilibrium Potential |
|
|
Term
| _____ equation is used to calculate the equilibrium potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nernst Equation for equilibrium potential: ________. |
|
Definition
E = -2.3 * RT/zF log [Ci]/[Ce]
z = charge of ion |
|
|
Term
| Equilibrium potential tells us at what potential would the ion be at _______. |
|
Definition
| Electrochemical Equilibrium |
|
|
Term
| 2.3 * RT/zF = ______ at 37 degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Vm is expressed by convention as the ____cellular relative to the _____cellular potential. So a -70mV means a 70mV, cell (+/-) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The resting membrane potential is established by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each permeable ion attempts to drive the membrane potential towards ______. |
|
Definition
| Its equilibrium potential |
|
|
Term
| Ions with the highest _____ or _____, will make the greatest contributions to the resting membrane potential. |
|
Definition
| permeability or conductances |
|
|
Term
| The nerve membrane has a resting potential of -70mV, ENa+ = +65, EK+ = -85, therefore the nerve membrane is more permeable to _____ at rest. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization makes the membrane potential ____ negative. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization makes the membrane potential Less negative, meaning the cell interior becomes _____ negative. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperpolarization makes the membrane potential _____ negative. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inward current is flow of ____ into the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inward current (depolarizes/hyperpolarizes) the membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Outward current is the flow of positive charge _____ the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Outward current (depolarizes/hyperpolarizes) the membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ is the membrane potential at which action potential is inevitable. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At Threshold potential, net _____ current becomes larger than net _____ current. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If net ____ current is less than net _____ current, no action potential will occur. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Resting membrane potential of excitable cells is potentially ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Resting membrane potential is the result of the high resting conductance to ___, which drives the membrane potential towards its _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At rest the Na+ channels are _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization causes rapid opening of the ________. |
|
Definition
| activation gates of Na+ channels |
|
|
Term
| Depolarization causes rapid opening of the activation gates of Na+ channels, at the Na+ ______ promptly increases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The rapid depolarization during the upstroke is caused by an inward/outward Na+/K+ current. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ closes the inactivation gates of Na+ channel, but more slowly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ slowly opens K+ channels and increases K+ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Repolarization is caused by an (inward/outward) _+ current. |
|
Definition
Outward (K+ channels open in repolarization)
K+ |
|
|
Term
| Undershoot aka ___________. |
|
Definition
| Hyperpolarizing afterpotential |
|
|
Term
| During the absolute refractory period the ______ gates of _+ channel are closed. |
|
Definition
| inactivation gates of the Na+ |
|
|
Term
| Accommodation occurs when the cell membrane is held at a ______ level such that the threshold potential is passed without firing of an action potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Accommodation occurs because depolarization closes the _________. |
|
Definition
| inactivation gates on the Na+ channels |
|
|
Term
| Accommodation is demonstrated in hyperkalemia, in which skeletal muscle membranes are depolarized by the ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperkalemia causes _____ symptom. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Propagation of action potentials occurs by the spread of _____ to adjacent areas of the membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Conduction velocity is increased by _____ & _____. |
|
Definition
Increase in fiber size (diameter)
Myelination |
|
|
Term
| Increase in the fiber diameter increases conduction velocity by reducing ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Action potentials can only be generated at _____ along an myelinated axon. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An action potential in the presynaptic cell causes depolarization of the _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An action potential in the presynaptic cell causes depolarization of the presynaptic terminal. As a result of the depolarization ____ enters the presynaptic terminal, causing a _______. |
|
Definition
Ca2+
release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft |
|
|
Term
| Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and combine with ________ on the _____ cell membrane. |
|
Definition
| receptors on the postsynaptic |
|
|
Term
| Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and combine with receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane, causing a change in its _________, and consequently a change in its ______. |
|
Definition
permeability to ions
membrane potential |
|
|
Term
| Inhibitory Neurotransmitters _____ the postsynaptic membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excitatory Neurotransmitters ______ the postsynaptic membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At a neuromuscular junction, the neurotransmitter released from the motoneuron is ____ and the postsynaptic membrane on the muscle contains a ____ receptor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ACh is synthesized and stored in the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ catalyzes the formation of ACh from _____ and ____ in presynaptic terminal. |
|
Definition
Choline Acetyltransferase
acetyl coenzyme A (CoA) & Choline |
|
|
Term
| ACh is stored in _______ with _____ and proteoglycans for later release. |
|
Definition
| synaptic vesicles with ATP |
|
|
Term
| ______ blocks release of ACh from presynaptic terminals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Botulinus Toxin effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ competes with ACh for receptors on the motor end plate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Curare effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______. |
|
Definition
| Decrease size of end plate potential (EPP); maximal doses produce paralysis of resp muscle & death |
|
|
Term
| _______ inhibits actetycholinesterase. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neostigmine effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______. |
|
Definition
| Prolongs and enhances action of ACh at muscle end plate |
|
|
Term
| ________ blocks reuptake of choline into presynaptic terminal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemicholinium effect on Neuromuscular Transmission is ______. |
|
Definition
| Depletes ACh stores from presynaptic terminal |
|
|
Term
| Depolarization of the presynaptic terminal results in ___ uptake. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization of the presynaptic terminal opens ____ channels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After the presynaptic terminal opens Ca2+ channels have opened and increased Ca2+ permeability, Ca2+ then rushes (into/out of) the presynaptic terminal (down/against) its electrochemical gradient. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ca2+ uptake by the presynaptic terminal causes ______. |
|
Definition
| the release of ACh into the synaptic cleft |
|
|
Term
| ACh is released into the synaptic cleft through ______. |
|
Definition
| exocytosis, vesicles fuse with the presynaptic terminal and release their contents into the synaptic cleft |
|
|
Term
| In a Neuromuscular Junction, the postsynaptic membrane is aka _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ACh binds to ______ in a Neuromuscular Junction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nicotinic ACh Receptors serve as _____ channels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Binding of ACh to the Nicotinic ACh Receptor's _ subunit, causes a conformation change that ______ and increases its _______. |
|
Definition
alpha
opens up the channel
conductance to Na+ and K+ |
|
|
Term
| ACh Nicotinic Receptors are an example of ______ gated ion channels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Because the channels opened by ACh conduct both Na+ & K+ ions, the postsynaptic membrane potential is _____ to a value ________. |
|
Definition
depolarized
to a value between ENa+ & EK+ (aprrox 0mV) |
|
|
Term
| The contents of one synaptic vesicle produce a _________, the smallest possible EPP. |
|
Definition
| MEPP Miniature end plate potential |
|
|
Term
| MEPPs summate to produce a full-fledged ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The EPP is not an ______, but simply a ______ of the specialized muscle end plate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The EPP is transient because ACh is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The EPP is transient because ACh is degraded into _____ and _____ by _______ on the muscle end plate. |
|
Definition
| acetyl CoA and Choline by acetylcholineesterase |
|
|
Term
| One half of the degraded choline by AChE is taken back to the presynaptic terminal through a _____transport. |
|
Definition
| Na+-Choline Cotransporter |
|
|
Term
| Example of a AChE inhibitor: _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AChE inhibitors (Neostigmine) block the degradation of ACh, which does what? |
|
Definition
| Prolongs ACh's action at the motor end plate and increases the size of the EPP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| MEPP (Minature End Plate Potential) |
|
|
Term
| Hemicholinum blocks ______, which ______. |
|
Definition
Blocks Choline reuptake
which depletes the presynaptic endings of ACh stores |
|
|
Term
| Myasthenia Gravis is caused by the presence of antibodies to the _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by ______ and fatigability resulting from a reduced number of ACh Receptors on the ______. |
|
Definition
skeletal muscle weakness
muscle end plate |
|
|
Term
| In Myasthenia Gravis the size of the ____ is reduced; therefore it is more difficult to ________ and to produce ______. |
|
Definition
EPP
depolarize the cell to the threshold and produce action potentials |
|
|
Term
| Myasthenia Gravis is treated with _______. |
|
Definition
| AChE Inhibitors (neostigimine) |
|
|
Term
| Two types of synaptic transmission arrangements: ______ & ______. |
|
Definition
One-to-One Synapses
Many-to-One Synapses |
|
|
Term
| What type of synaptic arrangement is found at neuromuscular junctions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in a One-to-one synapse arrangement? |
|
Definition
| An action potential in the presynaptic element produces an action potential in the postsynaptic element |
|
|
Term
| What happens in a Many-to-One Synapses synapse arrangement? |
|
Definition
| An action potential in a single presynaptic cell is insufficient to produce an action potential in the postsynaptic cell. Instead many presynaptic cells synapse on the postysnaptic cell in order to depolarize it enough to create an AP |
|
|
Term
| The postsynaptic cell integrates ____ and ___ inputs. |
|
Definition
| Excitatory and Inhibitory inputs |
|
|
Term
| Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) are inputs that _____ the postsynaptic cell, doing what? |
|
Definition
Depolarize
bring it closer to threshold and firing |
|
|
Term
| Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) are caused by ___________. |
|
Definition
| opening of channels that are permeable to Na+ & K+ |
|
|
Term
| Excitatory Neurotransmitters that can open channels to cause Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) include: ______. |
|
Definition
| ACh, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Dopamine, Glutamate, and Serotonin |
|
|
Term
| Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs) are inputs that ______ the postsynaptic cell, doing what? |
|
Definition
hyperpolarize
moving it farther away from threshold and farther from firing a AP |
|
|
Term
| Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs) are caused by the opening of _____ channels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials (EPSPs) are caused by the opening of _____ channels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inhibitory Neurotransmitters include: _______. |
|
Definition
| gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) & Glycine |
|
|
Term
| Spatial summation occurs when two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Temporal summation occurs when two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In spatial summation the simultaneous excitatory inputs _______. |
|
Definition
| Produce Greater Depolarization |
|
|
Term
| In Temporal summation the simultaneous rapid successive inputs _______. |
|
Definition
| overlap in time and add in a stepwise fashion |
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine synthesis pathway: _____ |
|
Definition
| Tyrosine -> L-Dopa -> Dopamine -> Norepinephrine -> Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
| Norepinephrine is the primary transmitter released from _______ neurons. |
|
Definition
| Postganglionic Sympathetic Neurons |
|
|
Term
| Norepinhephrine is synthesized in the nerve terminal and released into the synapse to bind with _____ or ____ receptors on the _____ membrane |
|
Definition
| alpha or beta receptors on the postsynaptic membrane |
|
|
Term
| Norepinephrine is removed from the synapse by ______ or it is metabolized in the presynaptic terminal by ______ and ______. |
|
Definition
reuptake
Monoamine OXidase (MAO) and Catechol-O-Methyltransferase (COMT) |
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine is synthesized from _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine & Norepinephrine are secreted from the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dopamine is prominent in _____ neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dopamine is released from the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dopamine inhibits _____ secretion, making it known as __________ |
|
Definition
| prolactin-inhibiting factor |
|
|
Term
| Dopamine is metabolized by _____ and ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two neurotransmitters are metabolized by MAO and COMT. |
|
Definition
| Dopamine & Norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| Two types of receptors for Dopamine: ____ & _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| D1 dopamine receptor ______ adenylate cyclase via a ____ protein. |
|
Definition
| Activates adenylate cyclase via a Gs protein |
|
|
Term
| D2 dopamine receptor ______ adenylate cyclase via a ____ protein. |
|
Definition
| Inhibits adenylate cyclase via a Gi protein |
|
|
Term
| Two diseases associated with Dopamine: _____ & _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parkinson's Disease involves degeneration of dopaminergic neurons that use the _____ receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Schizophrenia involves _____ levels of ____ receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serotnin is present in high [] in the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serotonin is formed from _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serotonin is converted into _____ in the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Histamine is formed from _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Histamine is present in the neurons of the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ is the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are ___ subtypes of Glutamate receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Three of the subtypes of Glutamate Receptors are _____ receptors |
|
Definition
| ionotropic (ligand-gated ion channels) |
|
|
Term
| One of the subtypes of Glutamate Receptors is a _____ receptors, which is coupled to ion channels via a _______. |
|
Definition
Metabotropic receptor
heterotrimeric G Protein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inhibitory Neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
| GABA is synthesized from ______ by _______. |
|
Definition
| Glutamate by Glutamate Decarboxylase |
|
|
Term
| GABA has 2 receptors: ____ & ____. |
|
Definition
GABAa Receptor
GABAb Receptor |
|
|
Term
| GABAa Receptor increase ____ conductance and is the site of action of ____ & _____. |
|
Definition
Cl-
Benzodiazepines and barbiturates |
|
|
Term
| GABAb Receptor increases ___ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Glycine is a _____ neurotransmitter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Glycine is found primarily in the ____ and ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Glycine increases ____ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NO is a ___-acting ____ neurotransmitter found in:_____. |
|
Definition
| short-acting inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the GI tract, bld vessels, and the CNS |
|
|
Term
| NO is synthesized in the presynaptic terminals, where the enzyme NO synthase converts ____ to citrulline and NO. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each skeletal muscle fiber contains bundles of ___, surrounded by ____ and invaginated by ____. |
|
Definition
myofibrils
SR
Transverse Tubules (T Tubules) |
|
|
Term
| A sarcomere runs from the __ to ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ filaments are present in the A band. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thick Filaments contain _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myosin has ___ polypeptide chains, including one pair of ______ and two pairs of _____. |
|
Definition
6
one pair of heavy chains
two pairs of light chains |
|
|
Term
| Each myosin molecule has __ heads attached to how many tails? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The myosin heads bind ____ and ____ and are involved in _____ formation. |
|
Definition
ATP and Actin
Cross-Bridge Formation |
|
|
Term
| Thin Filaments are anchored at the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thin Filaments are present in the ___ bands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thin Filaments interdigitate with the thick filaments in a portion of the ____ band. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thin Filaments contain the proteins: ______. |
|
Definition
| Actin, Tropomyosin, and Troponin |
|
|
Term
| Troponin is the regulatory protein that permits _____ when it binds _____. |
|
Definition
Cross-Bridge Formation
Ca2+ |
|
|
Term
| Troponin is a complex of three globular proteins: ________. |
|
Definition
Troponin T
Troponin I
Troponin C |
|
|
Term
| Troponin T is for ("______") its function is to ______. |
|
Definition
"T" for tropomyosin
attaches the troponin complex to tropomyosin |
|
|
Term
| Troponin I is for ("______") its function is to ______. |
|
Definition
"I" for Inhibition
inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin |
|
|
Term
| Troponin C is for ("______") its function is to ______. |
|
Definition
C is for Ca2+
is the Ca2+ binding protein that, when bound to Ca2+, permits the interaction of actin and myosin |
|
|
Term
| T tubules are open to the _____ space. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T tubules carry the depolarization from the ____ to the _____. |
|
Definition
| Sarcolemmal Membrane to the cell interior |
|
|
Term
| In skeletal muscle T Tubules are located at _____. |
|
Definition
| The junctions of A bands and I bands |
|
|
Term
| T Tubules in skeletal muscle contain a ____-sensitive protein called the _______. |
|
Definition
voltage
dihydropyridine receptor |
|
|
Term
| T Tubules in skeletal muscle contain a voltage-sensitive protein called the dihydropyridine receptor, _______ causes a ______ in the dihydropyridine receptor |
|
Definition
depolarize
conformational change |
|
|
Term
| SR of skeletal muscle is the internal tubular structure that is the site of ____ & _____ for _____-_____ coupling. |
|
Definition
Ca2+ storage and release
excitation-contraction |
|
|
Term
| SR has _____ that make intimate contact with the T Tubules in a triad arrangement in skeletal muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SR membranes of the skeletal muscle contain _____, which transports Ca2+ from _____ into ____, keeping ______ [Ca2+] low. |
|
Definition
Ca2+-ATPase (Ca2+ Pump)
from intracellular to SR interior
intracellular low |
|
|
Term
| SR of skeletal muscle contains Ca2+ loosely bound to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SR of skeletal muscle contains a Ca2+ release channel called the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ in the muscle cell membrane initiate depolarization of the _____. |
|
Definition
Action Potentials
T Tubules |
|
|
Term
| Depolarization of the T Tubules causes a conformation change in its ______, which ______ in the nearby SR. |
|
Definition
Dihydropyridine Receptor
which opens Ca2+ Release Channels (ryanodine Receptors) |
|
|
Term
| In skeletal muscle, after the Ca2+ release channels (Ryanodine Receptors) are opened, ______ [Ca2+] increases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myosin "walks" towards the ____ end of actin to produce shortening and force generation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After Ca2+ has been released from the SR and the intracellular [Ca2+] has risen, the Ca2+ then _______, causing a conformational change in _____ that causes ______. |
|
Definition
| Ca2+ then binds to Troponin C on the thin filaments causing a conformational change of Troponin that moves tropomyosin out of the way. |
|
|
Term
| After Tropomyosin has been moved out of the way following the binding of Ca2+ to TnC, ______ process beings. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the beginning of the cross-bridge cycle for skeletal muscle, myosin is bound to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the absence of ____, myosin is permanently bound to actin in a state called ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle, once ATP binds to myosin it produces a conformational change in myosin that causes myosin to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle, With ADP bound to myosin following its displacement towards the (_) end of the actin, myosin then _____, which constitutes the _______. |
|
Definition
+
attaches to actin
power (force-generating) stroke |
|
|
Term
| In the Rigor state of the skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle, what is myosin bound to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The skeletal muscle cross bridge cycle repeats as long as _____. |
|
Definition
| Ca2+ is bound to troponin C |
|
|
Term
| Relaxation of skeletal muscle in the cross bridge cycle occurs when __________. |
|
Definition
| when Ca2+ is re-accumulated and intracellular [Ca2+] decreases. |
|
|
Term
| Relaxation of skeletal muscle in the cross bridge cycle occurs when Ca2+ is re-accumulated by _________ causing the intracellular [Ca2+] to ______. |
|
Definition
SR Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA)
decrease |
|
|
Term
| After the intracellular [Ca2+] has decreased by the action of SERCA, Ca2+ is the released from ________, and ______ then again blocks the myosin-binding site on actin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As long as ______, cross-bridge cycling cannot occur in skeletal muscle. |
|
Definition
| Intracellular [Ca2+] is low |
|
|
Term
| A single AP causes the release of a standard amount of Ca2+ from the _____ and produces a single _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the muscle is unable to relax because of constant Ca2+ release, it is called ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In skeletal muscle contraction, first there is a ______, then a rise in ______, finally followed by the _____. |
|
Definition
AP
Intracellular [Ca2+]
Twitch Tension |
|
|
Term
| Isometric contractions are measured when the ______ is held constant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There is no _____ in isometric contractions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Isotonic contractions are measured when the _____ is held constant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In Isometric contractions, muscle length (___load) is fixed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In Isotonic contractions, the load against which the muscle contracts (___load) is fixed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Relaxation of skeletal muscle in the cross bridge cycle occurs when __________. |
|
Definition
| when Ca2+ is re-accumulated and intracellular [Ca2+] decreases. |
|
|
Term
| Length-Tension relationship is measures tension developed during _____ contractions when the muscle is set to fixed _____ (____load) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Passive tension is the tension developed by ______. |
|
Definition
| Stretching the muscle to different lengths |
|
|
Term
| Total Tension is the tension developed when ________. |
|
Definition
| the muscle is stimulated to contract at different lengths |
|
|
Term
| Active tension is the ______. |
|
Definition
| Difference between total and passive tension |
|
|
Term
| Active tension represents the ______ developed from contraction of the muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Active tension can be explained by _____ model. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Active tension is proportional to the number of ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Total and active tension in skeletal muscle will be maximum when there is ______. |
|
Definition
| Maximum overlap of thick and thin filaments, maximum overlap of cross bridges |
|
|
Term
| Force-Velocity relationship measures the velocity of shortening ______ contractions when the muscle is challenged with different _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the Force-Velocity relationship, the velocity of shortening _____ as the afterload increases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does smooth muscle have thick and thin filaments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does smooth muscle have sarcomeres? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two types of smooth muscle: ____ & ____. |
|
Definition
Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle
Unitary (single-unit) Smooth Muscle |
|
|
Term
| Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle behaves as ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ smooth muscle is spontaneously active (exhibits slow waves) and exhibits "pacemaker" activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ smooth muscle has a high degree of electrical coupling between cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ smooth muscle is densely innervated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Multi-Unit Smooth Muscle is densely innervated; contraction is controlled by _______. |
|
Definition
| neural innervation (e.g. ANS) |
|
|
Term
| ______ smooth muscle has little or no electrical coupling between cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ smooth muscle has properties of both multi-unit and single-unit smooth muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does smooth muscle have troponin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Smooth muscle has no troponin, instead, _____ regulates myosin on the thick filaments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization of the smooth muscle membrane opens ________ and ____ flows down its electrochemical gradient, increasing the _______[___]. |
|
Definition
Voltage-Gated Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ glows into the cell
intracellular [Ca2+] |
|
|
Term
| In smooth muscle, _____ & _____ may open ligand-gated Ca2+ channels in the cell membrane. |
|
Definition
| Hormones & Neurotransmitters |
|
|
Term
| Hormones & Neurotransmitters in smooth muscle, Hormones & Neurotransmitters may open ligand-gated Ca2+ channels in the cell membrane or they may also directly release Ca2+ from the SR through _________ gated channels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In smooth muscle following the rise in intracellular [Ca2+], Ca2+ then binds to _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Ca2+-Calmodulin complex in smooth muscle binds to and activates ________. |
|
Definition
| Myosin Light-Chain Kinase |
|
|
Term
| When activated by the Ca2+-Calmodulin complex, Myosin Light-Chain Kinase phosphorylates ______, which allows it to ______, thus initiating ______. |
|
Definition
myosin
to bind actin
cross-bridge cycling |
|
|
Term
| The amount of tension generated by the cross-bridge cycle in smooth muscle is proportional to _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ produces relaxation in smooth muscle. |
|
Definition
| Decrease in intracellular [Ca2+] |
|
|
Term
| Does cardiac muscle have an SR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cardiac muscle the action potential spreads from _____ to _____. |
|
Definition
| the membrane to the T tubules |
|
|
Term
| During the plateau of the action potential in Cardiac Muscle, ____ conductance is increased and ____ enters the cell from the extracellular fluid (inward ____ current) through _____ channels. |
|
Definition
Ca2+
Ca2+
Ca2+
L-type Ca2+ channels (Dihydropyridine Receptors) |
|
|
Term
| The Ca2+ entry through the L-type Ca2+ channels (Dihydropyridine Receptors) in cardiac muscle then triggers the release of even more Ca2+ from the ____ through _____ channels. |
|
Definition
SR
Ca2+ Release Channels (ryanodine receptors) |
|
|
Term
| After the intracellular [Ca2+] has risen in cardiac muscle, the Ca2+ then binds to _____, which causes ______. |
|
Definition
Troponin C
Tropomyosin to be moved out of the way |
|
|
Term
| The magnitude of the tension that develops in cardiac muscle is proportional to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Relaxation of cardiac muscle occurrs when Ca2+ is reaccumulated into the _____, by an active ______ pump. |
|
Definition
SR
Ca2+ ATPase Pump (just like in skeletal) |
|
|
Term
| Length-tension relationship in ventricles describes the effect of ventricular muscle length on _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Preload in the ventricles is the ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Preload in the ventricles is the end-diastolic volume, which is related to ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When _____ increases, end-diastolic volume increases and ______ the ventricular muscle fibers. |
|
Definition
venous return
stretches or lengthens |
|
|
Term
| Afterload for the left ventricle is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Afterload for the right ventricle is ______. |
|
Definition
| Pumponary Artery Pressure |
|
|
Term
| Increases in Aortic Pressure causes increases in the _______ of the _____ ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in _______ causes an increase in afterload of the right ventricle |
|
Definition
pulmonary artery pressure
Right |
|
|
Term
| _________ of cardiac muscle determines the maximum number of cross-brdiges that can be formed between _____ & ______. |
|
Definition
Sarcomere length
myosin and actin |
|
|
Term
| Sarcomere length determines the maximum _______ in addition to the max number of cross-bridges. |
|
Definition
| Tension/force of contraction |
|
|
Term
| Velocity of contraction at a fixed cardiac muscle length is maximal when _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Velocity of contraction at a fixed cardiac muscle length is decreased by increases in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Frank-Starling relationship describes the ______ in stroke volume and cardiac output that occur in response to an ______ in venous return or end-diastolic volume. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in end-diastolic volume cause an increase in _____, which produces an increase in developed tension. |
|
Definition
ventricular fiberlength
increase |
|
|
Term
| Frank-Starling relationship is the mechanism that matches _____ to ____. |
|
Definition
| Cardiac output to venous return |
|
|
Term
| Changes in contractility shift the Frank-Starling relationship curve in what direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Venous return and Cardiac output have a ____ relationship. |
|
Definition
| Direct (Greater the venous return, the greater the cardiac output) |
|
|
Term
| Increased contractility causes a ____ in cardiac output for any level of _______ in the Frank Starling Relationship. |
|
Definition
increase
right atrial pressure (end-diastolic volume) |
|
|
Term
| Stroke Volume is the volume ______ on each beat. |
|
Definition
| Ejected from the ventricle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| SV = End Diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CO = SV x HR
Stroke volume x Heart Rate |
|
|
Term
| The baroreceptor for regulating arterial pressure is ____ mediated and (slow/fast). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arterial Pressure is also hormonally regulated using an ______-______ mechanism. |
|
Definition
| reninangiotensin-aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| Two types of arterial pressure: ____ & ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Baroreceptor Reflex is a _____ feedback system that is responsible for the _____ time regulation of arterial blood pressure. |
|
Definition
negative feedback
minute-minute |
|
|
Term
| Baroreceptors are ____ receptors located within the walls of the ______ near the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ____ in arterial pressure decreases the stretch on the walls of the carotid sinus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Because the Baroreceptors are most sensitive to changes in _____ pressure, so rapid decreases in _____ produce the greatest response. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Additional Baroreceptors are found in the _____ which respond to ______, but not _____ in arterial pressure. |
|
Definition
aortic arch
increases
not decreases |
|
|
Term
| Decreased stretch for a Baroreceptor results in a _____ of the firing rate of the _____ nerve which carries information to the ______ center in the _____. |
|
Definition
Decreases
Carotid Sinus Nerve
Vasomotor center in the brain stem |
|
|
Term
| The set point for mean arterial pressure in the ______ center is about ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the mean arterial pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, a series of autonomic responses is coordinated by the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The responses by the vasomotor center to a mean arterial blood pressure below 100 mm Hg are decreased ______ outflow to the heart & increased ____ outflow to the heart and blood vessels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in heart rate will have ___ affect on the BP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increase in heart rate in effort to raise BP results from decreased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic tone to the ____ of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an attempt to raise BP, (increase/decrease) contractility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an attempt to raise BP, (increase/decrease) stroke volume |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an attempt to raise BP, their is increased vasoconstriction of ____ & _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a result of vasoconstriction of Arterioles there is an increase in _____ & arterial pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| vasoconstriction of veins causes a decrease in _____ & an increase in _______. |
|
Definition
| decrease in unstressed volume and an increase in venous return to the heart |
|
|
Term
| The increase in venous return to the heart caused by vasoconstriction of veins causes and increase in _____ by the Frank-Starling Mechanism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute Hemorrhage results in a (decrease/increase) in arterial pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a result of the decrease in arterial pressure following acute hemorrhage, there is a decrease in the ________. |
|
Definition
| stretch on carotid sinus baroreceptor |
|
|
Term
| The decrease in the stretch on carotid sinus baroreceptor following an acute hemorrhage, results in a decreased ______. |
|
Definition
| Firing rate of carotid sinus nerve (Hering's Nerve) |
|
|
Term
| The decreased Firing rate of carotid sinus nerve (Hering's Nerve), results in a decrease in ______ and an increase in _________. |
|
Definition
para outflow to heart
sympathetic outflow to heart and vessels |
|
|
Term
| The integrity of the baroreceptor mechanism can be tested with the _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Valsalva maneuver results in an increase in intrathoracic pressure, which _____ venous return. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Valsalva maneuver results in an increase in intrathoracic pressure, which decrease venous return, this decrease in venous return causes a decrease in ____ and ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The decrease in CO & Arterial Pressure following the Valsalva maneuver is sensed by the baroreceptor and causes an ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is (slow/fast) and (neural/hormonal). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is used for _____ regulation of blood pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is used for long term regulation of blood pressure, through adjustments in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system is an enzyme. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin _ is inactive, Angiotensin _ is active. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin II is degraded by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ________ causes the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to secrete _____. |
|
Definition
decrease in renal perfusion pressure
renin |
|
|
Term
| Renin is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of ____ to ____ in the plasma. |
|
Definition
| conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I |
|
|
Term
| _______ catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, primarily in the ______. |
|
Definition
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme ACE
Lungs |
|
|
Term
| ACE Inhibitors block the conversion of _____ to _______, thereby _____ blood pressure. |
|
Definition
Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
decreasing |
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin receptor (AT1) antagonists block the action of _____ at its receptor and ____ blood pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin II stimulates the synthesis and secretion of ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin II stimulates the synthesis and secretion of Aldosterone, by the ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aldosterone increase _______ by the renal distal tubule, thereby _______ extracellular fluid volume, blood volume, and therefore arterial pressure. |
|
Definition
Na+ Reabsorption
Increasing |
|
|
Term
| The action of aldosterone through Angiotensin II is (slow/fast). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin II increases ___-___ exchange in the proximal convoluted tubule. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By increasing Na+-H+ exchange, Angiotensin II directly increases _______, complementing the indirect stimulation of _______ via aldosterone. |
|
Definition
Na+ Reabsorption
Na+ Reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin II also increases the physiological feeling of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angiotensin causes (vasodialtion/vasoconstriction) of _____, thereby increasing _____ & ______. |
|
Definition
vasoconstriction
arterioles
TPR
Arterial Pressure |
|
|
Term
| When the brain is ischemic, the partial pressure of CO2 in the brain ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemoreceptors in the vasomotor center of the brain respond to increases PCO2 by increasing ________ to the heart and vessels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Constriction of arterioles causes intense _______ and increased _____. |
|
Definition
peripheral vasoconstriction
TPR |
|
|
Term
| ____ reaction is an example of the response to cerebral ischemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in intracranial pressure cause compression of the cerebral blood vessels leading to cerebral _____ and increased cerebral ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| End result of cushing reaction is a profound _____ in arterial pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies have high rates of ___ consumption and are very sensitive to _______ in the partial pressure of ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Decreases in PO2 activate vasomotor centers that produce _____, an increase in ______, and in increase in ______. |
|
Definition
Vasoconstriction
increase in TPR and Arterial Pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vasopressin (ADH) is involved in the regulation of blood pressure in response to _______, but not in _______ regulation of normal blood pressure. |
|
Definition
Hemorrhage
minute-to-minute |
|
|
Term
| _____ receptors respond to a decrease in blood volume (or pressure) and cause the release of vasopressin (ADH) from the ______. |
|
Definition
Atrial Receptors
Posterior Pituitary |
|
|
Term
| Vasopressin has two effect that tend to _____ blood pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vasopressin (ADH) is a potent ______ that increases TPR by activating _____ receptors on the arterioles. |
|
Definition
Vasoconstrictor
V1 Receptors |
|
|
Term
| Vasopressin (ADH) increases ______ by the renal distal tubule and collecting ducts by activating _____ receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is released from the ____ in response to an (decrease/increase) in _____ and _____ pressure. |
|
Definition
Atria
Increase in blood volume and atrial pressure |
|
|
Term
| Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) causes _______ of vascular smooth muscle, ______ of the arterioles, and ____ TPR. |
|
Definition
relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
dilation
decreased |
|
|
Term
| Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) causes increased _____ of Na+ and Water. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) inhibits _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ branch into the capillary beds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the junctions of the arterioles and capillaries is a smooth muscle band called the _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True capillaries do not have _______; they consist of a single layer of endothelial cells surrounded by a basement membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood flow through the capillaries is regulated by contraction and relaxation, of the _____ & ______. |
|
Definition
| arterioles & precapillary sphincters |
|
|
Term
| Lipid soluble substances cross the membrane of capillaries by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lipid soluble substances that can cross through capillaries include ____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Small Water-Soluble Substances cross the capillary membrane via the _______ between the endothelial cells. These include: ______, _____, and ______. |
|
Definition
water filled clefts
water, glucose, and amino acids |
|
|
Term
| In the _____ the water filled clefts of the capillaries are extremely tight, forming the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the liver and intestine the water filled clefts of the capillaries are wide and allow passage of _____, these capillaries are called ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Large Water-Soluble substances can cross into the capillaries by _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Starling Equation is the equation for fluid movement in/out of a capillary _______. |
|
Definition
J = Kf[(Pc-Pi)-(πc - πi)]
Kf Hydraulic Conductance
Pc Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Ï€c capillary oncotic pressure |
|
|
Term
| Jv is fluid flow, when Jv is positive there is net fluid movement ________ (______). |
|
Definition
| out of the capillary (filtration) |
|
|
Term
| Jv is fluid flow, when Jv is negative there is net fluid movement ________ (______). |
|
Definition
| into the capillary (absorption) |
|
|
Term
| Kf, filtration coefficient, in the starling equation for fluid flow, is the _______ of the capillary wall. |
|
Definition
| hydraulic conductance (water permeability) |
|
|
Term
| Pc stands for what in the starling equation for fluid flow? |
|
Definition
| Capillary hydrostatic pressure |
|
|
Term
| An increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) favors (filtration/absorption). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is determined by ______ |
|
Definition
| arterial and venous pressures/resistances |
|
|
Term
| An _______ in arterial and venous pressures produces an increase in Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in venous pressure have a (lesser/greater) effect on Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is higher on the _____ end of the capillary than at the ______ end. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ________ in Interstitial hydrostatic pressure (Pi) opposes filtration out of the capillary. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Interstitial hydrostatic pressure (Pi) is normally close to _____ mm Hg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in Capillary oncotic pressure (Ï€c) ______ filtration out of the capillary. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Capillary oncotic pressure (Ï€c) is increased by ________. |
|
Definition
| Increases in the [protein] in the blood |
|
|
Term
| Capillary oncotic pressure (Ï€c) is decreased by _______. |
|
Definition
| Decreases in the [protein] in the blood |
|
|
Term
| ______ do not contribute to Capillary oncotic pressure (Ï€c). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in Interstitial oncotic pressure (Ï€i) ______ filtration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Interstitial oncotic pressure (Ï€i) is dependent on the [_____] of the Interstitial fluid, which is normally low, because very little _____ is filtered. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) Pc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) Pi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) πc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase filtration: (decrease/increase) πi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in Pc are caused by increased _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
| arterial or venous pressure |
|
|
Term
| A decrease in πc (favors filtration) is caused by a _____ in [protein] in the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ______ in πi can be caused by inadequate lymphatic function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normally (filtration/absorption) of fluid is slightly greater than (filtration/absorption) for the capillaries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excess filtered fluid is returned to circulation via _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The volume of interstitial fluid > capacity of the lymphatics system to return it |
|
|
Term
| Edema can be caused by ____ filtration or _____ lymphatics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) is produced in the _____ cells and causes local ______. |
|
Definition
Endothelial Cells
Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) mechanism of action involves the activates of ______ enzyme that produces _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) example: ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Circulating ___ causes vasodilation by stimulating the production of NO (an EDRF) in vascular smooth muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood flow to an organ is regulated by altering _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood flow to an organ remains _____ over a wide range of perfusion pressures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Organs that exhibit autoregulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Organs that exhibit active Hyperemia, receive blood flow proportional to ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In reactive hyperemia an increase in blood flow to an organ occurs after ______. |
|
Definition
| A period of occlusion of flow |
|
|
Term
| Myogenic Hypothesis (for local control of blood flow) is based on the observation that vascular smooth muscle ______ when it is stretched. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Three types of local (intrinsic) control of blood flow: ______ |
|
Definition
Autoregulation
Active Hyperemia
Reactive Hyperemia |
|
|
Term
| What tissue has the highest density of sympathetic innervation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Decreases in sympathetic tone cause vaso____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Histamine causes Arteriolar _____ and venous ______. |
|
Definition
| Dilation and Constriction |
|
|
Term
| Histamine causes Arteriolar Dilation and venous Constriction, whose combined effects cause _______ Pc and _____ filtration, resulting in ______. |
|
Definition
Increased Pc
Increased Filtration
Local Edema |
|
|
Term
| Histamine is released in response to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bradykinin causes Arteriolar _____ and venous ______. |
|
Definition
| Dilation and Constriction |
|
|
Term
| Bradykinin causes _____ filtration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bradykinin causes Increased filtration, resulting in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serotonin causes arteriolar ______ and is released in response to ______ in order to help prevent _____. |
|
Definition
constriction
blood vessel damage
blood loss |
|
|
Term
| Coronary Circulation is controlled almost entirely by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coronary Circulation exhibits _____regulation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to autoregulation Coronary Circulation exhibits two other types of local control: _____ & _____. |
|
Definition
| reactive and active hyperemia |
|
|
Term
| The most important local metabolic factors for coronary circulation are _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in myocardial contractility are accompanied by an increased demand for _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During (systole/diastole) mechanical compression of the coronary vessels reduces blood flow, after a period of occlusion, blood flow increases to repay the O2 debt, exhibiting ______ type of local control. |
|
Definition
systole
Reactive Hyperemia |
|
|
Term
| Cerebral Circulation is controlled almost entirely by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cerebral Circulation exhibits _____ blood flow control. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Just like in coronary circulation, cerebral circulation exhibits: ______ control mechanisms for local control of blood flow |
|
Definition
| Autoregulation, reactive/ active hyperemeia |
|
|
Term
| The most important local vasodilator for the cerebral circulation is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in PCO2 cause ______ of the cerebral ______(type of vessel) and increase blood flow to the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Skeletal muscle blood flow is controlled by the ________ of blood vessels in skeletal muscle and by _______. |
|
Definition
| sympathetic innervation and local metabolic factors |
|
|
Term
| _____ is the primary regulator of blood flow to the skeletal muscle at rest. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ of skeletal muscle are densely innervated by sympathetic fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are both ___ and ____ receptors on the blood vessels of skeletal muscle for the sympathetic innervation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the alpha1 receptors of skeletal muscle causes _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the beta2 receptors of skeletal muscle causes _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The state f constriction of skeletal muscle arterioles is a major contributor to the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to extrinsic sympathetic control, flood flow in skeletal muscle exhibits _______. |
|
Definition
| Local control: active/ reactive hyperemia and autorregulation |
|
|
Term
| Demand for _____ in skeletal muscle varies with metabolic activity level, and blow flow is regulated to meed the demand. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During exercise when O2 demand is high in skeletal muscle _____ control of blood flow is dominant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The local vasodilator substances for local metabolic control in skeletal muscle are: ________. |
|
Definition
| lactate, adenosine, and K+ |
|
|
Term
| Reactive Hyperemia results from ____ in skeletal muscle. |
|
Definition
| The temporary occulsion of arteries that results from contraction |
|
|
Term
| Skin blood flow is regulated by _____. |
|
Definition
| Extrinsic sympathetic control |
|
|
Term
| _______ is the principal function of the cutaneous sympathetic nerves that regulate its blood flow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased ambient temperature leads to cutaneous (vasoconstriction/vasodilation), allowing the dissipation of excess body heat. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ produces the "triple response" in skin: ________. |
|
Definition
Trauma
red line, red flare, and a wheal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A wheal is local edema that results from the local release of ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Histamine _____ capillary filtration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a person stands, a significant amount of blood pools in the _____, because of the high ______ of veins. |
|
Definition
lower extermination
compliance |
|
|
Term
| As a result of venous pooling following standing and increased local venous pressure, ____ in the legs increases and fluid is (adsorbed/filtered). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Following standing venous return ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a result of the lowered venous return following standing, both _____ and ______ (decrease/increase) according to the Frank-Starling Relationship. |
|
Definition
| Cardiac Output and Stroke Volume Decrease |
|
|
Term
| Upon standing arterial pressure ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon standing arterial pressure decreases, because of the reduction in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If ____ pressure becomes low enough from the decrease in arterial pressure upon standing, fainting may occur. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial Response upon standing, Arterial Blood Pressure: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial Response upon standing, Heart Rate: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial Response upon standing, Cardiac Output: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial Response upon standing, Stroke Volume: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial Response upon standing, TPR: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initial Response upon standing, Central Venous Pressure: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compensatory Response upon standing, Arterial Blood Pressure: _______ |
|
Definition
| Increase (towards normal) |
|
|
Term
| Compensatory Response upon standing, Heart Rate: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compensatory Response upon standing, Cardiac Output: _______ |
|
Definition
| Increase (towards normal) |
|
|
Term
| Compensatory Response upon standing, TPR: _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compensatory Response upon standing, Central Venous Pressure: _______ |
|
Definition
| Increase (towards normal) |
|
|
Term
| Compensatory Response upon standing, Stroke Volume: _______ |
|
Definition
| Increase (towards normal) |
|
|
Term
| Upon standing blood pools in the veins, which causes a decrease in ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The decrease in Arterial Pressure upon standing is sensed by the _____ and results in an increase in ______. |
|
Definition
Baroreceptor
sympathetic outflow |
|
|
Term
| Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter affects: _____, ____, and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter causes (constriction/dilation) of the veins, which results in an increase in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter causes (constriction/dilation) of the arterioles, which causes an increase in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon standing the increase in sympathetic outflow from the vasocenter causes the heart to increase: ____, ____, & _____. |
|
Definition
Heart Rate
Contractility
Cardiac Output |
|
|
Term
| The ____ respond to the decrease in the arterial pressure upon standing. |
|
Definition
| Carotid sinus baroreceptors |
|
|
Term
| The Carotid sinus baroreceptors respond to the decrease in the arterial pressure upon standing, by (increasing/decreasing) the firing rate of the nerve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Orthostatic hypotension is _______. |
|
Definition
| fainting or lightheadedness on standing |
|
|
Term
| Orthostatic hypotension may occur in individuals who _______. |
|
Definition
| have an impaired baroreceptor reflex mechanism |
|
|
Term
| The cardiac resting membrane potential is determined by the conductance to ___ and approaches __equilibrium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a cardiac AP, _____ current brings _____ charge into the cell and depolarizes the membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a cardiac AP, _____ current takes positive charge into the cell and hyperpolarizes the membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ventricles, atria, and the Purkinje system of the heart have a (stable/unstable) resting potential of about _____ (close to the __ equilibrium) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AP of the ventricles, atria, and the Purkinje are of short/long duration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 0 of the Cardiac AP is the _______ of the AP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The upstroke of the Cardiac AP in phase 0 is caused by a transient increase in _____ conductance, this increases a ______ward ___ ion current that depolarizes the membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the peak of the AP for cardiac muscle, the membrane potential approaches ___ equilibrium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 1 of the cardiac AP, is a brief period of initial _____. |
|
Definition
| repolarization (hyperpolarizing) |
|
|
Term
| The initial repolarization in phase one is caused by an _____ward current, in part because of the movement of ___ ions out of the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 2 is the ______ of the cardiac AP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The plateau in phase 2 is caused by a transient increase in ____ conductance, which results in an _____ward ____ ion current, and by an increase in K+ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During phase 2, ____ & _____ currents are approx equal and results in a plateau in the membrane potential. |
|
Definition
| inward and outward (Ca2+ and K+) |
|
|
Term
| Phase 3 of the cardiac AP is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During phase 3 of the cardiac AP, ____ conductance decreases, and ____ conductance increases and therefore predominates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During Phase 3 of the Cardiac AP, the high ___ conductance results in a large outward __ ion current, which hyperpolarizes the membrane potential back towards ____ equilibrium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 4 of the cardiac AP is _____. |
|
Definition
| Resting Membrane Potential |
|
|
Term
| ____ is normally the pacemaker of the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SA node has a (stable/unstable) resting membrane potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SA node exhibits Phase __ depolarization, or autmoaticity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The AV node and the His-Purkinje Systems are ______ that may exhibit automaticity and override the SA node if it is ______. |
|
Definition
Latent Pacemakers
Suppressed |
|
|
Term
| The intrinsic rate of phase 4 depolarization (and heart rate) is fastest in the _____ and slowest in the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phases ___ & ___ are not present in SA node AP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 0 of the SA AP, is the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 0 of the SA AP is caused by an increase in ____ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 0 of the Ventricles, Atria, and the Purkinje system is caused by an increase in the ______ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 0 of the SA AP is caused by an increase in Ca2+ conductance. This causes an ____ ward Ca2+ current. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 3 of the SA node AP is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 3 of the SA node AP is caused by an increase in ___ conductance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 3 of the SA node AP is caused by an increase in K+ conductance, resulting in an ___ward K+ current that causes _____polarization of the membrane potential. |
|
Definition
K+
outward
Repolarization (hyperpolarizing) |
|
|
Term
| Phase 4 of SA node Ap, is a (slow/fast) _____polarization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase _ of the SA node accounts for the pacemaker activity of the SA node (Automaticity). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 4 of the SA node AP, is caused by an increase in ___ conductance, which results in an ____ward ____ ion current called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If is turned on by _______. |
|
Definition
| repolarization of the membrane potential during the preceding AP |
|
|
Term
| Phases of the SA AP: _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 0 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 2 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 3 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase 4 of Ventricles, Atria, & Punrkinje System, I_. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AV node, the upstroke of the AP is the result of an ______ (as in the _____). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Conduction velocity reflects the time required for _______. |
|
Definition
| Excitation to spread throughout the cardiac tissue |
|
|
Term
| Conduction velocity reflects the recovery of channels that carry the _______ of the AP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changes in excitability over the course of an action potential are described by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Absolute Refractory Period (ARP) in cardiac AP, begins with the _____ and ends after the _____. |
|
Definition
Upstroke of the AP
ends after it plateaus |
|
|
Term
| Absolute Refractory Period (ARP) in cardiac AP, reflects the time during which __________. |
|
Definition
| no AP can be initiated, regardless of how much inward current is applied |
|
|
Term
| Which is longer, Absolute or Effective Refractory Period ERP for Cardiac AP? |
|
Definition
| Effective Refractory Period ERP |
|
|
Term
| Effective Refractory Period ERP is the period in which a _____. |
|
Definition
| conducted AP cannot be elicited |
|
|
Term
| Relative Refractory Period (RRP) is the period immediately after the ______ when _____ is almost complete. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Relative Refractory Period (RRP) is the period during which an action potential ______, but ______. |
|
Definition
| Can be elicited, but more than the usual inward current is required |
|
|
Term
| Chronotropic Effects produce changes in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A negative chronotropic effect ____ heart rate, by ______. |
|
Definition
decreases
decreasing the firing rate of the SA node |
|
|
Term
| A positive chronotropic effect ____ heart rate, by _____ the firing rate of the SA node |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dromotropic Effects produce changes in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dromotropic Effects produce changes in Conduction velocity, primarily in the ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A negative dromotropic effect ____ conduction velocity through the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A negative dromotropic effect decreases conduction velocity by slowing the conduction of ______ from the ____ to _____. |
|
Definition
| AP atria to the ventricles |
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Term
| Negaitve Dromotropic effects ____ the PR interval. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| A positive dromotropic effect increases ______ through the ______ node. |
|
Definition
conduction velocity
SA node |
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Term
| Positive Dromotropic effects ____ the PR interval. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What in the heart has parasympathetic innervation & what does not? |
|
Definition
SA node, atria, and AV node have para vagal innervation
Ventricles do not |
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Term
| The neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic in the heart is _______, which acts on ____ receptors. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Parasympathetic decreases contractility of ____ only in the heart. |
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Definition
| Atria (Ventricles do not have para innervation) |
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Term
| Vascular smooth muscle of the skeletal muscle has _____ receptors for constriction and ____ receptors for relaxation for sympathetic innervation. |
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Definition
alpha one constriction
beta2 relaxation |
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Term
| The heart has _____ receptors for the sympathetic system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The heart has ____ receptors for the para system. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| The mechanism of the positive dromotropic effect is increased _______. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| Contractility is the intrinsic ability of cardiac muscle to develop force at a ______. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| Negative Chronotropic effect of the PNS decreases the heart rate by decreasing the rate of ______. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The mechanism of Negative Chronotropic effect is decreased I_, the inward __ current that is responsible for phase 4 depolarization in SA node. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Order of phases for SA AP: ______. |
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Definition
| 4 depolarization, 0 upstroke, 3 repolarization |
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Term
| Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS decreases the _____ through the AV node. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS causes APs to be conducted more slowly from _____ to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS ____ the PR interval. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of Negative dromotropic effect of the PNS is decreased _____ward ___ current & increased _____ward ____ current. |
|
Definition
decreased inward Ca2+
increased outward K+ |
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Term
| Positive Chronotropic effect of the SNS increases heart rate by increasing the ______. |
|
Definition
| Rate of phase 4 depolarization |
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Term
| The result of the increase in the rate of phase 4 depolarization following Positive Chronotropic effects, results in ____ action potential per unit time. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of Positive Chronotropic Effect on the heart rate is (increased/decreased) I_. |
|
Definition
Increased
If (SA node, phase 4) |
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of Negative Chronotropic Effect on the heart rate is (increased/decreased) I_. |
|
Definition
Decreased
If (SA Node, phase 4) |
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Term
| If is the inward current of _____ that is responsible for phase 4 depolarization of the SA node. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Positive Chronotropic Effect causes ______ to be conducted more rapidly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of Positive Chronotropic Effect is ______ inward Na+ current. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of Negatie Chronotropic Effect is ______ inward Na+ current. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Contractility is related to (intra/extracellular) [___]. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Contractility can be estimated by the _______. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Ejection Factor = _______. |
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Definition
| (Stroke Volume / End Diastolic Volume) |
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Term
| _____ agents increase contractility. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ agents decrease contractility. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors that increase contractility (Positive Inotropism): _______. |
|
Definition
Increased Heart Rate
Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via beta one receptors
Cardiac Glycosides (Digitalis) |
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|
Term
| When more action potentials occur per unit time, more ___ enters the myocardial cells during the action potentials ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+ enters the myocardial cells during the action potentials plateaus, causing more ________ and greater ______ produced as a result. |
|
Definition
Ca2+ released from the SR
tension during contraction |
|
|
Term
| Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via Beta-One receptors increases the force of contraction by two mechanisms: ________ |
|
Definition
Increase inward Ca2+ current during plateau
Increases activity of the Ca2+ pump of the SR |
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|
Term
| Sympathetic stimulation (catecholamines) via Beta-One receptors increase the activity of Ca2+ pump of the SR by _________. |
|
Definition
| Phosphorylation of phospholamban |
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|
Term
| Cardiac Glycosides (digitalis) increase the force of contraction by ________. |
|
Definition
| inhibiting Na+,K+-ATPase in the myocardial membrane |
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Term
| Long: How does inhibiting Na+,K+-ATPase in the myocardial membrane by Cardiac Glycosides (digitalis) increase the force of contraction? |
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Definition
| Na+-Ca2+ exchange (a mechanism that extrude Ca2+ from the cell) depends on the Na+ gradient and thus is diminished, producing an increase in intracellular [Ca2+] |
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|
Term
| Parasympathetic stimulation (____neurotransmitter via ____ receptors) decreases the force of contractions in the ______ by decreasing the inward Ca2+ during ______. |
|
Definition
ACh
Muscarinic Receptors
Atria (no para in ventricles)
plateau |
|
|
Term
| Preload is the _______, which is related to ______. |
|
Definition
end-diastolic volume
right atrial pressure |
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Term
| When ______ increases, end-diastolic volume increases and ______ the ventricular muscle fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Afterload for the left ventricle is the _____ pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Afterload for the Right ventricle is the _____ pressure. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| The diastolic pressure curve is the relationship between _____ and ____ in the ventricle. |
|
Definition
| Diastolic Pressure and Diastolic Volume in the ventricle |
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Term
| The systolic pressure curve is the relationship between _____ and ____ in the ventricle. |
|
Definition
| systolic Pressure and systolic Volume in the ventricle |
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Term
| A single left ventricular cycle: ____, ____, ____, & ______, can be observed by combining the systolic and diastolic pressure curve. |
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Definition
| contraction, ejection, relaxation, and refilling |
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Term
| The mitral valve closes when the ____ pressure is greater than the _____ pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aortic valve opens when the ____ pressure is greater than the _____ pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The volume ejected during the ejection phase is the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The stroke volume is equivalent to the ______ of the pressure-volume curve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The volume remaining in the left ventricle following the ejection phase is the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The volume at the end of ventricular filling is the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased preload refers to an increase in ________ and is the result of _______. |
|
Definition
Increase in an end diastolic volume
increase in venous return |
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Term
| Increased preload causes an (increase/decrease) in _______. |
|
Definition
| increase in stroke volume |
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|
Term
| Increased preload causes an increase in increase in stroke volume, based on the _____ relationship. |
|
Definition
| Frank-Starling relationship |
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Term
| The increased preload is reflected how in the pressure-volume loop? |
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Definition
| Shift to the right, increased preload results from increased venous return, which increases SV, which will be reflected by an increase in the width of the loop |
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Term
| Increased refers to an increase in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With increased afterload from an increase in Aortic Pressure, the ventricle must eject blood now against a ______, resulting in a ______ of stroke volume. |
|
Definition
higher aortic pressure
decrease |
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|
Term
| The decrease in stroke volume from increased afterload is reflected in the pressure volume curve by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The decrease in stroke volume from increased afterload results in an (increase/decrease) in _____ volume. |
|
Definition
| increase in end-systolic volume |
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Term
| With Increased contractility the ventricle develops greater ______ than usual during systole causing an (increase/decrease) in ________. |
|
Definition
Tension
Increase
Stroke Volume |
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|
Term
| The increase in contractility causes a increase in stroke volume and subsequently a (increase/decrease) in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cardiac output curve shows the frank-starling relationship and how cardiac output is a function of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The vascular function curve plots the relationship between _______ and right atrial pressure. |
|
Definition
| blood flow through the vascular system (venous return) |
|
|
Term
| Mean systemic pressure is the point along the vascular function curve where ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mean systemic pressure = ______, when there is no flow. |
|
Definition
| Right atrial pressure (x intersection) |
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Term
| Mean systemic pressure is increased by an increase in _______ or by a decrease in ________. |
|
Definition
increase in blood volume
or
decrease in venous compliance (where blood is shifted from the veins to the arteries) |
|
|
Term
| An increase in systemic pressure is reflected in a shift of the ____ function curve to the _______. |
|
Definition
Vascular Function curve
Right |
|
|
Term
| Mean systemic pressure is decreased by a decrease in _______ or by an increase in _______. |
|
Definition
decrease in blood volume
or
increase in venous compliance (where blood is shifted from the arteries to the veins) |
|
|
Term
| An decrease in systemic pressure is reflected in a shift of the ____ function curve to the _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Slope of the Vascular Function (Venous Return) curve is determined by the ________. |
|
Definition
| Resistance of the arterioles |
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|
Term
| A clockwise rotation of the Vascular Function (Venous Return) curve indicates a (increase/decrease) in _______. |
|
Definition
Decreases
Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR) |
|
|
Term
| When TPR is decreased for a given right atrial pressure, there is an (increase/decrease) in _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vasodilation of the _____ allows more blood to flow from the arteries to the veins and back to the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A counterclockwise rotation of the Vascular Function (Venous Return) curve indicates a (increase/decrease) in _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When TPR is increase for a given right atrial pressure, there is an (increase/decrease) in _______. |
|
Definition
| decrease in venous return |
|
|
Term
| The point at which the Vascular Function (Venous Return) and Cardiac output curves intersect is the _________. |
|
Definition
| equilibrium, or steady-state point (single value for right atrial pressure) |
|
|
Term
| Example of Positive Intropic agents: _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Positive Intropic agents (digitalis) produce increased contractility and (decreased/increased) ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Positive Intropic agents shift the equilibrium to _______ on the Cardiac Output & Venous Return Curve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Right arterial pressure (decreases/increases) with Positive Intropic agents causing increased contractility. |
|
Definition
| Decreases (because higher SV is ejected with each beat) |
|
|
Term
| Positive intropic agents rotate the cardiac output curve (clockwise/counterclockwise)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Negative Intropic agents produce decreased contractility and (decreased/increased) CO. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changes in blood volume or venous compliance change the _____ curve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (decreases/increases) in blood volume or (decrease/increases) in venous compliance increase the mean systemic pressure, shifting the venous return curve to the (left/right) in a parallel fashion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (decreases/increases) in blood volume or (decrease/increases) in venous compliance decrease the mean systemic pressure, shifting the venous return curve to the (left/right) in a parallel fashion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changes in TPR change which curves? |
|
Definition
| Cardiac Output and Venous Return simultaneously |
|
|
Term
| Increasing TPR causes a (decrease/increase) in cardiac out & a (decrease/increase) in venous return. |
|
Definition
| Decrease in both cardiac output and venous return |
|
|
Term
| Increasing TPR causes a _____ change in the venous return curve. |
|
Definition
| Counterclockwise rotation (decreasing venous return) |
|
|
Term
| Increased TPR results in decreased venous return as blood is _______. |
|
Definition
| retained on the arterial side |
|
|
Term
| A _____ shift of the cardiac output curve results from increased TPR, with the increased arterial pressure (increased ____load) the heart has to pump against a higher pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changes in TPR result in a shift of both the Cardiac output and venous return curves, this results in a change in the ______, but _____ remains the same. |
|
Definition
new equilibrium set point
right arterial pressure is unchanged |
|
|
Term
| Decreasing TPR causes an (decrease/increase) in cardiac out & a (decrease/increase) in venous return. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Decreasing TPR causes a _______ shift in the venous return curve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Decreasing TPR causes a _______ shift in the cardiac output curve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Decreasing TPR results in a ______ in afterload. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ejection Fraction is related to _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ejection fraction is the fraction of the ________ volume ejected in each _______ volume. |
|
Definition
| end-diastolic volume ejected in each stroke volume |
|
|
Term
| Ejection fraction is normally ____%. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ejection Fraction Formula: ______. |
|
Definition
| Ejection Fraction = Stroke Volume/End Diastolic Volume |
|
|
Term
| Stroke Work is the work the heart performs on _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stroke Work = ______. (For Left Ventricle) |
|
Definition
| Stroke Work = Aortic Pressure x Stroke Volume |
|
|
Term
| _______ are the primary energy source for stroke work. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac Oxygen Consumption is directly related to the _______ developed by the ______. |
|
Definition
| Amount of tension developed by the ventricles |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac Oxygen Consumption is increased by: _______. |
|
Definition
Increased afterload (increased Aortic Pressure)
Increased Size of the Heart (Tension is proportional to the radius of a sphere)
Increased Contractility
Increased Heart Rate |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac = ______ (In terms of 02) |
|
Definition
Cardiac Output = O2 consumption/ [02]pulmonary vein - [O2]pulmonary artery
O2 consumption for the whole body |
|
|
Term
| When all valves are closed, ______ volume is constant, and the phase is called ________. |
|
Definition
ventricular volume
isovolumetric |
|
|
Term
| Atrial Systole is preceded by the ____ wave. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| P wave represents electrical activation of the (atria/ventricles) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atrial Pressure (_____ pressure) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The increase Atrial Pressure (Venous pressure) caused by atrial systole is the _____ wave on the venous pulse curve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Filling of the ventricle by atrial systole causes the ____ heart sound, which is not audible in normal adults. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Isovolumetric ventricular contraction begins after the onset of the _____ wave in the ECG, which represents electrical activation of the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When _____ pressure becomes greater than ____ pressure, the AV valve closes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Closure of the AV valve corresponds to the ____ heart sound. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the AV valve closes first, Mitral or tricuspid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| No blood leaves during Isovolumetric ventricular contraction in the left ventricle because the ____ valve is closed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The onset of the ____ wave in the ECG, which represents the repolarization of the ventricles, marks the end of both _____ contraction and rapid ventricular ejection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Repolarization of the ventricles is complete at the end of the ____wave. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The aortic valve closes, followed by the ____ valve. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Semilunar Valves: _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Closure of the _____ corresponds to the second heart sound. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After the ______ valve closes isovolumetric ventricular relaxation begins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____ valve opens at the end of isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When ventricular pressure becomes less than atrial pressure, the _____ valve opens. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rapid blood flow from the atria to the ventricles causes the ______ heart sound, normal in children, but associated with disease in adults. |
|
Definition
|
|
