| Term 
 
        | Name the two types of Immunity |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the characteristics of Innate Immunity |  | Definition 
 
        | Fast(min/hours) 1st defense
 Limited in diversity of infections
 general/vague recognition
 same response to repeat infections
 Defense
 -Barriers(skin,mucous
 -phagocytes
 -fever
 -inflammation
 Cells
 -phagocytes(macrophages/neutrophils)
 -Dendritic cells
 -Natural Killer Cells
 Molecules
 -cytokines
 -complement proteins
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the Characteristics of Adaptive Immunity |  | Definition 
 
        | Slower(days/weeks) 2nd defense
 Large diversity of infections
 Specific recognition
 More rapid/efficent response to repeat infections.(immunologic memory)
 Defense
 -cell killing
 -tagging of antigen by antibodies for removal
 Cells
 -T and B lymphocytes
 Molecules
 -Antibodies
 -Cytokines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the 4 exterior component of Innate Immunity |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.Physical Barriers(Skin, mucous,hair,cilia) 2. Chemical effectors(stomach acid)
 3. Micro-ecology (normal flora)
 4. Secretions (sebaceous/lysozymes)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the 3 ecological coexistence relationships |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Commensalism:  One party benefits with no harm or benefit to the other party. 2. Mutualism: Both parties benefit.
 3. Parasitism: One party benefits while bringing harm to the other party.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the consequence of overuse of anti-biotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | -reduce normal flora -creates super bugs (resistant to antibiotics)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In what secretions can you find lysozymes? |  | Definition 
 
        | Saliva sweat
 milk
 mucous
 tears
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lysozymes are more effective against gram + or gram - bacteria? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gram + -smaller cell wall
 -no LPS
 - peptidoglycan easier accessibility to cleave
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the 3 key cell types of Innate Immunity |  | Definition 
 
        | I. Neutrophils II. Macrophage/ dendritic cells
 III. Natural Killer (NK) cells
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Leukocytes can be broken down into classes, name them. |  | Definition 
 
        | Granulocytes and agranulocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the cells that fall under granulocytes(PMNs: Polymorphonuclear leukocytes) |  | Definition 
 
        | Neutrophils (50-60% in blood) Basophils (<1%)
 Eosinophils (1-3%)
 Mast Cells
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the cells that make up agranulocytes(contains granules negative in classic staining) |  | Definition 
 
        | Lymphocytes (T, B, NK) (30%) Monocytes (2-10%) /Macrophages
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which granulocyte(PMN) is the first line of defense against: bacteria, fungi, cellular debris, foreign substances |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which granulocyte (PMN) has nuclei divided into 3-5 lobes |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 types of granules found in neutrophils? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. specific 2. azurophilic
 3. tertiary
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which granulocyte (PMN) is involved with allergic reactions and parasitic infections? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which granulocyte (PMN) is involved mainly with inflammation response and stains blue with basic dye? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the relative percentages of each granulocyte (PMN)in blood? |  | Definition 
 
        | Neutrophils-  65% Eosinophils-  1-3%
 Basophils-  .3-.5%
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the process of recruitment of immune factors in response to agents released by bacteria or bacteria activated tissue macrophages, epithelial cells and endothelial cells to migrate to the site of infection |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a popular chemoattractant for neutrophils? |  | Definition 
 
        | Chemokine IL-8 (interluekin -8) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptors on neutrophil surfaces interacts with cytokine IL-8? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the process neutrophils utilize to migrate from the blood stream into tissue across the endothelium called? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the process of neutrophil diapedesis |  | Definition 
 
        | Change to expression of surface receptors -> Adhere to endothelium -> “Rolling” -> Spreading -> Extravasation -> reach site of infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the name of the receptors constitutively expressed on their cell surface to recognize pathogens-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)? |  | Definition 
 
        | pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Neutrophils (and other immune cells) have pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) to recognize _________. |  | Definition 
 
        | pathogens-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How many genes to PRRs contain for recognizing major microbes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two major types of PRRs? |  | Definition 
 
        | A. Toll-like receptors (TLRs): originally identified in fruit fly protectign it from lethal fungal infections. B. Mannan-binding lectin (MBL): recognizing  bacterial poly mannose that is not present on human cells.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the process of TLR4(a TLR that uses a bacteria's LPS as a ligand) and neutrophil activation, |  | Definition 
 
        | Bacteria's LPS binds with LPS binding protein of the neutrophil--> This complex binds with non-transmembrane protein CD14--> This bound CD14 and TLR4 "sandwich" MD2 to form complex--> This activates MAPK which performs kinase activity--> activation of effector factors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main functions of the complement system? |  | Definition 
 
        | A. Lyse microbes/transformed cells through MAC B. Stimulate and generate inflammatory and chemoattractant factors
 C. Opsonization(targeting/flagging) to facilitate phagocytosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 activation pathways for the complement system? |  | Definition 
 
        | A. Lectin pathway: Mannan-binding lectin (MBL)-mediated. B. Alternative pathway: C3 and factor B-mediated
 C. Classic Pathway
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the key parts of the activated complement system? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the function of C3b of the activated complement system |  | Definition 
 
        | a major opsonin to tag microbes to facilitate phagocytosis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the function of C5a of the activated complement system |  | Definition 
 
        | a potent chemoattractant to recruit neutrophils |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the function of C5 thru C9 of the activated complement system |  | Definition 
 
        | They are components of MAC (membrane attack complex) causing cell lysis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the role of CR3(complement receptor 3) in the activated complement system? |  | Definition 
 
        | complement receptor 3, or CD11b/CD18,  binds to C3b that is bound to the tagged microbe for phagocytosis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Generation of superoxide anions through activation of NADPH oxidase to damage infected cells or bacteria is called? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe characteristics of Chronic Granulomatous Disease |  | Definition 
 
        | -Mostly X-linked recessive(65%) -Repeated infections on skin and internal organs
 -50% live past 20
 -Mutations in gp91 PHOX gene for x-linked recessive
 -Autosomal mutations are p47,p22,p67 PHOX genes
 *Low to no NADPH oxidase mediated production of reactive oxygen species(ROS) in neutrophils
 -No Respiratory burst!
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment of Ganulomatous Disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antibiotics INFgamma
 Bone Marrow Transplant
 granulocyte infusion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the roles of Macrophages |  | Definition 
 
        | -Defend host tissues against infection -responsible for removal of damaged/dying cells
 -prevent reactive inflammatory response
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do mature macrophages clear hematopoietic cells, release cytokines to stimulate maturation of hematopoietic cells and recycle nutrients such as iron |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spleen red pulp ________ clear senescent RBCs and neutrophils. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two types of macrophages? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. resident 2. monocyte derived
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Microglia, originating from monocytes during early development, are important why? |  | Definition 
 
        | - remove unwanted neurons during brain remodeling - After birth, microglia develop into CNS immune cells functioning as both resident macrophages and neutrophils
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the lifespan of Monocytes? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1-3 days (4x of granulocytes) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Resident macrophages become activated by PRRs  as a result of? |  | Definition 
 
        | -response to inflammation -tissue injury
 -cell debris
 -presence of foreign substances
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: The adhesion, spreading, and extravastion process of monocyte recruitment is similar to neutrophil infiltration to the site of infections |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: The flow of monocytes to tissue is bidirectional as compared to neutrophils which is unidirectional. |  | Definition 
 
        | FALSE Both are unidirectional
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 main functions of Macrophages in Innate Immunity? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Phagocytosis 2. Cytotoxicity
 3. Cytokine production
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do macrophage phagocytosis differ from neutrophil phagocytosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | All is the same, TLRs and MBL, but they use a more complex receptor to identify apoptotic cells. Apoptotic cells flip phosphotidylserine (PS) from the inner membrane to the outer. Macrophages use TIM4 on their membrane to recognize PS. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do macrophage phagocytosis differ from neutrophil phagocytosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | All is the same, TLRs and MBL, but they use a more complex receptor to identify apoptotic cells. Apoptotic cells flip phosphotidylserine (PS) from the inner membrane to the outer. Macrophages use TIM4 on their membrane to recognize PS. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the cytotoxicity function of macrophages. |  | Definition 
 
        | After ingestion, phagosome fuses with a lysosome and the microbe is killed within ROS, RNS, and lysosomal enzymes. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the cytokine production function of macrophages. |  | Definition 
 
        | They produce proinfammatory cytokines  (IL-1 and TNF) as well as chemokine IL-8 to attract neutrophils to the site of infection. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Neutrophils: express ____ level NADPH oxidase, very ______ level or no iNOS |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Macrophages:____  levels of NADPH oxidase and ____  level of iNOS after stimulation. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: iNOS, which is not present in resting immune cells, rapidly upregulates (in hours in macrophages) upon stimulation  producing nitric oxide. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False:Peroxynitrite (ONOO-) is much more reactive (toxic) than either superoxide or nitric oxide alone. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What percentage of blood lymphocytes are Natural Killer Cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the life span of NK Cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do the granules of NK cells contain? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main targets of NK Cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | virus-infected cells and malignant cells (tumors) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What duo receptor system controls activity of the NK Cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | KAR(s):  Killing Activating Receptor(s) KIRs:   Killing Inhibiting Receptors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which MHC class associated with NK Cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the function of perforin? |  | Definition 
 
        | 19-24 perforin proteins assemble into a pore on the surface membrane, leading into the target cell lumen. Large enough to allow granzymes to pass through. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the function of granzymes |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Cleaves pro-caspase-3 into a caspase-3 dimer. That degrades nuclear lamins and inactivates DNA damage repair PARP. 2. Cleaves Bid, which releases cytochrome c into cytsol. That activates caspase 9 which in turn activates caspase-3 mediated cell death.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: MIC is used for self recognition. |  | Definition 
 
        | FALSE HLA is used for self recognition. MIC is used for antigen presentation.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptors are recognized by NK Cells that are expressed on a good/healthy cell |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptors are recognized by NK Cells that are expressed on a infected/transformed cell |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In recognizing a healthy cell by the NK cell, what does HLA-E bind to and what does HLA-A/B/C bind to? |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA-E binds to CD158 and HLA-A/B/C  binds and dimerizes CD94 and CD159 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CD158, CD159, and CD94 are considered _______. |  | Definition 
 
        | KIRs - Killing Inhibiting Receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which two units are activated by CD158, CD159, and CD94 to produce phosphatase activity, or dephosphorylation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Through dephosphorylation, the NK cell is inhibited from destroying the healthy cell. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | On an infected/transformed cell, this receptor is either not present or very lowly expressed for recognition by the NK cell. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: MIC-A/B is lowly expressed on infected/transformed cells |  | Definition 
 
        | FALSE MIC-A/B is highly expressed in infected cells
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MIC-A/B recognizes what membrane protein on the NK Cell at the beginning of the NK cell activation pathway? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CD314 and DAP10 activate this kinase to achieve phosphorylation, thus activating the NK cell. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of receptor would CD314 be considered? |  | Definition 
 
        | KAR Killing Activating Receptor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the Characteristics of Adaptive Immunity |  | Definition 
 
        | Slower(days/weeks) 2nd defense
 Large diversity of infections
 Specific recognition
 More rapid/efficent response to repeat infections.(immunologic memory)
 Defense
 -cell killing
 -tagging of antigen by antibodies for removal
 Cells
 -T and B lymphocytes
 Molecules
 -Antibodies
 -Cytokines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 cell types involved in Adaptive immunity ? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Antigen presentation -macrophage and dendritic cells
 2. Antigen recognition
 - T-lymphocytes
 3. Antibody production
 - B-lymphocytes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where can dendritic cells (immature form) be found? |  | Definition 
 
        | present in various tissues where antigen entry is anticipated: skin, lymph nodes, and blood, lining of airway and intestine, and interstitial spaces of most organs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are skin dendritic cells called? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do dendritic cells interact with phagocytizing pathogens? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Once the dendritic cell is activated, where does it go? |  | Definition 
 
        | Activated dendritic cells mature, then migrate to the lymph node |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long do activated dedritic cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or false: Their origin is not completely clear although most they are from monocyte lineage. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What percentage of WBCs are T and B cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where does lymphocyte stem cells orginate from? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bone marrow pluripotent stem cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do lymphocyte stem cells differentiate into B-cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do lymphocyte stem cells differentiate into T-cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do mature T and B cells populate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lymphoid and related tissues -lymph nodes
 -spleen
 -mucosal tissues
 -lymph
 -blood
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A part of a substance from a non-self or transformed self macro (cellular) structure, usually in nature of complex structures such as proteins, polysaccharide, or glycolipids; able to stimulate immune cells. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A antigenic determinant structure in antigen with the correct structure and size that that can fit into the binding motif of the recognition site on an immune cell. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the length of a typical epitope? |  | Definition 
 
        | 6 or more amino acids or monosaccharides |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two antigen presentations methods? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.Cytosolic/endogenous pathway -intracellular antigen
 2. Endocytic/exogenous pathway
 -extracellular pathway
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cytosolic/endogenous pathway uses what MHC complex?
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Endocytic/exogenous pathway uses what MHC complex? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the Cytosolic/endogenous pathway |  | Definition 
 
        | Virus or Intracellular bacteria-->tagged with ubiquitin-->degraded into peptides in protesome-->Transported into the ER by TAP proteins-->Peptides are loaded on MHC-I-->Taken to Golgi A.-->undergoes post-translational modfications(matures)-->travels to membrane to be presented on cell surface |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the Endocytic/exogenous pathway |  | Definition 
 
        | Extracellular antigen-->taken up by endocytosis and phagocytosis into vesicles-->proteases break it down into peptides-->MHC-II matures in ER and Golgi A. then leaves-->MHC-II binds to peptides-->goes to surface and presents. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of cells are MHC-I found on? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of cells are MHC-II found on? |  | Definition 
 
        | Only APCs (macrophage, dendritic cells and B cells) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the structure of MHC-I |  | Definition 
 
        | Made of 2 peptides alpha and Beta2-microglobulin. The alpha chain is polymorphic. A1-A2-A3-B2m |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the structure of MHC-II |  | Definition 
 
        | Made of 2 homologous peptides, a1a2 b1b2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MHC-II are prevented from binding peptides in the ER by the invariant chain(CD74)-->MHC-II alpha and beta chains assemble with the invariant chain(CD74) in the ER-->Leaves ER and enters phagolysosome-->invariant chain(CD74) is cleaved by cathepsin S, leaving a small peptide, CLIP--> HLA-DM catalyzes the release of CLIP-->peptide replaces CLIP-->sent to plasma membrane |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the understood equivalent of MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)? |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) = MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What makes up Classical MHC-I? |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C (antigen presentation, all cells) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What makes up non-Classical MHC-I? |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA-E, HLA-G, HLA-F, MICA, MICB, HFE |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What makes up Classical MHC-II? |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR (antigen presentation, APCs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What makes up non-Classical MHC-II? |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA-DM, HLA-DN, HLA-DO, TAP, TAPBP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Members of the complement system, e.g.,  C2, C4A and cytokine TNF |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which human chromosome can you find the genes for the majority of the MHC complexes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: The classical MHC-I (a- chain) and MHC-II molecules are most polymorphic proteins known |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What determines the polymorphism of MHC-I and II? |  | Definition 
 
        | Polymorphism is centered on the antigen binding grooves |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MHC-I associated peptides arerecognized by ______ T-cells (CD_) |  | Definition 
 
        | cytotoxic T cells (CD 8+) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MHC-II associated peptides are recognized by _____ T cells (CD_) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptor forms a complex with CD3 and CD247 (Zeta chain) for signaling transduction? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the Cytotoxic T cell-mediated killing |  | Definition 
 
        | A complex is formed with TCR:CD3:CD8 and MHC-I on the target cell-->recruits Tyrosine kinase-->phosphorylates tyrosine on ITAM domains of CD3 and CD247-->recruits protein kinase, ZAP-70--> phosphorylation cascade iniated-->release of perforin and granzymes to kill cell(like NK killing) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the Helper T Cell action with CD4 and not CD8 |  | Definition 
 
        | Same ITAM-ZAP-70 signaling pathway,but the phosphorylation cascade activates the CD4+ helper T-cell to: - Differentiate into TH1 cells to promote cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
 - Differentiate into TH2 cells to promote antibody generation.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do immature B cells develop into mature, yet naïve, B cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: Naïve B cells express IgD and IgM as antigen receptors |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When do B cells differentiate into other cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | They enter circulation and migrate to lymphoid tissues.  Through interaction with T helper cells, B cells are activated and turn into antibody-producing plasma cells or memory cells. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the function of antibodies? |  | Definition 
 
        | neutralize pathogen, opsonize microbes for phagocytosis, activate complement, prevent attachment of microbes to mucosal surfaces |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the components of Immunoglobulins (Ig) |  | Definition 
 
        | Light chain and heavy chain Variable chain and constant chain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which region determines the Ig type? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which region is the antibody binding site? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: T cells only recognize peptide type antigenic epitopes that are presented by MHC-I/II of APCs. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which two cytokines induce "AB-class switching"? |  | Definition 
 
        | IL-4 and IL-5 induce Ig “class switching” in antibody production. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or False: In Ig class switching, the variable region is changed, not the constant. |  | Definition 
 
        | FALSE: The constant region change and the variable regions remains the same.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CD4 Interacts with Class 2  (4x2) = 8 CD8 interacts with class 1 (4x1) = 8
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |