Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Pharm - Exam 2
most important
246
Pharmacology
Graduate
03/21/2010

Additional Pharmacology Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
Intranasal corticosteroid
Definition
Both
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
Intranasal antihistamine
Definition
Both
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
oral antihistamine
Definition
AR
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
Decongestant
Definition
VMR
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
cromolyn
Definition
AR
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
Montelukast
Definition
AR
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
Ipratropium bromide
Definition
VMR
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
nasal saline
Definition
Both
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both
Oral corticosteroids
Definition
AR
Term
What is the treatment plan for episodic AR?
Definition
treat the symptoms

nasal decongestant, nasal antihistamine, oral antihistamine, eye drops, or nasal saline
Term
What is the treatment plan for mild persistent allergic rhinitis?
Definition
1 regular medication

nasal corticosteroid or nasal antihistamine

monetlukast, ipratropium bromide
Term
What is the treatment plan for mild to moderate persistent allergic rhinitis?
Definition
2 regular medications

nasal corticosteroid and nasal antihistamine

oral antihistamine, montelukast
Term
What is the treatment plan for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis?
Definition
2-3 medications

nasal corticosteroid and nasal antihistamine

montelukast, ipratropium bromide, oral antihistamine, nasal saline
Term
What is the treatment plan for severe persistent allergic rhinitis?
Definition
continue all regularly used medications and add short term use corticosteroids
Term
How long should you use corticosteroids to treat severe persistent allergic rhinitis?
Definition
Dose packs for 5-7 days
4x per year (no more than every 3 months)
Term
ketorolac
Definition
prescription NSAID eye drop
relieves ocular itching
Term
phenylephrine
Definition
OTC nasal decongestant
Term
naphazoline
Definition
OTC nasal decongestant
Term
tetrahydrozoline
Definition
OTC nasal decongestant
Term
oxymetazoline
Definition
OTC nasal decongestant
Term
xylometazoline
Definition
OTC nasal decongestant
Term
ketotifen
Definition
OTC
antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer
Term
epinastine
Definition
Rx
antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer
Term
naphazoline + antazoline
Definition
antihistamine and vasoconstricter
limit to 2-3 days because of the naphazoline
Term
naphazoline + pheniramine
Definition
antihistamine and vasoconstrictor
limit to 2-3 days because of naphazoline
Term
diphenhydramine
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine
causes drowsiness
Term
chlorpheniramine
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine
less drowsy than diphenhydramine
Term
brompheniramine
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine
Term
clemastine
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine
Term
hydroxyzine
Definition
Rx
1st gen oral antihistamine
antiemetic, sedative, anxiolytic
Term
T/F
First gen oral antihistamines cross the blood brain barrier because they are lipid soluble.
Definition
True
Term
What cardiovascular effects do first gen oral antihistamines have?
Definition
increase BP and cause prolonged QT interval
Term
loratidine
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine
Term
fexofenadine
(dose)
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine
> 12 180 mg QD
doesn't have a lot of drug-drug interactions
Term
cetirizine
(dose)
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine
2 mo.s-5 yrs 2.5 mg PO QD
Term
desloratidine
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine
Term
levocetirizine
(dose)
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine
> 6 yrs 5 mg PO QPM
Term
T/F
There are cardiovascular effects produced by second gen oral antihistamines.
Definition
False
Term
How are second gen nasal antihistamines dosed?
Definition
1-2 sprays each nostril BID
Term
azelastine hydrochloride
(saline)
Definition
2nd gen nasal antihistamine
bitter taste
approved for age 5 and up
Term
azelastine hydrochloride
(sucralose/sorbitol)
Definition
2nd gen nasal antihistamines
approved for age 12 and up
Term
olopatidine
Definition
2nd gen nasal antihistamine
age 12 and up
Term
fluticasone propionate
Definition
nasal steroid
seasonal and perennial allergic and nonallergic rhinitis
Term
fluticasone furoate
(dose)
Definition
nasal steroid
2-11 years: 1 spray per nostril QD-BID
Adults: 2 sprays per nostril BID
Term
flunisolide
Definition
nasal steroid
Term
triamcinolone
Definition
nasal steroid - AQ prep
Term
mometasone furoate
(dose)
Definition
nasal steroid - AQ prep
2-11 years: 1 spray each nostril QD
adults: 2 sprays each nostril QD
Term
budesonide
Definition
nasal steroid - AQ prep
Term
beclomethasone diproponate
Definition
nasal steroid - AQ prep
Term
ciclesonide
Definition
nasal steroid - AQ prep
Term
cromolyn sodium
Definition
mast cell stabilizer
begin 1 week before to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinits
Side effects: nasal stinging, sneezing
Term
pemirolast
Definition
mast cell stabilizer
Term
nedocromil
Definition
mast cell stabilizer
Term
lodoxamide
Definition
mast cell stabilizer
Term
ipratropium bromide
Definition
anticholinergic agent
side effects: nasal dryness, epistaxis, headache
Term
montelukast
(dose)
Definition
leukotriene receptor blocker
2-5 years - 4 mg PO QHS
6-14 years - 5 mg PO QHS
Adults - 10 mg PO QD
Term
zafirlukast
Definition
leukotriene receptor blocker
hepatotoxicity
Term
zileuton
Definition
leukotriene receptor blocker
hepatotoxicity
Term
Name 2 causative agents of folliculitis?
Definition
Staph. aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Term
What oral antibiotic will resolve folliculitis?
Definition
cephalexin (Keflex)
Term
What OTC topical agents are used to treat folliculitis?
Definition
bacitracin/neomycin/polymyxin B (Neosporin) and bacitracin zinc/polymyxin B sulfate (Betadine Brand)
Term
What Rx topical agents are used to treat folliculitis?
Definition
acne preparations such as benzoyl peroxide (Benzac), doxycycline (Doryx), and clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide (Benzaclin); or mupirocin (Bactroban, Centany)
Term
How do you treat extensive folliculitis? (hot tubitis?)
Definition
systemic antibiotic - cephalexin (Keflex)
Term
What is mupirocin (Bactroban nasal) used for?
Definition
decolonize nose (MRSA)
Term
What is furuncle treatment for a closed lesion?
Definition
Broad spectrum abx for 7-10 days; RTC in 5-9 days for incision and drainage - remove the lesion as an intact mass
Term
How do you treat a carbuncle?
Definition
clean the area daily with soap and water; sterile dressing if purulence; mupirocin to open wounds; wound culture; abx - fluoroquinolone, tetracycline, or amoxicillin/clavulanate
Term
What typically causes bullous erysipelas?
Definition
GABHS
Term
What is the treatment for bullous erysipelas?
Definition
rupture of bullae, debridement, and compression stockings

cephalexin
Term
What is the treatment for impetigo?
Definition
clean the area daily - not with topical disinfectant; mupirocin, retapamulin - ointments or cephalexin, dicloxacillin - oral abx
Term
What is the treatment for lymphangitis?
Definition
immobilizaion and elevation of the infected area; parenteral abx - penicillin, then after fever abates switch to oral penicillin for 10 days
Term
How do you treat cellulitis?
Definition
cephalexin (Keflex), amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin), or tirmethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
Term
How do you treat serious cellulitis? (orbital cellulitis or large areas of infection)
Definition
IV antibiotics
Term
What is the treatment for diabetic foot ulcers?
Definition
PREVENTION
Rule out osteomyelitis
Oral broad specrum antibiotic - fluoroquinolone, amoxicillin/clavulanate
Debridement of the wound to bleeding margins
Daily care
Term
How long do you dose an oral abx for a diabetic foot ulcer?
Definition
10-14 days, if no S/S of infection, discontinue
Term
What is a more intense treatment for diabetic foot ulcers?
Definition
becaplermin (Regranex) 0.1% gel
Term
What is in becaplermin (Regranex) 0.1% gel?
Definition
platelet-derived growth factors (PDGFs); these recruit cells around the ulcer and initiate the second phase of healing - proliferation
Term
What is important to note about becaplermin (Regranex)?
Definition
It is a 12-hour topical treatment. Apply it in the AM and remove in the PM. Use an abx cream/ointment at night.
Term
What causes TB?
Definition
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium bovis
Term
How do you read a TST (or PPD)?
Definition
Look and feel for induration. Mark the induration with a pen and measure

>15 mm is +
>10mm in an exposed, diabetic, or kidney disease individual is +
>5mm in an immunocompromised individual is +
Term
What is the first phase of treatment for TB?
Definition
8 weeks of daily therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide
Term
What is the second phase of treatment?
Definition
18 weeks (daily, 5x/week, or 3x/week) of meds depending on the initial response
31 weeks for phase 2 if cavitation on initial CXR
Term
What are considered the first line therapies for TB?
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, amikacin, and kanamycin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, rifabutin
Term
What are possible side effects of isoniazid?
Definition
fever, skin rashes, drug induced hepatitis
Term
What are the side effects of rifampin?
Definition
orange color to urine, sweat, tears, and contact lenses; rashes, thrombocytopenia (anemia), and nephritis
Term
What drugs used to treat TB can cause drug-induced hepatitis?
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide
Term
What happens if you use isoniazid with phenytoin?
Definition
you get increased levels of both drugs
Term
What TB drug should not be used in children and why?
Definition
ethambutol because of risk of diminished visual acuity
Term
What drug regimen do you use to treat children with TB?
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide
and 4th if there is severe pulmonary disease
Term
What is the 3 drug regimen used to treat active TB in pregnant women? Why are these used?
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol
they are used because of their lack of teratogenic effects
Term
When a TB patient is in advanced liver disease, which drug(s) do you use?
Definition
rifampin
Term
What medications do you use to treat HIV patients with TB?
Definition
same drugs as with non-HIV patients, except if the patient is on antivirals, in which case - no rifampin
Term
What 3 drugs may increase risk of latent TB becoming active TB? How do they cause this?
Definition
infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab

they inhibit tumor necrosis factor alpha
Term
How must isoniazid be taken?
Definition
on an empty stomach, and no antacids for 2 hours
Term
What is the treatment for resistant TB?
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, + 2 or 3 additional agents
Term
What are the 3 most common bacteria in AOM?
Definition
1. Strep pneumoniae 40-50%
2. Haemophilis influenzae 30-40%
3. Moraxell catarrhalis 10-15%
Term
What 3 factors must be present in order to diagnose OM?
Definition
1. History of acute onset
2. Signs of middle ear effusion - immobile, bulging TM
3. Middle ear inflammation - erythema of the TM, otalgia
Term
What is the first line of treatment for uncomplicated AOM?
Definition
1.
Amoxicillin - safe, inexpensive, acceptable taste, and narrow microbiologic spectrum
Term
What is the low dose of amoxicillin for AOM? High dose?
Definition
40-45 mg/kg/day in divided doses BID x 10 days

80-90 mg/kg/day in divided doses BID x 10 days
Term
What is the dosing for amoxicillin/clavulanate for AOM?
Definition
1. amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
2. clavulanate 6.4 mg/kg/day
3. divided doses BID x 10 days
Term
What is the dosing of Clindamycin for AOM after treatment failure?
Definition
17-25 mg/kg/day in 3-4 doses x 10 days
Term
What abxs are used to treat OE>
Definition
Colistin/neomycin/hydrocotisone
ofloxacin
ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone
Term
What is a contraindication for the use of colistin/neomycin/hydrocortisone?
Definition
perforated TM
Term
Which medication is approved for treatment of OE with perforated TM?
Definition
ofloxacin
Term
When is ciprofloaxin/dexamethasone (steroid) contraindicated?
Definition
viral or fungal infection
Term
How do you treat fungal OE?
Definition
2% acetic acid solution
1% clotrimazole
tolnafate
Term
How many days must a patient be symptomatic before it is no longer assumed to be VIRAL rhinosinusitis?
Definition
10 days
Term
hat meds are useful for rhinosinusitis?
Definition
oxymetazoline
phenylephrine
azelastine
use 1-3 days only
Term
What 4 items are on the diagnostic point system for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Definition
1. purulent nasal discharge - worse on one side
2. bilateral rhinorrhea
3. unilateral maxillary sinus tenderness (or frontal sinus tenderness)
4. Pus in the nasal cavity on examination
Term
How do you treat ABRS in peds?
Definition
1. high dose amoxicillin
2. high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate
3. cefidinir
4. clindamycin
Term
How do you treat ABRS in adults?
Definition
1. high dose amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate
2. cefpodoxine
3. moxifloxacin
4. clarithromycin
Term
What is the first line of therapy for ABRS?
Definition
amoxicillin
Term
If a patient is allergic to penicillins, what do you use to treat ABRS?
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or a macrolide
Term
If a patient has used abx in the last 4-6 weeks, what do you use to treat ABRS?
Definition
1. fluoroquinolone
2. high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate
Term
What is included in the diagnostic point system for GABHS pharyngitis?
Definition
1. Tonsilar exudates
2. absence of cough
3. tender anterior cervical lymph nodes
4. history of fever >100.4
5. <15 years
6. >45 years
Term
What is the DOC for GABHS pharyngitis?
Definition
1. penicillin G bezathine IM
2. Penicillin VK in adults
3. Macrolide for penicillin allergy - clarithromycin
Term
What might you use to treat watery, itchy eyes?
Definition
olopatadine
azelastine

both are antihistamine and mast cell stabilizers
Term
How long is the treatment course for bacterial UTI?
Definition
1-3 days
Term
Why do we use 1 day treatments for bacterial UTI if they are less effective than longer treatments?
Definition
longer treatments have higher risk for adverse effects and are not very much more effective.
Term
How long is the treatment course for complicated UTI?
Definition
7-14 days
except Nitrofurantoin 7-10 days - safe to use in pregnant women
Term
What is a urine dip test done to detect?
Definition
presence of leukocyte esterase, presence of blood, presence of nitrates
Term
What is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTI?
Definition
E. coli
75-95%
Term
Name some bacteria that may be the cause of complicated urinary tract infection.
Definition
Staphylococcus saprophyticus (gram +), enterobacteria (Klebsiella or Proteus)
Term
What is the empiric treatment for women with suspected UTI?
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 3 days
ciprofloxacin 3 days
Term
T/F
History and physical exam trump dipstick analysis when it comes to diagnosing UTI.
Definition
True
Term
In microscopic analysis, what # of WBCs and RBCs indicate infection?
Definition
> 15 WBCs and > 5 RBCs
Term
What is phenazopyridine?
Definition
Pyridium - a urinary analgesic
Term
What is the treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis?
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 800/160 mg bid x 3days
ciprofloxacin 250 mg bid x 3 days
fosfomycin 1 day
nitrofurantoin 100 mg bid x 7 days
cephalexin
amoxicillin/clavulanate
Term
How is nitrofurantoin cleared from the body?
Definition
kidneys, so do not prescribe with creatinine clearance < 40 ml/min
Term
What are the side effects of nitrofurantoin?
Definition
nausea and vomiting - 17% of patients
rash - 1%

rare
pulm hypersensitivity: acute fever, cough, dyspnea, myalgias, eosinophilia, infiltrates
pulm fibrosis: insidious onset, nonproductive cough, dyspnea, interstitial infiltrates
hemolytic anemia
peripheral neuropathy
Term
What 3 abx used for the treatment of UTI are pregnancy category B?
Definition
nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, and cephalexin
Term
Which abx is the treatment of choice for UTI in pregnant women? Why?
Definition
Nitrofurantoin - cat. B and cheap

fosfomycin is more expensive
cephalexin isn't as effective
Term
How does a UTI presentation differ in the elderly?
Definition
no fever, asymptomatic bacteriuria, altered mental status, change in eating habits, GI complaints
Term
How do you treat significant (max on urine dip) hematuria?
Definition
urinalysis, 10 days of tx with TMP/SMX and RTC to repeat urine dip
Term
What is the treatment for pyelonephritis in an immunocompetant patient that can tolerate oral therapy?
Definition
ceftriaxone and levofloxacin
follow up in 24-72 hours
Term
How do you treat schistosomiasis?
Definition
praziquantel
Term
What is the treatment for acute prostatitis?
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Term
What is the treatment for chronic prostatitis?
Definition
same as UTI, but longer (4 weeks - 3 months)
Term
What is the treatment for infectious hematospermia?
Definition
2 weeks of quinolone, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or doxycycline
Term
Between age 14-35 what are the most common causes of epididymitis?
Definition
N. gonorrhea or Chlamydia
Term
What is the most likely cause of epididymitis in men older than 35?
Definition
E. coli
Term
How do you rule out testicular torsion when you suspect epididymitis?
Definition
pain with testicular elevation, acute onset of pain, epididymis appears normal, decreased blood flow on doppler
Term
What % of interstitial cystitis patients have therapeutic results from evaluation by hydrodistension? How long do the effects last?
Definition
30-60% and last 2-8 weeks
Term
T/F
Bronchitis is generally considered a viral etiology.
Definition
True
Term
T/F
Pneumonia is generally considered a bacterial infection.
Definition
True
Term
How long does acute bronchitis last?
Definition
< 3 weeks
Term
What is the treatment for whooping cough?
Definition
Erythromycin (EES) 30-50 mg/kg/day as 3 divided doses x 10 days
Term
How soon should treatment be started with whooping cough?
Definition
macrolide should be started within the first 2 weeks
Term
How long should a patient with whooping cough be isolated?
Definition
first 5 days of treatment
Term
Name 3 primary bacterial agents that can cause acute bronchitis in rare cases.
Definition
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Bordetella pertussis
Term
Name 3 causes of secondary bacterial infection in acute bronchitis.
Definition
Streptococcus ssp., Staphylococcus spp., Hemophilis spp.
Term
What is the treatment for acute bronchitis?
Definition
symptomatic and supportive care - fluids and bed rest, antipyretics, vaporizer to lessen respiratory secretions (especially in infants < 1 year)
Term
Where is acetominophen metabolized?
Definition
liver
Term
Where is ibuprofen metabolized?
Definition
kidneys
Term
What is the maximum dosage of acetominophen for an adult?
Definition
short term 4g/day
long term 3g/day
Term
What characterizes Reye's syndrome?
Definition
severe increase of intracranial pressure and an abnormal accumulation of fat in the liver; first symptom is uncontrollable vomiting and nausea; swelling in the brain may cause seizures and the child may stop breathing
Term
How do you treat Reye's syndrome?
Definition
drugs to control the swelling in the brain and IV fluids to restore normal blood chemistry; ventilator to aid in breathing
Term
Name 3 cough suppressants used to treat acute bronchitis.
Definition
dextromethorphan, codeine, and hydrocodone
Term
How does dextromethophan work?
Definition
Penetrates the CNS to act on the brainstem to inhibit the cough center; inhibits glutamenergic synaptic transmission of inputs from sensory receptors in the airway as a result of facilitation of serotonergic mechanism
Term
T/F
Expectorants are recommended for acute bronchitis.
Definition
False - not necessarily
Term
What do expectorants do to ease symptoms?
Definition
promote drainage of mucus from the lungs by thinning the mucus and lubricating the irritated respiratory tract
Term
What is the dosing for guafenesin (Mucinex)?
Definition
1200 mg PO q12 hour
Term
What is benzonatate (Tessalon)?
Definition
an antitussive
Term
How do you dose benzonatate?
Definition
100 mg perles bid-tid
Walmart $4 prescription
Term
What criteria are used to diagnose chronic bronchitis?
Definition
cough and sputum expectoration occurring on most days for at least 3 months of the year and for at least 2 consecutive years without the presence of other pulmonary or cardiac causes
Term
How do we treat chronic bronchitis?
Definition
depends on classification 1, 2, or 3
symptomatic and supportive care, maybe antibiotics
Term
Name 2 bronchodilators.
Definition
albuterol and pirbuterol
Term
How do you dose bronchodilators?
Definition
2 puffs prn up to QID - if more than 1 is used, still QID TOTAL
Term
How do you dose duoneb (albuterol + ipratripium) updraft solution?
Definition
QID
Term
T/F
Abuterol is a short acting beta agonist.
Definition
True
Term
T/F
While using beta agonists, it is important to avoid concomitant beta-blocker therapy.
Definition
True
Term
Why does albuterol have little effect on adrenergic receptors of the heart?
Definition
It is a selective better blocker, blocking beta2 receptors which relaxes the airway smooth muscle but not blocking beta1 receptors of the heart
Term
How does ipratropium bromide act as a bronchodilator?
Definition
it blocks the action of Ach at parasympathetic sites in bronchial smooth muscle
Term
What is the DOC bronchodilator for COPD patients? How is it dosed?
Definition
albuterol + ipratropium bromide
2 puffs prn QID
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for simple chronic bronchitis with mild symptoms?
Definition
no antibiotics, just symptomatic and supportive care
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for simple chronic bronchitis with intense symptoms? Give dosage
Definition
symptomatic and supportive care and antibiotics
azithromycin, 3 pack 500 mg po QD x 3 days
doxycycline
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 800/160 mg po bid x 10 days
Term
How does trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole work?
Definition
prevents bacterial proteins and nucleic acids from being synthesized
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with COPD and mild symptoms?
Definition
azithromycin, doxycycline, co-trimaxazole (bactrim DS)
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with COPD and severe symptoms?
Definition
levofloxacin, 750 mg QD x 7 days
clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 7 days
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with severe COPD and mild symptoms?
Definition
levofloxacin
amoxicillin-clavulanate 1000/62.5 mg 2 tabs po q12h x 10 days
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with severe COPD and severe symptoms?
Definition
consider hospitalization for IV abx as for pneumonia - run cultures
ceftriaxone 1 g IM with levofloxacin or Augmentin and follow up in 24 h.
Term
What age is the peak incidence of bronchioloitis?
Definition
2-10 months
Term
What 3 viruses account for most cases of bronchiolitis?
Definition
RSV, hMPV, and PIVs
Term
What is the clinical presentation of bronchiolitis?
Definition
prodrome - irritability, restlessness, mild fever (lasts 2-7 days)
dehydration - cough prevents fluid intake; emesis, diarrhea, fever
tachypnea (40- 80 RR)
labored breathing, retractions of the chest wall, nasal flaring, and grunting
Term
When are bronchodilators used in the treatment of bronchiolitis and why?
Definition
only for bronchospasm with clear therapeutic benefit because they may be detrimental to patients
Term
What treatment regimen helps reduce rate of hospital admission in bronchiolitis patients?
Definition
epinephrine nebulizer treatment
dexamethasone shot then oral treatment for 5 days
Term
How is palivizumab given?
Definition
injection once a month for several months (max 3-5 doses)
Term
What is the most common cause of death from infection in the US?
Definition
pneumonia
Term
What are the 3 ways in which microorganisms access the lungs?
Definition
1. inhaled aerosolized particles
2. through the blood stream from an extrapulmonary site of infection in sepsis
3. aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
Term
What is the most common cause of CAP?
Definition
Streptococcus pneumoniaee
Term
Why is urinary antigen detection for the C polysaccharide from the pneumococcal cell wall used to determine if someone has Strep. pneumoniae?
Definition
because it remains positive for weeks after initial symptoms and can be used after abx are begun
Term
How do you determine if someone has severe CAP?
Definition
One major criteria or 2 minor criteria
Term
What are the major criteria for determining severe CAP?
Definition
serum p < 7.3
systolic pressure < 90 mm Hg
Term
What are the minor criteria for determining severe CAP?
Definition
respirations > 30
BUN > 30
altered mental status
age > 80 years
multi-lobular/bilateral infiltrates on CXR
Pa02 < 54 mm Hg
Term
What is the outpatient abx therapy for adults with CAP?
Definition
levofloxacin 750 mg QD x 10 days
gemifloxacin 320 mg po QD x 7 days
clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 10 days
Term
What is the outpatient abx therapy for pediatrics with CAP?
Definition
clarithromycin
amoxicillin/clavulanate
ceftriaxone
Term
What are the 2 pneumonia vaccines and when are they used?
Definition
Pneumovax 23 - used in those with weakened immune systems and those over 65
Prevnar - covers 80% of pneumococcal infections in peds population

Also, yearly flu vaccine helps prevent pneumonia cases caused by flu
Term
What are 3 atypical pathogens that may cause pneumonia?
Definition
Mycoplasma penumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Legionella pneumoniae
Term
How is Legionella pneumoniae spread?
Definition
spray from stagnant water
no person to person spread
has 14% mortality rate
Term
How do you treat atypical pneumonia?
Definition
levofloxacin
clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 10 days
doxycycline
Term
How should nursing home acquired pneumonia be treated outpatient?
Definition
levofloxacin or moxifloxicin

OR

amoxicillin/clavulanate or cefuroxime or cefpodoxime AND azithromycin
Term
How should nursing home acquired pneumonia be treated inpatient?
Definition
3 medications IV

1. antipseudomonal - cephalosporin (cefepime), cabapenem (imipemem/cilastatin), B-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam)
2. antipsudomonal - fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin), aminoglycoside (tobramycin)
3. Anti-MRSA - vancomycin or linezolid
Term
What is the risk of acquiring gonorrhea after 1 encounter?
Definition
male -> female 50-60%
female -> male 20-30%
Term
What culture techniques are used to diagnose gonorrhea?
Definition
male - urethral swab
female - endocervical swab
Term
What lab test is used to diagnose gonorrhea?
Definition
nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
used to check for chlamydia too
men - urine
female - endocervical
Term
How do you treat uncomplicated gonorrhea in adults?
Definition
ceftriaxone 250 mg IM once
cefixime 400 mg PO once
Term
T/F
N. gonorrhea is increasingly resistant to quinolones in some geographic areas.
Definition
True
Term
How do you treat disseminated gonorrhea in adults?
Definition
hospitalization
ceftriaxone 1 g IM Q24h
Term
How do you treat PID from gonorrhea outpatient?
Definition
ceftriaxone
doxycycline
metronidazole
Term
T/F
Concomitant treatment for chlamydia infection should always take place.
Definition
True
Term
How do you treat chlamydia?
Definition
doxycycline 100 mg bid x 7 days
azithromycin 1 g orally once
Term
How do you treat gonorrhea in pregnant women?
Definition
Avoid fluoroquinolones
ceftriaxone 125 mg IM
spectinomycin 2 g IM
cefixime
Term
How do you treat chlamydia in pregnant women?
Definition
azythromycin or amoxicillin
Term
What is the organism that causes Syphilis?
Definition
Treponema pallidium
a spirochete
Term
What is the risk of transmission of syphilis on a single encounter?
Definition
50-60%
Term
When does the chancre of syphilis form? How long does it last?
Definition
10-90 days (average of 21)
lasts 3-6 weeks
Term
When does secondary syphilis present?
Definition
4-10 weeks after primary infection
Term
What is the clinical presentation of secondary syphilis?
Definition
skin rash, fever, myalgias, malaise, lympadenopathy or mucocutaneous lesions
Term
Which diagnostic tests are used to detect syphilis?
Definition
VDRL - screening
FTA-ABS - confirmation
Term
What is the treatment for acute syphilis?
Definition
penicillin G IM once

if allergy: ceftriaxone IM 8-10 days
or doxycycline po 14 days
or tetracycline po 14 days
Term
What is the treatment for latent syphilis?
Definition
penicillin G IM 3 doses over 2 weeks
Term
What is the treatment for neurosyphilis?
Definition
benzathine penicillin G IV for 10-14 days

oral doxycycline is NOT appropriate
Term
T/F
Congenital syphilis can present itself early or as late as puberty.
Definition
True
Term
What is the treatment for syphilis during pregnancy?
Definition
Penicillin - it's the only treatment for during pregnancy so desensitize allergic patients
Term
T/F
Chlamydia has a high incidence of asymptomatic disease.
Definition
True
Term
What is lymphogranuloma veneruem?
Definition
another form of Chlamydia that is hard to kill
Term
What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma venerueum?
Definition
DOC: doxycycline 100 mg bid x 21 days

alternative: erythromycin same time
Term
What is the treatment for chlamydia?
Definition
azithromycin once
doxycycline 7 days
Term
What is the treatment for chlamydia during pregnancy?
Definition
azythromycin once
amoxicillin 7 days
alt: erythromycin 7 days
Term
If after treating chlamydia there is persistent urethritis, how do you treat?
Definition
metronidazole + erythromycin
Term
T/F
Most neonates that contract genital herpes die.
Definition
True
Term
What is the treatment for the first episode of genital herpes?
Definition
acyclovir 400 mg tid x 10 days
famciclovir 250 mg tid x 10 days
valacyclovir 1 g bid x 10 days
Term
What is the episodic treatment for genital herpes?
Definition
acyclovir
famciclovir
valacyclovir

half the time
Term
What is the suppressive treatment for genital herpes?
Definition
acyclovir
famciclovir
valacyclovir

treat 1 year then only resume if recurrence
Term
T/F
Trichomoniasis is subclinical infection in men.
Definition
True
Term
What is the treatment for trichomoniasis?
Definition
metronidazole 2 g once (no alcohol)
tinidazole 2 g once (no alcohol)
Term
Which types of HPV are associated with 90% of genital warts cases?
Definition
6 and 11
Term
Which 2 types of HPV are highly oncogenic?
Definition
16 and 18
Term
How many types of HPV are oncogenic?
Definition
over 17
Term
What % of HPV related cancers are caused by HPV-16?
Definition
90-95%
Term
What is the treatment for genital warts?
Definition
podophyllotoxin gel or solution
imiquimod cream
sinecatechins ointment

cryotherapy
Term
What HPV types are covered in the vaccine?
Definition
6, 11, 16, 18
Term
How many doses are there in the HPV vaccine?
Definition
3 doses at 12 week intervals
Term
What causes chancroid?
Definition
Haemophilus ducreyi
Term
What is the treatment for chancroid?
Definition
azythromycin once
ceftriaxone once
Cipro 3 days
erythromycin 7 days
Term
What is the treatment for a superficial genital bite wound?
Definition
mupirocin
Term
What is the empiric therapy for genital bite wound?
Definition
amoxicillin/clavulanate
Supporting users have an ad free experience!