| Term 
 
        | What neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic parasympathetic nerves? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What neurotransmitter is released by postganglionic parasympathetic nerves? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic sympathetic nerves? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What neurotransmitter is released by postganglionic sympathetic nerves to stimulate sweat production? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What neurotransmitter is released by postganglionic sympathetic nerves to stimulate cardiac and smooth muscle? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What neurotransmitter is released by postganglionic sympathetic nerves to stimulate renal vascular smooth muscle relaxation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptors are present at the connection between all preganglionic and postganglionic neurons? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptors recognize parasympathetic stimulation on cardiac and smooth muscle? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptors recognize sympathetic stimulation on cardiac and smooth muscle? |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha and beta adrenergic receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptors recognize sympathetic stimulation on sweat glands? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptors recognize somatic stimulation on skeletal muscle? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What toxin prevents acetylcholine release at all nerve terminals? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What acetylcholine receptors are actually ligand-gated sodium/potassium channels? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What acetylcholine receptors are GPCR's? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor mediates the following? 1.  vascular smooth muscle contraction
 2.  pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis)
 3.  intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction
 |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha-1 receptor (sympathetic, Gq)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, decreases sympathetic outflow and decreases insulin release? |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha-2 receptor (sympathetic, Gi)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, increases heart rate, contractility, renin release, and lipolysis? |  | Definition 
 
        | beta-1 receptor (sympathetic, Gs)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor mediates the following? 
 1.  vasodilation
 2.  bronchodilation
 3.  increase heart rate
 4.  increase contractility
 5.  increase lipolysis
 6.  increase insulin release
 7.  decrease uterine tone
 |  | Definition 
 
        | beta-2 receptor (sympathetic, Gs)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What parasympathetic receptor is found in the CNS and enteric nervous system? |  | Definition 
 
        | M1 receptor (parasympathetic, Gq)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, decreases heart rate and contractility of atria? |  | Definition 
 
        | M2 receptor (parasympathetic, Gi)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor does the following? 
 1.  increase exocrine gland secretions
 2.  increase gut peristalsis
 3.  increase bladder contraction
 4.  bronchoconstriction
 5.  increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis)
 6.  ciliary muscle contraction (accommodation)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | M3 receptor (parasympathetic, Gq)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle? |  | Definition 
 
        | D1 receptor (dopamine, Gs)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, modulates transmitter release, especially in the brain? |  | Definition 
 
        | D2 receptor (dopamine, Gi)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, leads to increased nasal and bronchial mucus production, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, and pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | H1 receptor (histamine, Gq)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, leads to increased gastric acid secretion? |  | Definition 
 
        | H2 receptor (histamine, Gs)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, leads to increased vascular smooth muscle contraction? |  | Definition 
 
        | V1 receptor (vaspressin, Gq)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor, when activated, increases water permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney? |  | Definition 
 
        | V2 receptor (vasopressin, Gs)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What five receptors use Gq to activate phospholipase C, which creates the secondary messengers IP3 and DAG? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does IP3 do when it is stimulated by Gq? |  | Definition 
 
        | increase calcium concentration inside the cell |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does DAG do when it is stimulated by Gq? |  | Definition 
 
        | activate protein kinase C |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 5 receptors are mediated by Gs, increasing cAMP and activating protein kinase A? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 receptors are mediated by Gi, inhibiting cAMP production and decreasing protein kinase A activity? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When norepinephrine is released from a sympathetic nerve ending, it binds to what receptors on the presynaptic cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha-2 receptors (negative feedback) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to treat postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention? |  | Definition 
 
        | bethanechol (direct cholinomimetic agonist) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle, and is resistant to acetylcholine esterase? |  | Definition 
 
        | bethanechol (direct cholinomimetic agonist) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to treat glaucoma, pupillary contraction, and relief of intraocular pressure? |  | Definition 
 
        | carbachol (direct acetylcholine mimetic) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is a potent stimulator of sweat, tears, and saliva? |  | Definition 
 
        | pilocarpine (direct cholinomimetic agonist) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug contracts the ciliary muscle of the eye as well as the pupillary sphincter? |  | Definition 
 
        | pilocarpine (direct cholinomimetic agonist) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is used in the challenge tests for diagnosis of asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | methacholine (direct cholinomimetic agonist) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to treat myasthenia gravis? |  | Definition 
 
        | neostigmine (anticholinesterase) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to reverse a neuromuscular junction blockade postoperatively? |  | Definition 
 
        | neostigmine (anticholinesterase) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What indirect acetylcholine agonist is a long-acting drug used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis? |  | Definition 
 
        | pyridostigmine (does not penetrate CNS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a short-acting anticholinesterase used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What anticholinesterase is used to treat glaucoma (because it is able to cross the blood-brain barrier) as well as atropine overdoses? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What other anticholinesterase is used to treat glaucoma? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 diseases are exacerbated by acetylcholine mimetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | COPD, asthma, peptic ulcer disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can cause cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? |  | Definition 
 
        | organophosphates (present in insecticides) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What poisoning causes diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, and salivation? |  | Definition 
 
        | cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? |  | Definition 
 
        | atropine and pralidoxime (regenerates active acetylcholine esterase) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 muscarinic antagonists are used in the eye to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia (paralysis of ciliary muscles in the eye)? |  | Definition 
 
        | atropine, homatropine, tropicamide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat Parkinson's disease? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat motion sickness? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat asthma and COPD? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 2 muscarinic antagonists are used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms? |  | Definition 
 
        | oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 muscarinic antagonists are used to treat peptic ulcers? |  | Definition 
 
        | methscopolamine, pirenzepine, propantheline |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat acetaminophen overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an aspirin overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | sodium bicarbonate to alkalinize the urine, dialysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an amphetamine overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | ammonium chloride (acidifies urine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an overdose on organophosphates (acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an overdose on antimuscarinic or anticholinergic agents? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a beta-blocker overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a digitalis overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | normalize K+, lidocaine, anti-dig Fab fragments, Mg2+ |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an iron overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an acute lead overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a mercury, arsenic, or gold overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dimercaprol (BAL), succimer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat an overdose on copper, arsenic, or gold? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat an overdose of cyanide? |  | Definition 
 
        | nitrite, hydroxocobalamin, thiosulfate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat an overdose of methemoglobin? |  | Definition 
 
        | methylene blue, vitamin C |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat carbon monoxide poisoning? |  | Definition 
 
        | 100% O2, hyperbaric chamber |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a methanol or ethylene glycol overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | ethanol, dialysis, fomepizole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an opioid overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a benzodiazepine overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat an overdose on TCAs? |  | Definition 
 
        | sodium bicarbonate (alkalinize the plasma) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat an overdose of heparin? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat a coumadin overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat an overdose of tPA or streptokinase? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would you use to treat a theophylline overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is known to have atropine-like side effects? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs can cause coronary vasospasm? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are known to cause cutaneous flushing? |  | Definition 
 
        | vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, CCBs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs can cause dilated cardiomyopathy? |  | Definition 
 
        | doxorubicin, daunorubicin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What cardiovascular drugs can cause torsades de pointes? |  | Definition 
 
        | class III (sotalol), class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medications can have the side effect of agranulocytosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine, propylthiouracil, methimazole, dapsone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs have aplastic anemia as one of their side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs, propylthiouracil, methimazole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug causes a direct coombs-positive hemolytic anemia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |