protamine sulfate is the antidote for all of the following except what?

which of the following inactivates plasminogen?

which of the following is a LMW Heparin?

which of the following drugs is a platelet inhibitor that works by inhibiting ADP binding to platelets and binding of fibrinogen with platelet receptors?

which of the following drugs is a vasodilator that decreases platelet activation by increasing cAMP levels and decreasing Ca+ levels?

analgesic

antipyretic

anti-inflammatory

antiplatelet

which anticoagulant binds antithrombin III?

Admin?

Monitoring?

Heparin

SQ or IV admin

PTT monitoring 

Anti-viral

which of the following drugs can be administered (IV) for severe HSV / HSV encephalitis or VZ / HZ in and immunocompromised pt?

which of the following drugs is an ester prodrug that is activated to acyclovir in the system and can be admin BID as opposed to 5xday with acyclovir?  Used in the tx of genital herpes, acute VZ, and HZ.

which of the following drugs used in the tx of genital herpes, acute HZ, and recurrent HSV infection in AIDS pts resistant to acyclovir is  a prodrug that inhibits DNA but w/o chain termination?

which of the following topical anti-virals is not used for the tx of HSV ketatoconjunctivitis/Keratitis?

Penciclovir (Denavir)

tx:  herpes labialis

which of the following drugs used for the tx of CMV retinitis in AIDS pts is injected into the eyeball?

which of the following is the DOC for CMV?

Valganciclovir (Valcyte)

which drug for the tx of HSV keratoconjunctivitis, recurrent epithelial keratitis is a topical eye ointment?

which of the follow is an opthalmic drop used for the tx of HSV-1 keratitis?

which of the following drugs is the prototype DNA-antiviral for the tx of CMV?

which of the following drugs does not cause myelosuppression?

which of the following drugs is a broad spectrum anti-herpetic (HSV1&2, CMV, VZV, EBV, HHV) and for ganciclovir resistant CMV infections?

which of the following drugs would you use for gangiclovir/cidofovir-R CMV or acyclovir-R HSV/VZ infections? 

Foscarnet (Foscavir)

This is a last resort drug.

which of the following is a neuraminidase inhibitor used in the tx of viral respiratory infections?

which of the following is a RNA-antiviral that works by binding the viral protein M2 on the surface of influenza to decrease viral penetration into the host cell?

which of the following drugs used in the tx of influenza A cannot be admin to pregnant pt or pts who are nursing?

which of the following is used prophylactically against influenza A and is 2-4x more potent than amantadine?

Rimantadine (Flumadine)

used in nursing homes prophylactically if virus is circulating

which of the following drugs is NOT toxic to mammalian cell DNA synthesis?

Rimantadine (Flumadine)

Influenza A (PO)

topical tx of CMV drugs (toxic to mammalian DNA)       

which of the following is used in the prevention/treatment of influenza A or B and works by inhibiting viral movement through respiratory secretion and decreases the release of progeny virons?

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

Neuraminidase inhibitor

preferred over Zanamivir (Relenza)

which of the following is a monoclonal antibody used in the tx of RSV that is admin. via monthly IM injections for 5-6 months during the winter months (RSV season)?

which of the following is a broad spectrum antiviral used for the tx of active RSV infection in infants that works by inhibiting viral mRNA (purine nucleoside)?

which of the following antivirals has the adverse effects of bone marrow suppression, rash, and is a pregnancy category X?

which of the following is a combination of ribavirin and interferon α that is used in the tx of chronic Hep C?

which of the folling is admin (SQ) or (IV) for the tx of Hep C, B, or HPV?

Name the drugs only used topical creams, eye drops, or eye ointments for the tx of HSV.

(4)

which of the following drugs is incorporated into viral DNA and prevents DNA chain elongation, thereby inhibiting reverse transcription of viral RNA to DNA?

Stavudine (d4T) (Zetit)

MOA of NTRI's

which of the following drugs binds to the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme, deforming the enzyme, and preventing reverse transciption of viral RNA to DNA?

efavirenz  (Sustiva)

MOA of NNRTI's

which of the following NRTI's is food dependent (take with food) and is made with buffering agent to protect it from HCL degredation?

which of the following NRTIs causes skin hyperpigmentation of the soles and palms?

which of the following is a NRTI used for the tx of Hepatitis B and requires L-carnitine supplementation?

which of the following NRTIs cannot be used in combo with AZT and may cause peripheral neuropathy and lactic acidosis more often than other drugs?

Stavudine (d4T) (Zetit)

Zalcitabine (ddc) (HIVID) and Lamivudine (3TC) (Epivir) were specifically indicated for use in combo with AZT

Which drug is a combo of Lamivudine and AZT and is used for a needlestick or unsafe sex PEP?

which NRTI does not cause bone marrow suppression, pancreatitis, or neuropathy but does frequently cause N/V/D and can cause a severe/fatal hypersensitivity reaction?

Which of the NNRTIs are DMMS inducers?

the NRTI's are: 

which of the NNRTIs penetrates the CNS and may cause dizziness, nightmares, delusions, and "disconnectedness"?

which of the NNRTIs is used as an alternative to AZT during pregnancy for prevention of HIV transmission to the fetus?

Which of the following PIs has the highest CSF penetration?

which of the following PIs is only used with ritonavir (Norvir) and increases the bioavailability of ritonavir (Norvir)?

which of the following PIs is highly potent and can cause kidney stones, crystalluria, and hepatitis so you should advise the pt to increase their fluid intake?

which of the followin is a PI used to reduce infant infection by 50% and is used in PEP with combivir?

which of the following is a PI that is the worst tolerated, causes GI disturances, paresthesia, taste disturbances, hepatotoxic, and is indicated for use in advanced disease?

which of following PIs is indicated for use in niave pts starting anti-HIV tx for the 1st time and does not seem to increase Tgs/cholesterol or promote liprodytrophy as much as other PIs?

which of the following is a fusion inhibitor that is administered (SQ) BID?

Fusion Inhibitors

which of the following HIV drugs prevents/inhibits the integration of HIV DNA into host DNA?

Which opioid receptor is associated with spinal analgesia, sedation, and respiratory depression?

Mu

Kappa

Delta

Gamma

which opioid receptor is associated with central depression, analgesia, decreased GI function, and dependence (addiction)

Mu

Kappa

Delta

Omega

which of the following drugs acts on the kappa receptors in the Lamina I and II of the dorsal horn, decreasing the release of substance P and inhibiting the release of excitatory transmitters from nerve terminals?

Analgesia

Tx of diarrhea

Relief of cough

Tx of acute pulmonary edema

Which of the following is NOT a strong opioid agonist?

Propoxyphene (Darvon, Darvocet) 

moderate opioid agonist

which of the following is a strong opioid agonist that is structurally unrelated to morphine, is used as an analgesic for severe acute pain and is often used in obstetrics, and causes mydriasis (not miosis like morphine).

which of the following opioids is chemically related to meperidine (Demerol), has 100x the potency of morphine, and is used in anesthesia or as a patch for breakthrough pain in CA pts tolerant to opioids?

TCAs

MAOIs** especially w/ Meperidine (Demerol)

Sedative-hypnotics

Anti-psychotic drugs

Meperidine (Demerol), Methadone (Symoron), and Fentanyl (Acting, Duragesic) all preferentially bind which of the opioid receptors?

Mu

Kappa

Delta

Gamma

which of the following is a strong opioid agonists that is used for the controlled withdrawal off opiods (heroin, morphine)?

which of the following opioids has affinity and efficacy on opioid receptors, is metabolized to narcodeine and morphine in the liver, and is used primarily as an antitussive?

which of the following opioids is a derivative of methadone that is metabolized to norproxyphene by the liver and is used for mild-moderate pain relief (especially in geriatric populations or those with lung disease b/c it causes less respiratory depression).

which of the following opioids is a mixed agonist/antagonist that is administered sublinguinally for opioid detox or by (IV) for pain?

Buprenorphine (Buprenex, Suboxone)

can precipitate withdrawal in opioid dependence

Buprenorphine + naloxone = Suboxone

which of the following is a mixed agonist/antagonist opioid that is only admin (IV)(IM)(SQ) for supplemental anesthesia, has a limited role in the tx of pain, and has a high placental transfer so it should not be given to a pregnant pt addicted to opioids (precipitate withdrawal)?

which of the following is an opioid antagonist (Mu> kappa)that is admin (IV)(IM) for the reversal of respiratory depression or coma in opioid overdoses?

Naloxone (Narcan)

pts may relapse into respiratory depression, need to monitor until all opiods are out of the system

will not cause effects in pts who are not using opiods

which of the following is an opioid antagonist that is administed (PO) for rapid opioid detox and EtOH detox?

Naltrexone (Revia)

used in combo with clonidine and buponorphine for rapid opioid detox / opioid dependence

HEPATOTOXIC

which of the following is a centrally acting analgesic used in the tx of moderate-severe pain binds to Mu receptors, weakly inhibits the reuptake of NE and 5HT, and has drug interactions with Carbamazepine and Quinidine?

Tramadol (Ultram)

avoid w/ SSRIs, TCAs, MAOIs**

increased cardiovascular events, thrombus, MI, CVA

increased risk of GI bleed, PUD

which of the following 2 NSAIDS are propionic acid derivatives used in the tx of RA & OA and have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, anti-pyretic, and anti-platelet properties?

sulindac (Clinoril) & indomethacin (Indocin)

ibuprofen (Advil) & naproxen (Naprosyn)

piroxicam (Feldene) & meloxicam (Mobic)

which of the following NSAIDS has a t 1/2 of 30-60hrs (longest of all NSAIDS), is an oxicam derivative, and is used in the tx of OA, RA, and anklosing spondylitis?

which of the following NSAIDS is the only parental (IV, IM) NSAID for pain relief and CANNOT be given to a pt with a history of GI bleed or gastric ulcers?

ketorolac (toradol) 

only indicated for the short term tx of pain (as good as a narcotic)

PO for allergic conjuctivitis

which of the following NSAIDS reversibly binds COX and decreases movement of granulocytes to the affected area, is used in the tx of Gout, RA, and ankylosing spondylitis, and is the #1 NSAID for gastritis?

which of the following is a COX II inhibitor used in the tx of RA, OA, and pain but cannot be given to a pt with a sulfa allergy?

Which of the following is a category X (pregnancy) DMARD?

Methotrexate (Trexall) 

women and med should not take if trying to get pregnany, women need to wait full ovulation cycle and men 3 months before trying to get preggers

which of the following DMARDS is also used for chemotherapy in leukemia and for abortions?

which of the following DMARDS inhibits DHOOH (pyradine synthesis), slows the progression of arthritis, and has the AdRx of alopecia and hyperkalemia?

Leflunomide (Arava)

tertatogenic (like most DMARDS)

which of the following is the 1st drug to start w/in 3 months of RA sx to slow the progression of the disease?

which of the following DMARDS acts on the TLRs of plasmacytoid dendritic cells and causes reninitis (bullseye effect in the macula)?

hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)

1st line drug in the tx of RA

which of the following DMARDS is used in the tx of RA and IBD and can cause depression in males, yellow/orange discoloration of the skin, and photosensitivity?

which of the following is NOT a biologic-DMARD?

Which of the following is a biologic-DMARD that neutralized TNF-alpha, is admin (IV), and causes pancytopenia, fever, pruritis, and uricaria?

Infliximab (Remicade)

is an antibody = should not be given alone, generally combined with methotrexate.

which of the following is a biologic-DMARD that inhibits TNF-alpha to decrease the immune (WBC) response, is admin (SQ) for the tx of RA, juvenile RA and psoriasis/psoratic arthritis, and is not an anti-body so it can be given alone?

which of the following is a biologic-DMARD that is a IL-1 receptor antagonist that is admin (SQ) for the tx of RA and can cause Neurtopenia, N/D, and sinusitus?

anakinra (Kineret)

CANNOT be used with other biologic-DMARDS (infliximab, etanercept)

which of the following drugs is not used in the tx of gout?

which of the following drugs is used in acute gout as an abortive?

indomethacin (Indocin)

indomethacin (Indocin) and colchicine (Colcrys) are the acute gout abortives

which of the following is an plant alkyloid anti-inflammatory specific for gout that cannot be given to a pt with a creatinine clearance <50mL/min, pregnant pts, or pts with renal/hepatic impairment?

which of the following is a purine analog used in the tx of primary hyperuricemia of gout or secondary hyperuricemia and is the DOC for pts with a hx of kidney stones or with a creatinine clearance <50m/day?

which of the following is a uricosuric agent that is admin (SQ) for the tx of gout (under-excreting) and RA?

Antifungals

which of the following anti-fungals is administered (PO) for tx of ringworm or tineas nail infections?

which of the following is an imadiazole admin (PO) for mucocutaneous fungal infections

ketoconazole (Nizoral)

what drug used for the tx of mucocutaneous fungal infections inhibits synthesis of gonadal sex hormones and adrenal steroids and is hepatocellular toxic?

which anti-fungal drug is the most useful and the most toxic and is admin (IV) infusion?

which of the following is not true about amphotericin B (Fungizone)?

1. Binds ergosterol in cell wall to form leaky pores (fungistatic/fungicidal)
2. Is administered PO
3. Normocytic anemia, neuropathies, and pyrogenic infusion rx are adverse effects
4. Is for invasive, progressive and serious fungal infections

1. Bind ergosterol in cell wall to form leaky pores (fungistatic/fungicidal)
2. Is administered PO
3. Normocytic anemia, neuropathies, and pyrogenic infusion rx are adverse effects
4. Is for invasive, progressive and serious fungal infections

amphotericin B (Fungizone) is administered by slow (IV) infusion or intrathecally (for meningitis) over 4-6hrs

which of the following drugs is adminstered (PO) in combination with amphotericin B for systemic cryptococcal or candidal infection, especially meningitis?

which of the following drugs is an echinocandin used to tx aspergillus and candida infections and can only be admin (IV)?

Which of the following is a (PO) solution used for the tx of thrush (oral candidiasis) and cannot be taken systemically because it is toxic to human cells?

which of the following drugs is the DOC for coccidioidal meningitis and for chronic suppressive tx of cryptococcal meningitis?

fluconazole (Diflucan)

admin (PO) or (IV)

which drug for cutaneous mycoses (ringworm and tineas of the nails) must be taken (PO) for 6-12 months?

which of the following drugs is actively transported into fungi and activated by fungal deaminase to 5-FU, which inhibits DNA synthesis?

flucytosine (Ancobon)

which of the following is a synthetic allylamine uses for the tx of dermatophytoses, onychomycoses(**DOC), and candida?