Term
Which of the following are permitted even without written authorization?
A. Release of information to law enforcement
B. Treatment
C. Payment
D. Health Care Operations
E. B, C, and D |
|
Definition
| Release of information to law enforcement |
|
|
Term
| The Maximum penalty for violation of HIPAA Privacy Regulation are __________. |
|
Definition
| $250,000, and/or 10 year jail sentence |
|
|
Term
| Which department enforces HIPAA? |
|
Definition
| The Department of Health and Human Services-Office of Civil Rights |
|
|
Term
| HIPAA laws cover information that is used in what manner? |
|
Definition
| Written, Verbal, and Electronic |
|
|
Term
| What does HIPAA stand for? |
|
Definition
| Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a right of the patient?
A. Right to inspect and copy their PHI
B. Right to request to amend their PHI
C. Right to request confidential communication
D. None of the above (All of the above ARE rights of the patient.) |
|
Definition
| None of the above (All of the above ARE rights of the patient.) |
|
|
Term
| Name four examples of PHI identifiers. |
|
Definition
| Patient Name, Social Security Number, Birth Date, Address, Account Number, Medical Record Number, Diagnosis, E-mail Address, Employer, Medical Tests, Prescriptions, Telephone Number |
|
|
Term
| HIPAA violations can be filed as what kind of charges? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do parents/guardians have access to minors PHI? |
|
Definition
| Yes, except when state law overrides parental control. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Protected Health Information |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Notice of Privacy Practices |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Treatment, Payment or Healthcare Operations |
|
|
Term
| T/F: HIPAA is the strongest confidentiality protection ever enacted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: HIPAA applies to only living patients. |
|
Definition
| False; it applies to all patients, both living and deceased. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: HIPAA imposes new restrictions on the use and disclosure of personal health information. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: HIPAA gives patients greater access to their medical records. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: HIPAA gives patients greater protection of their medical records. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: When discarding PHI, all trash that contains PHI including brief handwritten notes is PRIVATE and must be DESTROYED. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: It is OK to take pictures of patients or facility events that include patients. |
|
Definition
| False; it is a breach of confidentiality, which is a HIPAA violation. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: All outgoing e-mail and faxes from a covered entity should contain a confidentiality statement at the bottom. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The NPP states that patients do not have the right to adequate notice concerning the use/disclosure of their PHI on the first date of service delivery, or as soon as possible after an emergency. |
|
Definition
| False; Patients DO have the right. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: HIPAA ensures that personal information shared with doctors, hospitals, and others who provide & pay for healthcare is protected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The HIPAA Privacy Rule is part of the Health Insurance a Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) enacted by Congress. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is required to give assistance if someone needs help understanding the rules of the HIPAA Privacy Rule? |
|
Definition
| Department of Health and Human Services |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The HIPAA Privacy Rule gives patients the right to take action if their privacy is violated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The Notice of Privacy Practices gives patients notice about the use of their PHI, as well as their rights in general. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: PHI is used or disclosed when it is shared, examined, applied, analyzed, released, transferred, allowed to be accessed, or made accessible to anyone outside the covered entity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lowest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is called _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient schedules an appointment for a barium enema on Friday at 8 AM. The patient is given the intestinal prep and instructions to follow. The scheduling department instructs the patient to arrive at 7:45 AM in the radiology department. This patient is considered which of the following?
A. inpatient
B. outpatient
C. emergency department patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does one communicate with non-English speaking patients? |
|
Definition
| Pantomime, touch, and facial expressions |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements reflect interactions with substance abuse patients?
A. restraints may be used for their safety
B. the patient may become agitated or violent
C. the patient should never be unattended while developing films
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following characterize the development of an infant?
A. prefer to be wrapped tightly in a blanket
B. like to be held in a familiar position
C. prefer to hear a calm, soothing voice
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does one respond to questions from patients or visitors regarding the results of their x-rays? |
|
Definition
| Instruct the patients or visitors to call their physician for the results. |
|
|
Term
Adolescents' special needs revolve around their modest feelings about their bodies. Therefore, radiographers need to do which of the following?
A. proceed with the exam regardless of their concerns
B. respect their wishes to keep fully covered
C. have a radiologist ask their LMP
D. ignore professional recommendations for patient prep |
|
Definition
| respect their wishes to keep fully covered |
|
|
Term
| Which of the stages of dying is described as the realization that life will be interrupted before everything the dying patient has planned has been accomplished? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what is the reason that patients may behave abnormally during their hospital stay? |
|
Definition
| Physiologic needs aren't being met |
|
|
Term
All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication except:
A. smiling at the patient
B. asking the patient for a medical history
C. using a friendly tone of voice
D. demonstrating a puzzled facial expression |
|
Definition
| asking the patient for a medical history |
|
|
Term
| Touching the patient's iliac crest for an abdominal exam is an example of using touch for _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient discusses his or her condition with the radiologist. After the radiologist leaves the room, the patient begins to cry. The radiographer sits down next to the patient and squeezes the patient's hand. This is an example of using touch for:
A. emphasis
B. palpation
C. emotional support
D. localization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
As a patient is describing the pain in his or her hand, why is it important for the radiographer to make eye contact with the patient?
A. provides emotional support for a stressed patient
B. makes the patient feel that what he or she is saying is important
C. helps to expedite the examination
D. reassures the patient of the radiographer's technical skills |
|
Definition
| makes the patient feel that what he or she is saying is important |
|
|
Term
The primary means of communication with a hearing-impaired patient is through:
A. writing
B. touch
C. a bilingual family member
D. continual conversation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which age group can you expect the patient to be able to think logically and analyze a situation?
A. Toddler
B. Infant
C. preschooler
D. schoolchildren |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is it important to handle geriatric patients as mature adults rather than "senior citizens"?
A. preserves their self-image
B. eliminates excess anxiety
C. minimizes discrimination
D. diverts their attention for the problem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 52-year-old female patient arrives for a chest x-ray. She is considered which of the following?
A. a young adult
B. middle-aged
C. a mature person
D. an adolescent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why would it be beneficial to sit with the parents and child in the waiting room to get a history of the child and explain the procedure?
A. helps the child become familiar and comfortable with the radiographic staff
B. expedites the time spent in the radiographic room
C. ensures the technical competence of the staff
D. allows the parents active participation with the exam |
|
Definition
| helps the child become familiar and comfortable with the radiographic staff |
|
|
Term
When patients are not told of their terminal condition, they fall into which category?
A. open awareness
B. suspicious awareness
C. mutual pretense
D. closed awareness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the acceptable reaction of the radiographer in dealing with a patient in the beginning stage of denial isolation?
A. addressing the patient's feelings toward dying
B. offering silence and acceptance of the person, without discussing death
C. supporting the patient's feelings by discussing the death of one's own loved one
D. attempting to cheer up the patient by telling jokes |
|
Definition
| offering silence and acceptance of the person, without discussing death |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Nonverbal communication is not as important as verbal communication with the patient or family members. |
|
Definition
| False; both nonverbal and verbal communications are important when dealing with a patient or family members. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Touch is commonly used to express concern and support for patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: When family members accompany the patient to the radiology department, both the family members and the patient are treated with professional courtesy and respect. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a patient cannot satisfy the need for love and belonging before satisfying the security. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for obtaining the clinical history from the patient for the diagnostic procedure? |
|
Definition
| Radiologic Technologist (Radiographer) |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of a good clinical history?
A. it provides the referring physician's admitting diagnosis
B. it provides general information regarding the patient's condition
C. it focuses the radiologist's attention to a specific area
D. it translates the patient's complaints into medical jargon |
|
Definition
| it focuses the radiologist's attention to a specific area |
|
|
Term
How should radiographers handle patients who are combative as a result of their frustration?
A. refer the patient back to the doctor
B. talk sternly to the patient about the behavior
C. ask a family member to calm the patient down
D. acknowledge the anger to help overcome it |
|
Definition
| acknowledge the anger to help overcome it |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the professional way to greet the patient?
A. Robin Jones
B. Mrs. Jones
C. R. Jones
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vital signs of a patient are as follows: heart rate, 95; blood pressure, 120/75; temperature, 99.2°F. This information is considered to be:
A. objective data
B. chief complaint
C. clinical history
D. subjective data |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The patient describes her chest pain as "it feels like someone is standing on my chest." This information is considered to be:
A. chronology
B. objective data
C. subjective data
D. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are used to provide a better history to the radiologist except to:
A. encourage elaboration
B. use probing questions
C. summarize the details
D. ask close-ended questions |
|
Definition
| ask closed-ended questions |
|
|
Term
A clinical history for abdominal x-ray should begin with which of the following questions?
A. "Specifically where is the abdominal pain?"
B. "What type of abdominal problems are you having?"
C. "How long have you been vomiting?"
D. "When did you have gallbladder surgery?" |
|
Definition
| "What type of abdominal problems are you having?" |
|
|
Term
In which of the following ways does the radiographer use leading questions?
A. they should be avoided
B. they should be used for filling in details
C. They should be used to verify information
D. they should be used to help the patient focus on his or her complaint |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary medical problem as defined by the patient is called which of the following?
A. clinical history
B. subjective data
C. chief complaint
D. objective data |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the radiographer asks a patient how many days he or she has had a fever, what part of the clinical history is being assessed?
A. localization
B. chronology
C. onset
D. quality |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following clinical history elements is described as defining the precise area for the patient's complaint?
A. chronology
B. onset
C. aggravating factor
D. localization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When one patient describes a cough as productive and another patient describes a cough as nonproductive, which element of the clinical history does this fall under?
A. localization
B. onset
C. severity
D. quality |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In determining the severity of a patient's ankle injury, which of the following questions would be asked?
A. "When did the injury happen?"
B. "How did the injury happen?"
C. "Can you put any weight on the injured ankle?"
D. "Have you previously injured your ankle?" |
|
Definition
| "Can you put any weight on the injured ankle?" |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Radiographers must be perceived by the patient as genuine respectful, and empathetic in order to establish an open dialog. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Patients are interviewed by the radiographer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Objective data are described as data perceived by the patient only. |
|
Definition
| False; subjective data are described as data perceived by the patient only. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: During the patient interview, it is important to obtain subjective data only. |
|
Definition
| False; it is also important to obtain objective data. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Aggravating factors are described as any condition (e.g., heartburn) that is worsened by something (e.g., eating spicy food). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which branch of science applies the laws of physics, specifically the action of forces on bodies at rest or in motion?
A. gerontology
B. microbiology
C. biomechanics
D. base of support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ideal way to perform a transfer is to:
A. assume that the patient cannot assist
B. allow the patient to do as much work as he or she can
C. make the patient work harder than he or she can
D. ask the nursing staff for suggestions |
|
Definition
| allow the patient to do as much work as he or she can |
|
|
Term
When lifting a patient, why would you stand with your feet apart?
A. to increase the base of support
B. to utilize the mobility muscles
C. to make it more comfortable for the patient
D. to decrease the center of gravity |
|
Definition
| to increase the base of support |
|
|
Term
Why does orthostatic hypotension occur in patients who have been in bed for long periods?
A. lack of dietary nutrients that results in lack of energy
B. increase of elasticity of blood vessels, resulting in an increase of CO2 leads
C. the patient sits up and becomes anxious, resulting in a drop of blood pressure.
D. decrease in vasomotor tone in blood vessels resulting in a decrease of oxygen to the brain |
|
Definition
| decrease in vasomotor tone in blood vessels resulting in a decrease of oxygen to the brain |
|
|
Term
Which of the following pathologic conditions require special handling:
A. pelvic girdle fractures
B. painful, inflamed joints
C. debilitated condition
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can the severity of orthostatic hypotension be minimized?
A. stand quickly
B. move slowly
C. remain flat
D. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is used to describe all types of wheelchair transfers?
A. transfer toward weak side
B. fully lift all patients
C. transfer toward strong side
D. hold patient's center of gravity away from lifter's |
|
Definition
| transfer toward strong side |
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of wheelchair transfers requires minimal assistance by the radiographer?
A. standby assist
B. two-person lift
C. assisted standing pivot
D. hydraulic lift |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When assessing the wheelchair patient for transfer, it is important to:
A. tell the patient how you plan to lift him or her
B. ask the family for guidance
C. suggest that filming be done in the wheelchair
D. determine the patient's abilities by talking to him or her |
|
Definition
| determine the patient's abilities by talking to him or her |
|
|
Term
In a two-person lift, who should lift the torso?
A. the weaker person
B. the stronger person
C. the nurse
D. a family member |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The person lifting the torso in a two-person lift will grab the patient's _________ to lift the patient.
A. proximal humerus
B. transfer belt
C. crossed forearms
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For which type of patient is it appropriate to use a hydraulic lift?
A. a trauma patient
B. an obese patient
C. an elderly patient
D. a surgical patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following items is used to transfer patients from cart to table?
A. a maxi slide
B. a draw sheet
C. thin sheets of plastic
D. A and C
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cart transfer devices requires lifting rather than sliding the patient?
A. a draw sheet
B. a polyester sheet
C. a maxi slide
D. a maxi transfer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cart transfers has the greatest potential for back strain to the radiographer?
A. a polyester sheet
B. a maxi slide
C. a maxi transfer
D. a draw sheet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements describes the narrowest base of support?
A. standing with the legs 3 feet apart
B. standing with the legs 1 foot apart
C. standing on one foot
D. standing with the feet right next to each other |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements represents proper protocol for transferring a patient from a wheelchair to a table (the patient is able to stand, but cannot walk)?
A. the radiographer stands beside the patient with one arm around the patient's waist and the other arm grasping the patient's opposite forearm
B. the radiographer positions the wheelchair at a 45° angle so that the patient's stronger side is closer to the table.
C. the radiographer helps the patient into a standing position and then stands behind the wheelchair to prevent it from moving while the patient reaches for the table
D. the radiographer solicits help from another radiographer and performs a two-person lift from the wheelchair |
|
Definition
| the radiographer positions the wheelchair at a 45° angle so that the patient's stronger side is closer to the table |
|
|
Term
The center of gravity for a standing patient is:
A. near the umbilicus
B. at approximately the second sacral segment (S2)
C. at the center of the diaphragm
D. at the level of the second lumbar (L2) |
|
Definition
| at approximately the second sacral segment (S2) |
|
|
Term
Why is it necessary to place sandbags by the wheels on a cart?
A. because there are no locks on the wheels of a cart
B. because the locks are not functional on carts
C. to prevent a cart from moving
D. none of the above |
|
Definition
| to prevent a cart from moving |
|
|
Term
Transfers should be arranged so that which side of the patient is next to the table?
A. the left side
B. the right side
C. the weaker side
D. the stronger side |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Orthostatic hypotension is a situation that results from which of the following?
A. being in an automobile accident?
B. earlier trauma to the spinal cord
C. being in bed for long periods
D. transferring from a wheelchair to a table |
|
Definition
| being in bed for long periods |
|
|
Term
Which of the following wheelchair transfers is used for non-weight bearing?
A. the two-person lift
B. the standby assist
C. the assisted standing pivot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following statements discuss an assisted standing pivot wheelchair transfer except:
A. the patient will pivot toward the table until he or she feels the table on the back of the thighs
B. the person doing the transfer stands being the patient
C. the patient will push down on the arms of the chair to assist in rising
D. as the patient rises, the person doing the transfer also rises and straightens the knees |
|
Definition
| the person doing the transfer stands being the patient |
|
|
Term
In which of the following circumstances should a moving device be used to transfer a patient from a cart to a radiographic table?
A. for any patient brought to radiography on a cart
B. for all emergency departments patients that have been injured
C. for patients suffering from orthostatic hypotension
D. for patients who are unable to assist in their move |
|
Definition
| for patients who are unable to assist in their move |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Stability muscles are found in the extremities. |
|
Definition
| False; stability muscles are found in the torso. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A basic principle of lifting states that the patient should never assist in his or her moving. |
|
Definition
| False; the patient should help if they are capable. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: By asking a patient what his or her moving capabilities are, the radiographer will provide only the assistance needed to move the patient comfortably. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A transfer belt can be used for the safe and effective transfer of a patient. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Wheelchair wheels should be locked for all wheelchair transfers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: If a moving device is not readily available, the patient can be transferred to a table by using a draw sheet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When using immobilization techniques, which radiographic factor is being controlled?
A. contrast
B. density
C. motion
D. distortion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An effective way to reduce motion is to:
A. communicate with the patient
B. increase the exposure time
C. decrease the SID |
|
Definition
| communicate with the patient |
|
|
Term
All of the following radiography procedures can utilize positioning sponges except for the:
A. lateral hand
B. PA chest
C. oblique lumbar spine
D. lateral finger |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following immobilization devices is utilized for a lateral chest on a non-ambulatory patient?
A. positioning sponge
B. sandbags
C. a sheet restraint
D. Velcro straps |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why are Velcro straps used for the axial projection of the calcaneus?
A. decrease foot motion
B. assist patient in dorsiflexing the foot
C. protect patient from falling
D. support the ankle from further injury |
|
Definition
| assist the patient in dorsiflexing the foot |
|
|
Term
Which of the following immobilization devices is used to help keep the patient from falling off the table?
A. sandbags
B. positioning sponges
C. Velcro restraints
D. head clamps |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A sandbag cannot be place directly over the injured site for which of the following reasons?
A. because it is radiopaque
B. because it is radiolucent
C. because it reduces physical strain
D. because it decreases radiographic density |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true of immobilization devices applied to trauma patients?
A. they must be removed before initial radiographic procedures
B. they can be removed by the emergency department nurse before initial filming
C. they must be left in place during initial filming
D. they can be removed if the area of injury is unstable |
|
Definition
| they must be left in place during initial filming |
|
|
Term
The purpose of the cervical collar is to:
A. prevent hemorrhaging of carotid arteries
B. place traction on the spine to prevent movement
C. reduce the possibility of aspiration
D. immobilize the entire vertebral column |
|
Definition
| place traction on the spine to prevent movement |
|
|
Term
Which of the following body parts does a backboard immobilize?
A. the thoracic spine
B. the pelvis
C. the lower extremities
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements describes the advantage(s) of using a spine board?
A. it can be used to lift the entire patient onto the radiographic table
B. it is radiolucent, and therefore the entire body can be radiographed through the board
C. it places traction on the cervical spine to prevent further movement
D. A and B
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between an air splint and a traction splint used on the lower leg?
A. an air splint provides stability
B. a traction splint is radiolucent
C. an air splint is radiopaque
D. a traction splint prevents hemorrhaging |
|
Definition
| an air splint provides stability |
|
|
Term
For which of the following fractures would traction splints be used?
A. humerus
B. femur
C. radius
D. shoulder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with internal bleeding of the abdomen and unstable vital signs will have which of the following immobilization devices applied by paramedics?
A. a cervical collar
B. an air splint
C. inflatable trousers
D. traction splints |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is meant by the statement, "To stand tall is pediatric radiology, you have to get down on your knees?"
A. radiographers need to explain the procedures to the parents
B. communication with the patient is best accomplished at eye level
C. children are too short for taking erect chest films |
|
Definition
| communication with the patient is best accomplished at eye level |
|
|
Term
All of the following statements refer to Velcro strap restraints except:
A. they adjust to any size patient
B. they reduce physical strain on the patient from holding a position
C. they can adjust to any part of the body
D. they easily attach to the radiographic table |
|
Definition
| they reduce physical strain on the patient from holding a position |
|
|
Term
Which of the following immobilization devices are radiopaque?
A. sponges
B. spineboards
C. air splints
D. sandbags |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of inflatable trousers is that they:
A. slow the rate of hemorrhage
B. immobilize a fractured femur
C. provide support for the entire body
D. place traction on the lower limbs |
|
Definition
| slow the rate of hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
Which of the following immobilization devices is (are) useful for pediatric imaging?
A. Pigg-O-Stat
B. Octastop board
C. sheet restraint
D. A and B
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Proper immobilization can decrease repeat radiographs and increase radiation exposure. |
|
Definition
| False; it does NOT increase radiation exposure. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Tape, Velcro restraints, and Plexiglas can all be useful immobilization devices. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Positioning sponges are the most commonly used of the immobilization devices. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Spineboards or backboards are used only for patients with spine injures. |
|
Definition
| False; spineboards or backboards are useful for a series of injures. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Traction splints should be removed for radiographic procedures. |
|
Definition
| False; traction splints should NEVER be removed unless instructed by the physician. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Head clamps help to immobilize the head and cervical spine. |
|
Definition
| False; head clamps DO NOT help immobilize the cervical spine. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms describes the body's maintenance of heat production and loss?
A. thermoregulation
B. hypothalamus
C. homeostasis
D. febrile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which body temperature measurement takes the shortest amount of time?
A. axillary
B. tympanic
C. oral
D. rectal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 42-year-old patient has a temperature of 101.3°F. Which of the following terms describes the patient's condition?
A. hyperthermic
B. hypothermic
C. febrile
D. A and C
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presents to the emergency department with an oral temperature of 96.6°F. This finding is consistent with which of the following?
A. hyperthermia
B. bradypnea
C. tachypnea
D. hypothermia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The average adult respiratory rate is:
A. 4 to 11
B. 12 to 20
C. 18 to 25
D. 24 to 30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the external environment and blood circulation in the body is called:
A. respiration
B. temperature
C. blood pressure
D. cardiovascular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The physician's diagnosis for a patient presenting with difficulty breathing would be which of the following?
A. apnea
B. bradypnea
C. dyspnea
D. tachypnea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the arteries may be used for taking a pulse except?
A. the subclavian artery
B. the radial artery
C. the brachial artery
D. the carotid artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Systolic pressure is defined as:
A. constant pressure exerted on the arterial walls
B. peak pressure during contraction of the heart
C. lowest pressure during contracting of the heart
D. increase in pressure when the heart is relaxed |
|
Definition
| peak pressure during contraction of the heart |
|
|
Term
All of the following adult blood pressure recordings would be considered normal except:
A. 100/60
B. 120/70
C. 140/80
D. 160/95 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a symptom of hypertension.
A. dizziness
B. blurred vision
C. confusion
D. all of the above
E. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following tissues is most sensitive to hypoxia?
A. brain
B. heart
C. liver
D. A and B
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following devices is classified as a low-flow oxygen delivery device?
A. air entrainment mask
B. simple mask
C. nasal cannula
D. B and C
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
| simple mask and nasal cannula |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the tube whose purpose is to drain the intrapleural space and mediastinum?
A. central venous
B. thoracostomy
C. endotracheal
D. Swan-Ganz |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following catheters is used to administer large quantities of drugs (e.g., chemotherapy and antibiotics), monitor cardiac pressures, and manage fluid volume?
A. thoracostomy
B. tracheostomy
C. central venous
D. pulmonary arterial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A 5 year old child has a normal pulse rate that is lower than a 32 year old male patient's. |
|
Definition
| False. The average pulse rate of a child is 70-120 beats/minute, while the average for an adult is 60-100 beats/minute. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The apical pulse is palpated at the brachial artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The major muscle of ventilation is the diaphragm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Oxygen is an odorless and tasteless gas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Physicians must prescribe oxygen therapy because it is considered a drug. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A nasal cannula provides a high concentration of oxygen and is therefore considered a high-flow device. |
|
Definition
| False; a nasal cannula is a low-flow device. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: An oxygen hood provides oxygen to pediatric patients by fully covering their bed. |
|
Definition
| False; an oxygen hood only covers the head. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A tracheostomy tube is inserted directly into the trachea through the anterior surface of the neck. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The most common location for a central venous catheter is the aorta. |
|
Definition
| False; the most common location goes through the superior vena cava. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A Swan-Ganz catheter monitors pulmonary arterial pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average adult pulse rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average adult blood pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the respiration range of an adult patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the respiration range of a pediatric patient (under 10)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypertension is the persistent elevation of blood pressure above _____/_____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypotension is identified by blood pressure less than _____/_____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal body temperature range? |
|
Definition
97.7°F - 99.5°F
36.5°C - 37.5°C |
|
|
Term
| Are nasal cannulas a high-flow or low-flow device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When regarding a nasal cannula, (greater/less) than 6L per minute should not be used. Nasal cannulas usually supply approximately __%-__% oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are oxygen masks (simple masks) a high-flow or low-flow device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oxygen masks require a rate (greater/less) than 6L per minute to prevent an accumulation of carbon dioxide. Masks are capable of delivering __%-__% oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are non re-breathing masks a high-flow or low-flow device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Non re-breathing masks should provide ___% of oxygen, but may actually deliver ___%-___% oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are aerosol masks a high-flow or low-flow device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aerosol masks should never be adjusted to (greater/less) than 6L per minute and can deliver ___%-___% oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are air-entrainment masks a high-flow or low-flow device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are tent and oxyhood masks a high-flow or low-flow device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The tent and oxyhoods are used for __________ patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tent and oxyhood devices are capable of delivering ___%-___% oxygen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Peripherally inserted central catheters (PICC) lines are used to monitor the heart rate. |
|
Definition
| False. PICC lines are NOT used to monitor the heart rate. |
|
|
Term
An animal or plant that harbors or nourishes another organism is called:
A. fomite
B. host
C. pathogenic
D. iatrogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms describes the complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms?
A. medical asepsis
B. sterilization
C. vaccine
D. asepsis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is:
A. handwashing
B. wearing gloves
C. using down
D. using chemical disinfectants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Microorganisms that need a host to reproduce and are unresponsive to antibiotics are called:
A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following microorganisms is able to ingest food particles and may be equipped with a rudimentary digestive system?
A. virus
B. protozoa
C. bacteria
D. fungi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most important barrier to an individual propogating the infectious organism is which of the following:
A. incubation period
B. quick access to antibiotics
C. body's immune defenses
D. entry to the cell wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following describe an exogenous mode of transmission except:
A. mosquito, tick, or flea
B. fomite, such as a cassette
C. normal flora, such as bacteria in the mouth
D. West Nile virus |
|
Definition
| normal flora, such as bacteria in the mouth |
|
|
Term
The patient most susceptible to a nosocomial infection is which of the following:
A. adult patients
B. children
C. emergency department patients
D. immunocompromised patients |
|
Definition
| immunocompromised patients |
|
|
Term
Which of the following describes sources of nosocomial infections?
A. improperly sterilized surgical equipment
B. dirty radiographic tables and cassettes
C. contaminated urinary (Foley) catheters
D. B and C
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following chemical methods of asepsis is applied topically?
A. bacteriostatic agent
B. disinfectant
C. antiseptic
D. A and B
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hydrogen peroxide is used in which of the following ways:
A. in deep wounds
B. in conjunction with iodine
C. to clean radiology tables
D. to sterilize electronics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following categories of asepsis does handwashing fall within?
A. sterilization
B. medical asepsis
C. surgical asepsis
D. A and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following statements describe the use of standard precautions except for which of the following?
A. washing hands before and after touching body fluids
B. wearing gloves and gowns
C. using only for patients from the emergency department
D. never recapping used needles |
|
Definition
| using only for patients from the emergency department |
|
|
Term
Airborne precautions are used for which of the following?
A. patients with TB
B. direct contact with a patient's dressings or bed rails
C. pathogenic organisms that remain in the air
D. A and C
E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which precaution(s) is (are) used when pathogens disseminate through large particular droplets expelled from the patient?
A. contact precautions
B. droplet precautions
C. airborne precautions
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Standard precautions are used to protect the patient only. |
|
Definition
| False: standard precautions are used to protect both the staff and patients. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Contact precaution techniques require the use of two health care providers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Their morphology, genetic constitution and biochemistry classify bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Fungi carry their own genetic information as either RNA or DNA. |
|
Definition
| False: viruses carry their own genetic information as either RNA or DNA. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The incubation period for all infectious diseases is one week. |
|
Definition
| False: there will be different amounts of times for different diseases. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: An example of an endogenous mode of transmission is acquiring a staphyloccous infection after a finger cut. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A physician can cause an iatrogenic infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Hepatitis B is an example of a virus transmitted as a bloodborne pathogen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Medical asepsis reduces the number of infectious agents by the use of sterilization to zero. |
|
Definition
| False: surgical asepsis reduces the number of infectious agents by the use of sterilization to zero. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Radiology departments use halogen chlorine and iodine as a bactericidal agent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What microorganism is distinguishable by its various forms of motility?
A. viruses
B. protozoa
C. fungi
D. bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these is not a biospill?
A. blood
B. fecal matter
C. water
D. emesis or vomit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What primary organ does the hepatitis virus effect?
A. liver
B. heart
C. lungs
D. plantar surface of the foot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define asepsis:
A. clean technique
B. freedom from infection
C. sterile technique |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transmission-based precautions:
A. are used instead of standard precautions
B. are used in addition to standard precautions
C. are never used, standard precautions are always enough
D. are used with every patient |
|
Definition
| are used in addition to standard precautions |
|
|
Term
A eukaryote:
A. is an organism whose cells have a true nucleus
B. is an organism whose cells have no nucleus
C. is an organism whose cells have a false nucleus |
|
Definition
| is an organism whose cells have a true nucleus |
|
|
Term
Which forms of hepatitis are spread as bloodborne pathogens? (select all that apply)
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To filter inspired air during airborne precautions you will need?
A. a surgical mask
B. a N95 mask
C. a N85 mask
D. you don't need a mask |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bacteria are classified by:
A. smell
B. shape
C. color
D. taste |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The four things needed for a chain of infection are:
A. encounter, damage, outcome and host
B. host, infectious microorganism, mode of transmission, and reservoir
C. host, entry, spread, and outcome
D. reservoir, bacteria, entry, and outcome |
|
Definition
| host, infectious microorganism, mode of transmission, and reservoir |
|
|
Term
The number one priority for proper medical or surgical aseptic technique is:
1. hand washing
2. sterile draping
3. sterile gowning
4. sterile gloving |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The purpose of sterile technique is to reduce the number of harmful microorganisms. |
|
Definition
| False; the purpose of a sterile technique is to eliminate the number of harmful microorganisms |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The purpose of sterile technique is to eliminate all harmful microorganisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The protection against infection before, during, and after surgery is:
1. medical asepsis
2. surgical asepsis
3. hospital asepsis
4. radiology asepsis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The removal or destruction of infected material is:
1. medical asepsis
2. surgical asepsis
3. sterile asepsis
4. radiology asepsis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A sterile field is a microorganism-free area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A sterile pack is used for each of the following procedures except:
1. myleogram
2. venogram
3. barium enema
4. angiogram |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Only sterile items are used in sterile fields. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: If in doubt, an object should be considered sterile. |
|
Definition
| False; if in doubt, an object should be considered contaminated. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A sterile field may be set up hours before the procedure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Any item that falls below the table or the level of the waist is considered contaminated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The entire gown, front and back, is considered sterile. |
|
Definition
| False; only the front of the gown from the waist up, including the sleeves, is considered sterile. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Personnel in sterile gown and gloves must pass each other back to back. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A sterile person may touch anything. |
|
Definition
| False; a sterile person may become contaminated if they touch a non-sterile object. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A sterile person can reach over a sterile field. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Moisture permits contamination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Radiographers are responsible for inserting a tracheostomy. |
|
Definition
| False; a physician is responsible for inserting a tracheostomy. |
|
|
Term
The act of listening for sounds within the body is:
1. palpation
2. auscultation
3. asepsis
4. suction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A chest tube is used to reinflate a collapsed lung. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The surgical C-arm does not need to be draped. |
|
Definition
| False; the surgical C-arm does need to be draped. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The pacemaker pulse generator is placed directly into the lung. |
|
Definition
| False; a pacemaker pulse generator is placed into the fold made at the level of the pectoral fascia. |
|
|
Term
A Swan-Ganz catheter is a(n) __________ catheter.
1. arterial
2. atrial
3. venous
4. pulmonary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under fluoroscopy, the lead of a pacemaker is advanced to:
1. the aorta
2. the subclavian vein
3. the right atrium
4. the apex of the right ventricle |
|
Definition
| the apex of the right ventricle |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Urinary catheterization is performed under aseptic technique. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nasogastric (NG) tube is placed through the nasopharynx into the:
1. stomach
2. small intestine
3. large intestine
4. lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A primary purpose of the NG tube is:
1. reinflate the lung
2. removal of flatus from the stomach
3. gastric lavage
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
| removal of flatus (gas) from the stomach |
|
|
Term
| T/F: There is no discomfort associated with a nasogastric tube. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: For insertion of the NG tube place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. |
|
Definition
| False; the patient should be in the high Fowler's position when inserting an NG tube. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: An NG tube should be lubricated with water-soluble lubricating jelly just before insertion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NG tube placement can be verified by:
1. fluoroscopy
2. aspiration of gastric contents
3. auscultation
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an example of an NG tube?
1. Levin
2. Salem-sump
3. Foley
4. Cantor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Urinals are provided to patients who are not ambulatory. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Male urinals and female urinals are identical. |
|
Definition
| False; females would typically use a bedpan if needed. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A radiographer would not need to wear gloves while assisting a patient with a urinal. |
|
Definition
| False; the radiographer should always wear gloves while handling a patient. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Nondisposable bedpans must be sterilized between uses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A bedpan may be used for:
1. urination
2. defecation
3. ovulation
4. more than one of the above |
|
Definition
| more than one of the above. A bedpan may be used for urination and defecation. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Sterile gloves must be worn while assisting a patient with a bedpan. |
|
Definition
| False. Non-sterile gloves may be used when assisting a patient with a bedpan. |
|
|
Term
A cleansing enema is used to promote:
1. defecation
2. urination
3. digestion
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A tap water enema is also called a:
1. hypertonic enema
2. hypotonic enema
3. saline enema
4. soapsuds enema |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A hypotonic enema should not be repeated due to the potential development of water toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A hypertonic enema may be prescribed to prepare the colon for a barium enema. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bowel preparation for a barium enema may include each of the following except:
1. NPO after midnight
2. clear liquids the day before
3. breakfast the morning of the examination
4. a cleansing enema the morning of the examination |
|
Definition
| breakfast the morning of the examination |
|
|
Term
A barium enema is used to diagnose pathologic conditions of the:
1. nasopharynx
2. small intestine
3. stomach
4. colon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common complication of a barium enema?
1. tear to the GI mucosa
2. ulceration
3. damage to the rectal wall due to over inflation of the balloon catheter
4. venous emboli |
|
Definition
| damage to the rectal wall due to over inflation of the balloon catheter |
|
|
Term
What are the two contrast media used for a barium enema?
1. barium and water
2. barium and blood
3. barium and air
4. barium and saline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The smooth muscle relaxant given to a patient prior to a double contrast barium enema is:
1. barium
2. glucagon
3. valium
4. aspirin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A double contrast barium enema is indicated in:
1. polyps
2. intussusception
3. volvulus
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A patient should increase fluid intake for several days after a barium enema. |
|
Definition
| True; increased fluid intake will help move the barium out quicker. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A colostomy is an opening made from the bowel to the outside of the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: All colostomies are permanent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The sleeves and the front of the gown from the waist up are considered sterile. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Levels of consciousness range from alert to comatose. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not an indication of a deteriorating head injury?
1. increased pulse rate
2. lethargy
3. irritability
4. slowing respiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
With a deteriorating head injury, the first priory should be:
1. shaking the patient in order to keep him or her awake
2. maintaining an open airway
3. stimulating the patient
4. allowing the patient to sleep |
|
Definition
| maintaining an open airway |
|
|
Term
A general term that indicates a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions is:
1. stroke
2. diabetes
3. shock
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Hypovolemic shock is due to the loss of a large amount of blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A myocardial infarction can lead to cardiogenic shock. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A sign or symptom of shock is:
1. increasing blood pressure
2. dry skin
3. pallor
4. calmness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anaphylactic shock is a type of ___ shock.
1. hypovolemic
2. cardiogenic
3. neurogenic
4. vasogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The administration of iodinated contrast media may induce:
1. anaphylactic shock
2. concussion
3. diabetes
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following anaphylactic reactions is most life threatening?
1. nausea
2. urticaria
3. shock
4. laryngeal edema |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The condition in which excessive insulin is present is:
1. cardiac arrest
2. anaphylactic shock
3. hypoglycemia
4. seizure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following may be given to a patient to counteract insulin shock?
1. orange juice
2. peanut butter
3. hamburger
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A sign or symptom of a diabetic coma is:
1. excessive saliva
2. excessive thirst
3. shallow breathing
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Heimlich maneuver:
1. increases intrathoracic pressure
2. is used in situations in which a person may be choking
3. is used to propel an object out of the throat
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The Heimlich maneuver should never be performed on a pregnant woman. |
|
Definition
| False; it should be performed a little higher. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A radiographer may cease doing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) when the schedule is backed up. |
|
Definition
| False; a radiographer should always perform CPR when needed. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A stroke is synonymous with a cardiac arrest. |
|
Definition
| False; a stroke is synonymous with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) |
|
|
Term
Which is not a sign or symptom of a CVA (cerebrovascular accident)?
1. slurred speech
2. loss of vision
3. paralysis
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Nausea is both a psychological and a physiologic reaction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The medical term for a nosebleed is:
1. epistaxis
2. vertigo
3. syncope
4. aura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The medical term for dizziness is:
1. epistaxis
2. vertigo
3. syncope
4. aura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The medical term for fainting is:
1. epistaxis
2. vertigo
3. syncope
4. aura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Bleeding outside the vessel is called hemorrhage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Wound dehiscence is a common postoperative occurrence. |
|
Definition
| false; it does happen, but it is not that common. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: CPR is indicated in all situations of cardiac arrest. |
|
Definition
| false; some patients may be DNR or you may have to result straight to an AED (Automated External Defibrillator) . |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 levels of consciousness? |
|
Definition
| alert, drowsy, unconscious, comatose |
|
|
Term
The name given to a drug when it becomes commercially available is the:
1. generic name
2. chemical name
3. brand name
4. trade name |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drugs are classified:
1. by name
2. by action
3. legally
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Drugs are classified legally as prescription or over the counter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The dosage form of a drug may determine the speed of the drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Each is a common dosage form of drugs except:
1. tablet
2. anesthetics
3. capsule
4. suspension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Barium sulfate is a:
1. suppository
2. solution
3. suspension
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of an anesthetic?
1. diazepam
2. morphine
3. erythromycin
4. procaine |
|
Definition
procaine - a synthetic compound derived from benzoic acid, used as a local anesthetic, especially in dentristy.
Anesthetic - a substance that induces insensivity to pain. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of an antibiotic?
1. diazepam
2. morphine
3. erythromycin
4. procaine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of an analgesic?
1. diazepam
2. morphine
3. erythromycin
4. procaine |
|
Definition
morphine
analgesic = pain reliever |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Heparin is an anticoagulant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Antihistamines are used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting. |
|
Definition
False; antiemetics are used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting.
Antihistamines are used in the treatment of allergies. |
|
|
Term
Which type of drug is used to prevent and control the occurrence of seizures?
1. anticonvulsants
2. antiemetics
3. antihistamines
4. antihypertensives |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Emetics are drugs used to produce vomiting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A drug taken by mouth and swallowed is taken via the ___ route.
1. oral
2. sublingual
3. parenteral
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A drug administered directly on the skin is administered via the ___ route.
1. topical
2. sublingual
3. parenteral
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term means administered by a route other than the gastrointestinal tract?
1. oral
2. topical
3. sublingual
4. parenteral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A common route of parenteral administration is:
1. intravenous
2. intramuscular
3. subcutaneous
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Each of the following is part of a syringe except the:
1. plunger
2. cannula
3. barrel
4. tip |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Each of the following is part of a needle except the:
1. hub
2. cannula
3. tip
4. bevel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Drugs intended for use by parenteral administration are packaged in ampules or vials. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A vial holds a single dose of a drug intended for use only once. |
|
Definition
| False; an ampule holds a single dose of a drug intended for use only once. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: After use, the needle and the syringe must both be discarded into an acceptable sharps container. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most commonly used intravenous needle is the:
1. 1-inch, 25-gauge needle
2. spinal tap needle
3. drip infusion needle
4. butterfly needle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: An intravenous push refers to a rapid bolus injection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The act of injecting a drug into a vein is termed extravasation. |
|
Definition
| False; the act of injecting a drug into a vein is termed venipuncture |
|
|
Term
| T/F: High atomic number elements absorb x-rays at a greater rate than low atomic number elements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Contrast media are:
1. diagnostic agents
2. dyes
3. all radiopaque
4. all radiolucent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Radiolucent contrast media are also called positive contrast agents. |
|
Definition
| False; radiolucent contrast media are also called negative contrast agents. |
|
|
Term
Radiopaque contrast media:
1. are positive contrast agents
2. appear light on radiographs
3. are composed of elements with high atomic numbers
4. all the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Radiolucent contrast media:
1. are positive contrast agents
2. appear dark on radiographs
3. are composed of elements with high atomic numbers
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
| appear dark on radiographs |
|
|
Term
Each of the following is an example of a negative contrast media except:
1. air
2. soda water
3. barium sulfate
4. gas-producing crystals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: An air embolus can form as a complication of negative contrast media administration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Barium sulfate is soluble in water. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The tendency of barium sulfate to clump and come out of suspension is termed:
1. desuspension
2. antisolution
3. flocculation
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Barium sulfate:
1. is filtered by the kidneys
2. is absorbed by the stomach
3. coats the gastrointestinal lining
4. is absorbed by the jejunum |
|
Definition
| coats the gastrointestinal lining |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Barium sulfate is contraindicated if the patient is suspected of having a gastrointestinal tract perforation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Barium sulfate can dry within the colon and cause an obstruction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oil-based iodine contrast media are made from:
1. fatty acids
2. carbohydrates
3. amino acids
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Glass syringes should not be used for administration of oil-based contrast media because toxic substances from the glass can dissolve in the media. |
|
Definition
| False; plastic syringes should not be used for administration of oil-based contrast media because toxic substances from the glass can dissolve in the media. |
|
|
Term
Oil-based iodine contrast media are used for each of the following except:
1. dacrycystography
2. bronchography
3. lymphography
4. myelography |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Ionic contrast media dissociates into two molecular particles in blood plasma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Iodinated contrast media dissociates into two molecular particles in blood plasma. |
|
Definition
| False; iodinated medium may be either ionic or nonionic. Nonionic contrast media does not dissociate into two molecular particles in blood plasma. |
|
|
Term
Osmolality is a measure of:
1. the number of iodine atoms per molecule
2. particle density
3. the total number of particles in solution
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
| the total number of particles in solution |
|
|
Term
| T/F: High osmolality of the contrast media is related to adverse reactions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Injection of ionic contrast media may lead to hypervolemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Injection of ionic contrast media may lead to arterial expansion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nonionic contrast media is associated with:
1. high osmolality
2. low osmolality
3. less cost
4. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Myelography most commonly uses ___ contrast media.
1. ionic
2. nonionic
3. nonionic and ionic
4. neither ionic nor nonionic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the "five rights" of drug administration? |
|
Definition
1. Right patient
2. Right drug
3. Right dosage or amount
4. Right time
5. Right route |
|
|
