| Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | hypothalamic pituitary axis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does it mean when said HPA is dinural |  | Definition 
 
        | higher activity in morning |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what can increase the HPA axis activity the best |  | Definition 
 
        | stress, which can over ride normal feedback controls |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does ACTH stand for, what is its job |  | Definition 
 
        | adrenocorticotrophic hormones 
 stimylates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids, mineralcoricoids, weak androgens
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two weak androgens |  | Definition 
 
        | andeostendione dehydropiandrosteone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three zones of the adrenal cortex |  | Definition 
 
        | zona glomerulosa - outer zona fasculata - inner
 zona reticularis - inner
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what enzymes does cortex outer zone have, what does it secrete |  | Definition 
 
        | secretes aldosterone (mineralcorticoids) via aldosterone synthase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is mineralcorticoid production stimulated |  | Definition 
 
        | ACTH acutely stimulates 
 angiotensin II receptors with Gs protein initiate it
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens to the cortex if it does not get enough stimulation |  | Definition 
 
        | does not atrophy without pituitary stimulation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what enzymes does the cortex inner zones have, what do they secrete |  | Definition 
 
        | 12-a-hydroxylase, 11-B0hydroxylase 
 secretes glyucocorticoids
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what stimulates inner cortex, what if there is too much stimulation |  | Definition 
 
        | increases in ACTH cause hyperplasia, hypertrophy, increased cortisol and androgens |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ACTH increases due to impaired cortisol synthesis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens if the inner cortex does not get stimulation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what occurs in the acute phase of steroid production |  | Definition 
 
        | within seconds increased supply of cholesterol to substrate (depends on amount of cholesterol) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what occurs in the chronic phase of steroid production |  | Definition 
 
        | within hours steridogenic enzyme transcription is increased |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are most of the enzymes for steroid production |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | explain the process of steroid hormone production (3 steps) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. cholesterol is turned into pregnilone via CHOLESTEROL SIDE CHAIN CLEVAGE ENZYME (P450 SCC) **RATE LIMIT 
 2. pregnilone is turned into cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenal androgens
 
 3. products go to receptors and cause transcription. their structures are similar and they can activate e/o receptors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is production of cortisol stimulated |  | Definition 
 
        | hypothalamus releases CRF and AVP which activate pituitary which releases ACTH which acrivates adrenal gland which releases cortisol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what controls rate of cortisol production |  | Definition 
 
        | ACTH release from pituitary corticotropes which are regulated by corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is cortisol production/stimulation regulated (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | ACTH can stimulate production but will burn out so it stops activity in hypothalamus 
 cortisol (glucocorticoids) stop activity in pituitary and hypothalamus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | cortisol and aldosterone bind same receptors for same affinity, how does the body discriminate |  | Definition 
 
        | in mineralcorticoid (ALD) receptors it has enzyme barrier with 11-B-hydroxy DH that metabolizes cortisol to cortisone which cannot bind ALD receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 7 areas / systems that corticosteroids effects |  | Definition 
 
        | carb and protein metabolism lipid metabolism
 cardiovascular
 skeletal muscle
 CNS
 blood
 immune supression/anti-inflammatory
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do corticosteroids do to carb and protein metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | protect glucose dependent tissues from starvation (brain and heart) 
 glucogenolysis
 glyconeogenesis
 diminish glucose utilization in tissue
 
 cause protein break down
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do corticosteroids to to lipid metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | stimulate lipolysos increase fat in neck (buffalo hump) and face (moon faces)
 loss of fat in extremities
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do corticosteroids to do skeletal muscle |  | Definition 
 
        | needed for normal function decreased muscle work due to adrenocorticol insufficiency (addison's disease)
 hypercorticism: causes muscle wasting
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what effects do corticosteroids have on CNS (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | mood, behavior, brain excitability 
 in cushings and addisons: neuroses, psychoses
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does corticosteroids do to the immune system (7) |  | Definition 
 
        | decreases cytokine production, lymphocyte response, histamines, leukotrienes, arachadonic acid release via phospholipase A2 inhibition supress inflammation
 decrease WBC circulation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the HPA axis drugs (2) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the short acting glyucocorticoids (2) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the intermediate acting glucocorticoids (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | prednisone methylprednisolone
 triamcinolone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the long acting glucocorticoids (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | betamethazone dexamethazone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the corticosteroid inhibitors (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | aminoglytethimide ketoconazole
 spironolactone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the mineral corticoids |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | high concentrations affect hypothalamus, stimulate corticoid and androgen receptors testing HPA axis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | tests HPA axis ysing synthetic ACTH residues 1-24 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | antigenic: comes from animals 
 vasopressin par causes hyponatremia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | short acting glucocorticoid MOA |  | Definition 
 
        | metabolized via reduction in liver to 11-8-hydeoxyderivative to be active |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of short acting glucocirticoids (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | antiinflammatory salt retension
 minteral corticoid effects
 less potent
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of intermediate acting glucocorticoids (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | more potent low salt retension
 low mineralcorticoid effect
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of long acting glucocorticoids (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | most potent no salt retension
 no mineralcorticoid effect
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | shared side effects of all glucocirticoids (12) |  | Definition 
 
        | withdrawl: flare of of disease acute adrenal insufficiency
 HPA supression
 fluid and electrolyte imbalance
 hypertension
 hyperglycemia
 fat redistribution
 osteoperosis
 myopathy
 behavorial changes
 cataracts
 increased infection
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why do glucocirticoids cause acute adrenal insufficiency |  | Definition 
 
        | due to rapid withdrawl after prolonged use |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | who do glucocirticoids cause HPA supression |  | Definition 
 
        | occurs with supraphysiologocal doses for 2wk + |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do glucocirticoids cause osteoperosis |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibit ostroblasts and decrease bone formation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are glucocirticoids administered (9) |  | Definition 
 
        | oral, injected, inhaled, topical, optic, opthalamic, enema, rectal, retro rocket |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are glucocirticoids metabolized and eliminated |  | Definition 
 
        | metabolized in liver excreted in kidney
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what affects the distribution of glucocirticoids |  | Definition 
 
        | 90% bound to proteins (corticosteroid binding globulin, transcortin, albumin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the clinical uses of glucocirticoids (15) |  | Definition 
 
        | adrenal insufficiency chronic primary adrenal insufficiency
 congenital adrenal hypoplasia
 RA
 SLE
 degrnerative joint
 regional pain syndrome (injection)
 allergies
 asthma
 PJP
 influenza virus
 ocular disease: supresses inflammation but increases IOP
 cerebral edema
 stroke
 spinal cord injuty
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 2 diseases that cause chronic primary adrenal insufficiency |  | Definition 
 
        | adrenal surgery 
 cortex lesion (addisons)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | aminoglytethimide clinical use |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ketoconazole clinical use |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competes for mineralcorticoid receptor and stops Na reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | spironolactone  clinical use |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | act on DCT to increase reabsorption of Na into plasma and excretion of K and H |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | fludorcortisone clinical use (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | addisons severe salt loss
 adrenogenital syndrome
 orthostatic hypotension
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 functions of FSH, which are the main ones |  | Definition 
 
        | main: spermatogenesis in seminiferous tubules regulate testicular growth
 steroidogenesis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 functions of LH, which is the main one |  | Definition 
 
        | main: regulate testosterone release from leydig cells regulate resticular growth
 steroidogenesis
 spermatogenesis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is the release of testosterone regulated |  | Definition 
 
        | it feeds back to hypothalamus and pituitary |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the process of testosterone production |  | Definition 
 
        | cholesterol > progesterone > andostenedione or androstendione . testosterone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what enzyme produces testosterone |  | Definition 
 
        | 12B-hydrosteroid dehydrogenase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is testosterone transported in the body |  | Definition 
 
        | sex hormone binding globulin (can enter cell too may have role in action) 
 some on albumin
 
 1-2% unbound
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what enzyme turns testosterone into DHT, where is it located |  | Definition 
 
        | steroid 2a-reductase in non-genital skin and liver 
 steroid 5a-reductase in urogenital tract
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the difference between testosterone and DHT |  | Definition 
 
        | DHT has a higher binding affinity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 6 general functions of testosterone |  | Definition 
 
        | embryo: virilize urigenital tract of male 
 growth of testes, scrotum, penis
 
 thicken and make skin more oily
 
 increase height and muscle
 
 axillary hair
 
 larynd development
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the testosterone drugs (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | testosterone aq testosterone cypionate
 fluxymesterone
 testosterone gel (androgel)
 danzol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the anti-androgens (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | spironolactone flutamide
 ketoconazole
 cimetidine
 finasteride
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat impotence (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | sildenafil vardenaful
 tadalafil
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stop androgen binding to receptor 
 stop synthesis of androgens
 
 decrease p450enz 12a-hydroxylase C12-20 lyase complex which decreases testosterone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | non-steroid competitive inhibitor of DHT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | H2 receptor antagonist that competes for receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 5a-reductase competitive inhibitor of conversion enzyme of DHT to testosterone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | normally NO activates gyanulyl cyclase which causes smooth m. relaxation of corpus callosum letting blood in then phosphodiesterase (PDE) closes it off 
 drug inhibits PDE
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 11 uses of all testosterone drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | androgenic: hypogonadism, failure of hypo-pit-axis 
 anabolic: osteroperosis, burns, surgery recovery
 
 counteract cortical hormone effects
 
 growth: skeletal muscle growth in pre-pubescent boys and dwarfism
 
 unapproved: increase lean body mass, muscle strength, agression
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of fluoxymesterone |  | Definition 
 
        | more focused on anabolic effects of androgens (little androgenic effects) 
 osteoperosis, burns, surgurical recovery
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of danzol (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | not very androgenic 
 endometrosis, fibrocystic breast disease, hereditary angioedema
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of spironolactone (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | women: hirsutism men: causes impotence
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of flutamide (1) |  | Definition 
 
        | prostate cancer (with GnRH blocker or an estrogen) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of ketoconazole (1) |  | Definition 
 
        | prostate cancer (high dose) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of cimetidine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | clinical use of finasteride (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | prostatic hyperplasia 
 male pattern baldness (low dose)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects flutamide (2) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects ketoconazole |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | males with zollinger ellison get cynecomastia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects impotence treatment (6) |  | Definition 
 
        | no effect in absence of stimulation 
 headache
 flushing
 dyspenia
 change in color vision
 decreased BP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a major contraindication to impotence drugs |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the longest lasting impotence drug, how long |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of all testosterone drugs in females only (8) |  | Definition 
 
        | masculinization acne
 facial hair
 deeper voices
 male pattern baldness
 muscle development
 menstural irregularities
 virilization of fetus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of all testosterone drugs in males only (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | priapism impotence
 decreased spermatogenesis
 gynecomastia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of all testosterone drugs in any sex or age (6) |  | Definition 
 
        | increased LDL decreased HDL
 coronary artery disease
 fluid retention
 edema
 PANCREATITIS
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of all testosterone drugs in kids only (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | abnormal sexual maturity premature closure of epiphysis
 hepatic abnormalities
 psychosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effect of testosterone gel |  | Definition 
 
        | absorbed to skin, transfered to others on hands |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | interacts with progesterone and androgen receptors and supresses pituitary-ovarian axis decreasing FSH and LH |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are the 5 testosterone drugs administered |  | Definition 
 
        | testosterone aq- IM testosterone cypionate- IM
 fluxymesterone- oral
 testosterone gel- topical
 danzol- oral
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is testosterone gel metabolized and excreted |  | Definition 
 
        | metabolized in liver excreted in urine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which testosterone has the shortest and longest half life, how long |  | Definition 
 
        | testosterone aq: short 10-100 min testosterone cypopnate: long 8d
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | leuprolide grosereline
 nafarelin
 histerlin
 triptorelin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ganirelix cetorelix
 abarelix
 degarelix
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 GH antagonists / somatistatin agalons |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Lutropin / recombinant hCG |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 prolactin antagonist, 1 AKA |  | Definition 
 
        | aka: dopamine agonist 
 bromocriptine
 cabergoline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 vasopressin agonist and their receptors |  | Definition 
 
        | 8-L-arginine vasopressin (V1) 
 desmopressin (V2) (tetracycline antibiotic)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 vasopressin antagonists and their receptors |  | Definition 
 
        | conivaptin (V1+V2) 
 tolvaptin (V2)
 
 lithium (V2)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | control FSH and LH release 
 pulsatile (replacement) therapy: increases release
 
 continous (supression) therapy: inhibits release
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stops release of FSH and LH |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | longitudinal growth via ILGF-1 and some ILGF-2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | complex of ILGF-1 and ILGF binding protein 3 that causes growth |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | somatostatin agonist stop GH, glucagon, insulin, and gastrin release |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where do menotropins come from |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where does urofollitropin come from |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where does lutropin come from |  | Definition 
 
        | recombinant LH (identical to hCG so it can be used) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does a prolactin antagonist work |  | Definition 
 
        | dopamine agonist decreases prolactin release |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would some have increased prolactin (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | anti-psychotic drugs (dopamine receptor blockers) prolactinoma
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens when prolactin is increased (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | amenorrhea no ovulation
 galactorhea
 breast tenderness
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | induces myometrial contraction by changing ion concentrations |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does ADH to do V receptors (8), what type of receptor |  | Definition 
 
        | Gq receptors 
 V1a: vasoconstriction, glycogenolysis, platelet aggregation, ACTH release
 
 V1b: ant pituitary, pancrease, brain, adrenal medulla
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what tissues have V2 ADH receptors on them, what type of receptor is it |  | Definition 
 
        | Gs receptor on aquaporin 2 on collecting duct cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | GnRH agonist side effects |  | Definition 
 
        | continous therapy gives flare in condition prior to supression (desensitization) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | GH antagonist side effects (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | flatulence steratorrhea
 biliary sludge
 gall stones
 sinus bradycardia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | simillar to ADH water retension or intoxication (if on IV)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | mimics nephrogenic diabetes insupidus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can GnRH be administered |  | Definition 
 
        | pulastile: every 1-4 hours continous
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is administering GnRH different than just giving the hormone (gonadorelin) |  | Definition 
 
        | the half life of the drug will be longer than administering the hormone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the benifit of using a GnRH antagonist over agonist (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | no flare in hormone levels before supression more rapid onset
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B blockers Mg sulfate
 inhaled anasthetics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is pulsatile GnRH used for (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | infertility delayed puberty
 hypogonadism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is continous GnRH used for (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | endometrosis uterine fibroids
 prostate cancer
 central precoious puberity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when do you decide to treat central precoious puberty |  | Definition 
 
        | before 8 in girls and before 9 in boys |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is prostate cancer treated (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | GnRH agonist with androgen receptor blocker to inhibit flare OR
 GnRH antagonist
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do GnRH antagonists treat |  | Definition 
 
        | prostate cancer ovarian hyperstimulation
 prep for in vitro fertilization
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is GnRH antagonist used for prep for in vitro fertilization |  | Definition 
 
        | prevents premature LH surge |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is somatropin used for (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | GH deficiency (<4cm/y) 
 Growth failure: prader willi, turner syndrome, AIDS wasting
 
 idiopathic short stature
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is mecasermin used for |  | Definition 
 
        | patient is deficient in ILGF-1 and exogenous GH isnt working |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | DOC for acromeagly and gigantism 
 hormone secreting tumors
 
 bleeding esophageal varices
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what causes acromeagly and gigantism |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 GH secreting tumors |  | Definition 
 
        | gastrinoma glucagonoma
 carcinoid secreting tumors
 carcinoid syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is carcinoid syndrome |  | Definition 
 
        | carcinoid tumor with liver metastasis and serotonin secretion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the use for pegvisomant |  | Definition 
 
        | acromeagly third alternative |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | induce spermatogenesis or ovulation in infertility |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | use of prolactin antagonist (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | hyperprolactinemia 
 bromocriptime: acromeagly 2nd alternative
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | lactation in natural doses 
 pharmacological doses: control post partum hemorrhage, induce labor but causing uterine contraction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | vasoconstriction stops bleeding esophageal varicies, post-op ileus, abdominal distension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | central diabetes insipidus SIADH
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | use of V1/V2 antagonist (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | euvolumeic or hypervolemic hyponatremia SIADH
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is diabetes insipidus |  | Definition 
 
        | increased ADH due to pituitary or hypothalamus trauma or tumor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is nephrogenic diabetes insiputis |  | Definition 
 
        | broken V2 receptors on nephron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what categories of drugs are hypothalamic hormone drugs (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | GnRH/gonadorelin agonist 
 GnRH antagonist
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what categories of drugs are anterior pituitary hormone drugs (8) |  | Definition 
 
        | GH agonist GH antagonist
 GH blocker
 FSH + LH
 FSH
 LH
 prolactin agonist
 prolactin antagonist
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what categories of drugs are the posterior pituitary hormone drugs (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | oxytocin vasopressin agonist
 vasopressing antagonist
 lithium
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | explain thyroid hormones from ingestion of iodine to T3/4 production and storage (7 steps) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. ingest iodine 2. TSH stimulates iodine uptake and hormone production
 3. iodine active transport into thyroid
 4. activated with THYROID PEROXIDAZE (using Hb and H2O2)
 5. monotyrostol and diiodotyrosyl are produced
 6. THYROID PEROXIDASE links AA making T3 and T4 in a 1:4 ratio
 7. T3 and T4 are stored in thyroglobulin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | explain thyroid hormone release from thyroglobulin to arrival at the tissues (7 steps) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. thyroglobulin fuses with lysoosme 
 2. proteolytic enzymes break it into...
 - monotyrosyl and dioxotyrosyl which stay in thyroid
 - T3/T4 which go into blood
 - excess iodine which stays in thyroid
 
 3. T3/4travel in blood on thyroxine binding globulin and albumin
 
 4. T3/4 are released at tissues
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what motifications occur to T3/4 at the tissues (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | diodinase enzymes remove 5' outer ring... 
 - 5-DI and 5-DII turn T4 to T3 (41% of T3)
 
 - 5-DIII turns T4 into reverse T3
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are T3 and T4 degraded |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the differences in T3 and T4 elimination |  | Definition 
 
        | T3 is eliminated in 2 d due to increased protein binding increasing hald life 
 T4 is eliminated in 6-7d
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does iodine regulate thyroid hormone production |  | Definition 
 
        | decreased iodine decrease thyroid hormones which stimulate TSH causing thyroid hypertrophy (gioter) and selective T3 formation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does the production of thyroid hormone reulate itself |  | Definition 
 
        | it doesnt 
 it stops TSH production but increases thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) production which cancel
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the difference in tissue binding and activity of T3 and T4 |  | Definition 
 
        | T3 binds with 5x higher affinity 
 T4 binds with lower affinity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 6 areas in general thyroid hormones affect |  | Definition 
 
        | growth and development basal metabolic rate
 released when cold to regulate body temp
 heart
 CNS
 cholesterol metabolism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does the thyroid effect growth and development (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | differentiation and myelination of cnS 
 potentiation of GH, PTH, and calcitonin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in what organs does the thyroid hormone effect on basal metabolic rate have the most effect (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | heart, muscle, liver, kidney |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what changes do thyroid hormones cause in the heart (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | sensitize it (synergistic) increase CO, HR, contractility
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what effects do thyroid hormones have on the CNS |  | Definition 
 
        | sensitize catecholamine receptors (synergistic) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does thyroid hormone do to cholesterol metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | stimulates metabolism of cholesterol to bile acids 
 important! lack can cause hypercholesterolemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the name for adult hypothyroidism |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the name for child hypothyroidism |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 9 signs of child hypothyroidism |  | Definition 
 
        | impaired growth mental retardation
 pot belly
 dwarfism
 lethargy
 hypothermia
 slow HT
 poor appetite
 death if untreated
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 8 signs of adult hypothyroiodism |  | Definition 
 
        | pallid expression blank expression
 dry skin
 brittle nails
 weakness
 reduced CO
 fatigue
 cold intolerence
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two diseases of hyperthyroidism |  | Definition 
 
        | graves and plummers disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 7 characteristics of graves disease |  | Definition 
 
        | diffuse toxic goiter exophthalmos: big eyes
 hot moist skin
 forced rapid heart beat
 angina
 arrhythmia
 heart failure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 causes of graves disease |  | Definition 
 
        | autoimmune: IgG bind to TSH receptor 
 chorionic: placental secretion of TSG stimulates receptors in pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 6 signs of plummer's disease |  | Definition 
 
        | toxic nodular goiter hot moist skin
 forced rapid heart beat
 angina
 arrhythmia
 heart failure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 5 general signs of hyperthyroidism |  | Definition 
 
        | hot moist skin forced rapid heart beat
 angina
 arrhythmia
 heart failure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 3 treatments for hyperthyroidism |  | Definition 
 
        | surgical removal of thyroid local radiation with radioactive iodine
 anti thyroid agents
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what causes a thyroid storm (7) |  | Definition 
 
        | complication of hyperthyroidism triggered by stress, thyroid surgery, trauma, diabetic ketoacidosis, labor, heart disease, radioactive iodine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 7 treatments of a thyroid storm |  | Definition 
 
        | fluids anti-pyretics
 cooling blankets
 propylithiouracil in large doses
 iodates
 B blockers and Ca can control tachyarrhytima
 dexamethasone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three thyroid hormone drugs, what hormone is each |  | Definition 
 
        | desiccated thyroid - T3 and T4 levothyroxine - T4
 liothyroxine - T3
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the advantages of using liothyronlne over levothyroxine (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | liothyroline does not have to be converted for full potential, fast onset, good absorption, good when someone has problem with T4 to T3 conversion enzyme |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the clinical use for thyroid hormones (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | hypothyroidism non-toxic goiter
 replacement therapy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the contraindications to thyroid hormones (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | acute MI 
 increase anticoagulant effects
 
 reduce digitalis effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 3 side effects or problems with desiccated thyroid |  | Definition 
 
        | antigenic because it comes from pork 
 highly variable biological activity
 
 religous objections to treatment
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two anti-thyroid or thiroureylenes |  | Definition 
 
        | propylthiouracil and methimazole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stop iodiniation of throsyl in thyroglobulin 
 block thyroid peroxidae inhibiting coupling reaction
 
 prophylthiouracil- blocks conversion of T3 to T4
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three side effects of anti-thyroids |  | Definition 
 
        | agranulocytosis 
 marrow aplasic (improves on DC)
 
 secreted into breast milk
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what can anti-thyroids be used to treat (7) |  | Definition 
 
        | graves disease small goiters
 mild hyperthyroidism
 
 deplete thyroid hormone before radiation hyperthyroidism in elderly
 
 after radiation
 
 prethyrodectomy- prevent surge in surgery
 
 thyroid storm - prophylthiouracil due to T3 to T4 ability
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | saturated potassium iodide prevents thyroid hormone release 
 inhibits hormone synthesis by decreasing TSG and blcking its action (wolff chickoff effect)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | rebound hyperthyroidism 
 angioedema
 
 hypersensitivity
 
 iodism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is iodism, what are 7 signs |  | Definition 
 
        | chronic intoxication of iodine 
 burning bouth, throat, eyes, headache, productive cough, gastric irritation, skin lesions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three uses of iodine |  | Definition 
 
        | reduce vascularity and increase gland firmness 
 thyroid storm prevention
 
 pre surgery
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | gets trapped in thyroid and B-rays destory parenchyma B-rays only destory bad tissue
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three side effects of radioactive iodine |  | Definition 
 
        | cannot use in pregnancy 
 delayed hypothyroidism
 
 chromosomal abberations (cannot use in kids and pregnancy)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the half life of radioactive iodine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the use of radioactive iodine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is another name for radioactive iodine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | growth and development of endochondral bone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define remodeling, when does it occur |  | Definition 
 
        | continoous process of breakdown and renewal final option after linear growth in finished
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three steps in remodeling |  | Definition 
 
        | IL-1 and IL-6 released from osteoblast stimulate osteoclast to reabsorb tunnels in corticoid bone or scallops in trabecular bone 
 osteoclasts replaces bone areas with collagen, osteocalcin, and protein
 
 mineralization occurs after osteoblasts achieve 20 microns of thickness
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three problems with bone remodeling |  | Definition 
 
        | deficits occur after each cycle 
 deficits increase with age
 
 can never get back to origional bone mass after remodel
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what three things can alter remodeling |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what hormones alter remodeling (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | thyroid PTH
 vitamin D
 glucocorticoids
 estrogen
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | neuron excitability neurotransmitter release
 muscle contraction
 membrane integrity
 blood coagulation
 secondary messenger for hormones
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | skeleton in a pool exchangable with interstitial fluid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is stored in bone (5) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 75% is from dairy intake adults 45-50 yo should have supplement with vitamin D
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does Ca get into the body |  | Definition 
 
        | facilitated diffusion through SI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | inversly proportional to intake (not as good as we age)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where and how much Ca is excreted |  | Definition 
 
        | 150mg is loss via billiary and intestinal sloughing 9mg is secreted in kidney but 98% is reabsorbed
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do loop diruetics do to Ca excretion |  | Definition 
 
        | act on ascending limg to cause increased Ca loss (but its a better diruetic) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do thiazida diruetics do to Ca excretion |  | Definition 
 
        | uncouple Na and Ca excretion causing reduced Ca loss |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is phosphate located in the body |  | Definition 
 
        | 80% in bone 15% in soft tissue
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 5 functions of phosphate |  | Definition 
 
        | membrane phospholipids modifies Ca
 role in renal H excretion
 secondary messenger
 energy metabolism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where, how, and how much phosphate is absorbed in the gut |  | Definition 
 
        | active transport and vit D stimulate absorption 2/3 is absorbed
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is phosphate is excreted, how much |  | Definition 
 
        | excreted in urine 80% is reabsorbed
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prehormone is cleaved in ER and in golgi it makes PTH which lives in secretory granules until secreted. if not secreted soon enough they undergo proteolysis and the gland gets hypertrophy and hyperplasia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the half life of PTH |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does PTH act on target cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the functions of PTH (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | increase Ca and P absorption in intestines by activating vitamin D 
 increase bone reabsorption bia osteoblast action on osteoclast
 
 increase Ca reabsorption in kidney
 
 inhibit kidney phosphate reabsorption
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | parafollicular C cells in thyroid release it when plasma Ca is high |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two actions of calcitonin |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibition of osteoclast bone reabsorption 
 increased urinary Ca and P excretion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two types of viramin D and where are they made |  | Definition 
 
        | D2: yeast D3: animals and higher plants
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | in the bodycholesterol is reduced and is converted by UV into D3 hich is procesed in liver to calcifediol and then to calcitrol in kidney |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 pieces of evidence suggesting vitamin D is a hormone |  | Definition 
 
        | made in body in skin not needed in diet (in theory)
 transported in blood to distant sites
 specific receptors in target tissues on DNA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does vitamin D affect the body |  | Definition 
 
        | increases absorption of P and Ca in SI 
 increases mobalization of P and Ca from bone with PTH help
 
 decreases P and Ca excretion in kidney
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prehormone is cleaved in ER and in golgi it makes PTH which lives in secretory granules until secreted. if not secreted soon enough they undergo proteolysis and the gland gets hypertrophy and hyperplasia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the half life of PTH |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does PTH act on target cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the functions of PTH (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | increase Ca and P absorption in intestines by activating vitamin D 
 increase bone reabsorption bia osteoblast action on osteoclast
 
 increase Ca reabsorption in kidney
 
 inhibit kidney phosphate reabsorption
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | parafollicular C cells in thyroid release it when plasma Ca is high |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two actions of calcitonin |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibition of osteoclast bone reabsorption 
 increased urinary Ca and P excretion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two types of viramin D and where are they made |  | Definition 
 
        | D2: yeast D3: animals and higher plants
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | in the bodycholesterol is reduced and is converted by UV into D3 hich is procesed in liver to calcifediol and then to calcitrol in kidney |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 pieces of evidence suggesting vitamin D is a hormone |  | Definition 
 
        | made in body in skin not needed in diet (in theory)
 transported in blood to distant sites
 specific receptors on DNA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three things vitamin D does in the body |  | Definition 
 
        | absorption of Ca and P in SI 
 increase mobalization of Ca and P from bone with PTH help
 
 decrease P and Ca excretion in kidney
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 5 symptoms of hypocalcemia |  | Definition 
 
        | parasthesia increased neuromuscular excitability
 laryngospasm
 muscle cramps
 tonic clonic convulsions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 symptoms of hypercalcemia |  | Definition 
 
        | diverse clinical conditions dehydration due to compormised renal concentration
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 symptoms of hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | malaise muscle weakness
 osteomalacia
 decreases RBC ATP and 2,3-BPG causing hemolytic anemia and impaired oxygenation - rare
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 causes of hypercalcemia |  | Definition 
 
        | increased intake of Ca in hypothyroid pt 
 familial benign hypercalcemia
 
 vitamin D toxicity
 
 milk alkali syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat hypercalcemia |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 corticosteroids - vitamin D toxicity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is wrong in familial benign hypercalcemia |  | Definition 
 
        | parathyroid cannot sense Ca so it increases PTH |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can you get vitamin D toxicity |  | Definition 
 
        | overuse of hyperparathyroid drugs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat vitamin D toxicity |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 corticosteroids
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what causes milk alkali syndrome |  | Definition 
 
        | milk alkali powder increases Ca reabsption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two conditions that cause hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | hyperparathyroidism PTH secreting tumor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 IV/oral phosphate - hyperparathyroid
 corticosteroids - PTH tumor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does hyperparathyroid cause problems, what are two complications |  | Definition 
 
        | increases PTH secretion renal stones, peptic ulcers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what type of cancer is a PTH secreting tumor |  | Definition 
 
        | squamous or epithelial cell |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat PTH secreting tumor |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 corticosteroids
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat hyperparathyroidism |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 IV/oral phosphate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what causes paget's disease, 6 symptoms |  | Definition 
 
        | excessive remodeling weak, mishape, painful bones
 deafness
 cord compression
 cardiac failure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat paget's disease |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two conditions that cause hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | aluminum antacid toxicity normal children: mild childhood anemia due to decreased affinity of Hb to O2
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what three conditions can cause hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | familial benign hypophosphatemia rickets/osteomalacia
 hypophosphatemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to treat hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | IV/oral phosphate vitamin D - rickets/osteomalacia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is wrong in familial benign hypophosphatemia, what is a complication |  | Definition 
 
        | impaired vitamin D production causes increased PTH which depletes bone of Ca and P 
 causes dwarfism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | impaired vitamin D production causes increased PTH which deplates bone of Ca and P |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are signs of rickets in kids (2) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are signs of rickets in adults |  | Definition 
 
        | painful bones weak muscles
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three conditions that cause hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia |  | Definition 
 
        | hypoparathyroidism pseudohypoparathyroidism
 renal disease
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is wrong in hypoparathyroidism , what is the cause |  | Definition 
 
        | decreased release o f PTH due to thyroid or neck surgery, autoimmune or genetic disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is hypoparathyroidism treated |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is wrong in pseudohypoparathyroidism, what other symptoms are there |  | Definition 
 
        | body does not respond to PTH short stature, metacarpals, metatarsals
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for pseudohypoparathyroidism |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does renal disease do to Ca and P |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do we treat the Ca and P effects of renal disease |  | Definition 
 
        | aluminum antacids calcitriol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | acts on osteoclast to inhibit bone reabsorption rapid Ca reduction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | in hypercalcemia body will become sensitized in a few days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 uses of calcitonin |  | Definition 
 
        | hypercalcemia hypercalcemia + hyperphosphatemia
 paget's disease
 osteoperosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 2 IV bisphosphates |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the MOA of IV bisphosphate |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibit osteoclast bone reabsorption reduction of Ca over several days
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 4 things for IV bisphosphates treat |  | Definition 
 
        | hypercalcemia hypercalcemia + hyperphosphatemia
 paget's disease
 osteoperosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | takes 1-2 days to reduce Ca |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what two things do corticosteroids treat |  | Definition 
 
        | lymphoma (PTH secreting tumor) vitamin D toxicity caused hypercalcemmia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | increases plasma phosphate levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 3 side effects of IV/oral phosphate |  | Definition 
 
        | mild laxative if not needed is rapidly excreted (no storage)
 excess can reduce Ca via percipitation in soft tissue and be toxic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 uses of IV/oral phosphate |  | Definition 
 
        | hypophosphatemia hypocalcemia + hypophosphatemia
 hyperparathyroidism
 mild laxative
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | supression of PTH decreases bone turn over |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of vitamin D analogs |  | Definition 
 
        | possible vitamin D toxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 uses of vitamin D analogs |  | Definition 
 
        | rickets / osteomalacia osteoperosis
 treat hypoparathyroidism due to thyroid or parathyroid operation
 renal failure 0 calcitrol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three types of vitamin D analogs and their administration |  | Definition 
 
        | ergocalciferol: oral, iv, im dihydrotachysterol: oral
 calcitrol: oral, iv
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what molecule is ergocalciferol |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what molecule is dihydrotachysterol |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three types of Ca analogs and their administeration and why |  | Definition 
 
        | Ca chlorida: IV (IM causes vasodilation and burning) 
 Ca glyconate IV (IM causes abscess)
 
 CA gluceptate IV or IM (IM causes some irritation)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two uses of calcium analogs |  | Definition 
 
        | hypocalcemia + hyperphosphatemia malabsorption or malnutrition of Ca
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | decrease plasma phosphate by decreasing phosphate absorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | aluminum antacids side effects |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | aluminum antacids clinical use |  | Definition 
 
        | clearance of phosphate in kidney failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define osteoperosis, who is it normally seen in |  | Definition 
 
        | low bone mass and microfractures with minimal trauma in older women |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the types of osteoperosis |  | Definition 
 
        | primary type 1 primary type 2
 secondary
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cause of osteoperosis primary type 1 |  | Definition 
 
        | loss of trabecular bone due to estrogen lack at menopause |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cause of osteoperosis primary type 2 |  | Definition 
 
        | loss of cortical and trabecular bone in men and women due to remodeling inefficiency, diet, activation of parathyroid axis with age |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cause ot secondary osteoperosis |  | Definition 
 
        | systemic illness medication: glucocorticoids, phenytoin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three regulators of bone density |  | Definition 
 
        | physical activity endocrine status
 Ca intake
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the trend in bone density over time |  | Definition 
 
        | stable until 50 then progressivel decline |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 8 drugs that treat osteoperosis, state if they are for a specific kind or patient |  | Definition 
 
        | calcitonin IV bisphosphate
 vitamin D analogs
 Ca carbonate
 estrogen - post menopause osteoperosis
 raloxifene
 thiazide diruetuc
 testosterone - hypogonadal males
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a side effect of Ca carbonate |  | Definition 
 
        | constipation when >2000 mg/d |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what estrogen is used for osteperosis |  | Definition 
 
        | conjugated equine estrogen without progesterone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effect of raloxifene |  | Definition 
 
        | anti-estrogen in breast tissue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | selective estradiol receptor modulator 
 agonist in liver and bone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do thiazidie diruetics help osteoperosis |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the main way to distinguish between diabetes mellitus and insipidus |  | Definition 
 
        | melllitus has glucose in the urine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is the glucose in the urine in diabetes |  | Definition 
 
        | glucose in the blood exceeds capacity for reahsption so it is excreted in the urine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cause of type I diabetes (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | B cells cant make enough insulin, destoried B cells dont respond to glucose, B cell lesions and necrosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 5 signs of type I diabetes |  | Definition 
 
        | polydipsia polyphagia
 polyuria
 ketoacidosis
 hyperglycemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the typical type I diabetes patient |  | Definition 
 
        | onset in childhood looks undernourished
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | does diabetes have a genetic predisposition |  | Definition 
 
        | type II more than type I. but yes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for type I diabetes |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the typical type II diabetes patient |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cause of type II diabetes |  | Definition 
 
        | insulin resistant and inabilit to make enough insulin can progress to be like type I
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for type II diabetes |  | Definition 
 
        | weight reduction, exercise, dietary modification oral hypoglycemics
 last resort: exogenous insulin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 6 complications of diabetes |  | Definition 
 
        | hyperglycemia increased BP
 neuropathy
 proteinuria
 cardiovascular disease (more type II)
 diabetic retinopathy
 diabetic neuropathy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for neuropathy and proteinuria |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for diabetic cardiovascular disease |  | Definition 
 
        | statins lower lipid and cholesterol, stop smoking |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for diabetic neuropathy |  | Definition 
 
        | foot care, ulcer care, erythromycin for vagus neuropathy causing GI immotility |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two types of diabetes insipidus, what causes each |  | Definition 
 
        | central: deficiency in ADH nephrogenic: lack of response to ADH
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can you distinguish between central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus |  | Definition 
 
        | demopressin replaces ADH so if urine production decreases they have central |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does diabetes insipidus cause disease (no matter which type) |  | Definition 
 
        | causes lack of reabsorption of water in the CD |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B cells of islets of langerhans |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are normal fasting insulin levels |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what occurs in fasting metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | adipose releases FA which is processed in liver to glucose pancreas releases glucagon which signals to the liver to make glucose
 glucose is first used in the brain then other major organs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are normal prandial insulin levels |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what occurs in prandial metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | carbs are ingested and turned into glucose which is ingested and distributed to the organs pancreas releases insulin which tells the liver, muscle, and adipose to store glucose
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does glucose get into the cell |  | Definition 
 
        | insulin turns on GLUT facilitated diffusion transporters which activate TK which intrinsically phosphorlyates various substrates 
 insulin stimulates translocation of GLUT4 transporters to the membrane allowing for glucose to get into the cell
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are B cells activated to release insuln |  | Definition 
 
        | glucose comes through GLUT2 receptors and glucokinase phosphorlyates it so it can stay in the cell. 
 G6P is shuttled to ATP production which increases ATP in relation to ADP
 
 ratio switches on K channel and cell moves from basal state (hyperpolarized and inhibited) to depolarized
 
 this causes Ca cannels to open and Ca moves in stimulating release of insulin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | single chain precursor called  preproinsuln (A and B chains connected by C peptide) is cleaved in ER to proinsulin, processed in golgi to insulin, and released with C peptide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the clinical significance of C peptide |  | Definition 
 
        | helps determine if insulin levels are due to edogenous (no C) or endogenous (has C) insulin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the best determinant of insulin levels, why |  | Definition 
 
        | HBA1C because it shows BG over several months |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cycle of insulin |  | Definition 
 
        | increases after a meal and is at low basal levels between meals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B cells of islets of langerhans |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are normal fasting insulin levels |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what occurs in fasting metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | adipose releases FA which is processed in liver to glucose pancreas releases glucagon which signals to the liver to make glucose
 glucose is first used in the brain then other major organs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are normal prandial insulin levels |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what occurs in prandial metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | carbs are ingested and turned into glucose which is ingested and distributed to the organs pancreas releases insulin which tells the liver, muscle, and adipose to store glucose
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does glucose get into the cell |  | Definition 
 
        | insulin turns on GLUT facilitated diffusion transporters which activate TK which intrinsically phosphorlyates various substrates 
 insulin stimulates translocation of GLUT4 transporters to the membrane allowing for glucose to get into the cell
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are B cells activated to release insuln |  | Definition 
 
        | glucose comes through GLUT2 receptors and glucokinase phosphorlyates it so it can stay in the cell. 
 G6P is shuttled to ATP production which increases ATP in relation to ADP
 
 ratio switches on K channel and cell moves from basal state (hyperpolarized and inhibited) to depolarized
 
 this causes Ca cannels to open and Ca moves in stimulating release of insulin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | single chain precursor called  preproinsuln (A and B chains connected by C peptide) is cleaved in ER to proinsulin, processed in golgi to insulin, and released with C peptide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the clinical significance of C peptide |  | Definition 
 
        | helps determine if insulin levels are due to edogenous (no C) or endogenous (has C) insulin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the best determinant of insulin levels, why |  | Definition 
 
        | HBA1C because it shows BG over several months |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the cycle of insulin |  | Definition 
 
        | increases after a meal and is at low basal levels between meals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the short acting insulins (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | insulin lispro insulin aspart
 insulin glulisine
 insulin regular
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the long acting insulins (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | insulin glargine insulin detemir
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the insulin AA combinations (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | lispro + protamine asprt + protamine
 NPH + R
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what insulins have the best HBA1C control |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the side effects of all insulin medications (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | hypooglycemia lipodystrophy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the ratings of the hypoglycemic effects of the different types of insulin |  | Definition 
 
        | short acting has most long acting is second
 no peak insulin has no effect
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three sources of insulin, which is used today |  | Definition 
 
        | beef - outdated pork - outdated
 E. coli produces human insulin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is insulin administered (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | subcutaneous IV (emergency)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which type of insulin is the most rapidly absorbed |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how well is insulin absorbed |  | Definition 
 
        | depends on prep human is absorbed the best and most quickly
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is insulin metabolized and by what |  | Definition 
 
        | metabolized to be inactive in liver and kidney by insulinase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how long does it take for short acting insulin to kick in, how long does it last |  | Definition 
 
        | onset <15 min duration 3-6 hours
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is long acting insulin long acting, what is the duration |  | Definition 
 
        | NPH (insulin isophane suspension complexed with zinc) allows slow release 12-18h
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which insulin has slow release and rapid onset, how does it work |  | Definition 
 
        | insulin combined with AA 
 onset <10min because insulin dosent stick together due to AA substitution and is more free for use
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how long does no peak insulin last |  | Definition 
 
        | 24 hours of consistant plasma levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is a pregnant woman with diabetes treated |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do insulin pumps work |  | Definition 
 
        | uses short acting insulin on continous infusion to provide steady basal insulin level and bolus injections depending on size and time of meal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | emergency, when someone needs insulin fast ketoacidosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a non-intensive diabetes treatment |  | Definition 
 
        | NPH with lispro at breakfast and dinner |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two most populat insulin redigmen, which is bettwe |  | Definition 
 
        | glargine x2 and lispro x4 or
 insulin pump
 
 best one depends on pt
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the general pathway in diabetes treatment |  | Definition 
 
        | diet and exercise (if type II) 
 check liver function - if abnormal use insulin
 
 check kidney function (Cr)- if not abnormal use metformin
 
 if still hyperglycemic- try sulfonylurea
 
 if still hypoglycemic- try combo meal time + basal medication)
 
 if still hyperglycemic- use insulin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug is contraindicated with oral hypoglycemics |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drugs antagonize insulin or oral hypoglycemics (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | corticosteroids, estrogen, thyroid hormones thiazides
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 sulfonylureases |  | Definition 
 
        | gen 1: chlorpropamide 
 gen 2: glipizide, glyburide, glomepiride
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two thiazolidiendiones |  | Definition 
 
        | pioglitazone rosiglitazone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two aa derivatives |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two a-glycosidase inhibitors |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drugs mimic incretin (2) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drugs inhibit DPP-4 (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | stilagliptin saxagliptin
 linagliptin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug is synthetic amylin hormone |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drig is a SGLT2 inhibitor |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used as a anti-hypoglycemic (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | glucagon glucose tablets
 glucose source - grape juice
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 5 categories of oral hypoglycemics |  | Definition 
 
        | sulfonylureases thiazolidiendiones
 AA derivatives
 a-glucosidase inhibitors
 biguanides
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | bind and block K channel on B cells depolarizing, opening Ca channel letting it in and causing insulin release 
 reduce glucagon (indurect due to insulin decrease)
 
 increase insulin blocking (maybe increasing receptors)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MOA thiazolidiendiones (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | increase sensitivity to insulin in tissues 
 decrease hepatic glucose output
 
 use PPARy in adipose to increase insulin receptors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | a-glucosidase inhibitor MOA |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibit enzyme in SI brush border decreasing sugar absorption prevents post-prandial rise in glucose
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | inhibits gluconeogenesis stimulates glucolysis
 increases glucose uptake in tissues
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | exenatide and liraglutide MOA |  | Definition 
 
        | mimics incretins 
 incretins are released from intestines in response to food and increase insulin secretion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin MOA |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibit dipeptitdyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) so incretin cannot be degradedand insulin increases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | synthetic amylin hormone 
 normally made in pancreas after meal to slow rate of food absorption in intestines and reduce appetite
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | blocks Na/glucose cotransporter 2 in PCT preventing reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stops active hypoglycemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects sulfonylureases (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | all cause hypoglycemia 
 mostly 1st gen causes: hyponatremia, disulfram, hypotension (so basically don't use in old people)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | thiazolidiendione side effects (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | hypoglycemia 
 MI and other cardio events - dont use with CHF pt (especially rosiglitazone)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | AA derivative side effects |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | a-glucosidase inhibitor side effects (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | flatulence diarrhea
 abdominal cramps
 NO hypoglycemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | lactic acidosis in pt with renal or heart failure 
 NO hypoglycemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | exenatide, liraglutide side effects (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | liragltide; weight loss 
 hyoiglycemia: low risk
 
 nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin side effects (2) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pramlintide side effects (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | weight loss nausea
 hypoglycemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | SGLT2 inhibitor side effects (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | increased K female GU infections
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is glucagon administered |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is canaglifolozin administered |  | Definition 
 
        | oral once a day before first meal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is pramlintide administered |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin administered |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is exenatide, liraglutide administered |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin used for |  | Definition 
 
        | type II diabetes - need functioning B cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is exenatide, liraglutide used for |  | Definition 
 
        | type II diabetes - need functioning B cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is pramlintide used for |  | Definition 
 
        | adjunct to insulin in type I or II diabetes (lower insulin though) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is metformin metabolized and excreted |  | Definition 
 
        | not metabolized excreted in urine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what plasma protein is metformin bound to |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which oral hypoglycemic has the shortest half life |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are thiazolidiendiones used |  | Definition 
 
        | with insulin or in another combo (not enough alone) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are sulgonylureases metabolized and excreted |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which drug should you never use in pregnant diabetic patients, why |  | Definition 
 
        | thiazolidiendiones can cross placenta and deplete fetal pancreas of insuln
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 main uses for estrogen or progesterone drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | hormone replacement therapy / post-menopause 
 contraception
 
 health benifits of contraception
 
 receptor antagonist: breast cancer, infertility
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is another name for the follicular phase, how long is it |  | Definition 
 
        | proliferative phase, length varies |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two phases of the menstural cycle |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is another name for the lutela phase, how long is it |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | explain the process of hormone production in the follicular phase |  | Definition 
 
        | pulses of GnRH cause release of LH and FSH estrogen increases reduce LH and FSH release
 inhibin is mad ein ovary and causes feedback decreasing FSH
 mid cycle estrogen reaches peak for 36 hours and stops inhibiting gonadotropins and causes surge instead
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens in the luteal phase |  | Definition 
 
        | corpus luteum secretes progesterone (estrgen levels stay elevated) if pregnancy does not occur corpus luteum regresses due to lack of LH and progesterone and falls so endometrium sheds causing menstural discharge
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does progesterone do for the baby/uterus |  | Definition 
 
        | stops endometrium proliferation helps with implantation and growth of blastocyst
 causes growth of endometrial vessels
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the general structure of estrogen |  | Definition 
 
        | 18C with an aromatic phenolic acid ring (required for selective high affinity binding) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the natural form of estrogen, where is it made in men and women |  | Definition 
 
        | 17B estradiol 
 women: ovarian granulosa cells
 men and post-menopause; adipose tissue viea DHEA from adrenal cortex
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what stimulates for estrogen release |  | Definition 
 
        | gonadotropins stimulate aromatase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are precursors for estrogen |  | Definition 
 
        | androstendione testosterone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | estrogen needs aromatic ring to work, how does it get it |  | Definition 
 
        | aromatase using NADPH and O |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are estrogen receptors located |  | Definition 
 
        | ovarian granulosa, sertoli and leydig cells, stroma of adipose, placenta, blastocyte, brain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is estrogen converted between its different forms |  | Definition 
 
        | estradiol oxidized to esterone via 12-hydroxysteroid DH 
 estradiol and esterone converted to estriol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the down side of using natural progesterone |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two types of synthetic progesterone |  | Definition 
 
        | 21C progesterone skeletons 19-nortestosterone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is 19-nortestosterone |  | Definition 
 
        | progesterone without C19, 20, 21 resembles testosterone more so has effects of both
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is progesterone made, when |  | Definition 
 
        | made in testis, adrenal cortex, placenta, and ovary corpus luteum 
 begins being made in follicular phase and increases in luteal phase later in pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the relationship between progesterone and the cns |  | Definition 
 
        | increases body temp 1 deg midcycle until onset of menstural flow (ovulation) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the down side to using estrogen alone in hormone replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | risk of endometrial carcinoma due to hyperplasia of the endometrium |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the benifit of combined estrogen progesterone therapy in hormone replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | estrogen receptors dont get out of hand because it has to make some progesterone receptors too |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is a post-menopausal women with a uterus treated forr hormone replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | progesterone/estrogen combination |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are contraindications to progesterone/estrogen hormon replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | unable to tolerate progestins risk of cardiovascular disease
 poorlipoproteins use estrogen alone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is a post-menopausal women with a hysterctomy treated for homeone replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | estrogen alone, no where for it to cause carcinoma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 ways to administer hormone replacement therapy |  | Definition 
 
        | cyclic continous
 transdermal patch
 vaginal ring
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the redigmen for cyclic hormone replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | estrogen 15d estrogen and progesterone 10d
 repeat
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the redigmen for continous hormone replacement |  | Definition 
 
        | estrogen and progesterone daily OR
 estrogen and progesterone 10d
 esteogrn 15d
 repeat
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the contents of combination oral contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | estrogen: ethinyl estradiol or mestraol progesterone: norethindrone or norgestrel
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three types of oral contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | monophasic biphasic
 triphasic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are monophasic oral contraceptives administered |  | Definition 
 
        | same amount of estrogen and progesterone in each tablet for 21d |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are biphasic oral contraceptives administred |  | Definition 
 
        | two tablets with different amounts for 21 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the benifit of biphasic oral contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | reduce steroids administred because it approximates estrogen to progesterin ratio of menstural cycle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are triphasic oral contraceptives administered |  | Definition 
 
        | three tablets with different amounts for 21 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the general MOA of contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | estrogen supresses FSH and stops follicular development proteitiating action of progestrin which stops LH surfe
 progesterin stops ovulation, thickens cervical mucous, and causes endometrial atrophy
 estrogen stabilizes endometrial lining (bleeding control)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 contraindications to oral contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | thrombotic disease over 35 and smoking
 hormone sensitive tumor (breast canceR)
 pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 forms of estrogen, talk about the bioavailability and blood distribution of each |  | Definition 
 
        | natural: 12B estradiol, esterone, estriol: poor oral bioavailability high first pass effect 
 17B estradiol estrace: microcrystaline form, reduced first pass
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the benifits of a transdermal estrogen patch |  | Definition 
 
        | slow release increased bioavailability
 constant blood levels
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 types of synthetic estrogens |  | Definition 
 
        | conjugated ethinyl estradiol
 menastrol
 estradiol cruptionate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is conjugated estrogen made of where does it come from |  | Definition 
 
        | many conjugated estrogen metabolites pregnant mares
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the structure of ethinyl estradiol |  | Definition 
 
        | ethinyl group on C17 of estrace nucleus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is mestranol metabolized |  | Definition 
 
        | prodrug converted to ethinyl estradiol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a non-steroidal estrogen agonist |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the MOA of oestrogen contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | passivly diffuse into cell 
 bind nuclear receptors in genital, breast, HPA, bone, and liver
 
 interact with estrogen response elements (ERE) which alter transcription
 
 supress FSH stopping follicle development and stabilizing endometrial lining (bleeding control)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 12 negative side effects of estrogen contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | elevated TG decrease bile acid (due to cholesterol secretion)
 removal: hot flashes, chills, sweating, parasthesia
 
 nausea
 cramping
 fluid retention
 dizzy
 headache
 breast tenderness
 Mi or thrombosis in women >35 who smoke
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the good side effects of estrogen contraceptives (and natural functions) (14) |  | Definition 
 
        | decrease cholesterol increase HDL
 decrease LDL
 
 growth of uterus, vagina, fallopian tubes, breast, ducts, sexual development
 
 fat distribution, growth spurt, fusion of epiphysis
 
 increase plasma binding proteins
 
 prevent bone loss: block reabsorption
 
 decrease endometrial and ovarian cancer
 
 decrease fibroadenomas, fibrocysts, PID
 
 decrease blood loss and cause cycle regularity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why are esgtrogen contraceptives used (7) |  | Definition 
 
        | contraception replacement
 fibroadenomas
 fibrocysts
 PID
 cycle regularity
 failure of ovarian development
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three diseases that include failure of ovarian development |  | Definition 
 
        | dwarfism turner syndrome
 hypopituitarism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the administration of the 4 estrogen contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | conjugated: oral active ethinyl estradiol: oral active
 mestranol: not for replacement
 estradiol crypionate: long acting given IM
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are estrogen drugs excreted |  | Definition 
 
        | in urine with glucourindes and sulfate conjugates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the side effects of diethylstilbesterol |  | Definition 
 
        | congenital abnormalities in fetus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would you use diethylstilbesterol |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three antiestrogen drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | chlomiphene tamoxifen
 raloxifene
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competitive agonist of estrogen binding 
 stimulates ovulation in women with normal HPA and estrogen levels by opposing negative feedback increasing gonadotropin pulse amplitude (not frequency)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competitive antagonist of estrogen binding antagonizes receptor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | partial agonist effect on bone reabsorption and plasma lipoproteins NO effect on reproductive tissues
 selective estrogen receptor modulator
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the structure of clomiphene |  | Definition 
 
        | mixed isomeres cis has estrogenic activity
 trans has anti-estrogenic activity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the structure of tamoxifen |  | Definition 
 
        | pure trans isomere (only the useful part of clomiphene) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would you use clomiphene |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would you use tamoxifen |  | Definition 
 
        | block hormone induced breast tumors 
 adjunct with surgery or chemo
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would you use raloxifene |  | Definition 
 
        | osteoperosis post-menopause |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the side effects of clomiphene (6 |  | Definition 
 
        | ovarian hyperstimulation increased multiple births
 ovarian cysts
 anti-estrogenic: follicle, endometrium, cervical mucous (counter active)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the side effects of tamoxifen (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | decrease tumor development in other breast endometrial carcinoma
 hormone independent breast tumors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is clomiphene administered, half life, where metabolized, where excreted |  | Definition 
 
        | oral t.5 = 5-7d
 hepatic metabolism
 GI excretion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | tamoxifen: aministration, metabolism, excretion |  | Definition 
 
        | oral hepatic metabolism
 Gi excretion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | explain how tamoxifen is eliminated |  | Definition 
 
        | phase 1: 4-11d phase 2: 4d (hydroxytamoxifen)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two aromatase modifying drugs |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | selective aromatase inhibitor stops conversion of androgens to estrogens reversible
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | aromatase inactivastor acts as false substrate for enzyme and intermediate irreversibly binding to acrive site (suicide inhibition) stopping conversion of androgens to estrogens 
 irreversible
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the clinical use of amastrazole |  | Definition 
 
        | post-menopausal hormone dependent breast cancer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the use of exemestane |  | Definition 
 
        | post-menopausal hormone dependent breast cancer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is an anti-progesterin drug, what progesterin structure family is it from |  | Definition 
 
        | mifepristone 
 19-nortestosterone derivative
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | potent competitive inhibitor of progesterone and glucocorticoids 
 decrease in progesterone cause abortion by detaching blastocyst
 
 myometrial contraction and cervical softening allow for expulsion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | administer up until 49 days after pregnancy abortion pill
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 progesterone contraceptives and their progesterone structure family |  | Definition 
 
        | norethindrone: 19-nortestosterone norgestrel: 19-nortestosterone
 mexroxyprogesterone acetate: 21C progesterone
 progestasert
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the admnistration of the 4 progesterone contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | norethindrone: oral norgestrel: oral, subdermal (5y)
 mexroxyprogesterone acetate: IM (3mo)
 progestasert: intrauterine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MOA progesterone contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | supresses LH surge thickens cervical mucous
 decreases endometrial proliferation
 stops ovulation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are progesterone receptors |  | Definition 
 
        | genital, mammary, CNS (hypothalamus) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the role of progesterone in pregnancy |  | Definition 
 
        | maintains it supresses mensturation and uterine contraction
 proliferation of mammary acini
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why not use a progesterone contraceptive all alone |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the uses of progesterone contraceptives |  | Definition 
 
        | ovarian supression: dysmenorrhea, endometrosis, histurism, uterine bleeding 
 hormone replacement: combined with estrogen
 
 fibroadenomas
 fibrocysts
 PID
 
 cycle regulation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in general why is progesterone added to estrogen contraceptives, why aernt progesterone side effects a big deal |  | Definition 
 
        | avoid side effects of estrogen 
 progesterone side effects usually go away after 1 year
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the side effects of progesterone contraceptives (11) |  | Definition 
 
        | spotting amenorrhea
 decreased HDL
 increased LDL
 edema
 weight gain: fat deposition
 bloating
 acne
 histuism
 
 impaired glucose tolerance: longer term, short term increases basal insulin
 
 MI and thrombosis in women >35 who smoke
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MOA of the morning after pill |  | Definition 
 
        | combination oral contraceptive in a high dose |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | administration of the morning after pill |  | Definition 
 
        | taken within 72 hours of intercourse ineffective after 7 days (cannot un-implant)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the 21 patch made of |  | Definition 
 
        | ethinyl estradiol norelgestromin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | administration of 21 patch |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | drug that binds to the same site as the ligand and makes the same signal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define allosteric agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | drug that binds to different site than drug making no signal but causing drug to be more effective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | drug produces lesser response than the ligand and competes for ligand site |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define competitive agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | drug binds reversibly to receptor but increase in ligand can overcome it |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define non-competitive agonist, what are the two types |  | Definition 
 
        | binds to receptor and prevents agonist from producing max effect 
 irreversible: more common, same receptor
 allosteric: different receptor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can you tell if something on a graph is more potent or effective |  | Definition 
 
        | moving left on the X axis is more potent moving up on the Y axis is more effective
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does a partial agonist graph look like compared to agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | less effective shorter, less high on the Y axis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does a allosteric agonist graph look like compared to agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | same effectiveness (height on Y axis) increased potency (more left on X axis)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does a non-competitive agonist graph look like compared to agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | very short, sinking less effective (height on Y axis)
 less potent (more right on X axis)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does a antagonist graph look like compared to agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | same effectiveness (height on Y axis) less potency (more right on X axis)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does a Gs protein work |  | Definition 
 
        | activates cAMP which increases PKA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does a Gi protein work |  | Definition 
 
        | decreases cAMP which decreases PKA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does a Gq protein work |  | Definition 
 
        | releases IP3 and DAG IP3 releases Ca
 DAG and Ca activate PKC
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the point of equal ionization |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens to an acid and base if you put it in stuff that is lower (more basic) than the pKa |  | Definition 
 
        | acid will ionize base will not ionize
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens to an acid and base if you put it in stuff that is higher (more acidic) than the pKa |  | Definition 
 
        | acid will not ionize base will ionize
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what form of a drug is best excreted |  | Definition 
 
        | WA will be excreted beter in a basic enivornment 
 WB will be excreted better in an acidic enivornment
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what form of a drug is best distributed in the body |  | Definition 
 
        | the same form 
 WA likes acid
 WB likes base
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is used to fix and WB or WB drug OD |  | Definition 
 
        | NaHCO3 is used to alkalize urine and fix WA OD 
 NH3CL is used to acidify urine and fix WB OD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | increases gene expression of P450 metabolizing enzymes which decreases the plasma level of the drug making it less effective and decreasing presence of symptoms |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 5 examples of inducers |  | Definition 
 
        | rifampin, bensopyrine, chronic ethanol, phenytoin, barbituates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | decrease gene expression for metabolizing P450 enzymes increasing plasma concentration of the drug which increases symptoms |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 4 examples of inhibitors |  | Definition 
 
        | cimetidine, erythromycin, ketonazole, grapefruit |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define first order metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | rate of drug metabolism is proportional to concentration of the free drug constant fraction of drug is metabolized per unit time
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define zero order metabolism |  | Definition 
 
        | drugs with large doses saturate metabolizing enzymes constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit time
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 3 examples of drugs with zero order kinetics |  | Definition 
 
        | aspirin, ethanol, phenytoin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a maintience dose for, how is it calculated |  | Definition 
 
        | adjust rate so input equals rate of loss to keep a steady plasma level 
 (Cs)(Cl)/(F)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is loading dose for, how is it calculated |  | Definition 
 
        | load initial volume of drug needed 
 (Cp)(Vd)/(F)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how long does it take to get to steady state, what is it dependent on(2) |  | Definition 
 
        | 4-5 half lives depends on half life and steady state is determined by first order kinetics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | zidovudine lamivudine
 entricitabine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | host adds 3P then drug terminates DNA elongation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | peripherial neuropathy lactic acidosis
 marrow supression - zidovudine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | host adds 2P, drug terminates DNA elongation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | maculopapular rash CNS effects - enfavirenz
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | binds reverse transcriptase causing inactivation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | name a protease inhibitor, what is the MOA |  | Definition 
 
        | ritonavir inhibits protease stopping viral replication
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | protease inhibitor side effects (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | central fat deposition insulin release
 hyperglycemia
 P450 inhibitor - increased in infants
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | in combination with out PI because it is an extra good P450 inhibitor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | name an integrase inhibitor |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | inhibits viral genetic integration into host chromosomes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | name three anti-herpes drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | acyclovir gencyclovir
 foscarnet
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | TK adds 1P, host adds 2P, DNA chain termination |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | acyclovir side effects (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | delerium tremor
 seizure
 nephrotoxicity (crystal urea, drink water)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | TK adds 1P, host adds 2P, DNA chain termination |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stops reverse transcriptase and DNA polumerase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | fascarnet side effects (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | nephrotoxicity altered Ca and P balance
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what two herpes drugs treat CMV |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | name and influenza a and b drug |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | neuroaminidase inhibitor that stopps viral budding |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | stops mycolic acid assembly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | peripherial neuritis (take B6 to fix) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | rifampin side effects (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | P450 inhibitor pseudomembrane colitis
 renal failure
 anemia
 red/orange urine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  |