Term
What is Pharmacology?
a. The study of drugs in humans
b. the use of drugs to diagnose, treat or prevent disease
c. The study of drugs and their interactions with living systems
d. The study of drug movement through the body |
|
Definition
c. The study of drugs and their interactions with living systems
|
|
|
Term
What is Clinical Pharmacology?
a. The study of drugs and their interactions with living systems
b. The study of drugs in humans
c. The study of drug movement within the body
d. The study of biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and molecular mechanisms. |
|
Definition
b. The study of drugs in humans
|
|
|
Term
What are therapeutics?
a. What drugs do to the body and how they do it
b. any chemical that can effect living processes
c. the use of drugs to diagnose, treat or prevent disease
d. drugs that can be purchased without a prescription |
|
Definition
c. the use of drugs to diagnose, treat or prevent disease
|
|
|
Term
What is Pharmacokinetics?
a. The study of drug movement through the body
b. The study of drugs and their interactions with living systems
c. the study of drugs in humans
d. the study of biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and molecular mechanisms |
|
Definition
a. The study of drug movement through the body
|
|
|
Term
What are the four aspects of Pharmacokinetics?
a. Absorption, Malabsorption, Distribution, Expulsion
b. Anabolism, Metabolism, Excretion, Flow
c. Absorption, Distribution, Catabolism, Expulsion
d. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion |
|
Definition
| d. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion |
|
|
Term
What is Pharmacodynamics?
a. The study of drug movement through the body
b. The study of biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and molecular mechanisms - what drugs do to the body and how they do it.
c. The study of drugs in the human body
d. The study of drugs and their interactions with living systems |
|
Definition
b. The study of biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and molecular mechanisms - what drugs do to the body and how they do it.
|
|
|
Term
What are the different types of drug receptors?
a. Cell membrane enzymes, calcium channels, translation factors, ligand gated channels
b. Cell membrane channels, calcium channels, protein coupled receptors, transcription factors
c. Cell membrane enzymes, ligand gated channels, protein coupled receptors, transcription factors
d. Cell membrane enzymes, ligand gated channels, calcium channels, transcription factors |
|
Definition
c. Cell membrane enzymes, ligand gated channels, protein coupled receptors, transcription factors
|
|
|
Term
The drug name assigned by the US Adopted Name Council is what?
a. Generic name
b. Trade or Brand name
c. chemical name
d. Compound name |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug name is the name under which the drug is marketed?
a. Generic name
b. Trade/Brand name
c. Compound name
d. Chemical name |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug name constitutes a description of a drug using the nomenclature of chemistry?
a. Generic Name
b. Brand/Trade name
c. Compound name
d. Chemical name |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What aspect of the blood-brain barrier makes it difficult for drugs to pass from the blood stream to the central nervous system (CNS)? |
|
Definition
| The presence of tight junctions between the cells, making it necessary for substances such as drugs to actually penetrate the cells to get through the capillary walls of the CNS. |
|
|
Term
What is meant by protein binding?
|
|
Definition
| all drugs are carried through the blood by binding to a protein. |
|
|
Term
Where does most drug metabolism take place?
a. Kidneys
b. Small intestines
c. Liver
d. Large intestines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the minimum effective concentration of plasma drug levels below which therapeutic effects will not occur?
a. The minimum effective plasma drug levels
b. The plasma drug levels
c. The minimum therapeutic level
d. The minimum plasma level |
|
Definition
| b. The plasma drug levels |
|
|
Term
What is the time required for the amount of a drug in the body to decline by 50%?
a. The drug mid-point
b. The intermediate concentration
c. The half-life
d. the minimum therapeutic level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What lies between the Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC) and toxic concentration?
a. The therapeutic range
b. The maximum effective range
c. The range of relative potency
d. The Maximum Effective Concentration (MAC) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What relationship is demonstrated when the response to a drug gets more intense at increased dosages?
a. Synergistic relationship
b. Balanced response relationship
c. Increased response relationship
d. Dose response relationship |
|
Definition
| d. Dose response relationship |
|
|
Term
What is relative potency?
a. The biggest effect a drug can produce
b. The amount of drug we must give to elicit an effect
c. the minimum effective concentration below which t
therapeutic effects will not occur.
d. The point at which the response gets more intense. |
|
Definition
| b. The amount of drug we must give to elicit an effect |
|
|
Term
| Which molecules activate receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs prevent receptor activation by endogenous regulatory molecules and by other drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs have only moderate intrinsic activity and a maximal efficacy that is lower than that of agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The dose required to produce a defined therapeutic response in 50% of the population. |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are safe: those with a high therapeutic index, or those with a low therapeutic index? |
|
Definition
| Those with a high therapeutic index. |
|
|
Term
| What disease is produced by a physician? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of tolerance is caused by increased drug levels that produce effects that could formerly be elicited at lower drug levels?
a. Pharmocodynamic tolerance
b. Metabolic tolerance
c. tachyphylaxis
d. placebo |
|
Definition
| a. Pharmacodynamic tolerance |
|
|
Term
Which type of tolerance results from accelerated drug metabolism?
a. Pharmacodynamic tolerance
b. Metabolic tolerance
c. tachyphylaxis
d. placebo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of tolerance is defined as a reduction in drug responsiveness brought on by repeated dosing over a short time?
a. Pharmacodynamic tolerance
b. Metabolic tolerance
c. Tachyphylaxis
d. Placebo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two receptors are associated with the peripheral nervous system?
a. Cholinergic, anticholinergic
b. sympathetic, parasympathetic
c. Beta1, Beta2
d. cholinergic, adrenergic |
|
Definition
| d. cholinergic, adrenergic |
|
|
Term
What are the three major subtypes of cholinergic receptors?
|
|
Definition
| muscarinic, nicotinicN, nicotinicM |
|
|
Term
| What are the receptor subtypes of adrenergic receptors? |
|
Definition
| alpha1, alpha2, beta1, beta2 |
|
|
Term
| Which separate receptor is considered adrenergic, but does not respond to epinephrine or norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which neurotransmitter do cholinergic receptors respond to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which neurotransmitter do adrenergic receptors respond to? |
|
Definition
| Epinephrine and Norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What are the categories of cholinergic drugs? |
|
Definition
a. Muscarinic agonists
b. Muscarinic antagonists
c. Ganglionic stimulating agents
d. Ganglionic blocking agents
e. Neuromuscular blocking agents
f. Cholinesterase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
Is acetylcholine a
a. Muscarinic agonist
b. Muscarinic antagonist
c. Cholinesterase inhibitor
d. Neuromuscular blocking agent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is atropine a
a. muscarinic agonist
b. muscarinic antagonist
c. neuromuscular blocking agent
d. cholinesterase inhibitor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's another name for a muscarinic antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does atropine work on the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atrophine produces selective blockade of muscarinic cholinergic receptors, which causes what responses in the body? |
|
Definition
a. increased HR, decreased secretions, relaxation of the bronchi
b. decreased tone in bladder, decreased tone and motility of GI tract, mydriasis (dilation of the pupil), CNS excitation
c. xerostromia (dry mouth), blurred vision, increased intraoccular pressure, urinary retention, constipation, tachycardia, asthma |
|
|
Term
| Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic blocker. What is the only disorder it is approved for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Naloxone is the antidote for what?
a. atropine overdose
b. benzodiazepines
c. potassium overdose
d. opioid overdose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Physostigmine an antidote for?
a. atropine
b. opioid overdose
c. potassium overdose
d. benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Romazicon an antidote for?
a. opioid overdose
b. benzodiazepines
c. atropine
d. potassium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cholinesterase inhibiting drug is the principal medication used to treat myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of cholinesterase inhibiting drugs? |
|
Definition
| They prevent acethylcholinesterase (ChE) from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh). |
|
|
Term
| How do neuromuscular blocking agents work? |
|
Definition
| They prevent acetylcholine from activating nicotinicM receptors on skeletal muscle, causing muscle relaxation. |
|
|
Term
Which drugs compete with acetylcholine for binding to nicotinicM receptors?
a. nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
b. depolarizing neuromuscular blockers |
|
Definition
| a. nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers |
|
|
Term
| What are the reasons neuromuscular blockers may be? |
|
Definition
a. muscle relaxation during surgery
b. mechanical ventilation
c. endotracheal intubation
d. adjunct ot electroconvulsive therapy
e. diagnosis of myasthenia gravis |
|
|
Term
| Which receptors does epinephrine act on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What functions does epinephrine perform in the body? |
|
Definition
a. delayed absorption of local anesthetics
b. control superficial bleeding, increase BP, overcome AV heart block, restore cardiac function in patients experiencing cardiac arrest.
c. promotes bronchodilation in asthma patients
d. treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of adrenergic agonist? |
|
Definition
| Catecholemines and Noncatecholemines |
|
|
Term
| Catecholemines have three properties in common; what are they? |
|
Definition
a. they cannot be used orally
b. they have a brief duration of action
they cannot cross the BBB |
|
|
Term
| In which three ways are noncatecholemines different from catecholemines? |
|
Definition
a. They have a longer half-life
b. they can be given orally
c. They can cross the BBB more easily |
|
|
Term
Which receptors are activated by epinephrine?
a. alpha1
b. alpha1, alpha2, beta2
c. alpha2, beta2
d. alpha1, alpha2, beta1, beta2 |
|
Definition
| d. alpha1, alpha2, beta1, beta2 |
|
|
Term
Which receptor(s) are activated by Albuterol?
a. Alpha1 and Alpha2
b. Beta2
c. Beta1 and Beta2
c. Beta1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the receptor specificity and chemical classification of Epinephrine? |
|
Definition
receptor specificity: both alphas and both betas
chemical classification: catecholemine |
|
|
Term
| What are the receptor specificity and chemical classification of Dopamine? |
|
Definition
Receptor specificity: alpha1, beta1 and dopamine
Chemical classification: catecholemine |
|
|
Term
| What determines the receptor specificity of Dopamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the receptor specificity and chemical classification of Albuterol? |
|
Definition
receptor specificity: beta2
chemical classification: noncatecholemine |
|
|
Term
| What is the first line drug for Parkinson's Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which medication(s) are the most effective therapy for Parkinson's Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the Carbidopa in the Levadopa/Carbidopa combination? |
|
Definition
| It is used to enhance the effects of the Levadopa by inhibiting its breakdown in the intestine, thereby making it more available to the CNS. |
|
|
Term
| Which portion of the Levadopa/Carbidopa combination actually crosses the BBB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the naturally occuring glycoprotein with antiviral, antiproliferative and immunomodulatory actions that is used for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is Interferon thought to be effective against multiple sclerosis? |
|
Definition
| it inhibits the migration of proinflammatory leukocytes across the BBB, preventing these cells from reaching neurons in the CNS. |
|
|
Term
| What medication is used to treat an acute MS relapse? |
|
Definition
| A short course of high dose IV glucocorticoids such as methylprednisolone |
|
|
Term
| The side effects of which group of antiseizure medications has less side effects: traditional or newer Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)? |
|
Definition
| The newer AEDs are better tolerated, have less risk to the developing fetus, and have less complex interactions with other medications. |
|
|
Term
| What are some traditional Antiseizure drugs (AEDs)? |
|
Definition
| Phenytoin, Carbamezepine, Valproic Acid, Phenobarbital |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the newer Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs for muscle spasm are thought to relieve spasm by enhancing presynaptic inhibition by enhancing the effects of GABA (an inhibitory neurotransmitter) and producing generalized CNS depression? |
|
Definition
| MOA-inhibitors such as Diazepam and Tizanidine |
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| They don't produce unconsciousness |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of a popular topically applied local anesthetic? How long does it take for this product to take effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What other popular local anesthetic can be administered topically or by injection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anesthetics produce unconsciousness and lack of responsiveness to all painful stimuli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is protein binding an important factor in how much of a drug is actually available for distribution to its target site?
|
|
Definition
| The more protein bound a drug is (such as Warfarin), the less of the drug is available for distribution. The less protein bound a drug is (such as Gentamicin), the more of the drug is left free for distribution. |
|
|
Term
| Which plasma protein is the most important factor in protein binding considerations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why can one drug that is attractive to albumin cause the toxicity of another drug that is already bound to the protein? |
|
Definition
| If it has a stronger attraction to albumin the new drug can dislodge the old, increasing the 'free' levels of that drug in the plasma and increasing the risk of toxicity. |
|
|
Term
What is the hepatic drug metabolizing enzyme and why is it important?
|
|
Definition
| The cytochrome P450 system is a group of 12 enzymes, three of which effect drugs. They can either break them down into smaller molecules, or act as catalysts to synthesize larger molecules. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of tolerance is caused by a reduction in drug responsiveness brought on by repeated dosing over a short time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the properties of an ideal drug? |
|
Definition
| Effectiveness, safety, selectivity, reversable action, predictability, ease of administration, no drug interactions, low cost, chemical stability, simple generic name. |
|
|
Term
| What are the therapeutic objectives of drug therapy? |
|
Definition
| Maximum benefit with minimum harm |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the intensity of drug response? |
|
Definition
a. rate of dissolution of the drug
b. surface area available for absorption (small intestines have a larger surface area, therefore most orally administered drugs are absorbed here)
c. blood flow (areas with high vascularity are sites of more rapid absorption)
d. lipid solubility of the drug
e. pH partitioning |
|
|
Term
| What are the four major pharmacokinetic processes? |
|
Definition
| Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion |
|
|
Term
| Right are the six rights of medication administration? |
|
Definition
Right drug
Right patient
Right dose
Right route
Right time
Right documentation |
|
|
Term
| Who are the high risk patients when administering medifcations? |
|
Definition
| Patients with liver and kidney impairment, genetic factors, pregnancy, advanced age, extreme youth |
|
|
Term
| What are the three ways to cross membranes? |
|
Definition
a. Channels or pores
b. transport system (active transport)
c. direct penetration (lipid solubility) |
|
|
Term
| What are the routes of drug administration, and what are the pros and cons of each? |
|
Definition
1. parenteral (IV, SQ, IM)
a. pros - no barriers, lg fluid volume, instant and complete absorption, rapid onset, precise control
b. cons - irreversibility, expensive, inconvenient, difficult, risky (fluid overload, infection, embolism, discomfort), drugs must be water soluble
2. Enteral (oral)
a. pros - easy and convenient, inexpensive, ideal for self-medication, safer
b. cons - variable, inactivation by gastric and digestive processes, nausea and vomiting, consciousness, patient coopreation |
|
|
Term
| What are the therapeutic consequences of drug metabolism? |
|
Definition
1. accelerated renal excretion
2. drug inactivation
3. increased therapeutic action
4. activation of prodrugs
5. increased toxicity
6. decreased toxicity |
|
|
Term
| How are drugs excreted? What are some of the nonrenal routes of excretion? |
|
Definition
| Routes include urine, bile, sweat, saliva, breast milk, and expired air |
|
|
Term
| What are drug/receptor interactions? |
|
Definition
Receptors are any macromolecule to which a drug binds in order to produce its effects. There are four types:
Cell Membrane - Embedded Enzymes
Ligand-Gated Ion Channels
G Protein-Coupled Receptor System
Transcription Factors |
|
|
Term
| What are the consequences of drug-drug interactions - potentiative, inhibitory, unique responses? |
|
Definition
Potentiative - one drug intensifies the effects of another
Inhibitory - one drug reduces the effects of another, or the effects of both drugs are reduced
Unique - two drugs interact and create a response not seen in either drug alone |
|
|
Term
| How do we minimize drug interactions? |
|
Definition
1. minimize number of drugs taken by the patient
2. take a thorough drug history
3. Adjusting drug dosages when necessary
4. adjusting timing of dose to minimize interference with absorption |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common reason for pulling drugs from the market? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs do not work by altering synaptic transmission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs are classified as muscarinic antagonists? |
|
Definition
| Atropine, scopolamine, Atrovent |
|
|
Term
| What drug is an anticholinergic? What is it used for? |
|
Definition
| Oxybutynin - overactive bladder |
|
|
Term
| What do neuromuscular blocking agents do? What route are they given? Do they cross the BBB? |
|
Definition
They block acetylcholine
They are given IV
They cannot cross membranes, so do not cross the placentas or the BBB
|
|
|
Term
| What is the receptor specificity of Dopamine? Of Albuterol? |
|
Definition
Dopamine - dopamine agonist (also beta1 and alpha1)
Albuterol - beta2 adrenergic agonist |
|
|
Term
| What are ergot alkaloids used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Buspar is an anxiolytic drug like benzodiazepines, but it is different in several noteable ways. What are those differences? |
|
Definition
1. It is not a CNS depressant
2. It does not cause sedation
3. It has no abuse potential
4. it does not intensify the effects of CNS depressants
5. Initial responses take a week to appear and peak responses take several weeks
|
|
|
Term
| Which class of drugs is used to treat ADHD? What are some examples of these drugs? |
|
Definition
CNS stimulants
Caffeine, Theophyline, Doxapram, Amphetamines (Adderall), Methylphenidate (Ritalin) |
|
|
Term
| What are sedative hypnotic drugs used for? What are some of these drugs? |
|
Definition
CNS depressants used for anxiety and insomnia
Barbituates
Benzodiazepines - Diazepam (Valium), Lorazepam (Ativan)
Benzodiazepine like - Zolipidem (Ambien) |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of Barbituate therapy? |
|
Definition
High potential for abuse
Fatal when overdosed
high potential for tolerance and physical dependence
|
|
|
Term
| Which drug is used to treat bipolar disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first choice in antidepressant drugs? What are some examples of these? |
|
Definition
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Citatopram (Celexa)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Paroxetine (Paxil)
|
|
|
Term
| What are Serotonin/Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs) used for? What are some examples of these drugs? |
|
Definition
Block reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine. Used in the treatment of depression. Not as well tolerated as SSRIs.
Venlafaxine (Effexor)
Duloxetine (Cymbalta) |
|
|
Term
| What are tricyclic antidepressants? Are they used today? What are some examples of these drugs? |
|
Definition
Blocks reuptake of norepinephrine and 5-HT. Used in the treatment of depression, but not nearly as prevalent since the emergence of SSRIs, which are much safer.
Amitriptyline
Nortriptyline |
|
|
Term
| What are examples of some atypical antidepressant drugs? |
|
Definition
Bupropion
Mirtazapine
Trazodone
|
|
|
Term
| According to the WHO ladder for pain medication for cancer patients, when should treatment begin with a nonopioid? With an opioid? |
|
Definition
Nonopiod - 1-3 on a scale of 0-10
Opioid - 4-10 on a scale of 0-10 |
|
|
Term
| Which medications are used on step 1 of the WHO ladder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which medications are used on step 2 of the WHO ladder? |
|
Definition
Oxycodone
Hydrocodone
(+) Nonopioid analgesic
(+)adjuvent |
|
|
Term
| Which medications are used on the 3rd step of the WHO ladder? |
|
Definition
Morphine
Fentanyl
(+) nonopioid analgesic
(+) adjuvent |
|
|
Term
| How is severe hypokalemia treated? What should never be done when giving IV potassium? |
|
Definition
With IV piggyback
Never give KCl IV push. Always dilute and infuse slowly. |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are the main hypertension medications? |
|
Definition
1. Diuretics (thiazides such as HCT, Loops such as Furosemide, Potassium-sparers such as spironolactone)
2. Sympatholytics (antiadrenergics such as Beta-blockers - Propranolol, metoprolol)
3. Calcium Channel Blockers (nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem)
4. ACE Inhibitors (Captopril
5. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) - Valsartan
|
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are best to treat heart failure? |
|
Definition
Diuretics
ACE Inhibitors
Beta-blockers
Digoxin |
|
|
Term
| What kind of drug is Digoxin? What does it do in the heart? |
|
Definition
Cardiac glycoside
It increases myocardial contractile force |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs inhibit the Renin-Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)? |
|
Definition
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)
Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRIs)
Aldosterone Antagonists |
|
|
Term
| What are the four classes of antidysrhythmics? |
|
Definition
Class I: Sodium Channel Blockers (Quinidine, Lidocaine, Phenytoin)
Class II: Beta-Blockers (Propranolol, Acebutolol)
Class III: Potassium Channel Blockers (Amiodarone)
Class IV: Calcium Channel Blockers (Diltiazem, Verapamil)
Other antidysrhythmics: Digoxin, Adenosine |
|
|
Term
| What are the safe levels for total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and the recommended levels for HDL cholesterol? |
|
Definition
Total cholesterol <200mg/dL
LDL cholesterol <100mg/dL
HDL cholesterol >/= 60mg/dL
|
|
|
Term
| What are the most effective drugs for lowering LDL and total cholesterol? |
|
Definition
| Statin drugs (Atorvastatin, Lovastatin, Simvastatin) |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse effects of statin drugs? |
|
Definition
| Myopathy/Rhabdomyolysis, Hepatotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used to treat angina? |
|
Definition
Nitroglycerine
Beta-Blockers
Calcium Channel Blockers |
|
|
Term
| How does nitroglycerine and other inorganic nitrates treat angina? |
|
Definition
| They cause vasodilation, which decreases cardiac preload and oxygen demand. |
|
|
Term
| How does testosterone affect blood volume? |
|
Definition
| Testosterone promotes synthesis of erythropoetin, a hormone that stimulates bone marrow to produce more erythrocytes. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three treatments for cancer? |
|
Definition
| Surgery, radiation and chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
| What are the six classes of antiretroviral drugs? Who are they used for? |
|
Definition
1. reverse transcriptase inhibitor
2. integrase strand transfer inhibitor
3. protease inhibitor
4. fusion inhibitor
5. chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5) antagonist
These drugs are used for treatment of patients with HIV infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the principal anti-inflammatory drugs used to treat asthma? What are the principal bronchodilators? |
|
Definition
anti-inflammatories - glucocorticoids
bronchodilators - beta2 agonists |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of antiemetic drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which vitamins are lipid soluble? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Tamoxifen, and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
| Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. It blocks estrogen receptors in the breast, inhibiting cell growth. It is used to prevent and treat breast cancer. |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs suppress labor? |
|
Definition
| Tocolytics (beta adrenergic agonists - terbutaline, calcium channel blockers - nifedipine, COX inhibitors - indomethacin, oxytocin receptor antagonists - atosiban) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is considered an antiplatelet drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are considered anticoagulants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal aPTT for a person taking Heparin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two lab tests are important to monitor in a patient taking Warfarin (Coumadin)? What should the lab values for these tests be? |
|
Definition
Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
PT/INR: 2-3, 3-4.5 for some patients |
|
|
Term
| Which clotting factor is used to replaced in Hemophelia A? Hemophelia B? |
|
Definition
hemophelia A: factor VIII
hemophelia B: factor IX |
|
|
Term
| Which vitamin helps with absorption of iron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which level of hemoglobin A1C is indicative of diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the drug that is a synthetic T4 hormone? When should it be administered? |
|
Definition
Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
Administer one hour before meals, or on an empty stomach |
|
|
Term
| What are the three classes of steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex? |
|
Definition
glucocorticoids
mineralocorticoids
adrenal androgens |
|
|
Term
| What are the three classes of antiarthritic drug? |
|
Definition
1. NSAIDs
2. glucocorticoids
3. disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) |
|
|
Term
| What drug is preferred for long-term urate-lowering therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are used to treat acute gouty attacks? |
|
Definition
glucocorticoids
Cholchisine
NSAIDS |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug of choice for the prevention of organ rejections in transplant patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
