Term
| 1. What element is in contrast media used in radiology that is injected intravenously? |
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Definition
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Term
| 2. When comparing hypodermic needle lumen sizes, which one is smaller: 19-gauge or 21-gauge? |
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Definition
| a. 21; the larger the number (of the gauge), the smaller the lumen |
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Term
| 3. What is the technologist’s response to swelling around an IV site in addition to calling for a nurse? |
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Definition
| a. Clamp off the IV and apply a warm compress to the site |
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Term
| 4. What is administration of a drug by penetrating the skin? |
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Definition
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Term
| 5. How far above the vein should the solution for an IV infusion be kept? |
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Definition
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Term
| 6. What is the preferred site for an IV? |
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Definition
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Term
| 7. What is the usual flow rate for an adult’s IV? |
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Definition
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Term
| 8. What is it called when solution is leaking into the tissues? |
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Definition
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Term
| 9. What is the proper means of disposal for contaminated needles? |
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Definition
| a. The uncapped needle is dropped into a red sharps container |
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Term
| 10. Is nitroglycerin a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor? |
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Definition
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Term
| 11. Where is the basilic vein located that is commonly used as the injection site for intravenous urography (IVU) or intravenous pyelography (IVP) studies? |
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Definition
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Term
| 12. In what group of drugs is penicillin found? |
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Definition
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Term
| 13. In what group of drugs is Dilantin found? |
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Definition
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Term
| 14. In what group of drugs is epinephrine found? |
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Definition
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Term
| 15. In what group of drugs is heparin found? |
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Definition
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Term
| 16. What are common sites for intramuscular injections? |
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Definition
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Term
| 17. In what group of drugs is Demerol found? |
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Definition
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Term
| 18. What is the most common use for Benadryl? |
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Definition
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Term
| 19. What is the most common use for Aminophylline? |
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Definition
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Term
| 20. What is the most common use for Digoxin? |
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Definition
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Term
| 21. What route of administration is chosen when a very rapid response is desired? |
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Definition
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Term
| 22. How is nitroglycerin administered? |
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Definition
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Term
| 23. What does a sublingual administration refer to? |
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Definition
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Term
| 24. In what group of drugs is Benadryl found? |
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Definition
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Term
| 25. What does synonymous mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| 26. What other drug is the same as epinephrine? |
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Definition
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Term
| 27. What does the abbreviation IM stand for? |
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Definition
| Intramuscular method of administering a drug |
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Term
| 28. What is the diameter of a needle called? |
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Definition
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Term
| 29. What is one of the primary steps to take before administering drugs by IV? |
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Definition
| Check patient identification |
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Term
| 30. A tourniquet is used during intravenous injections. When should the tourniquet be removed? |
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Definition
| After insertion but before injection |
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Term
| 31. When practicing standard precautions, how should any contact with blood or body fluids be considered? |
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Definition
| Any exposure has the potential of being infectious |
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Term
| 32. What is the escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue? |
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Definition
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Term
| 33. What is an injection of a large amount of a pharmaceutical preparation? |
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Definition
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Term
| 34. What is generally considered to be a low flow rate for a drip IV infusion? |
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Definition
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Term
| 35. What is the appearance of a negative contrast agent on a finished radiographic image? |
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Definition
| Greater density than the surrounding tissue |
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Term
| 36. What type of positive contrast agent does not dissolve into charged particles? |
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Definition
| Non-ionic water-soluble iodinated contrast media |
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Term
| 37. What does a high osmolarity for water-soluble iodinated contrast media mean in terms of adverse reactions? |
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Definition
| a. It has more particles in solution and increased adverse reactions |
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Term
| 38. What is considered to be the reason allergic reactions to water soluble iodinated contrast media occur? |
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Definition
| The release of histamine by the cells of the body |
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Term
| 39. What is the term for the number of particles in solution per kilogram of water? |
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Definition
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Term
| 40. What must be included on the chart about drugs administered? |
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Definition
| a. Time of day b. Drug name c. Dose d. Route of administration |
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Term
| 41. What are common reactions to contrast media that generally do not require any treatment? |
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Definition
| a. Altered or metallic taste, nausea and vomiting, feeling of flushing or warmth, headache, pain at injection site |
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Term
| 42. What are some methods used to help make veins more prominent when they are difficult to locate? |
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Definition
| a. Allow the arm to hang, apply hot packs, pat or rub the area |
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Term
| 43. What are some of the more common patient factors to be considered before administering contrast media? |
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Definition
| a. The history or presence of renal disease, the presence of hypertension, age |
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Term
| 44. What is the greatest disadvantage of oil based iodinated contrast media? |
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Definition
| a. It is not water soluble, so the body does not absorb it |
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Term
| 45. What is the radiographic study that is still performed and oil based iodinated contrast is still used? |
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Definition
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Term
| 46. How should an IV for contrast media administration be discontinued? |
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Definition
| a. Place gauze over injection site; quickly, smoothly, and gently remove the cannula from the vein; elevate extremity; and apply pressure until all bleeding stops |
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Term
| 47. After administration of contrast media how should the needle and syringe be discarded? |
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Definition
| a. Do not bend or break the needle before discarding the syringe, do not remove the needle from a disposable syringe, and do not recap the needle |
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Term
| 48. What is the abbreviation for prescription? |
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Definition
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Term
| 49. How is the best venipuncture site chosen? |
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Definition
| a. The most distal site in which the desired size needle can be used; and the amount to be administered |
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Term
| 50. What is the usual needle angle recommended for intravenous injections? |
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Definition
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Term
| 51. What is the state of being thick, sticky, and semi-fluid in consistency? |
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Definition
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Term
| 52. What is a severe constricting pain or sensation in the chest that may radiate to shoulder or arm that is related to coronary artery disease? |
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Definition
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Term
| 53. What is used to relieve pain from angina pectoris? |
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Definition
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Term
| 54. What is considered a normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN)? |
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Definition
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Term
| 55. What is a quantity of medication introduced over a period of time? |
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Definition
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Term
| 56. What is a primary disadvantage to using non-ionic water-soluble contrast media? |
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Definition
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Term
| 57. What are primary advantages of using non-ionic water-soluble contrast media? |
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Definition
| a. Low toxicity and fewer adverse reactions |
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Term
| 58. How does the gauge relate to the diameter of the needle? |
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Definition
| The greater the gauge, the smaller the diameter |
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Term
| 59. What is the diameter of a needle’s lumen called? |
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Definition
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Term
| 60. What drug is generally used to treat dysrhythmias? |
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Definition
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Term
| 61. What vasopressor drug is generally used for cardiac arrest or anaphylactic reactions? |
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Definition
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Term
| 62. What is a venous device used for intravenous injections at frequent or regular intervals? |
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Definition
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Term
| 63. What must the professional administering drugs know about the drug? |
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Definition
| a. Potential side effects and adverse reactions to the drug |
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Term
| 64. Which drugs bear the legend “Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription?” |
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Definition
| Those administered parenterally |
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Term
| 65. What is the drug name assigned to a drug by a particular manufacturer of the drug? |
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Definition
| Proprietary or trade name |
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Term
| 66. What is the drug name that presents the exact chemical formula of a drug and always remains the same? |
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Definition
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Term
| 67. What is the drug name given to the drug before its official approval for use? |
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Definition
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Term
| 68. What are the actions of a drug on living tissues in the body called? |
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Definition
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Term
| 69. What determines the rate and extent of distribution of a drug to its intended site of action after it is absorbed into the body? |
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Definition
| Adequate blood circulation |
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Term
| 70. After administration of iodinated contrast media, how are itching and difficulty breathing classified? |
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Definition
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Term
| 71. What happens with many drugs that when combined with another drug can become inactivated or form a toxic compound; or, when two drugs are combined they increase the effect of each drug than when given alone? An example of this is when a dose of heparin given with alcohol increases bleeding. |
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Definition
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Term
| 72. While a radiographer may never have to mix two drugs into the same syringe s/he must remember to consult _____ before doing so, should the need ever arise. |
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Definition
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Term
| 73. When an emergency arises, what is the role of the radiographer regarding emergency drugs? |
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Definition
| a. To know the location of the emergency cart and how to access it |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| 76. What are the five rights of drug administration? |
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Definition
a. PDART:
i. The right patient
ii. The right drug
iii. The right amount/dose
iv. The right route
v. The right time |
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Term
| 77. Who is allowed to prescribe medications? |
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Definition
| a. Licensed physicians, dentists, podiatrists |
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Term
| 78. What are enteral routes of drug administration? |
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Definition
| a. Oral, sublingual, buccal, and rectal |
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Term
| 79. What are the topical routes of drug administration? |
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Definition
| a. Skin for local treatment of lesions or skin conditions; to the eyes, nose, and throat; to respiratory mucosa by inhalation; to the vagina and rectum; and applied to the skin for systemic effect |
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Term
| 80. What are the primary parenteral routes of drug administration? |
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Definition
| a. Subcutaneous, intradermal, intramuscular, intravenous |
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Term
| 81. Which groups of patients will have special needs for drug administration? |
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Definition
| The elderly, infants, and children |
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Term
| 82. How many times must the site for venipuncture be cleansed with an antiseptic solution? |
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Definition
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Term
| 83. What assessments must the radiographer make for the site of an intravenous infusion while it is in place? |
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Definition
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Term
| 84. How many times should the label of a drug be read before it is administered? |
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Definition
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Term
| 85. What does the abbreviation qd mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| 86. What does the abbreviation prn mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| 87. What does the abbreviation hs mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| 88. What does the abbreviation stat mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| 89. What is the degree of angle for administering IM injections? |
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Definition
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Term
| 90. What types of drugs may radiographers administer? |
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Definition
| a. Intravenous contrast media (agents) such as for IVPs or barium sulfate (ba) for GI studies |
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Term
| 1. What is the most common type of mechanical ventilator used in hospitals? |
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Definition
| Positive pressure ventilator |
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Term
| 2. How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) delivered to the patient? |
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Definition
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Term
| 3. Who should be called to perform emergency suctioning if profuse vomiting occurs in a patient who cannot voluntarily change position, if audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming form the patient’s throat, or if signs of respiratory distress occur? |
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Definition
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Term
| 4. What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too high in the trachea? |
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Definition
| Air may enter the stomach |
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Term
| 5. What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too low in the trachea? |
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Definition
| a. The tube may enter the right main bronchus which would result in the collapse of the left lung |
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Term
| 6. How is the proper position of an endotracheal tube confirmed? |
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Definition
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Term
| 7. What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube? |
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Definition
| 5-7cm above the tracheal bifurcation (the carina) |
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Term
| 9. What are some of the uses for central venous catheters? |
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Definition
| a. Parenteral nutrition, frequent blood transfusions, hyperosmolar solutions, and long term medication administration |
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Term
| 10. What are some of the more common types of nasogastric tubes? |
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Definition
| a. Levin, Sump, Nutriflex, Moss, and Sengstaken-Blakemore |
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Term
| 11. What is the purpose of nasogastric tubes? |
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Definition
| a. Administration of medications and feeding |
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Term
| 8. What is an opening into the windpipe called? |
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Definition
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Term
| 1. When a mobile radiograph of the seven cervical vertebrae is performed in the lateral projection for a trauma patient how many of the cervical vertebrae must be included on the image? |
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Definition
| a. All seven cervical vertebrae |
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Term
| 2. Which diagnostic image is quite often performed as a routine order for trauma patients? |
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Definition
| Chest, because it provides so much information |
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Term
| 3. What are some of the types of conditions usually considered to be the cause of traumatic injury? |
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Definition
| a. Choking, falling, drowning, vehicle accidents, assaults, sports injuries |
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Term
| 4. When performing trauma radiography of the bones, a minimum of two images is required with the images at what angle to each other? |
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Definition
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Term
| 5. What type of fracture has the bone fragments exposed? |
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Definition
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Term
| 6. What type of force results in traumatic injury? |
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Definition
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Term
| 7. When performing mobile diagnostic imaging for traumatic injuries, various equipment is required, but at a minimum what are some usual equipment needs? |
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Definition
| a. IR, grid, radiation detection monitor for radiographers, lead aprons, R and L markers |
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Term
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Definition
|
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Term
| 9. Where should a CVP line be inserted? |
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Definition
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Term
| 10. What should be placed in the chest cavity to evacuate fluid from the pleural cavity? |
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Definition
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Term
| 11. What is the term describing air in the pleural cavity? |
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Definition
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Term
| 12. What is the term describing the presence of blood in the pleural cavity? |
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Definition
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Term
| 13. When involved with traumatic injuries that have the possibility of blood and body fluids spraying the face, in addition to the exam gloves needed for contact, what other PPE (personal protective equipment) will be needed? |
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Definition
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Term
| 14. All patients with head injuries should always be considered to have what other type of injury until radiography rules it out? |
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Definition
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Term
| 15. When head and cervical spine injuries are to be treated for a trauma patient, what type of fracture must be ruled out before a patient may be allowed to move without immobilization? |
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Definition
| Cervical spine - always at least a cross-table lateral |
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Term
| 16. When moving a patient with an injury to an extremity how should the part be supported? |
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Definition
| a. The entire limb, and both joints above and below the fracture site |
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Term
| 17. Trauma is the leading cause of death for what age group? |
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Definition
| a. Groups under 44 years of age (“trauma” is another word for “accidents” in this context) |
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Term
| 18. What types of lines may be demonstrated by mobile chest images to verify proper placement? |
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Definition
| a. PICC, Hickman, and CVP lines (catheters) |
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Term
| 19. Which life threatening conditions may be suspected when performing acute abdominal radiography? |
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Definition
| a. Blunt or penetrating trauma, appendicitis, bleeding ulcers, ectopic pregnancy, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, and bowel obstruction |
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Term
| 20. When may trauma patients with suspected cervical spine fracture have the cervical collar removed? |
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Definition
| a. When the patient’s primary physician or the physician in charge has viewed and cleared the cervical spine radiographic image |
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Term
| 1. What are the considerations required for proper scheduling of diagnostic examinations? |
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Definition
a. Procedures that require fasting must be done in the morning. This is especially important when scheduling diabetic, elderly, or pediatric patients.
b. All examinations or procedures that do not require contrast media should be scheduled first.
c. Ultrasonography and nuclear medicine procedures must be scheduled prior to contrast studies, so that the contrast will not interfere with these examinations.
d. Iodinated contrast studies must be performed prior to barium studies, and the barium is denser and will obscure the iodinated contrast.
e. When a patient is scheduled for both upper and lower GI systems with barium, the lower GI series should be scheduled first, as barium clears quickly from the lower bowel, whereas if the upper GI study is done first, the barium will take days, perhaps several weeks for the barium to filter through lower system and be expelled. Retained barium in the lower GI study will inhibit visualization of that area. |
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Term
| 2. What are some of the conditions that may be treated by the creation of a stoma through which the contents of the bowel can be eliminated? |
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Definition
| Cancer, diverticulitis, and ulcerative colitis |
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Term
| 3. What procedure is performed to find the reason for abdominal pain, a change in bowel habits (constant diarrhea or constipation); to diagnose cancer; to determine the location of parasites; or why blood, mucus, or pus is found in the stool? |
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Definition
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Term
| 4. What type of soap is the only safe type for soapsuds enemas? |
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Definition
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Term
| 5. Why may soap be added to tap water or to normal saline for soapsuds enemas? |
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Definition
| a. To increase irritation of the intestine to promote peristalsis and defecation before a barium enema |
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Term
| 6. What are the two types of positive contrast media? |
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Definition
| Iodinated contrast and barium |
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Term
| 7. When does barium have the most potential for an adverse effect to occur? |
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Definition
| a. If there is a break in the gastric mucosa caused by injury or disease, the barium sulfate may pass into the respiratory tract, into the peritoneal cavity, or into the bloodstream |
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Term
| 8. What is the most frequently chosen contrast medium for radiologic examination of the GI tract? |
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Definition
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Term
| 9. How does a negative contrast agent affect organ density? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 10. Is a negative contrast agent radiolucent or radiopaque? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 11. How does a positive contrast agent affect organ density? |
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Definition
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Term
| 12. Is a positive contrast agent radiolucent or radiopaque? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. What are examples of negative contrast agents? |
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Definition
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Term
| 14. What are the two contrast agents used in a double-contrast radiographic study of the gastrointestinal system? |
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Definition
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Term
| 15. Which positive contrast agent is contraindicated when a patient has a suspected bowel obstruction? |
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Definition
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Term
| 1. What type of catheter has one lumen for continuous urinary drainage and one lumen for instilling sterile water into the balloon? |
|
Definition
| Indwelling catheter with a double lumen |
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Term
| 2. What is a radiographic technique performed by a radiologist or urologist to visualize the proximal ureters and the kidneys for obstruction after injection of an iodinated contrast medium? |
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Definition
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Term
| 3. What is the radiographic imaging of the urinary bladder? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 4. What is a radiological procedure used to visualize abnormalities of the urinary system, including the kidneys, ureters, and bladder? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 5. What is radiography of the urinary bladder and urethra? |
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Definition
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Term
| 6. What is radiography of the urethra studied as the patient voids upon removal of the catheter? |
|
Definition
| Voiding cystourethrography |
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Term
| 7. What is the sign used to determine that the introduction of a urethral catheter into the bladder has been placed properly? |
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Definition
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Term
| 8. The drainage of urine, the instilling of medication, and the insertion of contrast into the bladder are all reasons to perform what procedure? |
|
Definition
| Catheterization of the urinary bladder |
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Term
| 9. What should be done before cleansing a patient for catheterization? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 10. What type of catheter is used after surgery to allow the patient urinary emptying? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| 11. Which catheter is used to obtain a specimen or to empty the bladder and then removed? |
|
Definition
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Term
| 12. Which type of catheter is inserted and left in place to allow for continuous drainage of urine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 13. Why is a strict surgical aseptic technique maintained during catheterization of the urinary bladder? |
|
Definition
| a. To prevent urinary tract infections |
|
|
Term
| 14. In what patients is cystography generally contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. When performing cystography on patients with a UTI, why must special considerations be made? |
|
Definition
| a. The possibility of spreading the infection to other pelvic organs |
|
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Term
| 16. What type of catheter is placed directly into the bladder by means of an abdominal incision? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. How does aging affect the absorption of vitamin B12? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. How does aging affect the size of the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. How does aging affect enzyme activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. How does aging affect bile storage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5. What is the most commonly seen complication that occurs after hip arthroplasty in geriatric patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. If a geriatric patient finds lying on the hard radiographic table uncomfortable and painful, what can be done to improve this? |
|
Definition
| Place a radiolucent pad on the table |
|
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Term
| 7. What may a lack of affection towards an elderly patient by a caregiver indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. What may answering questions for an elderly patient by a caregiver indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. What may inappropriate sexual behavior by a caregiver around an elderly patient indicate? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 10. What may unconcern for an elderly patient’s comfort indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11. Because dislocation is the most common complication of arthroplasty, what should every technologist be aware of when caring for a patient after this corrective surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 12. What may the appearance of a new “best friend” assisting with bill paying in secret for an elderly patient indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. Are symptoms of dementia, including disorientation, confusion, gross memory deficits, paranoid ideation, hallucinations, and depression part of the normal aging process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14. Which site is the most common for arthroplastic surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. Hypertension, arthritis, diabetes mellitus, pulmonary disease, and visual and hearing impairments are common conditions requiring what type of care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 16. Heart diseases, strokes, and cancer are common conditions associated with what type of result? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. When should elderly patients be scheduled for difficult diagnostic examinations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18. Why are additional or warm blankets helpful to prevent discomfort or hypothermia during radiographic examinations? |
|
Definition
| a. Decreased circulation is a normal cardiovascular problem of elderly patients |
|
|
Term
| 19. What is an abnormally increased convexity in the thoracic spine curvature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20. Nails losing their luster with yellowing and thickening, areas of the skin losing their pigment with possible appearance of purple macules and senile purpura, and skin on the back of the hands and forearms becoming thin and fragile are all normal changes of the aging in which system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 21. Why is it recommended to use a barium enema tip with an inflation cuff for elderly patients undergoing a barium enema examination? |
|
Definition
| A normal loss of sphincter control |
|
|
Term
| 22. Esophageal motility declines, abdominal muscles weaken, and gastric secretion, absorption, and motility decreases are all normal changes of aging of which system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 23. Muscle strength decreases, flattening of the normal lordotic curve of the lower back, decreasing muscle mass, and changes in posture and gait are all normal changes of aging of which system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. Which age group is not fearful of strangers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. Which age group is the “age of initiative”? |
|
Definition
| a. Preschoolers (3-6 years) |
|
|
Term
| 3. Which age group is the “age of identity”? |
|
Definition
| a. Adolescents (12-19 years) |
|
|
Term
| 4. Which age is fearful of strangers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5. When should immobilizers be used? |
|
Definition
| a. Only when no other means are safe or logical |
|
|
Term
| 6. When performing radiographic procedures for pediatric patients, whose help may be enlisted to assist the technologist performing the procedure? |
|
Definition
| a. Parents, nurses, other health care workers, another technologist |
|
|
Term
| 7. How may a sheet be used as a form of immobilization? |
|
Definition
| a. Properly folded or as a mummy-style wrap |
|
|
Term
| 8. How might sandbags be used as a form of immobilization? |
|
Definition
| a. Place beside the area to prevent movement towards the sides; do not place on the patient or in the field to be x-rayed |
|
|
Term
| 9. Besides checking for the possibility of pregnancy and the proper use of lead aprons and other radiation protection equipment, what is necessary to use with the mother of a child for immobilization purposes? |
|
Definition
| a. Communication and detailed instructions |
|
|
Term
| 10. What is the usual length of time for handwashing before entering the NICU? |
|
Definition
| At least 2 minutes or the hospital's protocol |
|
|
Term
| 11. What is the best method of making a child feel at ease and establishing communication before an imaging procedure? |
|
Definition
| Making eye contact at the child's level if at all possible |
|
|
Term
| 12. Due to the fact that the cells in the body of a child are rapidly growing, rapidly changing, easily damaged, and very radiosensitive, what precautions should be strictly adhered to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. When child abuse is suspected by the behavior of a child having a radiographic procedure, who should be notified of these suspicions? |
|
Definition
| a. The person at the institution who makes these types of inquiries and required reports. Notifying the wrong person/s could be catastrophic! |
|
|
Term
| 14. Regardless of the type of examination being performed, what should be communicated to a child if the procedure will be painful or very uncomfortable? |
|
Definition
| a. Tell the patient but also reassure them by being concise, honest, and friendly |
|
|
Term
| 15. When should pediatric patients be restrained? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 16. What is the recommended tone to be used with pediatric patients? |
|
Definition
| Non-threatening and age-appropriate communication |
|
|
Term
| 17. What type of immobilizer may be used for upright radiography of the chest and abdomen of an infant or small toddler? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18. When a technologist returns a pediatric patient back to his or her room and into a crib, what safety precaution is required? |
|
Definition
| a. Make sure the side rails are up on the crib |
|
|
Term
| 19. Which age group should be allowed to confirm his or her own identity, have the procedure explained directly to him or her, and have a concern for the patient’s privacy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20. All patients are to have maximum radiation protection used for them. What is a major concern that must be addressed with adolescent patients? |
|
Definition
| Addressing the possibility of pregnancy for female patients |
|
|
Term
| 21. Is it appropriate for the radiographer to inform preschool children of the disease that may be diagnosed by the procedure being performed? |
|
Definition
| No, it is not age-appropriate |
|
|
Term
| 22. What age group may be given the results of images by the radiographer for the radiographs taken? |
|
Definition
| At no age, child or adult! |
|
|
Term
| 1. What is the condition that is a metabolic disease resulting from a chronic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. Why is anaphylactic shock the type of shock most often seen in the diagnostic imaging department? |
|
Definition
| a. Water soluble iodinated contrast media is used for many of the imaging procedures |
|
|
Term
| 3. What is the medical term for fainting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. What are the mild systemic reactions associated with the use of contrast agents? |
|
Definition
| a. Nasal congestion; periorbital swelling; itching; sneezing; tearing of eyes; peripheral tingling or itching at the site of injection; itching of palms or soles of feet; feeling of fullness or tightness of the chest, mouth, or throat; feeling of anxiety or nervousness |
|
|
Term
| 5. What is an abnormally high amount of glucose in the blood called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. What is the term that means a heart rate of greater than 100 beats per minute? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. What is the result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| Anaphylactic shock/anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
| 8. What is an occlusion of one or more pulmonary arteries by a thrombus or thrombi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. What causes can be associated with pulmonary embolus? |
|
Definition
| a. Usually deep vein thrombus associated with trauma; orthopedic and surgical procedures; pregnancy; congestive heart failure; prolonged immobility; hypercoagulable states |
|
|
Term
| 10. Which type of diabetes mellitus usually occurs in persons younger than 30 years of age, has an abrupt onset, and results from the body failing to produce insulin and the affected person must receive insulin by injection to control blood glucose levels in the body and prevent ketoacidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11. What are the moderate systemic reactions of anaphylactic shock? |
|
Definition
| a. All mild systemic reactions plus flushing, feeling of warmth, itching, urticaria (hives), bronchospasm and edema of the airways or larynx, dyspnea, cough, hoarseness, and wheezing |
|
|
Term
| 12. What is the body’s pathologic reaction to illness, trauma, or severe physiologic or emotional stress? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. Cold and clammy skin, pallor, nausea and dizziness, increased respirations from shortness of breath, anxiety level increases and possible uncooperativeness, blood pressure decrease, and pulse rate increase are indications of what disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14. Where might skin discoloration associated with cyanosis be observed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. Which condition is associated with the pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 16. Which position should a patient experiencing fainting be placed in? |
|
Definition
| a. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated (Trendelenburg) |
|
|
Term
| 17. Sweet smelling breath, increased urination, and extreme thirst are associated with what diabetic condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18. Which type of shock is often associated with pulmonary embolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 19. What life saving technique is used for choking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20. Which type of shock is often associated with myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 21. Severe hemorrhaging from an injury requires which type of immediate emergency response? |
|
Definition
| a. Call for assistance from the ER and apply pressure to the site of the bleeding |
|
|
Term
| 22. If a patient is placed on the x-ray table in the Trendelenburg position because s/he feels faint should the patient be left alone to call for help? |
|
Definition
| No, do not leave them on the table unattended |
|
|
Term
| 23. What medication is essential for a patient in a diabetic coma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 24. What does a patient need if s/he has taken insulin but not eaten and becomes weak? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 25. A defibrillator is the mechanical device used to correct what condition? |
|
Definition
| Ineffectual cardiac rhythm |
|
|
Term
| 26. What is the term associated with difficulty swallowing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 27. In performance of CPR for infants, how do the number of chest compressions for infants compare to those for adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 28. What condition is cerebral vascular accident (CVA) associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 29. What is the term for the most severe form of seizure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 30. What is the term for a less severe form of seizure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 31. When will brain damage begin to occur from a lack of oxygen? |
|
Definition
| 4-5 minutes - CPR must begin within 1-3 minutes |
|
|
Term
| 32. What type of shock is associated with a loss of body fluids or blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 33. What can be the result of a patient taking his/her regular dose of insulin when having food and water restricted for a radiologic procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 34. What is a radiographer’s first response to a patient having a seizure in the diagnostic imaging department? |
|
Definition
| Prevent injury to the patient |
|
|
Term
| 35. What is the first response for a radiographer caring for a patient who feels dizzy or faint? |
|
Definition
| Have the patient lie down |
|
|
Term
| 36. What is another term for a myocardial infarction (MI)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 37. What can insufficient blood supply to the brain from heart disease, hunger, poor ventilation, extreme fatigue, and emotional trauma cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 38. What immediate treatment can be given to a patient in insulin shock that is still conscious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 39. What type of shock is associated with a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 40. What is the first immediate response for a severe laceration of the skull that is bleeding profusely? |
|
Definition
| Direct application of pressure to the wound |
|
|
Term
| 1. What is the preferable site for taking a pulse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. Which vital signs assessment is being performed when the patient is seated or lying supine, the chest is observed for movement symmetry, and skin color is noted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. A consistent diastolic reading greater than 90 mm Hg may be an indication for what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. How does medically induced hypothermia affect the body’s need for oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5. What is the highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle? |
|
Definition
| Systole (systolic blood pressure) |
|
|
Term
| 6. Why must oxygen use be ordered by a physician? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. What is the normal oral body temperature for an adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. What is an abnormally rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. Which pulse site requires the proper use of a stethoscope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 10. Which device is used to measure the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11. Why must sparks and flames be prevented when oxygen is in use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 12. What is considered to be the most reliable and accurate site for taking a temperature? |
|
Definition
| Rectally, even though this method is only used with infants and children |
|
|
Term
| 13. What forms of taking a temperature are considered to be convenient, but unreliable? |
|
Definition
| Temperature-sensitive patches on the abdomen or forehead |
|
|
Term
| 14. Usually, if a patient’s pulse is rapid, then the blood pressure is ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. Is the pulse rate for an infant faster or slower than that for an adult? |
|
Definition
| a. Much faster, approximately 115-130 beats per minute for infants and 70-80 beats per minute for adults |
|
|
Term
| 16. What is the usual rectal temperature for an adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. A consistent systolic reading greater than 140 may be an indication for what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18. When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the top? |
|
Definition
| a. Systolic (contraction phase of heart muscle) |
|
|
Term
| 19. When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the bottom? |
|
Definition
| a. Diastolic (relaxation phase of heart muscle) |
|
|
Term
| 20. What is the normal average rate of respiration for an adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 21. What vital sign is being prepared for when one gathers together a stethoscope, sphygmomanometer, and watch with a second hand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 22. What is the normal range of diastolic blood pressure for an adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 23. What are the units of measurement for blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| mm Hg (millimeters of mercury) |
|
|
Term
| 24. When taking a pulse, which blood vessels are best suited? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 25. What do the symptoms retraction of the intercostal spaces, cyanosis, and dyspnea indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. What is a fenestrated drape? |
|
Definition
| A drape with one or more openings |
|
|
Term
| 2. When wearing a lead apron during a radiographic exam, where should the radiation detection monitor be located? |
|
Definition
| Outside the apron at the collar level |
|
|
Term
| 3. The three zones of the surgical suite are Zone 1: An unrestricted zone, Zone 2: A semirestricted zone, and Zone 3: A restricted zone. In which zone must ALL persons wear scrub dress, shoe covers, and masks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. Why is catheterization considered to be an invasive procedure? |
|
Definition
| Sterile technique must be observed |
|
|
Term
| 5. What are Alcohol (70%), chlorine compounds, and glutaraldehyde considered to be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. What is the practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. During the performance of radiographic procedures, everyone in the adjacent area (in the room) should be wearing protective radiation apparel, such as a lead apron. In the surgical suite during the operative procedure, which persons should be wearing protective radiation apparel? |
|
Definition
| a. Everyone who remains during the X-ray exposures |
|
|
Term
| 8. Generally, when radiographer/s are in the operating room, they are not scrubbed-in, but must follow general Zone 3 dress and what else? |
|
Definition
| a. Handwashing for 3 minutes plus scrub suit, shoe covers, cap, and mask (gloves are not usually needed) |
|
|
Term
| 9. What is the complete removal of microorganisms and their spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 10. In regards to surgical asepsis, what are the responsibilities of a radiographer? |
|
Definition
| a. Maintain a sterile field and perform skin prep, and perform surgical scrub |
|
|
Term
| 11. What is the assumption when the sterility of an object is in question? |
|
Definition
| a. That it is not sterile – do not use; considered contaminated |
|
|
Term
| 12. Which corner of a sterile pack is opened first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. When the sterile person begins placing the sterile drapes, which drapes are placed first? |
|
Definition
| The drapes closest to the sterile person |
|
|
Term
| 14. How is the (patient’s) skin prepped for a sterile procedure? |
|
Definition
| Begin at the inside of the site and scrub in a circular motion to the outside |
|
|
Term
| 15. A wet area on a sterile field is considered contaminated. If this occurs what should be done? |
|
Definition
| Place several thicknesses of sterile towels over the contaminated area |
|
|
Term
| 16. What is the most effective sterilization technique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. When portable x-ray units are brought into the operating room, what is the essential preparation that must be performed? |
|
Definition
| Wipe the unit with disinfectant (do not just dust it off) |
|
|
Term
| 18. When preparing to pour liquids into a container on a sterile field, precautions must be taken to prevent the solution from splashing and drips from landing on the tray, what are some of these precautions? |
|
Definition
| a. Place lid face upward and well above the sterile tray and pour off a small amount before pouring remainder into the sterile container |
|
|
Term
| 19. In designing an operating room, many possible hazards are considered and protections put into place, such as explosions and electrical shocks. What is the greatest hazard that cannot be placed into the physical design? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20. How should persons in sterile dress pass each other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 21. Where on the front of the gown is the area considered sterile? |
|
Definition
| In front, above the waist, including the arms |
|
|
Term
| 22. When in sterile dress, where should the sterile gloved hands be kept? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 23. If no one is in the room, is it acceptable for the sterile field to be left unattended? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 24. In order to prevent explosions in the operating room, what precautions are generally taken? |
|
Definition
| a. Use antistatic cleaners for equipment, use the specially designed electrical plugs, and wear apparel with antistatic/flame retardant materials (shoe covers and other garment have antistatic strips made in them) |
|
|
Term
| 25. Generally, what areas are considered sterile in the operating room? |
|
Definition
| a. Draped patient, surgeon and scrub nurse, and instrument table and instruments |
|
|
Term
| 26. What is the complete removal of all microorganisms from an object called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 27. What does an autoclave use to sterilize objects placed inside? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 28. What should be done with sterilized objects with no expiration date? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 29. When wearing a sterile gown, how is the lead apron worn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 30. When performing skin prep and/or painting the skin, how many passes with the same sponge may be made? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 31. Why are sterile techniques used for urinary catheterization and any other invasive procedures related to the urinary tract? |
|
Definition
| The urinary tract is sterile, including the urinary bladder |
|
|
Term
| 1. What types of infections are increasing in development due to the increased resistance of microorganisms to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
| Hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infections |
|
|
Term
| 2. What is the most common site of hospital-acquired infection to develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. What is the most successful method of infection control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. What were Standard Precautions formerly known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5. What practice is based on the assumption that all patients are potential sources of infectious disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. What is the institution that inspects work sites and protects employees and students from work-related injuries and illnesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. When are clean exam gloves to be worn by a radiographer? |
|
Definition
| a. Anytime the radiographer may in contact with blood or bodily fluids |
|
|
Term
| 8. In what manner are all used needles and syringes treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. What precaution is acceptable to protect others in the area should a patient be coughing and sneezing in a waiting area? |
|
Definition
| Ask them to refrain from coughing and sneezing near others |
|
|
Term
| 10. What personal protection is required to enter a strict isolation unit with a portable machine? |
|
Definition
| a. Cassette covers, cap, gown, and at least 2 pairs of clean exam gloves |
|
|
Term
| 11. What is the responsibility of a radiographer receiving a needle stick injury? |
|
Definition
| To report the injury and to receive treatment |
|
|
Term
| 12. Before entering a strict isolation room for an imaging procedure, what are some items the radiographer should prepare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. A vascular access device may be the potential cause of what type of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14. What type of bacteria are Staphylococci as it relates to the body as a potential source of disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. What causes influenza? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 16. What causes hepatitis A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. What causes tuberculosis, streptococcal infections, Salmonella poisoning, gonorrhea, syphilis, staphylococci, bacilli, and tetanus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18. What causes malaria and giardiasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 19. What causes coccidioidomycosis and thrush? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20. What precautions must a health care worker who has cold symptoms take before entering the newborn nursery? |
|
Definition
| The worker is not allowed in the area |
|
|
Term
| 21. The removal by mechanical and chemical processes of pathogenic microorganisms, but frequently not their spores is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 22. What is the method of pathogen spread when a person is coughing or sneezing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 23. What method of disposal is used for discarded and disposable items after completing a radiographic procedure in a strict isolation area? |
|
Definition
| Discard items in biohazard bags |
|
|
Term
| 24. What is the establishment and growth of microorganisms on or in a host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 25. What is the means of disease transmission when an animal or insect spreads pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 26. What type of container is used for the disposal of needles, syringes, and other sharp items? |
|
Definition
| Puncture-resistant containers |
|
|
Term
| 27. What means of disease transmission is kissing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 28. What type precaution is necessary for droplet transmission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 29. What types of precautions are used for a communicable disease? |
|
Definition
| Transmission-based precautions |
|
|
Term
| 30. What type of transmission involves the spread of disease through contaminated water or food? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 31. What is the term for any disease-producing microorganism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 32. What is the practice used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 33. An infectious agent and a reservoir of available organisms, an environment in which the pathogenic microbes can live and multiply a portal of exit from the reservoir, a means of transmission, and a portal of entry into a new host are all elements needed for the ___ of infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 34. Are hand lotions an acceptable skin care regiment in a health care environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 35. ___ contact occurs when a susceptible person actually touches an infected or colonized person’s body surface in an area where infectious microbes are present, such as bodily fluids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 36. ___ contact occurs when a susceptible person touches or comes into contact with an object that has been contaminated with infectious microorganisms, such as fomites and vectors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 37. What is the type of isolation that protects an immune deficient patient having such conditions as burns and leukemia? |
|
Definition
| Protective (reverse) isolation |
|
|
Term
| 38. Should contaminated areas be cleaned from the most contaminated to the least or the least to the most? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 39. Should contaminated areas be cleaned from the bottom up or the top down? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 40. What are Clorox and Lysol examples of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 41. Are gloves generally indicated when caring for those with droplet precautions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 42. Are masks generally indicated when caring for those with MRSA precautions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 43. Are masks generally indicated when caring for those with airborne precautions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 44. Is isolation in negative pressure rooms generally indicated for MRSA patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 45. What personal protection items are required when entering an area with contact isolation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 46. An angiogram is an invasive radiographic procedure requiring the introduction of contrast media via puncture and/or cutting into the skin and the vascular system. The splattering of blood and body fluids may occur. What type of protection should be in place for eye care? |
|
Definition
| Goggles or other special protective eyewear |
|
|
Term
| 47. Biopsies and procedures where blood and body fluids are likely to splatter require what type of protective eye care? |
|
Definition
| Goggles or other special protective eyewear |
|
|
Term
| 48. A common radiographic procedure involving the ingestion of barium or other contrast media is the upper gastrointestinal exam. What type of protective eye care is necessary for this type of noninvasive exam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 49. During portable radiographic exams in a strict isolation area, one team member is considered the clean person and one is considered the “dirty” or contaminated person. In this type of relationship which one makes the exposure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 50. What should occur if a health care worker has cracks or abrasions of the skin? |
|
Definition
| These should be properly cared for and kept covered. |
|
|
Term
| 51. The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease reaches its fullest extent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 52. The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease enters the body and may lie dormant for a short period and then begin to multiply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 53. The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease begins to disappear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 54. The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease has the most specific symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 55. When should the pillowcase on the radiographic table be changed? |
|
Definition
| After each use - do NOT just flip the pillow over |
|
|
Term
| 56. What is the reduction of microorganisms in the immediate environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 57. What should be done with cassettes after they are used for an isolation patient? |
|
Definition
| Disinfected before being returned to storage/use |
|
|
Term
| 58. What is an infection caused by physician intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 59. Is tuberculosis transmitted through blood infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 60. What are the general classifications for yeasts and molds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 61. What is considered to be the most effective medical aseptic technique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 62. What is the cause of the common cold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 63. What response do white blood cells have to an invasion of the body by pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 64. What is an item to which microorganisms cling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. Name some of the aspects of a patient’s health assessed by a professional. |
|
Definition
| Cultural background, mental and physical state |
|
|
Term
| 2. Define channel communication. |
|
Definition
| A written page or spoken word |
|
|
Term
| 3. Physiological needs are a person’s most basic needs according to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. What are the stages of grief and what occurs during each stage? |
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Definition
| Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance |
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Term
| 5. Which stage of grief is a patient in when s/he begins to deal with the pain and other aspects of the illness? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 6. An informed consent form is necessary for invasive procedures and those requiring sedation. What is an example of a procedure performed in the imaging department requiring informed consent? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 7. The first stage of the grieving process is denial according to ___. |
|
Definition
| Dr. Elizabeth Kubler Ross |
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Term
| 8. Barium sulfate is commonly administered for gastrointestinal procedures. It is a metallic salt suspension in water. The body will extract and excrete the water leaving the heavy metallic salt in the GI tract unless the patient receives proper instructions to follow. What are some of the common instructions? |
|
Definition
| Contact the physician if there is no bowel movement in 24 hours, changes in stool color will occur until all of the barium sulfate is evacuated, and increase fluid and fiber intake for several days |
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Term
| 9. What type of communication precautions should be taken with an unconscious patient? |
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Definition
| Reassure the patient about what is being done, refer to the patient by name, make only those statements that would be made to a conscious patient |
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Term
| 10. What are the common elements of the patient’s medical chart apart from patient identification? |
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Definition
| Medical history, diagnostic and therapeutic orders and results, informed consent |
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Term
|
Definition
| Sincerity and truthfulness |
|
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Term
| 12. What course of action should be followed if the imaging requisition differs from the patient’s description of the complaint or injury? |
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Definition
| Verify with the referring physician |
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Term
| 13. Does a patient have the right to see his/her chart while in the RT’s possession? The answer is no, so what is the best response? |
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Definition
| Inform the patient that s/he has the right to see the chart but that s/he should request to view it with his physician so that it is interpreted properly |
|
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Term
| 14. What is the difference between subjective and objective data? |
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Definition
| Objective data is based on facts and concrete evidence; and subjective data is based on judgment by an individual and personal opinion |
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Term
| 15. What abilities are required for critical thinking? |
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Definition
| Interpretation and evaluation |
|
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Term
| 16. What is the first step in problem solving? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 17. When performing tasks that have been successfully performed before, what is the mode of thinking used? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 18. When does a radiographer consider the need for patient assistance for a particular patient? |
|
Definition
| During the implementation of the plan of care |
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Term
| 19. When are a patient’s customs and values considered? |
|
Definition
| During patient assessment |
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Term
| 20. What is an expectation a patient can have from his/her radiographer? |
|
Definition
| A person who is attentive to the patient's needs |
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Term
| 21. What skill does a successful communicator possess? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 22. What is nonverbal communication? |
|
Definition
| All stimuli other than the spoken word |
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Term
| 23. Should age and gender be considered when communicating with a patient? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 24. When a patient makes a verbal statement to a radiographer it is important to repeat the idea to the patient to make sure everyone understands what is going on. What is this? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| 25. A response to the patient that keeps the feeling and meaning of the patient’s verbal expression in mind is communicating in what manner? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 26. What essential information should a radiographer obtain from a female patient when taking the patient’s history? |
|
Definition
| Last menstrual period and possibility of pregnancy |
|
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Term
| 27. What is the correct response for a patient who has suffered a serious loss? |
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Definition
| Be supporting and allow the patient to retain hope |
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Term
| 28. Is there any action a radiographer should take if caring for a seriously ill patient and there is no health care directive on the patient’s chart? |
|
Definition
| Yes, inform supervisor or patient's physician |
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Term
| 1. To whom is a health care worker’s primary responsibility? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 2. If the image produced during a patient’s procedure is not diagnostic or lacking information the radiologist needs to make an interpretation, is it an acceptable practice to repeat the image? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. Is it acceptable to criticize physicians and other team members? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| The threat of touching a person in a harmful manner |
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Term
|
Definition
| Touching someone without permission |
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Term
| 6. Regarding the rights of patients, can a patient refuse an exam? |
|
Definition
| Yes, it is a tort if done after refusal |
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Term
| 7. Regarding the rights of patients, can an RT add images to a procedure because the patient requests it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. Regarding patient’s rights, is the patient entitled to know the technologist’s name that is performing the procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. Regarding patient’s rights, is the technologist supposed to tell the patient if there are risks associated with the procedure to be performed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 10. Regarding ARRT sanctions, will they result from inadequate radiation protection by failing to shield the patient properly? |
|
Definition
| No, but it unethical and a tort |
|
|
Term
| 11. Regarding ARRT sanctions, will they result if a student or RT is convicted of a felony? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 12. Regarding ARRT sanctions, will they result if the RT attempts to interpret images or share any other information about the images to the patient? |
|
Definition
| No, but they could be fired because it's not in their scope of practice |
|
|
Term
| 13. What information is required on an image? |
|
Definition
| 13. Patient name/ID, date of exam, right or left marker, and institution’s ID |
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|
Term
| 14. What offense has an RT committed if s/he shares confidential information about a patient with a third party? |
|
Definition
| Invasion of privacy and a tort |
|
|
Term
| 15. What does respondeat superior mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 16. What are some of the common terms associated with the legal document that authorizes another to make health care decisions when the patient is unable to? |
|
Definition
| 16. Advanced health care directive, living will, health care proxy |
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Term
| 17. When may a fax (facsimile) containing health information legally be sent? |
|
Definition
| 17. When urgently needed for patient care, third party payer hospital certification |
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Term
| 18. What is slander and invasion of privacy categorized as? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 19. Regarding patient consent, can unnecessary blanks be left empty on consent forms the patient signs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20. Regarding patient consent, must the physician who signs the consent form perform the procedure or can other physicians in the same practice perform the procedure too? |
|
Definition
| Only the physician who signs |
|
|
Term
| 21. Regarding patient consent, is it necessary for a patient to sign before receiving sedation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 22. Accidents happen and sometimes an injury is just as much the fault of the patient as the health care provider, what is this called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 23. What could an RT be charged with if the wrong part of the body is imaged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 24. An RT may be required to work under a variety of different circumstances and conditions that depend on their place of employment. One condition one must be ready for in this profession is working with all ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 25. Diagnostic procedures and their diagnosis are considered to be ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
| Privileged and confidential |
|
|
Term
| 26. What type of consent occurs when a procedure that is necessary to save a life is performed without the patient’s agreement because the patient is incapable of giving permission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 27. What defines the role of the radiologic technologist (RT) and establishes the criteria used to evaluate performance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 28. What can a radiographer do to help maintain a high level of expertise in the health care profession? |
|
Definition
| Joining professional organizations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 29. A set of moral principles that govern one’s course of action |
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|
Term
| 30. What would the mistake be considered if the wrong medication or contrast agent was administered to a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 31. When can a patient have restraints applied? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 32. Which parties must be included on an incident report? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 33. Which regulatory body is commonly referred by health care workers as that requiring evidence of a high quality of care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 34. Can a patient request his/her records in order to obtain a second opinion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 35. Is it an acceptable procedure for a patient to withhold information from the radiographer concerning previous treatment for communicable disease(s)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1. What does ambulatory mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. How do you assist a patient with a broken limb? |
|
Definition
| Support the entire limb including both joints |
|
|
Term
| 3. Which direction is a disabled patient turned on an x-ray table? |
|
Definition
| Turn the patient toward you |
|
|
Term
| 4. In reference to the spine, what is important to remember when lifting a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5. Describe the Fowler position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. Describe how to move a heavy object. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 7. When an ambulatory patient is getting off of an x-ray table that does not have an adjustable height capability, what will the patient need? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. In addition to referring to a patient by name, how is the identity of a patient verified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9. What is the placement of a wheelchair in relation to the x-ray table when transferring a patient? |
|
Definition
| Close to the table, at approximately a 45-degree angle |
|
|
Term
| 10. Where should a urinary bag be located while transferring the patient from the stretcher to the x-ray table? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11. What is the most common work-related injury among health care workers? |
|
Definition
| Back problems from improper lifting |
|
|
Term
| 12. For a patient with a brain injury, what patient position should be maintained when being transferred? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13. Describe the Trendelenburg position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14. In reference to good body mechanics, when lifting, are the knees locked and straight or bent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15. When assisting a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table and the patient has a stronger side, which side is closer to the table? |
|
Definition
| The stronger side is closer to the table |
|
|
Term
| 16. What method of moving is used for patients with suspected spinal injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17. What is important to remember when a patient has a urinary catheter and a drainage bag? |
|
Definition
| Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder |
|
|
Term
| 18. When assisting a patient in a wheelchair, what should be done with the footrests? |
|
Definition
| Move them aside; do not let the patient step on or trip over them |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The sensation of breathlessness in the recumbent position |
|
|
Term
| 20. Describe the best way to reduce friction when moving a patient. |
|
Definition
| Place patient arms across the chest and use a pull sheet |
|
|
Term
| 21. What must be done when a patient is transported back to the room and assisted back into the bed? |
|
Definition
Side rails up
Bed in low position
Call button close at hand |
|
|
Term
| 22. What is the best method to move a seriously ill and/or weak patient from a stretcher (gurney) to an x-ray table? |
|
Definition
| Move by smooth mover (smoothing board) and 3 assistants |
|
|
Term
| 23. In reference to proper undressing, how should a patient in the x-ray department for a procedure be directed? |
|
Definition
| Escort the patient to the dressing room and give undressing instructions |
|
|
Term
| 24. Is it necessary to know a patient’s HIV status in order to care for the patient? |
|
Definition
| No - we protect ourselves using Standard Precautions at all times |
|
|
Term
| 25. Patients are physically immobilized when necessary. What is the most effective form of immobilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 26. Locate a person’s center of gravity. |
|
Definition
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