Term
| Combination therapy is used when: |
|
Definition
| a polymicrobial infection is present or To reduce the overall cost of therapy by decreasing the quantity of antibiotics needed |
|
|
Term
| How much of a role do natural products play as anti-infective drugs? |
|
Definition
| Over half of all modern antimicrobial drugs are natural products or derived from natural product leads |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following agents is considered a “drug of choice” for the empirical treatment of an initial Syphilis genital tract infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the penicillin binding proteins? |
|
Definition
| β-lactamase enzymes; transpeptidases; carboxypeptidases; proteins in the body responsible for allergic reactions |
|
|
Term
| T/F ampicillin is semi-synthetic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| following mechanisms associated with bacterial resistance to the penicillins: |
|
Definition
| Production of β-lactamase enzymes; Modification of transpeptidases; Production of multidrug efflux pumps; Changes in porin channels to decreases the penetration of penicillins |
|
|
Term
| T/F Oral first generation cephalosporins cannot be administered qd because of their long half-lives. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The combination product Primaxin® contains cilastatin to inhibit _____________. |
|
Definition
| dehydropeptidase-I produced by renal tubular cells |
|
|
Term
| T/F Cefoperazone is a true cephalosporin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Cefotetan, Cefoxitin, and loracarbef are not true cephalosporins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Red Man Syndrome is a form of antigen/antibody-based allergic skin reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Penicillin V avoids acid degradation because its electon-withdrawing oxygen substituent interferes with the intramolecular reaction-assisted step in the acid hydrolysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Metronidazole is a prodrug that requires metabolic activation by liver enzymes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Metronidazole is a natural product-derived semi-synthetic compound. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Bacterial resistance to metronidazole occurs when bacteria increase their production of the enzyme pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase (PFOR). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Cephamycins are semi-synthetic derivatives of natural products produced by bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A logical alternatives for patients with severe penicillin allergies would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F If a patient is severely ill and may die, they are typically given vancomycin in a rapid IV bolus injection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Vancomycin probably does not penetrate the outer cell membrane of Gm (-) bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acts as a substrate mimic that inhibits the bacterial enzyme alanine racemase that converts L-ala to D-ala in the construction of the bacterial cell wall. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits bacterial cell wall formation by blocking the phospholipid carrier cycle that transports cell wall components from the cytoplasm through the cell membrane to the cell wall. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Pipericillin is an uridopenicillin with enhanced anti-Pseudomonas activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Indanyl carbenicillin is converted into carbenicillin following oral administration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Probenecid can be used with natural and semisynthetic penicillins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Probenecid blocks the breakdown and metabolism of penicillins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment of penicillin-induced anaphylactic reactions includes the immediate administration of __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ________________ of animopenicillins improves their penetration through the outer membrane of Gm (-) bacteria. |
|
Definition
| positively charged side chain |
|
|
Term
| The positively charged side chain of animopenicillins improves their binding to _______________ in Gm (-) bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Metronidazole is not a natural product and is not derived from a natural product. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and can block the formation of a ribosomal initiation complex |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important form of bacterial aminoglycoside resistance? |
|
Definition
| plasmid transfer of extrachromasomal resistance factors |
|
|
Term
| T/F streptomycin is a natural product. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F The effects of aminoglycosides on the kidneys can be reduced by keeping patients well-hydrated, not using them with other nephrotoxic drugs, and by controlling/monitoring their blood levels to ensure they are kept within the optimal therapeutic range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Aminoglycosides can rupture lysosomes in proximal tubular cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F amikacin is a natural product. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aminoglycosides can be used to treat hepatic coma (hepatic encephalopathy) because… |
|
Definition
| aminoglycosides kill ammonia-forming bacteria in the GI tract. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Amikacin is more resistant to bacterial R-factor enzymes than other aminoglycosides. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Amikacin is a derivative of the aminoglycoside kanamycin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F It is acceptable to use amikacin for empirical aminoglycoside therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Gentamicin is a semisynthetic aminoglycoside. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gram negative bacteria are generally insensitive to natural and biosynthetic penicillins because: |
|
Definition
| natural/biosynthetic penicillins do not penetrate the Gm (-) outer membrane efficiently; natural/biosynthetic penicillins do have reduced affinity for Gm (-) transpeptidases; natural/biosynthetic penicillins lack sufficient side chain polarity or charge |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bind to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and block translocation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibit bacterial RNA-polymerase (a.k.a. DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase)? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bind to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and block protein translation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase step in protein synthesis, but does not inhibit translocation? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibit protein translation by binding to the bacterial isoleucine tRNA ligase enzyme that is needed to incorporate isolucine into proteins |
|
|
Term
| MOA of lincomycin, capreomycin, and clindamycin |
|
Definition
| bind to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and block protein translocation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bind to the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit and block the binding of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the mRNA/ribosome complex (blocks the A site and prevents addition of new amino acids to the activity growing peptide chain) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bind to negatively charged phospholipids in bacterial cytoplasmic membranes and disrupt the membrane |
|
|
Term
| MOA of trimetrexate glucoronate, pyrimethamine, and trimethoprim |
|
Definition
| mimics the dihydropteridate portion of dihydrofolate and inhibits the dihydrofolate reductase enzyme needed for the biosynthesis of tetrahydrofolate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mimics a membrane phospholipid and inserts into the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane, then forms a depolarizing pore through the membrane |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mimics p-aminobenzoic acid and inhibits the dihydropteroate synthase enzyme needed for the biosynthesis of tetrahydrofolate |
|
|
Term
| Certain bacteria are inherently resistant to sulfonamides because: |
|
Definition
| They lack the enzymes to biosynthesize folate, but can absorb it through their membranes |
|
|
Term
| Name a prodrug that bacteria convert to an active form capable of generating superoxide anion that oxidizes ribosomal proteins. This results in an inhibition of protein, DNA, RNA, and cell wall synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name a prodrug that is converted by acidic conditions in the urine to ammonia and formaldehyde. |
|
Definition
| methenamine (Hiprex® or Mandelamine®) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits arabinosyl tranferase enzymes required for mycobacterial cell wall biosynthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits mycobacterial fatty acid synthase I required for the biosynthesis of the mycolic acids in mycobacterial cell walls |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits the function of AcpM acyl carrier proteins needed for the biosynthesis of the mycolic acids in mycobacterial cell walls |
|
|
Term
| mechanisms associated with bacterial resistance to fluoroquinolones are: |
|
Definition
| altered Gm(-) membranes that decrease uptake; MDR efflux pumps; altered DNA gyrases |
|
|
Term
| ansamycins cause drug-drug interactions by ___________p-450s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mechanisms associated with bacterial resistance to tetracyclines: |
|
Definition
| MDR efflux pumps and ribosomal protection (productions of proteins that interfere with drug binding) |
|
|
Term
| Synercid and macrolides cuase drug-drug interacitons by __________ P450s. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bacterial resistance to ansamycins: |
|
Definition
| is not usually associated with cross-resistance to other antimicrobials; can result from altered bacterial RNA polymerases |
|
|
Term
| _________is an antimicrobial that should never be admixed with electrolyte preparations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F telithromycin affects P-450 enzymes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which agents are associated with one of the highest rates of PMC because it/they inhibit(s) Gm(+) and Gm(-) anaerobes, but not Clostridium difficile? |
|
Definition
| lincomycin and clindamycin |
|
|
Term
| T/F tigecycline is a semisynthetic minocycline derivative |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F tigecycline is a glycylcycline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F tigecycline can not be used to treat bacteria that express MDR efflux pumps |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| suppresses only the replication of bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Agricultural/aquaculture use of which of this antimicrobial agent is of particular concern, because it is associated with often fatal cases of non-dose dependent irreversible aplastic anemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the phosphoenolpyruvate transferase enzyme need for the biosynthesis of diphosphate-N-acetylmuramic acid |
|
|
Term
| When forming a polar channel through fungal membranes, which part of the amphotericin B molecule is believed to extend to the outer surface of the lipid membrane? |
|
Definition
| Carboxylic acid group and the Amino sugar group |
|
|
Term
| T/F you can decrease toxicity of amphotericin B by pre-treating the patient with antihistamines. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| azole antifungal drug-drug interactions both ______ and ________ p450s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mechanisms by which a pathogen could develop resistance to the azole antifungal agents: |
|
Definition
| Expression of multidrug efflux pumps; Increased expression of lanosterol 14α-demethylase; Alteration of lanosterol 14α-demethylase |
|
|
Term
| What is the best reason for why the triazoles are used as systemic antifungal agents and imidazoles are generally not used internally? |
|
Definition
| These agents have high selectivity for critical fungal enzymes relative to similar human enzymes and are therefore less toxic. |
|
|
Term
| T/F echinocandins are also known as pneumocandins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F echinocandins target enzymes needed for fungal cell membranes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Fungal resistance to flucytosine develops rapidly, if used alone.
And fungal resistance to flucytosine can be caused by the altered expression of enzymes involved in either its cellular penetration or its metabolic activation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The two drugs amphotericin B and flucytosine act synergistically because of which of the following reasons? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of fungi with AmB increases the cellular penetration of flucytosine. |
|
|
Term
| T/F The following factors limit the potential of antifungal susceptibility testing: the identification and fungal classification and is very difficult; pathogenic fungi are often difficult to culture; the normal flora of patients contain many potentially pathogenic fungi or fungal spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first FDA approved botanical drug is an extract of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A whole medical system that views the body in a delicate balance of two opposing and inseparable forces (yin and yang). Health is maintained by maintaining the body in a balanced state using individualized diagnosis. Techniques such as massage and manipulation, acupuncture, and natural products are often used in this system, which is known as: |
|
Definition
| traditional Chinese medicine |
|
|
Term
| T/F milk thistle is considered a safe dietary supplement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Is a nonscientific system of medicine that probably owes much of its perceived success to the placebo effect |
|
|
Term
| The active ingredients in Cranberries are known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F it is ok to take St. John's Wort when using anticoagulants. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F it is ok to use anticoagulants when taking Gingko |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F FDA now has the legal authority to implement GMP (Good Manufacturing Practices) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ingestion of sublethal doses of Amanita muscaria may produce: |
|
Definition
| hallucinations, N/V, CNS effects |
|
|
Term
| Inky Cap mushroom is known for: |
|
Definition
| disulfiram-like poisoning |
|
|
Term
| Amanita mushrooms can be classified as: |
|
Definition
| hallucinogenic, neurotoxic, and poisonous |
|
|
Term
| In the stomach gyromitrin is hydrolyzed to: |
|
Definition
| toxic N-methyl-N-formylhydrazine (MFN) |
|
|
Term
| T/F Psilocybin is a strong hallucinogen interfering with the action of serotonin in the brain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coprinus mushrooms produce the secondary metabolite coprine, which is: |
|
Definition
| inactive protoxin of amino acid structure |
|
|
Term
| The known hallucinogen muscazone is found in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disulfiram-like poisoning by some mushrooms is an effect of: |
|
Definition
| inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH) |
|
|
Term
| Lysergic acid amide (LSA) is produced by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The known hallucinogen mescaline is found in: |
|
Definition
| cacti (Peruvian torch cactus) |
|
|
Term
| The most active constituent of Cannabis sativa is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The psychotropic activity of nutmeg and mace is linked to the presence of: |
|
Definition
| myristicin and its analogs |
|
|
Term
| The species of the following genera: Virola, Anadenanthera, and Mimosa contain: |
|
Definition
| N,N-dimethyltryptamine (DMT) and its derivatives |
|
|
Term
| Ibogaine, a compound found in Iboga is an example of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| deadly nightshade produces: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac are all: |
|
Definition
| dermatitis-producing plants |
|
|
Term
| The highly toxic glycoprotein Ricin D is the constituent of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Honey intoxication (mad honey disease) is related to: |
|
Definition
| consumption of honey produced from the nectar of rhododendrons |
|
|
Term
| Galanthamine from daffodils is used for: |
|
Definition
| treatment of early stages of Alzheimer’s disease |
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of toxicity of cyanogenic glycosides which are present in plums, peach, and apple seeds involves: |
|
Definition
| an enzymatic hydrolysis with formation of hydrogen cyanide |
|
|
Term
| Salvinorin A is the first known non-nitrogenous: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alpha and beta-amanitins are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of amanitin poisoning: |
|
Definition
| long latent period (6-48 hours) without symptoms |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| protoplasmic toxins in the Gyromitra mushrooms |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of poisoning by ingestion of Cortinarius orellanus are: |
|
Definition
| extremely long latent period (3-14 days), followed by thirst and excessive urination |
|
|
Term
| What is true about psilocybin: |
|
Definition
| strong hallucination interfering with action of serotonin in the brain |
|
|
Term
| What is the natural source of morphine, codeine, and thebaine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anaphylaxis resulting from some insect stings may be described as: |
|
Definition
| an immediate allergic reaction, which is a type of life-threatening shock |
|
|
Term
| The major constituent of bee venom causing pain is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major ingredient of fire ant venom is: |
|
Definition
| a mixture of piperidine alkaloids |
|
|
Term
| The Africanized Honey Bee is a: |
|
Definition
| hybridized European honey bee |
|
|
Term
| Isopentyl acetate is used: |
|
Definition
| by killer bees as a pheromone |
|
|
Term
| The venom of Yellow Jackets contains: |
|
Definition
| dopamine, mellitin, and histamine |
|
|
Term
| p-Benzoquinone produced by beetle-bombardier is: |
|
Definition
| synthesized by enzymatic oxidation of hydroquinone |
|
|
Term
| The venom of scolopendra contains: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lethal dose of cantharidin (Spanish fly toxin) for a human is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyaluronidase is an active enzyme of the venom of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antivenin used for serious snake bites is: |
|
Definition
| specifically prepared horse serum |
|
|
Term
| The venom of Colorado River Toad contains: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pumiliotoxin is the toxic alkaloid produced by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The source of toxic alkaloids present in the skin glands of poison dart frogs is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| toxins of cone snails, neurotoxins, peptides, toxins that paralyze prey |
|
|
Term
| Envenomation by which of the following organisms requires immediate resuscitation and cardiac massage: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Portuguese man-of-war or blue bottle is the common name of: |
|
Definition
| a colony of specialized marine organisms |
|
|
Term
| Batrachotoxin is an extremely toxic alkaloid produced by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sea cucumbers produce the following poison: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urushiol, present in poison ivy and other dermatitis-producing plants, is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An alkaloid, mimosine, from Mimosa spp. is responsible for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemlock is known for producing: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Galanthamine is an alkaloid produced by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gelsemine is a toxic alkaloid present in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These have toxic, teratogenic, or allergenic fruit? |
|
Definition
| ackee, pokeweed, oak, mistletoe |
|
|
Term
| T/F tarantula bites are poisonous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F pit vipers are venomous snakes of the family Crotalide, poison may not be injected when a pit viper bites, dead pit vipers can have a bite reflex for up to an hour after death and can still inject venom and be harmful, snake venoms can be both hemotoxic and neurotoxic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Four species that produce cardiac glycosides are: |
|
Definition
| purple foxgloves, lily of the valley, grecian foxgloves, rose laurel |
|
|
Term
| Two common contraindications for cardiac glycoside therapy are: |
|
Definition
| IV calcium injection, diuretics that may decrease potassium levels |
|
|
Term
| The secondary cardiac glycoside derives from the primary cardiac glycosides by: |
|
Definition
| enzymatic hydrolysis of B-D-glucose unit |
|
|
Term
| Cardenolides are compounds with: |
|
Definition
| unsaturated five-membered lactone ring |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac glycosides are compounds with: |
|
Definition
| cis-trans-cis configuration of A/B/C/D rings |
|
|
Term
| T/F ginger is a safe dietary supplement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ginkgo Biloba extracts are usually standardized to: |
|
Definition
| 24% flavones and 6% terpenes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nystatin and amphotericin |
|
|
Term
| Which structural part of the amphotericin B molecule is believed to associate with ergosterol present in fungal cell membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F The polyene functional group of amphotericin B is lipophilic and would therefore be able to associate with a compound such as a sterol found within a cell membrane (a lipophilic environment – remember phospholipid tails point inward towards each other to make the bilayer). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mechanism of action of the azole antifungal agents: |
|
Definition
| c) They inhibit the enzyme lanosterol 14α-demethylase, preventing the formation of ergosterol and causing the buildup of toxic precursors |
|
|
Term
| mechanism by which a pathogen could develop resistance to the azole antifungal agents: |
|
Definition
| Expression of multidrug efflux pumps; increased expression of target enzyme, alteration of target enzyme |
|
|
Term
| mechanism of action of the echinocandins |
|
Definition
| Inhibition of the glucan synthase enzyme responsible for forming β-1,3-D-glucan |
|
|
Term
| T/F clotrimazole, miconazole, oziconazole, and tioconazole all have OTC forms for vaginal yeast infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits fungal mitosis and protein synthesis |
|
|
Term
| This agent can cause colored or blurred vision, especially within an hour after taking the drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOA of tolnaftate, butenafine, and neftifine: |
|
Definition
| inhibit the enzyme squalene epoxidase |
|
|
Term
| 15. Which of the following is the best reason for why the imidazoles are not used as systemic antifungal agents? |
|
Definition
| a) These agents have low selectivity for antifungal enzymes relative to similar human enzymes and are therefore toxic |
|
|
Term
| 18. Which of the following can cause both contact dermatitis and GI irritation (if ingested) due to the presence of oxalates? |
|
Definition
| Dumb cane (Diffenbachia sp.) |
|
|
Term
| 20. Contact with which of the following substances can result in phototoxic dermatitis after exposure to sunlight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F a) The leaves of the Rhubarb plant (Rheum rhaponticum) contain soluble oxalates which, if ingested, can cause systemic poisoning and possibly kidney failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F c) The peel of green potatoes (Solanum tuberosum) contains α-solanine which can be destroyed by cooking. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F b) The fruit and flowers of cherry trees (Prunus sp.) contain cyanogenic glycosides and release hydrocyanic acid when crushed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Tomato (Lycopersicon esculentum) and potato (Solanum tuberosum) leaves are both poisonous if ingested. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Allergic contact dermatitis is an antibody mediated allergic reaction provoked by re-exposure to an allergen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the following, which is a hallucinogen? Castor bean oil, Morning Glory seeds, indigo flowers, pokeweed berry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coca (Erythroxylum coca) has what type of properties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F The plant common ragweed (Ambrosia artemesiifolia) is a common cause of pollen allergies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Coniine is a highly toxic volatile alkaloid found in Hemlock (Conium maculatum) leaves and stems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Farm workers harvesting tobacco (Nicotiana spp.) can get Green Tobacco Sickness from unintentional transdermal absorption of nicotine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Azalea (Rhododendron occidentale) leaves are highly toxic, requiring very few (<1 g) to poison a child |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fly Agaric (Amanita muscaria), Coral snake (Micrurus fulvius), Scorpions (Aphonopelma sp), and Amanita pantherina (no common name given) all produce what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Ergotism can manifest in one of two forms, gangrenous or convulsive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Solasonine and α-solanine are both ____________ found in plants of the Solanaceae family. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Codeine, heoine, ethylmorphine, and naloxone are all derivatives of _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Salvinorin A binds to which receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F e) The Africanized honey bee (Apis mellifera scutellata) releases the pheromone isopentyl acetate when it stings a victim. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of snake includes rattlesnakes and cottonmouths (NOT coral snakes) and has venom made of a complex mix of proteins which is hemotoxic and can cause a metallic taste in the victim's mouth. They can also regulate the amount of venom they inject into their prey. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a marine organism that produces neurotoxic peptides for which there is no antievenom is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| produces both tetrodotoxin and maculotoxin which can paralyze a victim while leaving all senses intact: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sea scorpion, stonefish, and sting ray will injure you if: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which agent chelates metal ions and is believed to be a proteosome inhibitor, but has not yet had this MOA confirmed as its true mechanism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which compound was used by secret police as a truth drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cationic detergent kills bacterial cells by which mechanism? |
|
Definition
| it binds to lipids in cell membranes and disrupts membrane integrity |
|
|
Term
| these long-chain cyclopropylated lipids help to prevent dessication, facilitate cell survival and growth within macrophages, and act as a barrier to lipophilic barriers: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Colistin is available in prodrug formulations (salts or esters) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F polymyxin B, mupriocin, sulfanilamide, and chloramphenicol can all be used topically. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F ethambutol can cause alterations in visual acuity and colorblindness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ethionamide inhibits the enzymes involved in mycolic acid biosynthesis. |
|
|
Term
T/F Ethionamide is activated by bacterial NADPH-dependent reduction to 2-ethyl-4-
amidopyridine and is oxidized to ethionamide sulfoxide which is equally active. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F chloramphenicol is degraded and detoxified by glucoronic acid conjugation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F sulfamethizole does not directly inhibit or interfere with bacterial protein synthesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an enzyme required to reverse (+)-DNA supercoiling. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase |
|
|
Term
T/F The tetracyclines are accumulated to high concentrations in both G(+) and G(-) cells by an
energy-dependent efflux mechanism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Tetracyclines are inactivated in basic solutions by the formation of a planer intermediate
which leads to a more stable, inactive form. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Tetracyclines are active and can be used against intracellular pathogens, in part because
bacterial ribosomes have higher binding affinities for these compounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a way that bacteria could develop resistance to rifampin? |
|
Definition
| Mutation of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
T/F Tetracyclines can retard hair and nail growth as they have a high affinity for chitin present
in hair and nails. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Tetracycline can be used as a diagnostic agent to detect tumor tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
binds to 30S ribosomal subunits and prevents correct binding of
aminoacyl-tRNAs |
|
|
Term
| an agent that contains DAB structural units |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the side chain present on tigecycline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What agent degrades into formaldehyde in an acidic environment, such as
the urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what agent is able to inhibit bacterial folate synthesis but can be used in
patients who are intolerant to sulfonamides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Isoniazid (INH) is must be activated by bacterial ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mefenide acetate and silver sulfadiazine are used similarly, but silver sulfadiazine has what therapeutic advantage? |
|
Definition
| it is poorly absorbed through burned tissues |
|
|
Term
| T/F PAS is a mimic of PABA that may work by inhibiting folate synthesis in M. tuberculosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F PAS use is sometimes associated with severe hypersensitivity reactions that include serum
sickness and skin reactions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F the sulfonamide derivative of sulfasalazine is a prodrug form of a COX inhibitor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F the sulfonamide derivative of sulfasalazine is a prodrug form of a COX inhibitor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a prodrug that is used to treat ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s
disease: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Fosfomycin interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits phosphoenolpyrurave transferases required for the synthesis of phospholipids needed for bacterial cell wall. |
|
|
Term
| This is a streptogramin that acts synergistically with glutathione conjugated metabolites of quinupristin, if used alone it acts as a static agent, and it inhibits CYP450s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Given the structure of ciprofloxacin, what purpose does the flourine substitution serve? |
|
Definition
| provides excellent membrane permeability |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inhibits protein synthesis by acting as a mimic of the amino acid
isoleucine |
|
|
Term
| T/F dulfonamide antimicrobial agents inhibit bacterial dihydropteroate synthase. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| secondary metabolite produced by an organism to aid in competition or defense |
|
|
Term
| the aminoglycosides contain which of the following functional groups? |
|
Definition
| aminocyclitol and amino sugars |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
prodrug antimycobacterial agent that is directly activated by pyrazinamidase enzymes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1st line agent for the treatment of TB |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ethionamide, a 2nd line antimycobacterial, inhibits acyl carrier proteins/function of mycobacterial fatty acid synthase II. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aminosalicylic acid (PAS) 2nd line mycobacterial. PABA analog, may inhibit folate enzymes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
clofazimine, 2nd line for leprosy, increases ROS and may damage mycobacterial DNA. causes red-brown skin |
|
|
Term
| T/F Natural penicillin is most often given in IV form due to stability issues related to oral administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a biosynthetic penicillin: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| prevents the formation of bacterial cell wall precursors and can cause psychoses in patients receiving high-dose therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a peptide antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis by blocking a phospholipid carrier cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F cefpodoxime proxetil and cefditoren pivoxil are both prodrugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Fourth generation cephalosporins are stable to nearly all β-lactamases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of ribosomes and cause codon misreading |
|
|
Term
| T/F the cidal effect of aminoglycosides is believed to be partially due to the formation of aberrant proteins which interfere with cell membrane function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F d) Aminoglycosides can block the initiation of protein synthesis and can interfere with the elongation of peptide chains that are in the process of being formed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Macrolide antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by which of the following mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting the movement of the actively growing peptide chain from the peptidyl acceptor site to the peptidyl donor site. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits the enzyme alanine racemase |
|
|
Term
| Aminoglycoside resistant pathogens can chemically deactivate aminoglycosides by which mechanism? |
|
Definition
| enzymes that phosphorylate hydroxyl groups |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| interfere with transpeptidase |
|
|
Term
| Grycopeptide MOA (vanc and dalbavancin): |
|
Definition
| binds to D-ala/D-ala precursor in bacterial peptidoglycan (blocks from carboxypeptidases/transpeptidases) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| : inhibits alanine racemase needed to convert L-ala to D-ala in bacterial peptidoglycan & prevents cell wall formation |
|
|
Term
| polypeptide/ bacitracin MOA: |
|
Definition
| : inhibits cell wall synthesis by blocking phospholipid carrier cycle required to move phospholipid of cell membrane to cell components; prevents peptidoglycan monomers from crossing the cytosol through the cytoplasmic membrane to form peptidoglycan polymers & connect mucopeptide to cell wall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits protein synthesis → binds to 30S ribosomal subunit |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| binds to 50S subunit; inhibits protein synthesis by inhibiting translocation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| “like macrolides”; inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit (inhibits formation of initiation complex & blocks translocation) |
|
|
Term
| MOA of pleuromutilins/retapamulin: |
|
Definition
| similar to chloramphenicol; inhibits binding of 50S ribosomal subunit & inhibits peptidyl transferase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Interferes w/ peptidyl-tRNA needed to form peptide bond; “suppresses formation of long peptide chains |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Induces a conformational change in the peptidyl transferase protein complex; “increases binding of Group B Quinupristin to ribosome |
|
|
Term
| MOA of cyclic lipopeptide/daptomycin |
|
Definition
| ANIONIC detergent! inserts into cytoplasmic membranes of Gram (+) bacteria, forms a non-specific pore (ion channel) that allows K and small molecules to depolarize the membrane, which leads to cell death |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits RNA transcription by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bacteriostatic; REVERSIBLE inhibition of protein synthesis; binds to 30s |
|
|
