| Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of benzodiazepines? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sedation, cognitive and psychomotor impairment Interacts with alcohol
 Discontinuation-related difficulties
 Potential for abuse in predisposed individuals
 Not effective for comorbid depression
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a potentially severe and dangerous side effect of giving benzodiazepines via IV? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why are benzodiazepines contraindicated in pregnancy and nursing? |  | Definition 
 
        | Birth defects may occur if used in 1st trimester Neonatal CNS depression and withdrawal if used near term
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Benzodiazepines should not be combined with what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alcohol or other CNS depressants |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the contraindications for morphine use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Respiratory compromise, asthma, intracranial injuries (increased intracranial pressure), paralytic ileus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of morphine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Euphoria and dysphoria, respiratory depression, nausea, constipation, sedation, pruritus, urticaria, bronchospasms, urinary retention, anxiety, hypotension, miosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the CNS effects of morphine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Analgesia (most effective for visceral pain), euphoria, sedation, cough suppression**, respiratory depression, miosis, nausea/emesis, physical and psychological dependence, tolerance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the cardiovascular effects of morphine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Vasodilation, decreases blood pressure, some negative inotropic response |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the pulmonary effects of morphine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of morphine on the skin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Histamine release to cause itchiness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of morphine on the GI? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decreases secretions and motility of gut |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does morphine effect smooth muscle? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increases smooth muscle tone Results in increased biliary tract contraction, detrusor muscle tone, urinary urgency, urinary retention, bronchoconstriction, reduced uterine tone prolonging labor, etc.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of Meperidine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Excess accumulation can cause seizures, avoid in renal patients |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tramadol should be avoided alongside what drugs? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of TCAs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anticholinergic effects (blockade of muscarinic receptors) Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, perspiration, orthostatic hypotension, sedation, seizures, conduction delays, weight gain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of drug interactions are there with TCAs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alcohol increases CNS depression Anticholinergic agents
 Insulin, oral hypoglycemic agents increase hypoglycemia
 Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are toxic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of SNRI use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dizziness, dry mouth, anorexia, somnolence, increased sweating, *nausea* Possible serotonin syndrome
 Hypertension in larger doses
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Duloxetine should be avoided in what patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Avoid in hepatic insufficiency or end-stage renal disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of MAO-inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | Orthostatic hypotension Insomnia
 Weight gain
 Sexual dysfunction
 Anticholinergic effects
 Tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of drug interactions are there for MAO-inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | CNS stimulants can cause a hypertensive crisis Any agent that would increase 5-HT levels may lead to serotonin syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of SSRIs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Some tolerance, sexual dysfunction, headache Akathesia (particularly with fluoxetine)
 May induce a sudden switch to mania in vulnerable
 Withdrawal
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are potential drug interactions of SSRIs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Can cause increased concentration of clozapine and may precipitate seizures Should not be used with TCAs
 Cautious use with lithium – may lead to seizures
 Serotonin Syndrome (avoid with MAOIs)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the manifestations of serotonin syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | Akathisia-like restlessness, muscle twitches and myoclonus, hyperreflexia, sweating, shivering and tremor leading to seizures and coma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of Bupropion? |  | Definition 
 
        | Headache, nausea, dry mouth, insomnia, tremor, CNS effects due to DA Should not be used with MAOIs – may cause hypertensive crisis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of Nefazodone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Strong inhibitor of CYP3A4 Significant interaction with triazolam, alprazolam
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of Mirtazapine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Significant weight gain Somnolence
 Dry mouth
 Constipation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of lithium? |  | Definition 
 
        | Low therapeutic index Initially can cause polyuria or polydipsia, may induce nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
 CV defects in pregnant, secreted in milk
 Periodic concentration determination is crucial
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you prevent changes in in weight & depressed mood due to taking anti-epileptic drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inevitable with chronic use and adjusting dosage to minimize these side effects is not recommended since it can compromise anti-seizure efficacy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are anti-epileptics used in pregnant patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Almost all of the established antiepileptics have been reported to cause birth defects, but the majority of mothers on antiepileptic medication deliver normal infants The fetus has a better prognosis when the pregnant woman is on a single AED vs a combination of AEDs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The risk of hepatotoxicity with valproic acid is greatest in what patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patients under 2 yrs & taking multiple medications Fatal within 4 months
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the taratogenic effects of valproic acid? |  | Definition 
 
        | Spina bifida Cardiovascular defects
 Malformation of digits
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the contraindications for the use of ethosuximide? |  | Definition 
 
        | May exacerbate tonic-clonic seizures & complex partial seizures Ineffective in management of psychomotor or major motor seizures
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the contraindications for the use of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Not useful in absence seizures |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the important pharmacokinetic characteristics of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Metabolism is saturable, if the dosing rate exceeds elimination capacity, the plasma levels of the drug quickly reach toxic levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the therapeutic index of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Very narrow Therapeutic effects are seen at plasma concentration between 50-100 µmol/L
 Adverse effects above 100 µmol/L
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of chronic phenytoin use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gingival hyperplasia especially in children & young adults Hirsutism, coarsening features
 Rash (hypersensitivity to hydantoins)
 Hyperglycemia (inhibits insulin secretion)
 Osteomalacia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the taratogenic effects of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cleft palate Heart malformations
 Hypoprothrombinemia and hemorrhage
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Concurrent administration with what drug should be avoided when taking Carbamezapine? |  | Definition 
 
        | MAO-Is due to its similarity in structure to TCA's |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Carbamezapine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antidiuretic effects and hyponatremia Pregnancy category D, Teratogenic
 Severe dermatological hypersensitivity reactions (rare)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of severe dermatological hypersensitivity reactions are associated with carbamezapine use? What causes this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) Strongly associated with HLA-B1502 allele, much greater risk in asians
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of phenobarbital? |  | Definition 
 
        | Drowsiness, Sedation, Habit-forming Chronic treatment with high doses of causes behavioral problems in children
 Agitation & confusion in adults
 Over dose: Respiratory depression, CNS depression, coma, death
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clorazepate is not used in what demographic? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Clonazepam and Clorazepate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Behavioral disturbances in children; hyperactivity, irritability Drowsiness, sedation, ataxia, insomnia
 Overdose: Respiratory depression
 Abrupt withdrawal can cause status epilepticus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Felbamate has what black box warning? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the problems associated with administration of Levodopa (L-DOPA) alone |  | Definition 
 
        | Less than 1% of the dose reaches cerebral circulation due to degradation by AAD and MAO Dopamine produced by peripheral conversion of L-DOPA produces side effects such as nausea, vomiting, cardiovascular effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Carbidopa/Levodopa (Sinemet)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypotension due to peripheral dopamine induced vasodilation Cardiac arrhythmias, daytime sleepiness, schizophrenia
 Mydriasis & acute increases in intraocular pressure (IOP)
 Dyskinesia: Involuntary writhing movements
 On/Off periods
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Carbidopa/Levodopa (Sinemet) is contraindicated in patients with what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Psychosis Narrow angle glaucoma
 Peptic ulcer disease
 Patients taking nonspecific inhibitors of MAO
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the consequences of long term L-Dopa therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tolerance and sensitization to the medication resulting in a “narrow therapeutic window” Decreased buffer synaptic concentrations of dopamine
 Altered the sensitivity to synaptic dopamine levels accentuating, responses to high (On) & low (off ) concentrations
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the disadvantages of dopamine receptor agonists compared to L-Dopa? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hallucinations and hypotension are much more common |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is pergolide no longer used as a dopamine receptor agonist? |  | Definition 
 
        | Long-term use associated with significant damage to cardiac valves. The drug has been removed from the market |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of ergot alkaloid non-specific dopamine receptor agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Initial treatment causes profound hypotension Often induce nausea and fatigue with initial treatment
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Ropinirole and Pramipexole (selective dopamine receptor agonists)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hallucinations, Somnolence |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effect considerations of apomorphine? What should it be given alongside? |  | Definition 
 
        | High potential to cause nausea & vomiting Pretreatment with antiemetic trimethobenzamide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Apomorphine should be avoided alongside what drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antiemetics that are 5HT3 antagonists (ex. ondansetron) Causes significant hypotension and can lead to fainting episodes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Inhibition of MAO-A retards breakdown of all central & peripheral catecholamines can lead to life threatening side effects when combined with what drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Drugs that increase catecholamine levels (TCAs, SSRIs, SNRIs, tyramines etc.) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Selegiline? |  | Definition 
 
        | MAO-B inhibitor, increases the adverse motor and cognitive effects of L-DOPA therapy in advanced Parkinson's Metabolized into amphetamine and methamphetamine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of muscarinic receptor antagonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sedation and mental confusion Blurred vision through cycloplegia
 Cautious use in narrow-angle glaucoma
 Constipation
 Urinary retention
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs increase the symptoms of schizophrenia by increasing neurotransmitter levels? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amphetamines Methyphenidate and Cocaine
 L-DOPA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of typical anti-psychotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Significant motor side effects (EPS) and hyperprolactinemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of atypical anti-psychotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Minimal EPS and hyperprolactinemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What causes the side effects seen in first generation typical anti-psychotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Non-target blockade of D2 receptors Motor side effects aka extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) due to blockade of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What causes the autonomic histaminergic side effects seen with the use of all anti-psychotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blockade of D2 receptors in the tuberoinfundibular pathway causes hyperprolactinemia Blockade of muscarinic receptors:
 Dry mouth, difficulty urinating or retention, constipation, blurred vision, confusion
 Blockade of α adrenoceptors: Orthostatic hypotension
 Blockade of H1 histamine receptors: Sedation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which atypical anti-psychotics also cause the EPS and neuroendocrine symptoms at high doses seen with typical anti-psychotic use? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What side effect is slightly more pronounced in atypic anti-psychotics compared to typicals? |  | Definition 
 
        | Weight gain Less of a problem with the newest atypicals (Ziprasidone & Aripiprazole)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is the use of Clozapine (atypical) restricted? |  | Definition 
 
        | Danger of fatal neutropenia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is an unusual side effect of Clorazapine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Instead of causing dry mouth, this drug causes hyper salivation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the drawbacks of Olanzapine (atypicals) |  | Definition 
 
        | Minimal effective dose is 10 mg. Increased incidence of EPS at doses > 25-30 mg Weight gain more than the other antipsychotics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the drawbacks of Risperidone (atypical)? |  | Definition 
 
        | At doses higher than 8 mg: EPS, Hyperprolactinemia, Weight gain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Quetiapine (atypical)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Somnolence/Sedation Postural hypotension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the black box warning for Aripirprazole? |  | Definition 
 
        | Studies have shown that older adults with dementia have an increased chance of death during treatment. Older adults with dementia may also have a greater chance of having a stroke or ministroke or other severe side effects during treatment |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following should not be used in patients with sulfonamide allergies? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are general concerns with use of all anesthetic drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Very narrow therapeutic index, must monitor levels since the margin between surgical anesthesia and fatal respiratory/circulatory depression is narrow Most decrease myocardial contractility and reduce BP
 All depress respiration markedly and increase arterial PCO2
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the dangers of using Thiopental as an anesthetic? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slowly metabolized, accumulates in the body, prolonged effect if given repeatedly, tissue damage if extravascular Precipitates when it comes in contact with drugs in acidic solution
 Narrow margin of error: CV depression
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the drawbacks of using Etomidate as an anesthetic? |  | Definition 
 
        | Severe nausea Causes involuntary movements during induction
 Risk of adrenocortical suppression
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the drawbacks of using Ketamine as an anesthetic? |  | Definition 
 
        | High incidence of hallucinations etc Can raise intracranial pressure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Ziprasidone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Newer generation atypical similar to Aripiprazole Potential for cardiac arrhythmia in patients with baseline risk factors:
 Elderly, preexisting cardiac disease
 Taking diuretics or medication that prolong QT interval
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is nitrous oxide toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Caused by chronic use Leads to symptoms similar to B12 deficiency (pernicious anemia) such as neuropathy, tinnitus, numbness
 Increases cerebral blood flow
 Expands air-filled cavities due to being 40x as soluble as nitrogen, is passes from the blood into the cavity faster than nitrogen can diffuse out
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nitrous oxide use is contraindicated in what patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patients with bowel obstruction
 pneumothorax
 middle ear and sinus disease
 during general anesthesia for gas-filled eye procedures
 Patients with increased intracranial pressure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC) for anesthetics decreases in what kind of patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Elderly patients, patients with hypothermia, presence of adjuvant drugs, hypoxemia, hypotension, or anemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do inhaled anesthetics affect the cardiovascular system? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease mean arterial pressure in direct proportion to alveolar concentration Decrease systemic vascular resistance
 Reduce myocardial oxygen consumption causing ischemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What unique side effect does Halothane have on the cardiovascular system? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines Enflurane and halothane have greater myocardial depressant effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects on the respiratory system when using inhaled anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dose-dependent decrease in tidal volume and increase in respiratory rate during spontaneous ventilation Decreased minute ventilation & ventilatory response to CO2
 Depresses mucociliary function in the airway
 Bronchodilatory effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects on the kidneys when using inhaled anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decreased renal blood flow Theoretical nephrotoxicity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How might enflurane and sevoflurane cause nephrotoxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Metabolism could lead to formation of fluoride ions intrarenally. However, there are no reports of renal injury, risk is theoretical |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anesthetic can, in rare cases, cause potentially severe and life-threatening hepatitis, particularly in obese patients undergoing multiple exposures within a short amount of time? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How might inhaled anesthetics cause malignant hyperthermia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle Occurs in susceptible individuals undergoing general anesthesia with inhaled agents and muscle relaxants
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which inhaled anesthetics are most likely to cause malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals? |  | Definition 
 
        | Halothane and enflurane Involves increase in free calcium concentration
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The anesthetic Isoflurane has what unintended side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | May cause MI in patients with coronary disease Irritant to respiratory tract
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The anesthetic Desflurane has what unintended side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Similar to isoflurane, faster onset and recovery Respiratory irritant causes cough and laryngospasm
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The anesthetic Sevoflurane has what unintended side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Similar to desflurane but no respiratory irritation Theoretical risk of nephrotoxicity : No evidence
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The anesthetic Enflurane has what unintended side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Similar to halothane but less metabolism, less toxicity Risk of epilepsy like seizures
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the risks associated with spinal anesthesia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression if it spreads to the brain, urinary retention |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the neurotoxic effects of local anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | All can be neurotoxic at very high concentrations. Ex. Pooling in the cauda equina |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which local anesthetics are more clinically likely to cause neurotoxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lidocaine or chlorprocaine When used for continuous spinal(subarachnoid) block
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the cardiovascular side effects of local anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Depression of myocardial contractility/strength, conduction block and vasodilation due to blocked Na+ influx Blockade of AV conduction and Ca+ stores
 Vasodilation at vasculature and indirectly inhibited sympathetic activity causes sudden fall in BP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the unique cardiovascular effects of cocaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypertension, arrhythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How might local anesthetics cause cardiovascular collapse? |  | Definition 
 
        | Epidural needle or continuous infusion catheters enter an epidural vein and is not recognized Epidural veins enlarge during pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you rule out inadvertent subarachnoid injection (total spinal results) or intravascular injection (seizure, cardiac effects) with local anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Give a "test dose" of epinephrine containing lidocaine prior to giving a large volume of local anesthetic epidurally Not always 100% accurate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the CNS side effects of local anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Light-headedness, tinnitus, metallic taste, circumoral numbness, drowsiness, slurred speech and nystagmus At higher levels: Anxiety development of fine tremors of the muscles of the hands and/or face
 Tonic/Clonic seizures
 Severe CNS depression and death
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What local anesthetic has high CNS and CV side effects and are therefore not used? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Prilocaine causes what unusual side effect in high doses? |  | Definition 
 
        | Methhemoglobinemia May lead to accumulation of o-toluidine (oxidizing agent capable of converting HgB to methemoglobin)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the concerns associated with the use of epinephrine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart disease or with concomitant use of halothane May be detrimental to flap viability (grafts)
 Dangerous if used on tips of fingers, penis
 Hypertension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What types of drugs interact poorly with phase I of succinylcholine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of succinylcholine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Postoperative muscle pain due to fasciculations Decreases HR, increases IOP at high doses by blocking ganglionic nicotinic receptors
 Hyperkalemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What types of patients experience greater bouts of hyperkalemia as a side effect of succinylcholine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patients with burns (peaks in 7-10 days) trauma or spinal cord injury, peripheral nerve dysfunction, or muscular dystrophy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most serious possible side effect of succinylcholine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which isoqinolone based non-depolarizing blocker can cause hypotension due to ganglion block and release of histamine, bronchoconstriction due to histamine release |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which isoqinolone based non-depolarizing blocker is associated with hypotension, histamine release, the toxic metabolite laudanosine, and has greater accumulation with renal failure |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which isoqinolone based non-depolarizing blocker causes the least amount of hypertensive side effects as well as less histamine release and less formation of toxic metabolites? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which amino steroid based non-depolarizing blocker can promote muscarinic block as a side effect? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of neuromuscular junction blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | Respiratory paralysis, histamine release, autonomic effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anesthetics can strongly potentiate and prolong neuromuscular blockade? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhaled neuromuscular junction blocking anesthetics, particularly isoflurane |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Potentiation and prolonged relaxant action of neuromuscular blockers occurs with what drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aminoglycoside antibiotics and antiarrhythmic agents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Cyclobenzaprine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Marked sedative and antimuscarinic action May cause confusion and visual hallucinations in some patients
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Methocarbamol is contraindicated under what conditions? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the primary side effect of Carisoprodol? |  | Definition 
 
        | Drowsiness, avoid with alcohol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Triggered rhythms are in danger of progressing to what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What causes Torsades de Points? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prolongation of QT due to: Electrolyte imbalance
 Persistent bradycardia
 Class I or III drugs (block cardiac K+ channels)
 Certain non-cardiac drugs
 Congenital QT prolongation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do class IA drugs have on ECG readings? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do class IB drugs have on ECG readings? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do class IC drugs have on ECG readings? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inc PR Inc QRS
 QT unchanged or inc
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do class II drugs have on ECG readings? |  | Definition 
 
        | PR non or inc QT non or dec
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do class III drugs have on ECG readings? |  | Definition 
 
        | PR non or inc QRS non or inc
 QT inc
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do class IV drugs have on ECG readings? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of class IA antiarrhythmics on AP propagation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Intermediate acting Prolongs AP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of class IB antiarrhythmics on AP propagation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of class IC antiarrhythmics on AP propagation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slow acting No effect on AP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug interactions are seen with Quinidine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Reduces Digoxin clearance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Quinidine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Marked nausea Diarrhea
 Cinchonism (deafness, tinnitus, blurred vision)
 Thrombocytopenic purpura
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Quinidine is contraindicated with what condition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of class IA antiarrhythmics on AP propagation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Intermediate acting Prolongs AP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of class IB antiarrhythmics on AP propagation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of class IC antiarrhythmics on AP propagation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slow acting No effect on AP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Procainamide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lupus-like syndromes, hypotension, depression, hallucination, psychosis Adjust dosage with renal function
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Disopyramide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pronounced antimuscarinic effects Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urine retention, and sometimes precipitates glaucoma
 Can also worsen heart block & adversely effect sinus node activity
 Prolongs QT interval, can cause Torsades
 Contraindicated in long QT syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat class IA antiarrhythmic overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cardiac effects can be exacerbated by hyperkalemia Arrhythmias revered by Sodium Lactate IV which increases the ionic gradient
 Sympathomimetics can reverse hypotension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the limitations of Lidocaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | IV only limits to emergency setting, no maintenance therapy Adjust dose with reduced hepatic flow such as in CHF or older patients
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Flecainide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Very proarrhythmic CNS effects
 Negative ionotropic effects, can aggravate CHF
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Propranolol? What are its contraindications? |  | Definition 
 
        | Excessive bradycardia Bronchospasms
 Depression, fatigue
 Use with caution in asthma and diabetes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Sotalol? |  | Definition 
 
        | Can prolong QT intervals and cause Torsades Dyspnea and dizziness
 Adjust in renal disease
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Class IV antiarrhythmics and what makes them worse? |  | Definition 
 
        | AV block in large doses or in patients with partial block Made worse with beta-blockers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Adenosine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Flushing, hypotension, chest pain, dyspnea |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What electrolyte abnormality causes AV block with Digitalis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of nitrates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Flushing, Nausea Throbbing Headache (meningeal artery vasodilation)
 Orthostatic Hypotension
 Reflex Tachycardia
 Syncope, Dizziness
 Large IV dose can cause methemoglobinemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drawback of continued use of nitrates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tolerance develops after days of continual therapy Overcome with treatment free intervals during the night
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nitrates are contraindicated with what other drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (Sildenafil, Tadelafil)prolongs effects, can cause hypotensive shock Migraine medication can increase BP and decrease effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drawback of nitrate tablets? |  | Definition 
 
        | Volatile, loses potency when exposed to air and light, only usable for 6 months after opening |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Bepiridil? |  | Definition 
 
        | Heart failure if combined with beta-blockers Torsades and other arrhythmias
 Agranulocytosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Verapamil? |  | Definition 
 
        | Constipation & Gingival hyperplasia Sinus bradycardia
 High doses can cause myocardial depression, heart failure, edema, hypotension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Diltiazem? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sinus bradycaria AV block, Heart failure (When used in combination with beta blockers)
 Peripheral effects (hypotension, edema)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What cardiac drugs are generally avoided in variant angina? |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta-lockers, have minimal effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is acute coronary syndrome (ACS)? |  | Definition 
 
        | A life threatening condition in pts w/coronary disease Continuum that ranges from an unstable pattern of angina pectoris to the development of a large acute myocardial infarction (irreversible necrosis of the heart muscle)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of heparin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bleeding is primary adverse effect Osteoporosis
 Heparin induced throbocytopenia
 Allergy due to animal origin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the contraindications to heparin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypersensitivity to UFH Hypersensitivity, pork products, or methylparaben with LMWH
 History of HIT
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is given for a heparin overdose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Rivaroxaban? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bleeding Black box warning of possible paralysis with enuraxial anesthesia or spinal puncture
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of the monovalent direct thrombin inhibitors (Argatroban and Dabigatran etexilate)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemorrhage (serious, most common) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lepirudin is contraindicated alongside what condition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Argatroban is contraindicated alongside what condition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dabigatran should be avoided alongside what other drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | P-glycoprotein inducers (i.e. rifampin) reduces exposure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Warfarin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemorrhage of the bowel or the brain Correct dosing requires continual monitoring
 Birth defects, crosses placenta
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are contraindications to thrombolytic therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Recent surgery (w/in 10 days) Serious GI bleed w/in 3 months
 History of HTN
 Active bleeding disorder
 Previous cerebrovascular accident w/in 30mo
 Aortic dissection
 Acute pericarditis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of fibrinolytic drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemorrhage due to lysis of fibrin in physiological thrombi |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Tranexamic acid and Aminocaproic acid? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thrombi formation that can lead to renal failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does injury encourage the formation of a thrombus? |  | Definition 
 
        | When underlying basal lamina is exposed to the blood stream, PGI2 decreases ->  GPIa/IIa receptors on platelets and von Willebrand factor -> COX-1 -> ADP -> GPIIb/IIIa activation -> platelet aggregation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bleeding, salicylism – generally with larger doses than used for this indication |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of ADP antagonists (Clopidogrel and Prasugrel)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bleeding, salicylism – generally with larger doses than used for this indication |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of ADP antagonists (Clopidogrel and Prasugrel)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is Celocoxib contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | With cardiovascular disorders |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does aspirin affect uric acid secretion? |  | Definition 
 
        | At low doses, uric acid secretion is decreased At high doses, excretion is increased, can precipitate gout
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Reye's syndrome Liver dysfunction and encephalopathy
 Contraindicated in children with viral infections
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the symptoms of aspirin overdose? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI distress and bleeding Bronchoconstriction
 Renal dysfunction
 Hypersensitivity
 Renal dysfunction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of Indomethacin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prominent anti-inflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic activity Reduces polymorphonuclear leukocyte motility
 Reduces development of cellular exudates and reduces vascular permeability in injured tissue
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the ONLY NSAID that does not cause renal dysfunction? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why are COX-2 selective inhibitors such as Celocoxib or Dicolfenac dangerous in patients with cardiovascular disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | May increase risk of thrombosis which increases risk of MI or stroke |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When are NSAIDs contraindicated with pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 
        | During the third-trimester due to risk of post-partum hemorrhage and delayed labor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the side effect of colchicine that severely limits its use? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Probenicid is contraindicated with what condition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What factors promote rheumatic arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Genetic disposition Age related wear and tear
 Hypothermia
 Infection
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the pro-inflammatory cytokines involved in the progression of rheumatoid arthritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | C-reactive protein in the blood is indicative of the presence of what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the systemic signs of rheumatoid arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rheumatoid nodules Vasculitis in finger beds
 Pleural effusions and pulmonary fibrosis
 Pericarditis
 Splenomegaly, neutropenia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drawback of DMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slow acting, may take months for benefit No analgesic activity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should be avoided with Methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alcohol Essential to monitor liver function
 Must give with folic acid supplements
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hepatotoxicity Pulmonary fibrosis
 GI distress
 Pregnancy category X
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Hydroxychloroquine? |  | Definition 
 
        | A quinine containing drug which causes cinchoism ( flushed and sweaty skin, ringing of the ears (tinnitus), blurred vision, impaired hearing, confusion, reversible high-frequency hearing loss, headache, abdominal pain, etc) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Sulfasalazine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Causes GI distress, start with low dose |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Leflunomide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Metabolized to active metabolite, caution in renal dysfunction Can combine with methotrexate but high risk of hepatotoxicity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Etanercept should be avoided alongside what drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | May be combined with DMARD with the exception of Anakinra |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the general side effects of most DMARDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Injection site reactions 1st dose phenomenon
 Headache, dizziness
 Immunosuppressive (AVOID with infections)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Anakinra is contraindicated with what drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | TNF antagonists (Etanercept and Infliximab) Abatacept
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Rituximab should be avoided with what conditions? |  | Definition 
 
        | Renal dysfunction Separate from hypertensive therapy for 12hrs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Rituximab? |  | Definition 
 
        | Angioedema Fatigue
 Nausea, vomiting
 Headache
 Hypotension
 Rash, urticaria
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does beta-2 receptor polymorphism impact the treatment of asthma with beta-2 agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | An Arginine at position 16 increases the risk for exacerbations with short- or long-term agonists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should oral agents be used instead of inhaled for the treatment of asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | Greater incidence of side effects vs. inhaled Used in young children unable to use inhalers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of beta-2 agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nervousness/anxiety Palpitations
 Tachycardia
 Tremors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug interactions are there for beta-2 agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | MAO-I TCA antidepressents
 Avoid Anything that increases catecholamines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Beta-2 agonists should be avoided with what conditions? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cardiovascular disorders Convulsive disorders
 Diabetes mellitus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of glucocorticoids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Epistaxis Bone demineralization (less likely in inhaled)
 Oropharyngeal candidiasis
 Pharyngitis
 HPA axis suppression (unlikely with inhaled)
 Glaucoma
 Headache
 Fewer systemic effects when inhaled
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Glucocorticoids should be avoided alongside what conditions? |  | Definition 
 
        | Infections Glaucoma
 If oral, caution with CYP450 metabolizers, diabetes, diabetes, peptic ulcers, osteoporosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of leukotriene inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | Elevated liver enzymes with Zileuton Nausea/dyspepsia
 Neuropsychiatric events: agitation, depression, anxiety, etc.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Leukotriene inhibitors have what drug interaction? |  | Definition 
 
        | Zileuton decreases warfarin and theophylline clearance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ipratropium should be cautioned alongside what other asthma drug? |  | Definition 
 
        | Combined with albuterol can cause rare occurrence of MI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of muscarinic antagonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Palpitations Nervousness
 Fatigue
 Headache
 Dry mucus membranes
 Influenza-like symptoms
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What conditions require caution when using muscarinic antagonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute episode of bronchospasm Myasthenia gravis
 Narrow-angle glaucoma
 Prostatic hyperplasia
 Bladder obstruction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is theophylline not commonly used to treat asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | Narrow therapeutic window Caution in drugs that decrease metabolism or clearance such as zileuton
 High doses can cause seizures or cardiac arrhythmia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Amalizumab? |  | Definition 
 
        | Injection-site reactions Anaphylactic shock, give under supervision
 Symptoms return upon cessation of treatment
 |  | 
        |  |