| Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both Intranasal corticosteroid
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both Intranasal antihistamine
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both oral antihistamine
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both Decongestant
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both Ipratropium bromide
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both nasal saline
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AR/ VMR/ Both Oral corticosteroids
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment plan for episodic AR? |  | Definition 
 
        | treat the symptoms 
 nasal decongestant, nasal antihistamine, oral antihistamine, eye drops, or nasal saline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment plan for mild persistent allergic rhinitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1 regular medication 
 nasal corticosteroid or nasal antihistamine
 
 monetlukast, ipratropium bromide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment plan for mild to moderate persistent allergic rhinitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2 regular medications 
 nasal corticosteroid and nasal antihistamine
 
 oral antihistamine, montelukast
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment plan for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2-3 medications 
 nasal corticosteroid and nasal antihistamine
 
 montelukast, ipratropium bromide, oral antihistamine, nasal saline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment plan for severe persistent allergic rhinitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | continue all regularly used medications and add short term use corticosteroids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long should you use corticosteroids to treat severe persistent allergic rhinitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dose packs for 5-7 days 4x per year (no more than every 3 months)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prescription NSAID eye drop relieves ocular itching
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | OTC antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rx antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | antihistamine and vasoconstricter limit to 2-3 days because of the naphazoline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | naphazoline + pheniramine |  | Definition 
 
        | antihistamine and vasoconstrictor limit to 2-3 days because of naphazoline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1st gen oral antihistamine causes drowsiness
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1st gen oral antihistamine less drowsy than diphenhydramine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1st gen oral antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1st gen oral antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rx 1st gen oral antihistamine
 antiemetic, sedative, anxiolytic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F First gen oral antihistamines cross the blood brain barrier because they are lipid soluble.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What cardiovascular effects do first gen oral antihistamines have? |  | Definition 
 
        | increase BP and cause prolonged QT interval |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen oral antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen oral antihistamine > 12 180 mg QD
 doesn't have a lot of drug-drug interactions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen oral antihistamine 2 mo.s-5 yrs  2.5 mg PO QD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen oral antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen oral antihistamine > 6 yrs  5 mg PO QPM
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F There are cardiovascular effects produced by second gen oral antihistamines.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are second gen nasal antihistamines dosed? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1-2 sprays each nostril BID |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | azelastine hydrochloride (saline)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen nasal antihistamine bitter taste
 approved for age 5 and up
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | azelastine hydrochloride (sucralose/sorbitol)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen nasal antihistamines approved for age 12 and up
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd gen nasal antihistamine age 12 and up
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | nasal steroid seasonal and perennial allergic and nonallergic rhinitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | fluticasone furoate (dose)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | nasal steroid 2-11 years: 1 spray per nostril QD-BID
 Adults: 2 sprays per nostril BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | nasal steroid - AQ prep 2-11 years: 1 spray each nostril QD
 adults: 2 sprays each nostril QD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beclomethasone diproponate |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | mast cell stabilizer begin 1 week before to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinits
 Side effects: nasal stinging, sneezing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | anticholinergic agent side effects: nasal dryness, epistaxis, headache
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | leukotriene receptor blocker 2-5 years - 4 mg PO QHS
 6-14 years - 5 mg PO QHS
 Adults - 10 mg PO QD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | leukotriene receptor blocker hepatotoxicity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | leukotriene receptor blocker hepatotoxicity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 2 causative agents of folliculitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Staph. aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What oral antibiotic will resolve folliculitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What OTC topical agents are used to treat folliculitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | bacitracin/neomycin/polymyxin B (Neosporin) and bacitracin zinc/polymyxin B sulfate (Betadine Brand) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What Rx topical agents are used to treat folliculitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | acne preparations such as benzoyl peroxide (Benzac), doxycycline (Doryx), and clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide (Benzaclin);  or mupirocin (Bactroban, Centany) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat extensive folliculitis? (hot tubitis?) |  | Definition 
 
        | systemic antibiotic - cephalexin (Keflex) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is mupirocin (Bactroban nasal) used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is furuncle treatment for a closed lesion? |  | Definition 
 
        | Broad spectrum abx for 7-10 days; RTC in 5-9 days for incision and drainage - remove the lesion as an intact mass |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a carbuncle? |  | Definition 
 
        | clean the area daily with soap and water; sterile dressing if purulence; mupirocin to open wounds; wound culture; abx - fluoroquinolone, tetracycline, or amoxicillin/clavulanate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What typically causes bullous erysipelas? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for bullous erysipelas? |  | Definition 
 
        | rupture of bullae, debridement, and compression stockings 
 cephalexin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for impetigo? |  | Definition 
 
        | clean the area daily - not with topical disinfectant; mupirocin, retapamulin - ointments or cephalexin, dicloxacillin - oral abx |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for lymphangitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | immobilizaion and elevation of the infected area; parenteral abx - penicillin, then after fever abates switch to oral penicillin for 10 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat cellulitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | cephalexin (Keflex), amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin), or tirmethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat serious cellulitis? (orbital cellulitis or large areas of infection) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for diabetic foot ulcers? |  | Definition 
 
        | PREVENTION Rule out osteomyelitis
 Oral broad specrum antibiotic - fluoroquinolone, amoxicillin/clavulanate
 Debridement of the wound to bleeding margins
 Daily care
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long do you dose an oral abx for a diabetic foot ulcer? |  | Definition 
 
        | 10-14 days, if no S/S of infection, discontinue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a more intense treatment for diabetic foot ulcers? |  | Definition 
 
        | becaplermin (Regranex) 0.1% gel |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is in becaplermin (Regranex) 0.1% gel? |  | Definition 
 
        | platelet-derived growth factors (PDGFs); these recruit cells around the ulcer and initiate the second phase of healing - proliferation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is important to note about becaplermin (Regranex)? |  | Definition 
 
        | It is a 12-hour topical treatment.  Apply it in the AM and remove in the PM.  Use an abx cream/ointment at night. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium bovis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you read a TST (or PPD)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Look and feel for induration.  Mark the induration with a pen and measure 
 >15 mm is +
 >10mm in an exposed, diabetic, or kidney disease individual is +
 >5mm in an immunocompromised individual is +
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the first phase of treatment for TB? |  | Definition 
 
        | 8 weeks of daily therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the second phase of treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | 18 weeks (daily, 5x/week, or 3x/week) of meds depending on the initial response 31 weeks for phase 2 if cavitation on initial CXR
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are considered the first line therapies for TB? |  | Definition 
 
        | isoniazid, rifampin, amikacin, and kanamycin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, rifabutin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are possible side effects of isoniazid? |  | Definition 
 
        | fever, skin rashes, drug induced hepatitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of rifampin? |  | Definition 
 
        | orange color to urine, sweat, tears, and contact lenses; rashes, thrombocytopenia (anemia), and nephritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs used to treat TB can cause drug-induced hepatitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens if you use isoniazid with phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | you get increased levels of both drugs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What TB drug should not be used in children and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | ethambutol because of risk of diminished visual acuity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug regimen do you use to treat children with TB? |  | Definition 
 
        | isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide and 4th if there is severe pulmonary disease
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the 3 drug regimen used to treat active TB in pregnant women?  Why are these used? |  | Definition 
 
        | isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol they are used because of their lack of teratogenic effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When a TB patient is in advanced liver disease, which drug(s) do you use? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medications do you use to treat HIV patients with TB? |  | Definition 
 
        | same drugs as with non-HIV patients, except if the patient is on antivirals, in which case - no rifampin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 drugs may increase risk of latent TB becoming active TB?  How do they cause this? |  | Definition 
 
        | infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab 
 they inhibit tumor necrosis factor alpha
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How must isoniazid be taken? |  | Definition 
 
        | on an empty stomach, and no antacids for 2 hours |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for resistant TB? |  | Definition 
 
        | isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, + 2 or 3 additional agents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 most common bacteria in AOM? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Strep pneumoniae 40-50% 2. Haemophilis influenzae 30-40%
 3. Moraxell catarrhalis 10-15%
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 factors must be present in order to diagnose OM? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. History of acute onset 2. Signs of middle ear effusion - immobile, bulging TM
 3. Middle ear inflammation - erythema of the TM, otalgia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the first line of treatment for uncomplicated AOM? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Amoxicillin - safe, inexpensive, acceptable taste, and narrow microbiologic spectrum
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the low dose of amoxicillin for AOM? High dose? |  | Definition 
 
        | 40-45 mg/kg/day in divided doses BID x 10 days 
 80-90 mg/kg/day in divided doses BID x 10 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing for amoxicillin/clavulanate for AOM? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day 2. clavulanate 6.4 mg/kg/day
 3. divided doses BID x 10 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing of Clindamycin for AOM after treatment failure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 17-25 mg/kg/day in 3-4 doses x 10 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What abxs are used to treat OE> |  | Definition 
 
        | Colistin/neomycin/hydrocotisone ofloxacin
 ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a contraindication for the use of colistin/neomycin/hydrocortisone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which medication is approved for treatment of OE with perforated TM? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is ciprofloaxin/dexamethasone (steroid) contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | viral or fungal infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat fungal OE? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2% acetic acid solution 1% clotrimazole
 tolnafate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How many days must a patient be symptomatic before it is no longer assumed to be VIRAL rhinosinusitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | hat meds are useful for rhinosinusitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | oxymetazoline phenylephrine
 azelastine
 use 1-3 days only
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 4 items are on the diagnostic point system for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. purulent nasal discharge - worse on one side 2. bilateral rhinorrhea
 3. unilateral maxillary sinus tenderness (or frontal sinus tenderness)
 4. Pus in the nasal cavity on examination
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat ABRS in peds? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. high dose amoxicillin 2. high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate
 3. cefidinir
 4. clindamycin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat ABRS in adults? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. high dose amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate 2. cefpodoxine
 3. moxifloxacin
 4. clarithromycin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the first line of therapy for ABRS? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a patient is allergic to penicillins, what do you use to treat ABRS? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or a macrolide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a patient has used abx in the last 4-6 weeks, what do you use to treat ABRS? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. fluoroquinolone 2. high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is included in the diagnostic point system for GABHS pharyngitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Tonsilar exudates 2. absence of cough
 3. tender anterior cervical lymph nodes
 4. history of fever >100.4
 5. <15 years
 6. >45 years
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the DOC for GABHS pharyngitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. penicillin G bezathine IM 2. Penicillin VK in adults
 3. Macrolide for penicillin allergy - clarithromycin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might you use to treat watery, itchy eyes? |  | Definition 
 
        | olopatadine azelastine
 
 both are antihistamine and mast cell stabilizers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long is the treatment course for bacterial UTI? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do we use 1 day treatments for bacterial UTI if they are less effective than longer treatments? |  | Definition 
 
        | longer treatments have higher risk for adverse effects and are not very much more effective. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long is the treatment course for complicated UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | 7-14 days except Nitrofurantoin 7-10 days - safe to use in pregnant women
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a urine dip test done to detect? |  | Definition 
 
        | presence of leukocyte esterase, presence of blood, presence of nitrates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTI? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name some bacteria that may be the cause of complicated urinary tract infection. |  | Definition 
 
        | Staphylococcus saprophyticus (gram +), enterobacteria (Klebsiella or Proteus) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the empiric treatment for women with suspected UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 3 days ciprofloxacin 3 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F History and physical exam trump dipstick analysis when it comes to diagnosing UTI.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In microscopic analysis, what # of WBCs and  RBCs indicate infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Pyridium - a urinary analgesic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 800/160 mg bid x 3days ciprofloxacin 250 mg bid x 3 days
 fosfomycin 1 day
 nitrofurantoin 100 mg bid x 7 days
 cephalexin
 amoxicillin/clavulanate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is nitrofurantoin cleared from the body? |  | Definition 
 
        | kidneys, so do not prescribe with creatinine clearance < 40 ml/min |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of nitrofurantoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | nausea and vomiting - 17% of patients rash - 1%
 
 rare
 pulm hypersensitivity: acute fever, cough, dyspnea, myalgias, eosinophilia, infiltrates
 pulm fibrosis: insidious onset, nonproductive cough, dyspnea, interstitial infiltrates
 hemolytic anemia
 peripheral neuropathy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 abx used for the treatment of UTI are pregnancy category B? |  | Definition 
 
        | nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, and cephalexin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which abx is the treatment of choice for UTI in pregnant women?  Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nitrofurantoin - cat. B and cheap 
 fosfomycin is more expensive
 cephalexin isn't as effective
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does a UTI presentation differ in the elderly? |  | Definition 
 
        | no fever, asymptomatic bacteriuria, altered mental status, change in eating habits, GI complaints |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat significant (max on urine dip) hematuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | urinalysis, 10 days of tx with TMP/SMX and RTC to repeat urine dip |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for pyelonephritis in an immunocompetant patient that can tolerate oral therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | ceftriaxone and levofloxacin follow up in 24-72 hours
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat schistosomiasis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for acute prostatitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for chronic prostatitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | same as UTI, but longer (4 weeks - 3 months) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for infectious hematospermia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2 weeks of quinolone, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or doxycycline |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Between age 14-35 what are the most common causes of epididymitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | N. gonorrhea or Chlamydia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely cause of epididymitis in men older than 35? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you rule out testicular torsion when you suspect epididymitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | pain with testicular elevation, acute onset of pain, epididymis appears normal, decreased blood flow on doppler |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What % of interstitial cystitis patients have therapeutic results from evaluation by hydrodistension?  How long do the effects last? |  | Definition 
 
        | 30-60% and last 2-8 weeks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Bronchitis is generally considered a viral etiology.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Pneumonia is generally considered a bacterial infection.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long does acute bronchitis last? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for whooping cough? |  | Definition 
 
        | Erythromycin (EES) 30-50 mg/kg/day as 3 divided doses x 10 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How soon should treatment be started with whooping cough? |  | Definition 
 
        | macrolide should be started within the first 2 weeks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long should a patient with whooping cough be isolated? |  | Definition 
 
        | first 5 days of treatment |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 3 primary bacterial agents that can cause acute bronchitis in rare cases. |  | Definition 
 
        | Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Bordetella pertussis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 3 causes of secondary bacterial infection in acute bronchitis. |  | Definition 
 
        | Streptococcus ssp., Staphylococcus spp., Hemophilis spp. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for acute bronchitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | symptomatic and supportive care - fluids and bed rest, antipyretics, vaporizer to lessen respiratory secretions (especially in infants < 1 year) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where is acetominophen metabolized? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where is ibuprofen metabolized? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the maximum dosage of acetominophen for an adult? |  | Definition 
 
        | short term 4g/day long term 3g/day
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What characterizes Reye's syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | severe increase of intracranial pressure and an abnormal accumulation of fat in the liver; first symptom is uncontrollable vomiting and nausea; swelling in the brain may cause seizures and the child may stop  breathing |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat Reye's syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | drugs to control the swelling in the brain and IV fluids to restore normal blood chemistry; ventilator to aid in breathing |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 3 cough suppressants used to treat acute bronchitis. |  | Definition 
 
        | dextromethorphan, codeine, and hydrocodone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does dextromethophan work? |  | Definition 
 
        | Penetrates the CNS to act on the brainstem to inhibit the cough center; inhibits glutamenergic synaptic transmission of inputs from sensory receptors in the airway as a result of facilitation of serotonergic mechanism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Expectorants are recommended for acute bronchitis.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do expectorants do to ease symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | promote drainage of mucus from the lungs by thinning the mucus and lubricating the irritated respiratory tract |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing for guafenesin (Mucinex)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is benzonatate (Tessalon)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you dose benzonatate? |  | Definition 
 
        | 100 mg perles bid-tid Walmart $4 prescription
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What criteria are used to diagnose chronic bronchitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | cough and sputum expectoration occurring on most days for at least 3 months of the year and for at least 2 consecutive years without the presence of other pulmonary or cardiac causes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do we treat chronic bronchitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | depends on classification 1, 2, or 3 symptomatic and supportive care, maybe antibiotics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you dose bronchodilators? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2 puffs prn up to QID - if more than 1 is used, still QID TOTAL |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you dose duoneb (albuterol + ipratripium) updraft solution? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Abuterol is a short acting beta agonist.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F While using beta agonists, it is important to avoid concomitant beta-blocker therapy.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why does albuterol have little effect on adrenergic receptors of the heart? |  | Definition 
 
        | It is a selective better blocker, blocking beta2 receptors which relaxes the airway smooth muscle but not blocking beta1 receptors of the heart |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does ipratropium bromide act as a bronchodilator? |  | Definition 
 
        | it blocks the action of Ach at parasympathetic sites in bronchial smooth muscle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the DOC bronchodilator for COPD patients? How is it dosed? |  | Definition 
 
        | albuterol + ipratropium bromide 2 puffs prn QID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antibiotic therapy for simple chronic bronchitis with mild symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | no antibiotics, just symptomatic and supportive care |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antibiotic therapy for simple chronic bronchitis with intense symptoms?  Give dosage |  | Definition 
 
        | symptomatic and supportive care and antibiotics azithromycin, 3 pack 500 mg po QD x 3 days
 doxycycline
 trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 800/160 mg po bid x 10 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole work? |  | Definition 
 
        | prevents bacterial proteins and nucleic acids from being synthesized |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with COPD and mild symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | azithromycin, doxycycline, co-trimaxazole (bactrim DS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with COPD and severe symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | levofloxacin, 750 mg QD x 7 days clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 7 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with severe COPD and mild symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | levofloxacin amoxicillin-clavulanate 1000/62.5 mg 2 tabs po q12h x 10 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with severe COPD and severe symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | consider hospitalization for IV abx as for pneumonia - run cultures ceftriaxone 1 g IM with levofloxacin or Augmentin and follow up in 24 h.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What age is the peak incidence of bronchioloitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 viruses account for most cases of bronchiolitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical presentation of bronchiolitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | prodrome - irritability, restlessness, mild fever (lasts 2-7 days) dehydration - cough prevents fluid intake; emesis, diarrhea, fever
 tachypnea (40- 80 RR)
 labored breathing, retractions of the chest wall, nasal flaring, and grunting
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When are bronchodilators used in the treatment of bronchiolitis and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | only for bronchospasm with clear therapeutic benefit because they may be detrimental to patients |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What treatment regimen helps reduce rate of hospital admission in bronchiolitis patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | epinephrine nebulizer treatment dexamethasone shot then oral treatment for 5 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is palivizumab given? |  | Definition 
 
        | injection once a month for several months (max 3-5 doses) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common cause of death from infection in the US? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 ways in which microorganisms access the lungs? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. inhaled aerosolized particles 2. through the blood stream from an extrapulmonary site of infection in sepsis
 3. aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common cause of CAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | Streptococcus pneumoniaee |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is urinary antigen detection for the C polysaccharide from the pneumococcal cell wall used to determine if someone has Strep. pneumoniae? |  | Definition 
 
        | because it remains positive for weeks after initial symptoms and can be used after abx are begun |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you determine  if someone has severe CAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | One major criteria or 2 minor criteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major criteria for determining severe CAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | serum p < 7.3 systolic pressure < 90 mm Hg
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the minor criteria for determining severe CAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | respirations > 30 BUN > 30
 altered mental status
 age > 80 years
 multi-lobular/bilateral infiltrates on CXR
 Pa02 < 54 mm Hg
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the outpatient abx therapy for adults with CAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | levofloxacin 750 mg QD x 10 days gemifloxacin 320 mg po QD x 7 days
 clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 10 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the outpatient abx therapy for pediatrics with CAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | clarithromycin amoxicillin/clavulanate
 ceftriaxone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 2 pneumonia vaccines and when are they used? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pneumovax 23 - used in those with weakened immune systems and those over 65 Prevnar - covers 80% of pneumococcal infections in peds population
 
 Also, yearly flu vaccine helps prevent pneumonia cases caused by flu
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 3 atypical pathogens that may cause pneumonia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Mycoplasma penumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Legionella pneumoniae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is Legionella pneumoniae spread? |  | Definition 
 
        | spray from stagnant water no person to person spread
 has 14% mortality rate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat atypical pneumonia? |  | Definition 
 
        | levofloxacin clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 10 days
 doxycycline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How should nursing home acquired pneumonia be treated outpatient? |  | Definition 
 
        | levofloxacin or moxifloxicin 
 OR
 
 amoxicillin/clavulanate or cefuroxime or cefpodoxime AND azithromycin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How should nursing home acquired pneumonia be treated inpatient? |  | Definition 
 
        | 3 medications IV 
 1. antipseudomonal - cephalosporin (cefepime), cabapenem (imipemem/cilastatin), B-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam)
 2. antipsudomonal - fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin), aminoglycoside (tobramycin)
 3. Anti-MRSA - vancomycin or linezolid
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the risk of acquiring gonorrhea after 1 encounter? |  | Definition 
 
        | male -> female 50-60% female -> male 20-30%
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What culture techniques are used to diagnose gonorrhea? |  | Definition 
 
        | male - urethral swab female - endocervical swab
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What lab test is used to diagnose gonorrhea? |  | Definition 
 
        | nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) used to check for chlamydia too
 men - urine
 female - endocervical
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat uncomplicated gonorrhea in adults? |  | Definition 
 
        | ceftriaxone 250 mg IM once cefixime 400 mg PO once
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F N. gonorrhea is increasingly resistant to quinolones in some geographic areas.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat disseminated gonorrhea in adults? |  | Definition 
 
        | hospitalization ceftriaxone 1 g IM Q24h
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat PID from gonorrhea outpatient? |  | Definition 
 
        | ceftriaxone doxycycline
 metronidazole
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Concomitant treatment for chlamydia infection should always take place.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat chlamydia? |  | Definition 
 
        | doxycycline 100 mg bid x 7 days azithromycin 1 g orally once
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat gonorrhea in pregnant women? |  | Definition 
 
        | Avoid fluoroquinolones ceftriaxone 125 mg IM
 spectinomycin 2 g IM
 cefixime
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat chlamydia in pregnant women? |  | Definition 
 
        | azythromycin or amoxicillin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the organism that causes Syphilis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Treponema pallidium a spirochete
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the risk of transmission of syphilis on a single encounter? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When does the chancre of syphilis form?  How long does it last? |  | Definition 
 
        | 10-90 days (average of 21) lasts 3-6 weeks
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When does secondary syphilis present? |  | Definition 
 
        | 4-10 weeks after primary infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical presentation of secondary syphilis? |  | Definition 
 
        | skin rash, fever, myalgias, malaise, lympadenopathy or mucocutaneous lesions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which diagnostic tests are used to detect syphilis? |  | Definition 
 
        | VDRL - screening FTA-ABS - confirmation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for acute syphilis? |  | Definition 
 
        | penicillin G IM once 
 if allergy: ceftriaxone IM 8-10 days
 or doxycycline po 14 days
 or tetracycline po 14 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for latent syphilis? |  | Definition 
 
        | penicillin G IM 3 doses over 2 weeks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for neurosyphilis? |  | Definition 
 
        | benzathine penicillin G IV for 10-14 days 
 oral doxycycline is NOT appropriate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Congenital syphilis can present itself early or as late as puberty.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for syphilis during pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Penicillin - it's the only treatment for during pregnancy so desensitize allergic patients |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Chlamydia has a high incidence of asymptomatic disease.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is lymphogranuloma veneruem? |  | Definition 
 
        | another form of Chlamydia that is hard to kill |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma venerueum? |  | Definition 
 
        | DOC: doxycycline 100 mg bid x 21 days 
 alternative: erythromycin same time
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for chlamydia? |  | Definition 
 
        | azithromycin once doxycycline 7 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for chlamydia during pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 
        | azythromycin once amoxicillin 7 days
 alt: erythromycin 7 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If after treating chlamydia there is persistent urethritis, how do you treat? |  | Definition 
 
        | metronidazole + erythromycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Most neonates that contract genital herpes die.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for the first episode of genital herpes? |  | Definition 
 
        | acyclovir 400 mg tid x 10 days famciclovir 250 mg tid x 10 days
 valacyclovir 1 g bid x 10 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the episodic treatment for genital herpes? |  | Definition 
 
        | acyclovir famciclovir
 valacyclovir
 
 half the time
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the suppressive treatment for genital herpes? |  | Definition 
 
        | acyclovir famciclovir
 valacyclovir
 
 treat 1 year then only resume if recurrence
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F Trichomoniasis is subclinical infection in men.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for trichomoniasis? |  | Definition 
 
        | metronidazole 2 g once (no alcohol) tinidazole 2 g once (no alcohol)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which types of HPV are associated with 90% of genital warts cases? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which 2 types of HPV are highly oncogenic? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How many types of HPV are oncogenic? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What % of HPV related cancers are caused by HPV-16? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for genital warts? |  | Definition 
 
        | podophyllotoxin gel or solution imiquimod cream
 sinecatechins ointment
 
 cryotherapy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What HPV types are covered in the vaccine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How many doses are there in the HPV vaccine? |  | Definition 
 
        | 3 doses at 12 week intervals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for chancroid? |  | Definition 
 
        | azythromycin once ceftriaxone once
 Cipro 3 days
 erythromycin 7 days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for a superficial genital bite wound? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the empiric therapy for genital bite wound? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |