Term
| What is the body fluid made up of? |
|
Definition
Fluid - % of dry weight
Blood plasma - 5% -
Interstitial Fluid - 15%
Intracellular Fluid - 40%
Water is 60% but is a major makeup of these fluids. |
|
|
Term
| Are the blood plasma and the interstitial fluid separated? |
|
Definition
| Yes, with a two compartment capillary wall. |
|
|
Term
How does the Na+K+-ATPase pump work?
And how do K+ and Na+ levels usually stay? |
|
Definition
Pumps two K+ into the neurone body and three Na+ out. This is is the resting state of the neurone.
There is also a transport protein for the K+ which is a constant slow leak down the gradient. Very few Na+ leak but there is a voltage gated channel but that only opens during action potentials. |
|
|
Term
| Where is there a high level of Cl- in the nerves? |
|
Definition
| Outside the neurone in the interstitial fluid. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the large proteins and the organic anions (negatively charged) in the nerves? |
|
Definition
| In the inside of the neurones in the intracellular fluid. |
|
|
Term
| What happens at threshold potential? |
|
Definition
| Threshold potential opens up the Na+ channels and sodium floods in raising the membrane potential to about +40mV and this then causes the Na+ to close and the K+ to flood back out until the membrane potential reaches about -90mv which is hyperpolarised and then the membrane enters a refractory period in which it can no longer be stimulated and then the potential goes back to normal as the sodium goes back outside and the potassium enters back in the neurone. |
|
|
Term
| What is an EPSP and how does it work? |
|
Definition
An excitatory postsynaptic potential.
When two Ach molecules will bind to a certain receptor which changes the shape of the protein to allow Na+ into the post synaptic knob and therefore makes creates a slightly less polarised membrane and makes the membrane closer to the action potential |
|
|
Term
| What is an IPSP and how does it work? |
|
Definition
| The Inhibitory postsynaptic potential is caused by a GABA molecule let bind to a receptor that when activated will cause the Chlorine outside the post synaptic knob into the cell which adds to the polarisation and move the potential further away from the action potential. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
Amino acids (e.g. GABA and glycine)
Class neurotransmitters (Noradrenaline and Acetylcholine)
Neuropeptides (e.g. TRH = 3 AA long, Substance P = 11 AA long) |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the acetylcholine after the passing of the action potential between synapses? |
|
Definition
| Broken down by acetylcholinesterase and then 80% of the choline is taken up and acetate goes elsewhere |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Skin nerve sensors - free nerve endings. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| These are the mechanoreceptors in the blood vessel walls that detect the blood pressure |
|
|
Term
| How do nerves acquire the best precision in the location of a stimulus? |
|
Definition
| The smaller the receptive fields with lots of overlapping receptive fields will be able to locate a stimulus easily, a bodies extremities and lips have these. |
|
|
Term
| What are chemicals that can block your neurotransmitters signal? |
|
Definition
| Sarin and Organophosphate insecticide will block the neurotransmitter receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They can act as small presynaptic knobs and will often act with muscarinic cells in the parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three categories of sensory input? |
|
Definition
Cutaneous - touch, cold, warm, pain
Visceral - Perceiving the internal environment
Special senses - Vision, taste, hearing, smell sensory organ in the head. |
|
|
Term
| What is the pressure in the eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When an increase in the intraocular pressure is greater than 20mmHg and this restricts blood flow to the optic disc and causes blindness. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A region in the back of the eye slightly away from the optic nerve where the fovea (All cones, no rods) is situated. |
|
|
Term
| What is the protein in rods? |
|
Definition
| Opsin (light sensitive protein), Aldehyde of vitamin A, and rhodopsin and metarhodopsin. |
|
|
Term
| How does a rod cells relay the message of light to the optic nerve? |
|
Definition
| The light sensitive proteins will activate the Na+ channels to close when stimulated and then the K+ continues to pump out and the the rod cell membrane becomes polarised and the action potential runs down the cell and then a neurotransmitter is released at the presynaptic knob at the bottom of the rod cell. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three opsins in the cone cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many rods do you have in each eye? |
|
Definition
120 million rods.
20x more rods in your eye than cones. |
|
|
Term
| How do cone cells relay the message? |
|
Definition
| Similar to rod cells but the cones are 1 to 1 in numbers with ganglion cells which will relay the message to optic nerve. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the optic nerve take the sight nervous impulse in the brain? |
|
Definition
| The Thalamus to be reordered and made sense of. |
|
|
Term
| Which sight cells will react quickest to change? |
|
Definition
| The cones are the quickest to react but then the rods have a larger degree of change and are what adapts to the light |
|
|
Term
| What are the three bones in the ear? |
|
Definition
| The stapes, malleus and the incus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the ear drum called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the outer ear called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the oval window and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| The oval window is the area of the opening fro the middle ear to the inner ear. The stapes will plunge in and out causing vibrations in the fluid in the scala. These vibration in the scala are detected by the hair cells in the cochlea/organ of corti and the hair cells will stimulate an action potential and this is passed to the auditory nerve to the auditory complex in the thalamus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the inner ear muscles and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| The tympani and the stapedius are two inner ear muscles that are able to contract rapidly to protect the inner ear from loud noises (excessive vibrations) |
|
|
Term
| What is the eustachian tube? |
|
Definition
| It is the tube that connects the throat and by opening it can equalise the pressure in the inner ear with the pressure of the outer ear |
|
|
Term
| What is the safety factor incorporated in the muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
| The nerves exciting the muscle tissue will release 8-10x as much acetylcholine than is required to make sure the contraction occurs. |
|
|
Term
| How do you work out the contractile precision of a muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
1/No. fibres innervated.
The more the fibres, the more the less precise the contraction
fingers have less fibres than legs therefore the contraction is more precise. |
|
|
Term
| What are the difference between type 1 and type 2 muscle fibres? |
|
Definition
Type 1 (Type 2)
0.1 sec reaction ( 0.01 sec reaction)
Use ATP (Uses breakdown of glucose)
Red colour ( White)
Used for posture (Used for rapid movements)
Use many mitochondria (Use the sarcoplasmic reticulum)
These are all known as extrafusal muscle fibres |
|
|
Term
| What are muscle spindles? |
|
Definition
| 6-8 specialised muscle fibres none as intrafusal muscle fibres which act as muscle contraction detectors. Let us know how to contract more or less or quicker or slower. These are constantly contracted to be able to detect change. |
|
|
Term
| What are gamma and alpha neurones in relevance to muscle fibres. |
|
Definition
Gamma neurones attach the spindles to the CNS
Alpha neurones attach the CNS to the real contracting muscle fibres. They work together in alpha gamma coactivation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the gamma loop in muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
| When the Ia afferent neurone will receive the muscle spindles detection of the contraction strength and speed and relays a message to cell body in the dorsal root ganglia, then another neurone relays this to a neurone cell body in the spinal cord and induces an EPSP (Glutamate) and then the alpha neurone action potential is stimulate and then muscle fibre contraction is increased. |
|
|
Term
| What are the afferent and efferent pathways? |
|
Definition
| In a reflex reaction for example, the afferent is the beginning of the loop including the sensory neurone and the afferent is the acting end of the loop where the effector is stimulated and a reaction is induced |
|
|
Term
| What is a golgi tendon organ? |
|
Definition
| It is basis of 10-15 special muscle fibres that attached to the tendons to detect tendon action. |
|
|
Term
| What is the somatic nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Controls the striated muscles. |
|
|
Term
| What is the enteric nervous system? |
|
Definition
| it is the gut nervous system in the autonomic nervous system that is not the para sympathetic or the sympathetic. |
|
|
Term
| What differs in the autonomic nervous compared to the somatic nervous system? |
|
Definition
| The autonomic uses a ganglion in its pathway amongst other differences. |
|
|
Term
| What are the neurotransmitters in the Autonomic nervous system? |
|
Definition
Pre ganglion, acetylcholine is used.
Post ganglion, acetylcholine and noradrenaline |
|
|
Term
| How to remember sympathetic and parasympathetic? |
|
Definition
Para = sleepy
Parasympathetic is the rest and digest mode
Sympathetic is for the fight or flight mode |
|
|
Term
| What part of the CNS is the parasympathetic nervous system attached too? |
|
Definition
The Sacral are of the spine and the cranial area
It also has long preganglionic neurones and then very short postganglionic neurones to the effector tissue |
|
|
Term
| How are the nerves from the spinal cord generally organised in the sympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Neurone runs from spinal cord to the sympathetic chain of ganglia and then past the chain the nerve is known as a splanchnic nerve and then it goes to a peripheral ganglion and then a new neurone runs to the effector tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four parts of the cranial outflow and what nervous system is this part of? |
|
Definition
III - Oculomotor (smooth muscle of eyes)
VII - Facial (facial glands)
IX - Glossopharyngeal (salivary glands)
X - Vagus (Postganglionic fibres - heart, lungs, stomach, liver and some of the digestive system)
Part of the parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| What is the sacral outflow in the nervous system and which nervous system is it a part of? |
|
Definition
The sacral outflow attaches to the blade, lower large intestine, reproductive organs.
It is is part of the parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of receptor is in the ganglion in the parasympathetic neuroeffector pathway? |
|
Definition
| Nicotinic receptor, two Ach molecules bind and the Na+ floods into the post synaptic knob and action potential is induced. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of receptor for the Ach molecules in the parasympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
M1 - Gut receptors for gastric acid secretion
M2 - Cardiac receptors
M3 - Glandular receptors for secretion of product and smooth muscle constriction |
|
|
Term
| What does ionotropic receptor mean? |
|
Definition
| It is when a messenger attaches to the receptor and it undergoes shape change to allow ions through |
|
|
Term
| What is special about the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor? |
|
Definition
| It is metabotropic and it has a 7 transmembrane domain. |
|
|
Term
| What are parasympathomimetic drugs and examples? |
|
Definition
| They are drugs that mimic neurotransmitters and increase the PNS activity. Examples are cholinomimetic agonists such as pilocarpine and nicotine |
|
|
Term
| What are parasympatholytic drugs and examples? |
|
Definition
Muscarinic antagonists which reduce PNS activity such as atropine
Cholinesterase inhibitors which block Ach action and lowers PNS activity examples are physostigmine |
|
|
Term
| What does the SA and the AV do in the heart? |
|
Definition
| SA is the pacemaker and the AV does the conducting of the electrical impulse into the cardiac muscle into the purkinje fibres and into the apex. |
|
|
Term
| How does the PNS effect the heart rate? |
|
Definition
It is able to use M2 cardiac receptors and will lower the heart beat by acting on the Sa and the AV.
Atropine can be used to stop this in cardiac arrest to keep heart beat up and going. |
|
|
Term
| How does the nervous system control eye dilation? |
|
Definition
| The SNS (comes from the superior cervical ganglion close to CNS) causes pupil dilation and the PNS (comes from outer ciliary ganglion) causes pupil constriction. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is paralysis of the ciliary muscle which means loss of lens accommodation |
|
|
Term
| What is parasympathetic cotransmission? |
|
Definition
| When a stimulus causes an intense reaction, the PNS requires more action and uses Ach as a neurotransmitter but also sends another such as VIP to to act as another effect to react more severely. In this VIP will dilate the blood vessels and this increases the effect of the Ach on its target cells |
|
|
Term
| How is the SNS neuraopathway normal set up? |
|
Definition
The neurone from the thoracic lumbar region of spinal cord runs to the pre vertebral ganglion where there is a nicotinic receptor and then a neurone runs from this to the adrenoreceptor at the target tissue.
Can also be a splanchnic nerve to the adrenal medulla and then onto an adrenaline release into blood |
|
|
Term
| How and where is adrenaline made? |
|
Definition
Phenylalanine -> Tyrosine -> Dopamine -> Noradrenaline -> Adrenaline.
It is synthesised in the adrenal medulla |
|
|
Term
| What are the receptors involved in adrenal action? |
|
Definition
the alpha receptors are for the NA and the beta receptors are for the adrenaline.
In the eye for example, there are alpha receptors and these are where the NA will bind and then a dilation of the eye is induced |
|
|
Term
| What are sympathetic drugs to act like adrenaline and NA |
|
Definition
Phenylephrine causes pupil dilation.
Adrenaline can be used as a drug as a stimulant
Tyramine can be used for induced NA release
MAOI can be used to inhibit the NA metabolism |
|
|
Term
| What are parasympathetic drugs hat can be used? |
|
Definition
To stimulate it, pilocarpine and physostigmine can be used.
To inhibit it, atropine can be used. |
|
|
Term
| What are metabotropic receptors? |
|
Definition
| These are 2nd messenger receptors and will stimulate enzyme activation and ion transport. Examples are the muscarinic and adrenoceptor. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the brain controls thoughts and actions? |
|
Definition
| Frontal lobe, Temporal lobe, Paretial love, Occipital lobe, cerebellum (balance) and the brain stem (alive control) |
|
|
Term
| What does the thalamus control? |
|
Definition
| Pain sensations and alertness |
|
|
Term
| What does the hypothalamus control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Pituitary gland control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What controls the motor control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What controls the emotions in the brain? |
|
Definition
| Corpus callosum, mammillary body, hippocampus, amygdala, fornix |
|
|
Term
| What is an EEG and what does it look at? |
|
Definition
| Electro encephalo gram and it measures the brain activity. |
|
|
Term
| What is a CAT/CT scan and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| Computerised axial tomography scan and it looks at the brain in a 3D x ray. |
|
|
Term
| What is a PET scan and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| Positron emission tomography and it is able to measure the blood flow in the cerebral cortex and detect the brain metabolism using radioactive tracers. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major neurotransmitters in the brain and what do they do? |
|
Definition
They are Serotonin and Dopamine.
Serotonin is the neurotransmitter linked with happiness and lower levels linked with depression. To alter low levels tryptophan can be given as it is the molecule used for serotonin production.
Dopamine is involved in impulsive and addiction. 90% of dopamine is in the three neurones for the hypothalamus (hormone secretion), Striatum (motor control) and the limbic cortex (motivation pathway linked with addiction) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of parkinson disease? |
|
Definition
Give L-DOPA which is used in the body to increase synthesis of dopamine and it should calm out the tremors of parkinson's.
Alternatives are lesion surgery and inject Dopamine stem cells. |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of Alzheimer's disease? |
|
Definition
Give Tacrine, is a Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and will reduce the breakdown of Ach.
Alternative treatments are to inject Ach stem cells or give anti-neuroinflammatory |
|
|
Term
How do you work out flow rate of blood?
How do you work out the Velocity of blood? |
|
Definition
Volume/Unit of time
Distance/Unit of time
If the flow rate is constant, the velocity is indirectly proportional to the cross sectional area o the vessel.
Therefore the flow rat is slowest in the capillaries. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It describe the factors that affect the flow rate.
These factors are pressure, length, radius and viscosity |
|
|
Term
| Which vessel has the greatest capacity to change the blood flow and resistance of blood flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is systolic pressure? |
|
Definition
| The blood pressure during the contracting of the heart. 120mmHg |
|
|
Term
| What is diastolic pressure? |
|
Definition
| The blood pressure during the relaxation of the heart. 80mmHg |
|
|
Term
| How is the mean blood pressure calculated? |
|
Definition
| Diastolic BP + 1/3 pulse pressure |
|
|
Term
| How does the action potential of the SA node differ from the normal neurone action potential? |
|
Definition
There is no resting potential.
There is Ca2+ involved as well as K+ and Na+
Still has a threshold potential at -40mV but this always occurs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the action potential of a ventricular cell? |
|
Definition
| It has a resting potential of -90mV and then once excited, it rises to above -30mV instantly due to rapid Na+ influx and then it plateaus quickly due to K+ out and the Ca2+ enter back in and repolarises the cell. |
|
|
Term
| What is the stroke volume? And what is it effected by? |
|
Definition
It is the total volume of blood pumped from the Left ventricle through the aortic valve in one pump.
The end diastolic volume of blood in the left ventricle, he aortic pressure and the ability of the contraction of the left ventricle (e.g. strength and length of contraction) |
|
|
Term
| How do you work out the cardiac output? |
|
Definition
Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate
Measured in litres/minute |
|
|
Term
| What is the systolic blood pressure influenced by? |
|
Definition
An increase in stroke volume will increase the systolic bp
A decrease in the aortic elasticity will increase the systolic bp |
|
|
Term
| What influeces the diastolic bp? |
|
Definition
Increased total peripheral resistance will increse the diastolic bp
Decreased aortic elasticity will decrease the diastolic bp
Decreased heart rate will decrease the diastolic bp |
|
|
Term
| How does the SNS effect the heart rate? |
|
Definition
| It releases NA and this attaches to the ß1 adrenoceptors and this causes a increase in the heart rate. |
|
|
Term
| How doe the PNS effect the heart rate? |
|
Definition
| It releases the Ach to the muscarinic receptors on the heart and this leads to relaxation therefore a decrease in heat rate |
|
|
Term
| How are the arterioles innervated by the by the SNS? |
|
Definition
NA attaches to a1 adrenoceptors and vasoconstriction
NA attaches to ß2 adrenoceptors and then vasodilation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| These are the pressure sensors in the vessel walls. they re located in major vessel walls, the carotids and the aorta. |
|
|
Term
| How does the baroreceptor reflex work? |
|
Definition
| Detects a fall in the blood pressure, signal sent to the CNS (specifically the medullary gasometer centre) and the SNS is triggered to send NA to the a1 receptors of the heart to increase heart rate and therefore CO, vasoconstriction occurs and increased stroke volume and therefore BP rises to normal. |
|
|
Term
| How do you use alpha adrenoceptors to control hypertension? |
|
Definition
Phentolamine or Prazosin.
These are both alpha receptor inhibitors and they reduce the effect of the SNS and lower the vasoconstriction and therefore TPR
High side effects due to fall in bp and possible high heart rate due to continuous NA release. |
|
|
Term
| How do you use angiotensin to control hypertension? |
|
Definition
Angiotensin I is converted to Angiotensin II by an enzyme. Angiotensin II is responsible for vasoconstriction. This means that if you inhibit the action of the converting enzyme then you can reduce the vasoconstriction and reduce hypertension.
Examples of these are captopril and enalapril.
Also Losarton can be used as it does not effect bradykinin as much which is useful in vasodilation and has less side effects. |
|
|
Term
| How can calcium channel blockers be used to aid hypertension? |
|
Definition
The calcium channels being blocked will increase vasodilation and decrease the BP. Example of this drug in Nifedipine
This has the side effects of possible hypotension and heart failure, arrhythmia, and headaches. |
|
|
Term
| How can diuretics aid hypertension? |
|
Definition
| By using diuretics you can increase the amount of water loss in urine and therefore reduce the total blood volume and lower BP. Examples include thiazides or loop diuretics. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between alpha and beta receptors? |
|
Definition
| The alpha receptors accept A and NA and they are usually for stimulation (increased activity) such as vasoconstriction. However the beta receptors are involved in the more relaxed things and accept NA as a messenger but they are also located in the heart and can induce a faster BPM but will also cause vasodilation. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the two types of beta receptors usually found? |
|
Definition
| ß1 in the heart and then ß2 in the lungs and some blood vessels |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between primary and secondary hypertension? |
|
Definition
Primary is linked with serious cardiovascular risk with no single cause identified
Secondary is due to drug use, pregnancy, renal disease or hyperthyroidism. |
|
|
Term
When should you use the different hypertension drugs?
A = Angiotensin II blocker
C = Calcium channel blocker
D = Diuretic |
|
Definition
A if persons under 55
C if persons over 55 OR african Caribbean descent
A + C + D if neither work and neither work together either
If nothing works try all three with a adrenoceptor blocker. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid? |
|
Definition
Higher conc. proteins in the blood plasma
This is because the water potential in the plasma is needed to be lower for the osmotic gradient to be high to keep hydrostatic pressure of the capillary blood |
|
|
Term
| What is the distribution of ions like in the body fluid? |
|
Definition
| Abundance of Na+ and Cl- in the extracellular fluid and abundance of K+ in the intracellular fluid. |
|
|
Term
| How much of that cardiac output does the kidney receive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What comes first, the distal or the proximal convoluted tubule? |
|
Definition
| The proximal comes first after the bowman capsule and then between the proximal and the distal is the loop of Henle. |
|
|
Term
| What comes first, the afferent or the efferent arteriole? |
|
Definition
Efferent comes first.
Afferent comes out of the bowman capsule, A = After. |
|
|
Term
| What are Macula densa cells? |
|
Definition
| These are cell just outside the bowman capsule that are able to detect the flow of blood in DCT and can effect the diameter of the afferent arteriole |
|
|
Term
| In the glomerular filtration equation, what do the P and the π stand for? |
|
Definition
P stands for the hydrostatic pressure and the π stands for the Colloid osmotic pressure
Colloid osmotic pressure is the osmotic pressure that is created by proteins lowering the water potential and creating a higher osmotic pressure into the medium (e.g. blood capillaries) |
|
|
Term
| How does increase int he hydrostatic pressure in the afferent and efferent arterioles change the pressure of the capillaries in the glomerulus? |
|
Definition
Increased pressure before lowers the pressure in the glomerulus but increased in the afferent arterioles will increase the pressure of the capillaries in the glomerulus. A higher pressure in the glomerulus means that there will be in increase in the glomerular filtrate from the capillaries
(Think about it being forced out due to high pressure) |
|
|
Term
| How much filtrate is reabsorbed by active absorption in the proximal convoluted tubule? |
|
Definition
| About 70% of the filtrate is actively reabsorbed. |
|
|
Term
How much blood plasma does a person have?
And how much filtrate is created each day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of ions are actively reabsorbed in the PCT? |
|
Definition
| Na+, glucose, bicarbonates. |
|
|
Term
| What is a countercurrent multiplier? |
|
Definition
| It is the act of the loop of Henle using the extremely low water potential in the medulla. The further into the medulla the loop of hence goes, the lower the water potential which aids the absorption of excess filtrate in the nephron back into the medulla to reabsorbed. |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the distal convoluted tubule? |
|
Definition
Active reabsorption of Na+ into the cortex, and loss of K+ and H+ ions.
All stimulated by aldosterone. |
|
|
Term
| What hormone pathway is created to increase the absorption of sodium in the distal convoluted tubule and why? |
|
Definition
| Low blood pressure is detected by baroreceptors and this causes renin to be released from the juxtaglomerular kidney cells. This renin then stimulates the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and then to angiotensin II which stimulates aldosterone release. Aldosterone causes more Na+ take up in the distal ovulated tubule and therefore more water reabsorption and therefore a higher blood volume and BP |
|
|
Term
| Where is aldosterone secreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Vasopressin is an antidiuretic hormone. Released for the pituitary gland, it is induced by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus or by a decrease in blood volume being detected by the baroreceptors.
It acts on the V2 receptors on renal collecting ducts and V1 in receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells to evoke vasoconstriction of the arterioles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Atrial natriuretic peptide. Released by the cardiac atrial cells when they are stretched too much due to too much blood volume. Inhibits the release of renin and the RAAS motion. increases GFR and induces vasodilation.
Natural diuretic! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
PCT diuretic - Osmotic diuretic
Used for renal failure, too reduce cranial pressure and glaucoma. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic.
Acts on PCT
Weak
Only works on bicarbonate reabsorption
used for Glaucoma, oedema, epilepsy and altitude sickness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A Loop diuretic
Stops the loop of Henle losing ions in the ascending limb therefore reducing the hypertonic medium therefore stopping loss of water in the descending limb
Strong
For renal failure and chronic heart failure |
|
|
Term
| What is Benzoflumethiazide? |
|
Definition
It is a thiazide diuretic, obviously, therefore it acts to block the reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- in the DCT. Increases urine volume fairly well.
For hypertension
Moderately strong |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| K+ sparing diuretic, blocks actions of aldosterone, like ANP does and also help keep balance of the K+ in the body, used with other diuretics. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The point that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume at constant temperature. |
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Term
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Definition
Volume is directly proportional to the temperature.
This is in context of the volume go a gas gets larger as the temperature of a gas increases also |
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Term
| At 37 degrees and standard conditions, what is the partial pressure of saturated water vapour pressure? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why does air need to be moist in the lungs? |
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Definition
| It enables efficient gaseous exchange |
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Term
| What is Dalton's law of partial pressure? |
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Definition
| The law that all gases exert a certain pressure independent of the other gases and the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is all those individual pressures added up |
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Term
| What is the barometric pressure? |
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Definition
This is PB and it is the partial pressure of all the gases in a space. Otherwise known as the atmospheric pressure.
It can be split into the individual Pigas (the pressure inspired gas) which is the individual pressure that 1 certain gas will exert and can also be displayed as Figs which is the proportion of the PB that is taken up by that individual gas. |
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Term
| What does one kPa = in mmHg |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the Pulmonary ventilation rate? |
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Definition
PVR is the respiration rate x Tidal Volume
Respiration rate = breaths per minute
Tidal volume = The volume of air breathed in or out in an average breath |
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Term
| What is Alveolar ventilation rate? |
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Definition
| AVR is the sam put it is about the total ACTUAL volume of air that reaches the alveoli as not all of the air you breathe in reaches them |
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Term
| What is the ventilation - perfusion rate? |
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Definition
It is the ratio of Va/Q. 1 is normal.
Va is the ventilation rate/amount of ventilation
Q is the perfusion rate/rate at at which the blood passes through the lungs and become oxygenated |
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Term
| How can you detect hypoxia? |
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Definition
| When there is low O2 ventilation and the pulmonary arterioles become constricted |
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Term
| How can you detect lung disease with ventilation perfusion rates? |
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Definition
| There is high CO2 levels and the brochioles are dilated |
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Term
| How can you detect hypocapnia? |
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Definition
| Low CO2 levels and the bronchioles are constricted |
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Term
| What is the Inspiratory Reserve Volume? |
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Definition
| It is the extra volume of air that is inhaled above the normal tidal volume with full force |
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Term
| What is the Expiratory Reserve Volume? |
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Definition
| This is the extra volume of air that you can exhale over the normal tidal volume |
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Term
| What is the Vital Capacity? |
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Definition
| It is the maximum amount of air that n individual can expire from a completely full set of lungs |
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Term
| What is the Residual Volume? |
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Definition
| The volume of air that is left in the lungs after full expiration. |
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Term
| What is the Functional Residual Capacity? |
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Definition
| The volume of air left int he lungs after a normal exhale |
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Term
| What is the total lung capacity? |
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Definition
| This is the total volume of air that a set of lungs can hold |
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Term
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Definition
| This is the volume of air expired in the first second of a full exhalation |
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Term
| What is a Vitalograph used for? |
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Definition
| It can measure the ability to move the air out of the lungs. You can find the FVC and the FEV1.0 from this. |
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Term
| What is the diffusion conductance test? |
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Definition
It is a test to measure how easily CO can cross from alveolar air to blood. Measure the CO concentration in the air before and after 10s of holding breath.
Can use to test the ability of a cystic fibrosis patient to evaluate their ability of gaseous exchange |
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Term
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Definition
It is the inadequate delivery of oxygen to the body tissues.
You can get various forms:
Hypoxaemic hypoxia - interference with ventilation (CO poisoning or high altitude)
Anaemic hypoxia - abnormal erythrocytes (sickle cell)
Ischaemic hypoxia - Blocked circulation
Histotoxic hypoxia - cells are unable to utilise the O2 due to cell reasoning such as poisoning (cyanide) |
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Term
| When treating Hyperaemic hypoxia with O2 ventilation, what problems can occur? |
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Definition
Hyperoxia can occur if too much oxygen is ventilated, decreased tidal volume, coughing and pain and then pulmonary oedema and then death.
Also Retrolental fibroplasia can occur in premature babies due to O2 rich ventilation a abnormal fibrous tissue grows behind the eyes |
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Term
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Definition
| Anti asthmatic drug. ß2 adrenoreceptor agonists. This will inhibit the actions of the spasmogens and therefore dilate the smooth muscle of the bronchiole. Side effect include tachycardia and peripheral vasodilation |
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Term
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Definition
| Anti Asthmatic drug. Is a xanthine drugs that competitively inhibits the breakdown of cAMP and increased cAMP relaxes the smooth muscle. |
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Term
| What is Ipratropium Bromide? |
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Definition
Anti Asthmatic drug. Muscarinic receptor antagonist. Bind to the M1,M2, M3 receptors and inhibits the aAch-mediated bronchospasm.
Side effects: Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation and glaucoma |
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Term
| What is Beclomethasone/Beclometasone Dipropionate? |
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Definition
Anti Asthmatic drug. Glucocorticoid which decrease the production of inflammatory precursors which will increase the diameter of bronchioles.
Side effects: Candidiasis of mouth and that and voice problems. |
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Term
| What is Sodium Cromoglycate? |
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Definition
Anti asthmatic drug? Cromones.
Muscarinic antagonist
Antiinflammatory for the late phase of asthma.
Possibly decreases bronchial sensory nerves. Side effects: Irritation and bronchospasm. |
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Term
| What controls the acid-base balance in the blood? |
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Definition
| The carbonic acid that is formed from the CO2, O2 and the H2O. The acid easily forms on RBCs due to presence of carbonic anhydrase. The Carbonic acid ionises to HCO3- and H+ |
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Term
| What is the normal pH range of blood? |
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Definition
7.35 to 7.45
If above it is Alkalosis
If below it is Acidosis |
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Term
| What is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is respiratory acidosis? |
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Definition
| When you decrease the ventilation and there is an increase in H+ in the blood as there is more CO2 in the blood so pH drops. |
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Term
| What is respiratory alkalosis? |
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Definition
| Hyperventilation will result in a lack of CO2 and therefore a lack of H+ and then an increase in pH |
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Term
| What is metabolic acidosis? |
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Definition
When the ability of the kidneys to excrete H+ and reabsorb HCO3- decreases and the there is a decrease in pH.
Ventilation will increase and the kidneys have to try harder.
Occurs in uncontrolled diabetes |
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Term
| What is metabolic alkalosis? |
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Definition
When the ability of the kidney to reabsorb HCO3- and excrete H+ is increased and there is over action the H+ decreases and the pH rises.
Caused by nausea, diarrhoea vomiting and ingestion of a base like an antacid |
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Term
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Definition
The Basal metabolic rate, it is the minimum energy used by the body to maintain the essential body activities at rest
Normal 70kg man = 65 calories per hour |
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Term
| What function does the thyroid gland have on the BMR? |
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Definition
| It produces thyroxine. which has been linked with dietary deficiency (underachieve thyroid gland therefore not enough thyroxine) and the Graves disease (overactive thyroid gland and too much thyroxine) |
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Term
| What is too much thyroxine and what happens? |
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Definition
| Above 140nmol/l will cause hyperthyroidism and can lead to hyper activeness and tachycardia |
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Term
| What is not enough thyroxine and what happens? |
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Definition
| Below 70 mol/l will cause hypothyroidism and this will cause hypo activeness and bradycardia |
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Term
| How much energy is in one gram of carbs, fats and protein? |
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Definition
Carb = 16kJ
Fat = 37 kJ
Protein = 17kJ |
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Term
| What is a respiratory quotient? |
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Definition
The RQ is the amount of O2 consumed with an energy source (carb, fat, protein)/ The amount of CO2 produced from the energy breakdown.
Carb RQ = 1
Fat RQ = 0.7
Protein RQ = 0.8 |
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Term
| What is the energy efficiency of converting glucose into ATP? |
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Definition
| 40% efficiency, the rest of the energy is lost as heat |
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Term
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Definition
1kcal = 4.184kJ
That shit is real ya hear ma |
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Term
| What is the specific heat capacity of the body? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| When the temperature drops too much for an increased metabolic to fix it and it goes below 28ºC and then they subject will fall unconscious and then below 26º is fatal. |
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Term
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Definition
| Heat becomes too high for sweating and any body changes to be able to change so the body rises above 41ºC and falls unconscious and if rises above 45º it is fatal. |
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