Term
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Definition
| The study of drugs and their effect on living organisms |
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Term
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Definition
| The use of drugs to prevent, diagnose, or treat signs, symptoms, and disease processes |
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Term
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Definition
| Effects that are confined to the site of application |
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Term
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Definition
| Effects that are carried throughout the body |
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Term
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Definition
| drug name used for marketing purposes. Ex: Amoxil, Trimox |
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Term
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Definition
| drug name that usually includes the drug group. Ex: Amoxicillin |
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Term
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Definition
| Drug name that is independent of the manufacturer. Ex: amoxicillin. |
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Term
Prototype
Ex:) penicillin is the prototype for antibacterial drugs |
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Definition
| An individual drug that represents groups of drugs. Often the first drug of a group to be developed |
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Term
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Definition
| The movement of a drug through the body to reach sites of action, metabolism, and excretion. "What the body does to the drug." |
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Term
| Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion |
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Definition
| The sequence of drug movement through the body is... |
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Term
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Definition
| Process that occurs from the time a drug enters the body to the time it enters the bloodstream to be circulated |
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Term
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Definition
| Transport of drug molecules within the body. |
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Term
| Metabolism (Biotransformation) |
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Definition
| The method by which drugs are inactivated or biotransformed by the body |
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Term
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Definition
| The organ in which most drugs are excreted |
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Term
| Enteric coatings, GI function, food in stomach |
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Definition
| Name 3 factors that can affect absorption of drugs |
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Term
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Definition
| Involves drug actions on target cells and the resulting alterations in cellular biochemical reactions and functions. "What the drug does to the body." |
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Term
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Definition
| Drug metabolism primarily takes place in which organ? |
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Term
| Kindeys, Lungs, Bowel, Skin |
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Definition
| Name 4 organs of drug excretion |
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Term
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Definition
| Condition in which the amount of drug given equals the amount eliminated from body. Maximum therapeutic effects do not occur until this is established. |
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Term
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Definition
| Amount of time for half of a dose to be eliminated from the body. Reflects the rate of metabolism and excretion. |
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Term
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Definition
| Drug that produces effects similar to those produced by naturally occuring hormones, neurotransmitters, or other substances |
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Term
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Definition
| Drug that inhibits cell function by occupying receptor sites |
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Term
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Definition
| maximum amount of drug absorbed |
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Term
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Definition
| proteins located on the surfaces of cell membranes or within cells |
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Term
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Definition
| nontypical or unpredictable response to a drug |
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Term
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Definition
| designation given to a drug that has many adverse effects. the worst label given by the FDA. |
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Term
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Definition
| occurs when the body becomes accustomed to a particular drug over time so that larger doses must be given to produce the same effects |
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Term
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Definition
| tolerance to pharmacologically related drugs; for example, an alcoholic needs higher doses of sedative-type drugs or general anesthetics |
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Term
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Definition
| when two drugs with similar actions are given, the effect of both rugs is increased. Ex) alcohol (ethanol) + sedative drugs |
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Term
| synergism (or potentiation) |
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Definition
when two drugs with different sites or mechanisms of action produce greater effects when taken together.
Ex) tylenol + codeine |
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Term
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Definition
| when one drug's effect may result in an intensified effect of a 2nd drug. can lead to toxic effects |
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Term
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Definition
| when one drugs releases a 2nd drug from protein-binding sites, the effect of the 2nd drug's effect is increased because it is no longer bound to the protein and becomes pharmaccologically active. Ex) aspirin + warfarin = increased coagulation effect |
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Term
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Definition
| a drug given to antagonize or reverse the effect of another drug |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Right drug
Right dose
Right patient
Right route
Right time
Right to refuse |
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Definition
| What are the 6 "rights" of drug administration? |
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Term
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Definition
| category of drugs with no approved medical use, with high potential for abuse. Ex) heroin, LSD |
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Term
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Definition
| category of drugs that are medically useful, but have high potential for abuse. Ex) opiods, amphetamines, barbiturates |
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Term
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Definition
| category of drugs with less abuse potential, including anabolic steroids, mixtures containing small amounts of controlled substances, non-amphetamine CNS stimulants |
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Term
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Definition
| category of drugs with less abuse potential, including antianxiety agents and sedatives |
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Term
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Definition
| category of drugs with limited abuse potential, including antitussive-containing codeine, Lomotil (for diarrhea) |
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Term
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Definition
| pregnancy category in which there have been no demonstrated risks to fetus |
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Term
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Definition
| pregnancy category in which there have been no adequate studies in women |
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Term
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Definition
| pregnancy category in which there are known adverse effects on fetus |
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Term
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Definition
| pregnancy category in which there is evidence of fetal risk, and the benefit is weighed against the risk |
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Term
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Definition
| pregnancy category in which the risk to the fetus outweighs the benefit |
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Term
| Enteral routes of administration |
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Definition
| Oral, GI tube, tablet, capsule, syrup, elixir, suspension...which route of administration are these? |
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Term
| Parenteral routes of administration |
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Definition
| Subcutaneous, intramuscular, intravenous, and intradermal... which type of administration? |
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Term
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Definition
| Inhalation, Sublingual, Rectal/Vaginal suppositories, otics, opthalmics, transdermal... which type of administration are these? |
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Term
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Definition
| This route of administration uses 20-22 gauge needles, 1-1/2" long, to give up to 3 mL of a medication |
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Term
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Definition
| Up to 1 mL of medicine can be given in a 25 gauge, 5/8" needle using this route |
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Term
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Definition
| NSAIDs, Antibiotics, Digoxin, and Lithium are examples of drugs that are toxic to which organ? |
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Term
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Definition
| INH, Valium, Demerol, Dilantin, acetaminophen, and statins are toxic to which organ? |
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Term
| Renal status/Kidney function |
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Definition
| BUN, serum creatinine, and urine output are ways to monitor ________? |
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Term
| Liver status/Hepatic function |
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Definition
| Bilirubin, Albumin, ALT, and AST are labs used to determine the status of which organ? |
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Term
| Nausea, Vomiting, Liver Enlargement, Jaundice |
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Definition
| List 4 signs of Hepatic Impairment |
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Term
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Definition
| Primary source or origin of each heartbeat |
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Term
| The stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart. The increased volume of blood stretches the ventricular wall, causing cardiac muscle to contract more forcefully. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| What disease can be treated with diuretic and either an ACE inhibitor or an Angiotensin-Receptor Blocker? Digoxin can also be added |
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Term
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Definition
| Used to treat acute, severe heart failure |
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Term
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Definition
| The only commonly used cardiac glycoside |
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Term
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Definition
| Most commonly used form of Digoxin |
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Term
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Definition
| Therapeutic range of Digoxin |
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Term
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Definition
| An agent that alters the force of muscular contractions |
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Term
| Pumping ability of the heart |
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Definition
| In HF, Digoxin exerts a positive inotropic effect that improves the ________________. |
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Term
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Definition
| This class of drug strengthens myocardial contractions and increases cardiac output. BUT, they can cause hypertension, tachycardia, increased cardiac workload, and increased oxygen consumption |
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Term
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Definition
| ACE inhibitors are usually given in combination with a(n) _________. |
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Term
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Definition
| These drugs act mainly to decrease activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in patients with heart failure |
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Term
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Definition
| The major effects of which class of drugs are dilation of veins AND arteries, decreased preload and afterload, decreased workload of the heart, and increased perfusion of body organs and tissues? |
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Term
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Definition
| This class of drug prevents excess catecholamine that damages myocardial cells. As a result, ventricular remodeling regresses, and the heart returns toward a more normal shape and function |
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Term
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Definition
| open ion channels, increase calcium influx, result in vasoconstriction. Ex) epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine |
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Term
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Definition
| related to synapses in brain; when stimulated, cause decreased sympathetic outflow (resulting in decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure). Ex) Catapres |
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Term
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Definition
| stimulate heart. increase heart rate and blood pressure, increase conduction through AV node, increase contractility. |
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Term
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Definition
| produce bronchodilation and relax uterine smooth muscle |
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Term
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Definition
| Drugs that inhibit activity of the Sympathetic Nervous System |
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Term
| Alpha-1 receptor blockers (antagonists) |
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Definition
-dilate arteries and veins
-lower peripheral vascular resistance
-lower blood pressure
-relax smooth muscle of prostate
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Term
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Definition
| Orthostatic hypotension with palpitations, dizziness and syncope occur 1-3 hours after first dose. This is called ___________. |
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Term
| Alpha-1 receptor blockers |
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Definition
| Used to treat hypertension and BPH (enlarged prostate) |
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Term
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Definition
| The main use for Catapres, an alpha-2 receptor agonist, is to treat _____________. |
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Term
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Definition
| Agents that increase urine output |
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Term
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Definition
| the names of this class of drug ends with -lol |
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Term
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Definition
Mechanisms of action for this drug include:
-decrease heart rate
-decrease force of contraction
-decrease renin / blood pressure
-decrease AV conduction
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Term
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Definition
| Can be selective (blood pressure OR heart rate) or non-selective (blood pressure AND heart rate) |
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Term
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Definition
| Drug class of choice after MI or for angina |
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Term
Fatigue
Bradycardia
Hypotension
AV blocks
Heart failure
Bronchospasm
Hypoglycemia |
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Definition
| 7 Adverse effects of Beta blockers |
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Term
Positive inotropic (increased force)
Negative Chronotropic (decreased heart rate)
Negative Dromotropic (decreased AV node conduction) |
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Definition
| What are the 3 therapeutic effects of Digoxin? |
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Term
| Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, headache, fatigue, confusion, dysrhythmia |
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Definition
| Adverse effects of Digoxin toxicity |
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Term
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Definition
| Which electrolyte is very important to monitor during digoxin treatment? |
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Term
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Definition
| If a patient on Digoxin gains weight, this indicates that ___________________. |
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Term
| Vasodilation (both arteries and veins) |
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Definition
| What is the major mechanism of action of Nitroglycerin? |
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Term
| Management and prevention of acute angina, severe heart failure, acute MI |
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Definition
| What are nitrates used for? |
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Term
| Headache, Postural hypotension, Increased heart rate |
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Definition
| What are 3 adverse effects of nitrates, all caused by the vasodilating effects of the drug? |
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Term
| Give up to 3 doses, each 5 minutes apart. If symptoms not relieved, call 911 |
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Definition
| Describe how to use sublingual nitro in the event of an acute anginal attack. |
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Term
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Definition
| When applying a transdermal nitro patch, a nurse should remember to _________ to avoid absorbing some of the medication. |
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Term
| Ranexa (can cause prolonged QT intervals) |
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Definition
| Which sodium channel inhibitor is used to treat chronic angina? |
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Term
|
Definition
Which class of drugs produces the following actions?
-Dilation of coronary and peripheral arteries
-Decreased blood pressure and mycardial oxygen demand
-Depressed conduction through SA and AV nodes
-Decreased myocardial contractility
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Term
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Definition
| When used to treat angina, which class of drugs improve blood supply to myocardium by dilating peripheral arteries? |
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Term
| Hypotension, dysrhythmias, dizziness, weakness, headache, peripheral edema, constipation |
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Definition
| What are the adverse effects of calcium channel blockers? |
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Term
| ACE inhibitors block the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II, thereby decreasing aldosterone production and reducing Na and water retention |
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Definition
| How do ACE inhibitors work? |
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Term
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Definition
| Which class of drug's names usually end with '-pril'? |
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Term
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Definition
| 10-20% (but probably more) of patients on this type of drug experience cough, hypotension, hyperkalemia. Also, these drugs are NOT recommended when you're knocked up |
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Term
| Angiotensin II receptor blockers |
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Definition
| When a patient experiences adverse effects from ACE inhibitors (cough, hyperkalemia), they are likely to be switched to what class of drug? |
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Term
| Decreased blood pressure due to decreased systemic vascular resistance |
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Definition
| The major beneficial effect of ARBs is ____________? |
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Term
Adults - 0.25 mg daily
Elderly - 0.125 mg daily
Children - dose based on weight |
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Definition
| What are the standard maintenance dose amounts of digoxin? |
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Term
| Digitalizing (or loading) dose |
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Definition
| A certain amount of digoxin given in the first 24 hours to create a therapeutic effect is called _______. |
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Term
| Directly relax smooth muscle in blood vessels, resulting in dilation and decreased peripheral vascular resistance. Also reduce afterload. |
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Definition
| How do direct acting vasodilators work? |
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Term
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Definition
| Which direct acting vasodilator acts on both venules AND arterioles? |
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Term
| Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil (Loniten) |
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Definition
| Which two direct acting vasodilators act mainly on arterioles? |
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Term
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Definition
| DO NOT give Beta-2 receptor blockers to patients with what condition? |
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Term
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Definition
| This type of diuretic inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, which then prevents reabsorption of water |
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Term
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Definition
| What is the prototype, and most commonly used, loop diuretic? |
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Term
1-2 minutes
Hearing loss / Tinnitus |
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Definition
| Over how many minutes should you push I.V. Lasix? What can happen to a patient if you push I.V. Lasix too fast? |
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Term
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Definition
| T or F: Lasix can be given to patients with impaired renal function. |
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Term
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Definition
| After giving Lasix, check patient's blood pressure. One indication that the Lasix is working is _________. |
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Term
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Definition
| These drugs block the reabsorption of Na and Cl in the distal convoluted tubule. |
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Term
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Definition
| Which type of diuretic depends on adequate kidney function? |
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Term
| Electrolyte imbalances (Na, Cl, K, Mg, Ca) |
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Definition
| What is the major adverse effect of thiazide diuretics, especially in the elderly? |
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Term
| Edema, Heart Failure, Hypertension |
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Definition
| What three conditions are diuretics typically used to treat? |
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Term
| Loop, thiazide, potassium-sparing |
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Definition
| Name the 3 classes of diuretics. |
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Term
| Potassium-sparing diuretic |
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Definition
| Diuretic that promotes retention of K |
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Term
| Spironolactone (Aldactone) |
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Definition
| Prototype of K-sparing diuretics |
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Term
| Hyperkalemia, menstrual irregularity, gynecomastia (breast development in men), impotence, hirsutism |
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Definition
| Adverse effects of K-sparing diuretics |
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Term
| Limit intake of potassium, including green leafy vegetables and K supplements and salt substitutes containing potassium |
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Definition
| What dietary instructions should be given to patients taking potassium-sparing diuretics? |
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Term
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Definition
| Diuretics should be given at what time of day? |
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Term
| hydration, weight, glucose, electrolytes, BP |
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Definition
| What are some important nursing assessments to note when caring for a patient taking a diuretic? |
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Term
| Triglycerides, Cholesterol |
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Definition
| What are the 2 main blood lipids? |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Nausea, dyspepsia, diarrhea, constipation, headache |
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Definition
| What are some adverse effects of HMG-CoA inhibitors? |
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Term
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Definition
| HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors are better known as what? |
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Term
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Definition
| What is the most widely used statin? |
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Term
| Inhibit action of enzyme needed for the syntesis of cholesterol in the liver |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| How long does it take for statins to start working? How long until maximum effects are achieved? |
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Term
| Fibrates (Lopid and Tricor) |
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Definition
| Which drug inhibits production of VLDL and triglycerides in the liver and increases the breakdown of lipoproteins? |
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Term
| Increased HDL and lower triglycerides |
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Definition
| What are two desired effects of fibrates? |
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Term
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Definition
| What is the most effective drug for increasing the concentration of HDL cholesterol? This drug has flushing and pruritis (itching) among its adverse effects. |
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Term
| Cholesterol is synthesized at night |
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Definition
| Why should statins be given in the evening? |
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Term
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Definition
| Which drug, given in combination with statins, inhibits absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine? |
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Term
|
Definition
| List 2 examples of antiplatelet drugs? |
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Term
| Heparin, LMWH (Lovenox), and warfarin (Coumadin) |
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Definition
| Name three anticoagulant drugs. |
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Term
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Definition
| Major adverse effect of anticoagulants is...? |
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Term
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Definition
| What lab value must be closely monitored when patients are on heparin? (This is why it is only administered in a hospital setting.) |
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Term
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Definition
| "mini clots", which can be created by atrial fibrilation, are also known as _________. |
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Term
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Definition
| What type of drugs are given to prevent formation of new blood clots and the extension of existing clots? |
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Term
| prevent or manage thrombophlebitis, DVT, pulmonary embolism |
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Definition
| What are 3 uses of anticoagulants? |
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Term
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Definition
| Patients with a-fib, or who have had valve replacement surgery, will be on which drug for the rest of their life? |
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Term
| INR (International Normalized Ratio). Low INR indicates high chance of clot, while high INR indicates high chance of bleeding. |
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Definition
| What lab value is monitored to assess the efficacy of Coumadin? |
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Term
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Definition
| What is the anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy? |
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Term
| H.I.T. (Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia) |
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Definition
| Which condition, occuring in 1-3% of heparin users, is characterized by low platelet count and a hyperthrombotic state? |
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Term
|
Definition
| What is the desired level of INR in patients on coumadin? |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
-Given SubQ
-Do NOT require close monitoring
-Less likely to cause thrombocytopenia than heparin |
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Definition
| What are 3 advantages of Low Molecular Weight Heparins, making them better for home use? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Arterial thrombi are composed mostly of _________. |
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Term
| there isn't an antidote for aspirin |
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Definition
| What is the antidote for aspirin? |
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Term
|
Definition
| amount of blood ejected with each heart beat (approx. 60-90 mL) |
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Term
|
Definition
| heart rate X stroke volume = _____? |
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Term
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
antiadrenergics
calcium channel blockers
diuretics
direct vasodilators |
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Definition
| Name 6 classifications of antihypertensive drugs |
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Term
|
Definition
| which classifications of antihypertensive agents are recommended for diabetic clients? (because they slow the progression of renal impairment) |
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Term
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Definition
| When used as an antihypertensive agent, this class of drugs prevent angiostensin II from binding to receptor sites, reducing SVR |
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Term
Catopril (Capoten)
Enalapril (Vasotec)
Fosinopril (Monopril)
Ramipril (Altace)
...note they all end in -pril |
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Definition
| List the names of some ACE inhibitors |
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Term
Losartan (Cozaar)
Valsartan (Diovan)
Irbesartan (Avapro)
Candesartan (Atacand)
...note they end with -sartan |
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Definition
| List the names of some ARBs |
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|
Term
Doxazosin (Cardura)
Prazosin (Minipress)
Clonidine (Catapres)
Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Penbutolol (Levatol)
Propranolol (Inderal)
Carvedilol (Coreg)
...note they end in -olol or -osin |
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Definition
| List some of the antiadrenergic antihypertensive agents |
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Term
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Verapamil (Calan)
Nifedipine (Procardia) |
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Definition
| List the names of some calcium channel blockers |
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Term
|
Definition
| Drugs of first choice for patients younger than 50 with hypertension |
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Term
| Beta blocker and diuretic |
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Definition
| Direct vasodilators are not effective when used alone to treat hypertension. They are usually given in combination with what other class of drugs? (There are two answers.) |
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Term
| Because nitrates also act as an antihypertensive, so the two drugs together can have an additive effect of severe hypotension. REMEMBER THIS! |
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Definition
| Why must nitrate dosage be carefully titrated when given with antihypertensive drugs? |
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Term
| Nitrates can increase beta-blocking effects of propranolol and other beta-blockers by slowing the metabolism of the drug in the liver. Serum drug levels are increased. |
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Definition
| What are the effects of nitrates used together with beta-blockers? |
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Term
| cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema |
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Definition
| Adverse effects of ACE inhibitors |
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Term
|
Definition
| What condition is characterized by itchy or painful swelling of the skin of the face, tongue, lips, or hands? |
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Term
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Definition
| drug of first choice to treat acute bronchoconstriction |
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Term
| albuterol, and other short-acting bronchodilators. This tolerance does NOT occur with long-acting drugs such as salmeterol or formoterol. |
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Definition
| If these drugs are overused, they lose their bronchodilating effects because the receptors become unresponsive to stimulation |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which drug has a SLOWER onset of action... albuterol or salmeterol? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Onset of action for albuterol? |
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Term
|
Definition
| peak action of albuterol (# of hours) |
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Term
|
Definition
| duration of the effects of albuterol? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Onset of action for salmeterol? |
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Term
|
Definition
| peak action of salmeterol? |
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Term
|
Definition
| duration of the effects of salmeterol? |
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Term
| aspirin, clopidogrel (Plavix) |
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Definition
| Name two antiplatelet drugs |
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Term
| combination of an ACE inhibitor or an ARB, along with a diuretic |
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Definition
| first-line therapy in treatment of heart failure |
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Term
| nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, calcium channel blockers |
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Definition
| what are 3 classes of antianginal drugs? |
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Term
|
Definition
| movement of air from the atmosphere all the way to the alveoli |
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Term
|
Definition
| blood flow through the lungs |
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Term
|
Definition
| exchange of O2 and CO2 between alveoli and blood, and between blood and body cells |
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Term
|
Definition
| chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways |
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Term
| bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation |
|
Definition
| what are 2 characteristics of asthma? |
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Term
| wheezing, dyspnea, cough, breathlessness, tightness in chest |
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Definition
| 5 signs/symptoms of asthma |
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Term
| bronchodilators, anti-inflammatory agents |
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Definition
| two classes of respiratory drugs? |
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Term
| drug delivery to site of action, minimal systemic effects, fast relief of acute attacks |
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Definition
| 3 advantages of inhalation drugs? |
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|
Term
| bronchoconstriction (also called bronchospasm) |
|
Definition
| muscle contractions that narrow the airways |
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Term
| albuterol, levalbuterol, pirbuterol (these are short-acting beta-2 agonists) |
|
Definition
| Name 3 respiratory drugs that might be given in an acute or rescue situation |
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|
Term
| beta-2 adrenergic agonists, anticholinergics, Xanthines |
|
Definition
| Name the 3 main classes of bronchodilators. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Which respiratory drug acts immediately, peaks in 30-60 minutes, and lasts 3-5 hours? |
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Term
| insomnia, cardiac stimulation, nervousness, restlessness |
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Definition
| Adverse effects of beta-2 adrenergic agonists are _____________? |
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Term
| cardiac tachyarrhythmias, severe CAD, atherosclerosis |
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Definition
| What are 3 conditions in which beta-2 agonists are contraindicated? |
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Term
| salmeterol (Serevent) ... NOT a rescue agent |
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Definition
| long-acting inhaled agent that doesn't start working for at least 20 minutes, peaks in 3-4 hours, and lasts 12 hours |
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Term
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Definition
| which beta-2 agonist is commonly used for exercised-induced asthma? |
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Term
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Definition
| A highly infectious disease spread by any kind of contact with a member of the opposite sex. Symptoms include ridicule, exclusion from peers, and scabby encrusted sores. (Hint: Dani is a known carrier of this affliction.) |
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Term
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Definition
| These drugs produce bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscle. Used for chronic asthma |
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Term
| 5-15 mcg/mL. Levels > 30 can produce severe dysrhythmias. |
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Definition
| therapeutic blood level for xanthines is __________ mcg/mL. |
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Term
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Definition
| Atrovent and Spiriva are examples of which class of bronchodilators? These drugs are used for long-term management of COPD. |
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Term
| before the onset of therapy, after 6 and 12 weeks of therapy, and intermittently during the course of therapy |
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Definition
| LFTs should be monitored during statin therapy. When should these tests be performed? |
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Term
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Definition
| It is important to remember to take the pulse of a patient on digoxin at which location? NOT radial, but __________. |
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Term
| Digibind (Digoxin immune fab...fab means antigen-binding fragments) |
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Definition
| What is given for cases of severe digoxin toxicity (levels > 10 ng/mL)? |
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Term
| antibodies bind with digoxin and will be excreted in kidneys |
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Definition
| How does Digibind work to decrease digoxin levels? |
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Term
|
Definition
| What is the FIRST step in treating Digoxin toxicity? |
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Term
|
Definition
| How is Digibind administered to a patient in danger of immediate cardiac arrest? |
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Term
| IV, over 15 to 30 minutes |
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Definition
| What is the preferred method of administration of Digibind (when there is no immediate threat of cardiac arrest)? |
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Term
| ...the digoxin is bound to the Digibind and therefore inactive |
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Definition
| Serum digoxin levels increase after Digibind is administered, but that is okay because _____________. |
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Term
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Definition
| the method by which drugs are inactivated or biotransformed by the body |
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Term
| ...water-soluble metabolites. Kidneys are the primary excretory organs, and the can excrete only water-soluble metabolites. |
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Definition
| One function of metabolism is to convert fat-soluble drugs into..._______ |
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Term
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Definition
| Most drugs are metabolized in which organ? |
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Term
| RBCs, GI mucosa, lungs, plasma, kidneys also contain drug-metabolizing enzymes. |
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Definition
| Other than the liver, where else are drugs metabolized? |
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Term
| enzyme induction. This allows larger amounts of a drug to be metabolized during a given time, so larger doses may be required to produce or maintain therapeutic effects. |
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Definition
| With chronic administration, some drugs stimulate liver cells to produce larger amount of drug-metabolizing enzymes |
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Term
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Definition
| Some drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, with only part of a drug dose reaching the systemic circulation for distribution to sites of action. This is also known as the ___________ |
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