Term
| Which of the following classes of agents would be most appropriate to treat patients with asthma? |
|
Definition
| A beta2 adrenergic receptor agonist |
|
|
Term
| A common side effect of adrenergic blocking agents like alpha adrenergic receptor blockers is a sudden increase in blood pressure when the patient changes position. This is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholinergic muscarinic receptor agonists produce all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who presents in the emergency department after improperly using oranophosphate insecticides would exhibit which of the following effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When assessing for cardiovascular effects of an adrenergic agonist, which physiologic effects would a nurse anticipate? |
|
Definition
| Positive inotropic and positive dromotropic effects |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each of the following physiological responses would be the result of activation of the SNS in a fight or flight type of reaction except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dependent on the patient's attitude |
|
|
Term
| When a drug produces the largest effect that can be produced through that receptor system, the drug is achieving |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ED50 value for any drug is defined as the dose required to: |
|
Definition
| Produce a therapeutic response in half of the population |
|
|
Term
| If a patient discontinues medication, how much of the drug will be left in the patient at the end of two half-lives? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During surgery to remove a pheochromocytoma, the acute increase in blood pressure caused by manipulation of the tumor may be treated with: |
|
Definition
| Alpha adrenergic antagonist |
|
|
Term
| The best way to decrease the first-dose effect of the alpha adrenergic receptor blocking agent prazosin (minipress) is to give: |
|
Definition
| The initial dose at bedtime |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the PNS results in which of the following effects: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine (adrenalin) is an adrenergic drug that produces which therapeutic effect: |
|
Definition
| Increased heart rate and contractility |
|
|
Term
| The three most important characteristics of a drug are: |
|
Definition
| Selectivity, safety, effectiveness |
|
|
Term
| The autonomic nervous system functions to: |
|
Definition
| Regulate and integrate internal functions of the body |
|
|
Term
| Which types of drugs cross the placenta most readily? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person vacationing in the everglades encounters a 14ft alligator. Their glucose level would: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Indirect acting cholinergic agents: |
|
Definition
| Inhibit acetylcholinesterase to increase acetylcholine |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system does not cause: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal volunteers are used for clinical trials in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient needs an endotracheal intubation. Which drug do you administer? |
|
Definition
| Succinylcholine (Anectine) |
|
|
Term
| Drug-drug interactions are important considerations in clinical practice that could result in: |
|
Definition
| The need to adjust drug dosage or timing of administration to ensure effective drug therapy |
|
|
Term
| Health histories should include specific questions about OTC drugs and alternative therapies b/c: |
|
Definition
| Patients do not consider them to be drugs and do not report their use. |
|
|
Term
| The sympathetic nervous system uses chatecholamines to produce effects at the post ganglionic receptors. All of the following would be considered a catecholamine except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Agents that are considered adrenergic drugs produce effects similar to: |
|
Definition
| The sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| Which is true regarding neuromuscular blockade of an agent like pancruim during surgery? |
|
Definition
| Patients require artificial mechanical ventilation due to paralyzed respiratory muscles |
|
|
Term
| After you give a new medication, a patient experiences nausea and vomiting. How do you document? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to describe the type of tolerance associated with long term use of drugs like morphine and heroin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Beta adrenergics are used to treat all except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The objective of drug therapy is to: |
|
Definition
| Provide maximum benefit with minimal harm |
|
|
Term
| A drug listen in an official compendium is listed by its |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which formulation of medication has a rapid onset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is meant by dose-relationship that is graded? |
|
Definition
| As the dose increases, the response becomes greater. |
|
|
Term
| Identify the correct statement regarding potency: |
|
Definition
| Potency is the amount of drug that must be given to elicit an effect |
|
|
Term
| The term bioavailability means: |
|
Definition
| The ability of a drug to remain to reach the systemic circulation from its side of administration. |
|
|
Term
| Pharmacokinetic tolerance results from: |
|
Definition
| Accelerated drug metabolism |
|
|
Term
| The albumin of neonates has a lower binding capacity. You would |
|
Definition
| Reduce the amount of drug given to reduce toxicity |
|
|
Term
| Most neuropharmacological agents act by altering |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mean arterial blood pressure within the vascular system is determined by all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The treatment of hypertension would include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
| The use of digitalis or cardiotonic drugs |
|
|
Term
| A patient who is hypertensive becomes pregnant. You treat her with: |
|
Definition
| Alphamethyldopa (aldomet) |
|
|
Term
| A patient is admitted to the ED for a hypertensive crisis w/ a blood pressure of 201/50. Which would you give? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a patient on low molecular heparin how frequently should labs be monitored? |
|
Definition
| These agents do not require monitoring |
|
|
Term
| Essential hypertension is diagnosed as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common side effect of many drugs used to treat hypertension cause change in blood pressure from sitting to standing. This is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which agent has antiplatelet properties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient has been taking Lasix for 6 months and the patient has been taking digoxin. What do you want to know before administering digoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient with hemophilia has mild pain after a dental procedure. What do you give? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Starling Law focuses on: |
|
Definition
| The force of ventricular contraction. |
|
|
Term
| The mechanism by which losartan (Cozaar) lowers blood presure is by: |
|
Definition
| Blocking angiotensin at its receptors |
|
|
Term
| One of the major reasons patients discontinue catopril (Capoten), an ACE inhibitor, is |
|
Definition
| A dry, unproductive cough |
|
|
Term
| Which drug would counteract an accelerated pulse rate? |
|
Definition
| Propranolol (a beta-blocker) |
|
|
Term
| Which drug calcium channel blocker can be used for dysrhythmias and angina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a Class I antiarrhythmic agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin-induced dysrhythmias can be treated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Absorption of bile acid resins into the plasma: |
|
Definition
| Do not occur, the drug is not absorbed |
|
|
Term
| An increase in lipoprotein is indicative of high risk for developing atherosclerosis. Which one increases the risk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Propafenone (Rhythmol) is classified in the Vaughn Williams as a Class IC antidysrhythmic drugs which means it works by: |
|
Definition
| Blocking NA+ (sodium) channels and altering phase 0 |
|
|
Term
| Which is responsible for the positive inotropic effect of digoxin? |
|
Definition
| The inhibition of the NA+ (sodium) pump |
|
|
Term
| Coronary artery disease/angina pectoris results from |
|
Definition
| An imbalance in the supply and demand for oxygen |
|
|
Term
| The action of aspirin that makes it useful for long term therapy after MI involves: |
|
Definition
| A decrease in platelet aggregation |
|
|
Term
| A common side effect of nitroglycerin is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During digoxin therapy, monitor K+ because |
|
Definition
| Decreased levels of potassium increases the chances of digoxin toxicity |
|
|
Term
| The best response for thrombolytic therapy will occur when it is: |
|
Definition
| Started within 4-6 hours after onset of symptoms |
|
|
Term
| Long term therapy after MI includes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HMGCOa reductase is an enzyme that works in the: |
|
Definition
| Process of formation of cholesterol within the cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Goes away with rest and nitroglycerin |
|
|
Term
| Ace inhibitors produce dry unproductive cough, which of the following is responsible? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following blood vessels is responsible for transport under the highest pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Activation of the baroreceptor reflex produces: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following classes of diuretics act to inhibit NA+ (sodium) and water absorption in the loop of Henle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a side effect of central alpha2 agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of beta blockers that make them effective in variant angina is: |
|
Definition
| Decrease in heart rate and decrease in O2 demand |
|
|
Term
| Which indicates drug therapy for heart failure is ineffective? |
|
Definition
| Patient weighs one pound more than yesterday |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following will you notice first in digoxin toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that block potassium would affect which phase of the fast potential in cardiac cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an EKG has a widened QRS complex increase by 60%, which would you do? |
|
Definition
| Notify the physician immediately |
|
|
Term
| The effect of antidysrhythmic drugs that delay ventricular repolarization can be assessed by monitoring the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Statins are drugs whose action occurs as a result of: |
|
Definition
| Inhibition of HMGCOa reductase |
|
|
Term
| The mechanism by which heparin suppresses coagulation involves: |
|
Definition
| Inactivating thrombin factor XA |
|
|
Term
| Warfarin differs from heparin because: |
|
Definition
| It decreases synthesis of clotting factors |
|
|
Term
| Nitrates are commonly used in angina pectoris because they: |
|
Definition
| Increase O2 demand???? Probably decrease. |
|
|
Term
| Cardiotonic drugs produce a positive inotropic effect. Which mechanism is responsible? |
|
Definition
| Elevation of intracellular CA+ levels in heart muscle. |
|
|
Term
| What cardiac activity is represented by the P wave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clopidogrel (Plavix), in comparison with aspirin, is less likely to cause which adverse effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which statement defines the difference between levodopacarbidopa (Simeset) and plain devodopa? |
|
Definition
| The combination drugs is more effecient in increasing dopamine levels in the brain. |
|
|
Term
| The patient is having opioid withdrawals. Which do you expect to administer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient has tremors, agitation, increase heart rate, blood pressure, and temp. While withdrawing from ETOH, which of the following would be most likely prescribed to manage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are anticholinergic drugs effective in the early stages of Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
| Due to mechanism to antagonize stimulating effects of acetylcholine in the brain. |
|
|
Term
| A patient on monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) therapy should avoid foods that contain tyramine to prevent: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parkinson's has an imbalance of |
|
Definition
| Acetylcholine and dopamine |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a second generation antidepressant also used for nicotine addiction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease that exerts its action by blocking NMDA receptors for glutamate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following mechanisms of action is most closely associated with antipsychotic drugs; These agents act primarily as |
|
Definition
| Dopamine receptor antagonist |
|
|
Term
| Entacapone (Comtan), Tolcapone (Tasmar), and Selegilne (Elaepryl) are used to treat Parkinson's disease. These agents share which one of the following mech's of action: |
|
Definition
| They inhibit enzymes of COMT and MAO that break down dopamine |
|
|
Term
| The action of benzodiazepines involve the interaction of these agents with |
|
Definition
| GABA receptor sites in the brain to cause inhibition of neuronal excitation |
|
|
Term
| Drugs that treat epilepsy have mechanisms directed at |
|
Definition
| Stabilizing overexcited nerve membranes and/or increase neurotransmitter GABA |
|
|
Term
| Non-benzodiazepine-like drug used to treat insomnia when taken at bedtime with minimal or no residual effect is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cause of death from opiates is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which epileptic condition is life threatening where victims do not regain consciousness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What year was Dr. Taylor born? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic effect which means |
|
Definition
| Safe and toxic levels are very close |
|
|
Term
| The drug of choice for treatment of absence (petit mal) seizures is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This agent is one of the drugs used to treat generalized anxiety but does not cause sedation, CNS depression, or have potential for abuse like benzodiazepines: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Barbiturates cause liver enzyme induction which could lead to |
|
Definition
| Rapid metabolism and losss of effectiveness of other drugs metabolized by those enzymes |
|
|
Term
| The desire to obtain a drug despite the potential for physical, psychological, or social harm is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The benzodiazepines are the most freequently used anxiolytic drugs because: |
|
Definition
| They are anxiolytic at much lower doses than those needed for sedation or hypnotics |
|
|
Term
| The antidote for an overdose of acetaminophen is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Balanced anesthesia is the use of: |
|
Definition
| A combination of drugs to produce anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| Chronic treatment with drugs has been associated with changes in the manner in which patients respond. The brain alters its response to drugs by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following defines and anesthetic agent that produces global effects including LOC and deep muscle relaxation: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An elderly patient has slow shallow breaths at 9/minute. Which agent do you administer? |
|
Definition
| Naloxone-an opioid reversal agent |
|
|
Term
| Narcotics (opioids) are drugs that interact with opioid receptors throughout the body and may produce all of the following EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is used to treat ADHD? |
|
Definition
| Methylphenidate (Ritalin) |
|
|
Term
| A common side effect of NSAID drugs is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fluoxetine (Prozac) achieves its antianxiety effects by: |
|
Definition
| Selectively inhibiting serotonin reuptake. |
|
|
Term
| A patient is placed on a tricyclic antidepressant. As the nurse responsible for patient education, you would council this pt to receive full benefit from the drug in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cocaine addicts prefer inhaling crack cocaine because of: |
|
Definition
| Nearly instantaneous elevations result in intense responses |
|
|
Term
| For a drug to exert an effect on the brain, it is necessary for the drug to get into the brain through: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Local anesthetics stop axonal conduction by blocking: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This atypical antipsychotic agent blocks both serotonin and dopamine receptors, has more potential to cause diabetes, but less potential to produce extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) than conventional antipsychotics: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An overdose of a benzodiazepine can be treated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of low-dose apirin therapy following an MI is to: |
|
Definition
| Suppress platelet aggregation |
|
|
Term
| The most effective method for the treatment of addicts is: |
|
Definition
| A combination of techniques to modify drug-using behaviors |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of mu opioid receptors can produce which of the following effects: |
|
Definition
| Constipation, Miosis, Euphoria |
|
|
Term
| Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is very similar to aspirin in most aspects. However, the compound lacks which of the following properties of apirin? |
|
Definition
| Anti-inflammatory properties |
|
|
Term
| A 6 year old son of your neighbor has a fever of 103 during a bout of chicken pox. You should suggest which medication: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following agents is a synthetic derivative of the major active substance in marijuana? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flu-like symptoms is an adverse effect most commonly associated with which of the following agents to treat MS? |
|
Definition
| Both Interferon beta-lb (Betaseron) and Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) |
|
|
Term
| The use of succinylcholine with an inhalational general anesthetic predisposes the pt to the development of malignant hyperthermia. What do you treat M.H. with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following agents used to treat acute migraine attacks works by acting as an agonist at serotonin 5HT1B/D receptors as well as suppressing CGRP release? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Replacing dopamine in the brain would seem to be the best treatment for Parkinson's disease. This is difficult because dopamine: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One major process by which resistance has developed to the penicillins is that bacteria have developed: |
|
Definition
| An enzyme that metabolizes penicillin |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following classes of cephalosporins would be the most active against gram-negative organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following classes of antibiotics would be responsible for discoloration of permanent teeth in children/fetuses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The treatemnt of Lyme disease employs the use of a macrolide antibiotic such as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amphotericin B and nystatin are antifungal agents whose mechanism of action involves binding to membrane sterols and destroying integrity of the cell membrane? Why specific for fungi? |
|
Definition
| The main sterol in fungi cell membrane is ergosterol |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is used to prevent the severe thrombocytopenia that is often associated with chemotherapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who has end-stage renal failure and has been admitted to the hospital for severe anemia may receive which of the following drugs to stimulate RBC production? |
|
Definition
| Erythropoietin (Epoetin alpha) |
|
|
Term
| Cell cycle specific and cell cycle nonspecific agents are frequently combined to treat cancer patients. The rationale for such a combo used is based upon all of the following except: |
|
Definition
| The two drugs antagonize the actions of each other in normal cells only |
|
|
Term
| 9-fluorocytocine is an antifungal drug that specifically affects fungi w/o interfering with normal cells. The reason for this selectivity is the conversion of 5-fluorocytosine into which of the following antimetabolites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ciprofloxacin, a widely used antibiotic, is an example of which class of antibiotic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Are bactericidal b/c they interfere with bacterial cell walls |
|
|
Term
| One commonly associated adverse effect related to sulfonamide use is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Virus infections have been proved difficult to treat b/c |
|
Definition
| Viruses inject themselves into human cells to survive and reproduce |
|
|
Term
| The rationale for using combo therapy in treatin HIV infection includes all of the following except: |
|
Definition
| The drugs are cheaper when used in combination |
|
|
Term
| Fungi that cause infections of skin/mucous membranes are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During therapy with interferons, the most common side effects and adverse effects include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spectrum of activity of an anti-bacterial indicates: |
|
Definition
| The antibacterial effectiveness against different invading organisms |
|
|
Term
| Superinfections involving candida are infections that are commonly associated with antibiotic use. A pt with this type of infection would exhibit: |
|
Definition
| Vaginal discharge or white patches in the mouth |
|
|
Term
| An example of an antibacterial agent used as a means of prophylaxis would be: |
|
Definition
| An antibiotic used before dental surgery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability of a drug to attack only those systems found in foreign or abnormal cells |
|
|
Term
| A patient with shingles who is being treated with topical antiviral therapy using acyclovir should be warned about which of the following side effects? |
|
Definition
| Transient burning when applied |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following statements is true regarding actions of antiviral drugs? |
|
Definition
| Antiviral agents are only effective while the virus is replicating, and replication is often finished by the time symptoms appear |
|
|
Term
| A bacteriostatic substance is one that: |
|
Definition
| Prevents growth of any bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Antibiotics that are used together to increase their effectiveness and limit the associated adverse effects are said to be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following symptoms or lab results might be expected in a pt experiencing a serious toxicity to the aminoglycoside antibiotic, gentamycin? |
|
Definition
| Tinnitus and hearing loss |
|
|
Term
| Patients who are allergic to penicillin may also be hypersensitive to which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients who will be taking a tetracycline antibiotic should be adequately informed about which of the following interactions? |
|
Definition
| Milk and cheese products result in decreased levels of tetracycline |
|
|
Term
| Stomatitis is a potential side effect of treatment with the antineoplastic agent, 5-fluorouracil. Which of the following instructions would you provide? |
|
Definition
| She should examine her mouth daily for bleeding, white spots, and ulcerations |
|
|
Term
| Aminoglycosides act on microorganisms by: |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting protein synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Combinations of antibiotics should be used: |
|
Definition
| When the patient has been diagnosed with TB |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of administering probenecid with cefotaxime (Claforan) is to: |
|
Definition
| Delay the renal excretion of cefotaxime |
|
|
Term
| A patient has had a mild reaction to penicillin G in the past. If a penicillin-type drugs is needed, which of the following might be used with this patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is administered orally to treat persistent infections of the toenails? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dissociation of methamine into ammonia and formaldehyde poses significant risks for patients with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Administration of gentamycin with general anesthetics increases the risk of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amikacin (Amikin) is unique among aminoglycosides in that is: |
|
Definition
| Is reserved for infections proven to be resistant to aminoglycosides |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following observations is important for patients receiving cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
| Monitor patient's BUN and serum creatinine |
|
|
Term
| Cytotoxic drugs are not the drugs of first choice for immunosuppression because they: |
|
Definition
| Are toxic to all proliferating cells |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of administration of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is to: |
|
Definition
| Prevent production of antibodies to eliminate Rho(D) antigens in the blood of an Rh-negative woman |
|
|
Term
| Vitamin K is the antidote for: |
|
Definition
| Oral anticoagulants (warfarin) |
|
|
Term
| A patient has recently received a bone marrow transplant and the physician orders sargamostim (leukin), an agent that is a granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor. Which is not stimulate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vincristine is classified as a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which chemotherapy agent permits safe administration of high doses of methotrexate by allowing normal cells to produce thymidylate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiotoxicity that occurs with cytotoxic anticancer drugs are classified as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following properties are characteristic of neoplastic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cancer drug effective in eliminating growing cancer cells will exert the least effect if the cell is in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cytotoxic drugs injure the digestive tract primarily because: |
|
Definition
| They destroy the rapidly growing epithelial lining of the GI tract |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following agents would be most effective in treating an established infection? |
|
Definition
| Systemic antiinfective such as penicillin |
|
|
Term
| Dr. Taylor's youngest daughter was born on which day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Syphilis is highly responsive to: |
|
Definition
|
|
