Term
| the G2/M checkpoint checks DNA after replication and monitors whether the cell can safely enter mitosis |
|
Definition
| etiology, pathogenesis, molecular and morphologic changes, and clinical manifestations. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a series of events that contain cell damage and initiate the healing process |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| collagen deposition due to EMC injury or chronic inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| Proliferation of endometrial cells under estrogen stimulation during the menstrual cycle and the thyroid-stimulating hormone-mediated replication of cells of the thyroid that enlarges the gland during pregnancy are examples of _______ proliferation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| quiescent tissues are ______ |
|
Definition
| stable and have low levels of replication |
|
|
Term
| permanent tissues are ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Examples of quiescent tissues are _____. |
|
Definition
| parenchymal cells of liver, kidneys, and pancreas; mesenchymal cells such as fibroblasts and smooth muscle; vascular endothelial cells; and lymphocytes and other leukocytes |
|
|
Term
| _______ cells are quiescent in adult mammals but proliferate in response to injury. |
|
Definition
| Fibroblasts, endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, chondrocytes, and osteocytes |
|
|
Term
| Nondividing tissues include ______. |
|
Definition
| neurons and skeletal and cardiac muscle cells |
|
|
Term
| skeletal muscle has regenerative capacity, through the differentiation of the ______. |
|
Definition
| satellite cells that are attached to the endomysial sheaths. |
|
|
Term
| Stem cells are maintained via _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| obligatory asymmetric replication and stochastic (symmetric) differentiation |
|
|
Term
| The inner cell mass of blastocysts in early embryonic development contains pluripotent stem cells known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Differentiated cells of adult tissues can be reprogrammed to become pluripotent by _______. |
|
Definition
| transferring their nucleus to an enucleated oocyte |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pluripotent reprogrammed stem cells without the use of an embryo. |
|
|
Term
| What are transit amplifying cells? |
|
Definition
| cells that lose the capacity of self-perpetuation, and give rise to cells with restricted developmental potential known as progenitor cells. |
|
|
Term
| HSCs and MSCs are found in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| injured tissues and generate stromal cells or other cell lineages |
|
|
Term
| The liver contains stem cells/progenitor cells in the _______. |
|
Definition
| canals of Hering (the junction between the biliary ductular system and parenchymal hepatocytes) |
|
|
Term
| oval cells are found in the ____ and can differentiate into ______ |
|
Definition
| Canals of Hering / hepatocytes and biliary cells |
|
|
Term
| NSCs (also known as neural precursor cells) can generate ______ |
|
Definition
| neurons, astrocytes, and oligodendrocytes |
|
|
Term
| In the small intestine, crypts are ______. |
|
Definition
| monoclonal structures derived from single stem cells |
|
|
Term
| growth and regeneration of injured skeletal muscle occur by _____ |
|
Definition
| replication of satellite cells |
|
|
Term
| limbal stem cells (LSCs) maintain _______. |
|
Definition
| the outermost corneal epithelium |
|
|
Term
| Quiescent cells that have not entered the cell cycle are in the ____ state |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The rls of replication is _____ |
|
Definition
| the G1/S transition, known as a restriction point |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) |
|
|
Term
| Rb phosphorylation brings about ___. |
|
Definition
| release of the Rb/E2F complex, which activates E2F and allows it to stimulate transcription of genes whose products drive cells through the cycle. |
|
|
Term
| The G1/S checkpoint monitors _____. |
|
Definition
| the integrity of DNA before replication |
|
|
Term
| The G2/M checkpoint checks ____ |
|
Definition
| DNA after replication and monitors whether the cell can safely enter mitosis |
|
|
Term
| Epidermal growth (α EGF) is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Platelets, macrophages, saliva, urine, milk, plasma / Mitogenic for keratinocytes and fibroblasts; stimulates keratinocyte migration and granulation tissue formation |
|
|
Term
| Transforming growth factor α (TGF-α) is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Macrophages, T lymphocytes, keratinocytes, and many tissues Similar to EGF;/ stimulates replication of hepatocytes and most epithelial cells |
|
|
Term
| Heparin-binding EGF (HB-EGF) is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Macrophages, mesenchymal cells / Keratinocyte replication |
|
|
Term
| Hepatocyte growth factor/ scatter factor HGF is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Mesenchymal cells Enhances proliferation of hepatocytes, epithelial cells, and endothelial cells / increases cell motility, keratinocyte replication |
|
|
Term
| Vascular endothelial cell growth factor (isoforms A, B, C, D) VEGF is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Many types of cells Increases vascular permeability; mitogenic for endothelial cells / angiogenesis |
|
|
Term
| Platelet-derived growth factor (isoforms A, B, C, D) (PDGF) is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Platelets, macrophages, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, smooth muscle cellsChemotactic for PMNs, macrophages, fibroblasts, and smooth muscle cells; activates PMNs, macrophages, and fibroblasts/ causes migration and proliferation of fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells, and monocytes to areas of inflammation and healing skin wounds |
|
|
Term
| Fibroblast growth factor FGF is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Macrophages, mast cells, T lymphocytes, endothelial cells, fibroblasts / wound repair, angiogenesis, hematopoesis, and development |
|
|
Term
| Transforming growth factor β is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Platelets, T lymphocytes, macrophages, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts / blocks the cell cycle, is a fibrogenic agent, and is anti-inflammatory. |
|
|
Term
| Keratinocyte growth factor (also called FGF-7) KGF is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Fibroblasts / Stimulates keratinocyte migration, proliferation, and differentiation |
|
|
Term
| Tumor necrosis factor TNF is found in ______ and functions to ______. |
|
Definition
| Macrophages, mast cells, T lymphocytes / Activates macrophages; regulates other cytokines; multiple functions |
|
|
Term
| Receptors with intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity include _____. |
|
Definition
| EGF, TGF-α, HGF, PDGF, VEGF, FGF, c-KIT ligand, and insulin. |
|
|
Term
| Using ____ , GRB-2 triggers the ____ cascade. |
|
Definition
| GTP-GDP, SOS and RAS / MAP kinase cascade |
|
|
Term
| inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) is an intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity and functions to increase _______. |
|
Definition
| concentrations of calcium |
|
|
Term
| Diacylglycerol activates the _____ that in turn activates ______. |
|
Definition
| serine-threonine kinase protein kinase C / various transcription factors |
|
|
Term
| Janus Kinase (JAK) receptors include ____. |
|
Definition
| Ccytokines, such as IL-2, IL-3; interferons α, β, and γ; erythropoietin; granulocyte colony-stimulating factor; growth hormone; and prolactin. |
|
|
Term
| ______ signal through the hepatohelical G-protein coupled receptors. |
|
Definition
| chemokines, vasopressin, serotonin, histamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine, calcitonin, glucagon, parathyroid hormone, corticotropin, and rhodopsin |
|
|
Term
| G protein-coupled receptors use ___ as second messengers. |
|
Definition
| calcium and 3',5'-cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) |
|
|
Term
| When tyrosine kinase goes through the PI3 kinase (phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase) pathway, it activates |
|
Definition
| protein kinase B, also known as Akt |
|
|
Term
| Steroid hormone receptors are generally located in the _____ and function as ____-dependent transcription factors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ras, Raf, MEK, and ERK are all part of the _____ cascade. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| c-MYC, c-JUN, and p53 are all ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Restoration of liver occurs by ___ |
|
Definition
| enlargement of the lobes that remain after the operation, a process known as compensatory growth or compensatory hyperplasia. |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of the ECM? |
|
Definition
| mechanical support, maintenance of differentiation, scaffolding for tissue renewel, establishment of microenvironments, and storage and presentation of regulatory molecules. |
|
|
Term
| The basement membrane is composed of _____. |
|
Definition
| Type IV vollagen, laminin, proteoglycan |
|
|
Term
| Interstitial matrix is composed of _____. |
|
Definition
| Fibrillar collagens, elastin, proteoglycan and hyaluronan |
|
|
Term
| Type I Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Ubiquitous in hard and soft tissues Osteogenesis imperfecta / Ehlers-Danlos syndrome-arthrochalasias type I |
|
|
Term
| Type II Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Cartilage, intervertebral disk, vitreous / Achondrogenesis type II, spondyloepiphysea dysplasia syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Type III Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Hollow organs, soft tissues / Vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Type V Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Soft tissues, blood vessels / Classical Ehlers-Danlos syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Type IX Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Cartilage, vitreous, intervertebral disks / Stickler syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Type IV Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Basement membranes / Alport syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Type VI Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Ubiquitous in microfibrils / Bethlem myopathy |
|
|
Term
| Type VII Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Anchoring fibrils at dermal-epidermal junctions / Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa |
|
|
Term
| Type XV and XVIII Collagens are distributed in ____ and their genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Transmembrane collagen in epidermal cells / Benign atrophic generalized epidermolysis bullosa |
|
|
Term
| Type Collagen is distributed in ____ and its genetic disorders cause _____. |
|
Definition
| Endostatin-forming collagens, endothelial cells/ Knobloch syndrome (type XVIII collagen) |
|
|
Term
| Gly-X-Y is characteristic of _____. |
|
Definition
| the collagen triple helix |
|
|
Term
| Tyoe IV collagens form structural _____. |
|
Definition
| sheets instead of fibrils |
|
|
Term
| Collagen fibril formation is formed by ______ using ______ as a cofactor. |
|
Definition
| oxidation of lysine and hydroxylysine residues by the extracellular enzyme lysyl oxidase / vitamin C |
|
|
Term
| Elastic fibers have a core of ____ surrounded by ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Genetic defects in fibrillin result in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cell Adhesion Molecule (CAMs) can be classified into _____. |
|
Definition
| immunoglobulin family CAMs, cadherins, integrins, and selectins |
|
|
Term
| Integrins bind to ECM proteins such as _____ in order to _____. |
|
Definition
| fibronectin, laminin, and osteopontin establish cell-to-cell contact |
|
|
Term
| Fibronectin binds to _____. |
|
Definition
| collagen, fibrin, proteoglycans, and cell surface receptors |
|
|
Term
| Fibronectin consists of ____. |
|
Definition
| two glycoprotein chains, held together by disulfide bonds |
|
|
Term
| Laminin is the most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane and has binding domains for both ______. |
|
Definition
| ECM and cell surface receptors |
|
|
Term
| Cadherins and integrins link the cell surface with the cytoskeleton through binding to ______. |
|
Definition
| actin and intermediate filaments |
|
|
Term
| Integrin-cytoskeleton complexes function as activated receptors and trigger a number of signal transduction pathways, including_______. |
|
Definition
| the MAP kinase, PKC, and PI3K pathways |
|
|
Term
| What 2 types of junctions do cadherins form? |
|
Definition
| zonula adherens, small, spotlike junctions located near the apical surface of epithelial cells, and desmosomes, stronger and more extensive junctions, present in epithelial and muscle cells |
|
|
Term
| Cadherins and catenins play a major role in regulating _____. |
|
Definition
| cell motility, proliferation, and differentiation and contact inhibition |
|
|
Term
| SPARC, thrombospondins, and osteoponin are all ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| heparan sulfate, chondroitin/dermatan sulfate, keratan sulfate are synthesized at ____ and are composed of ___. |
|
Definition
| at the Golgi and RER / long repeating polymers of specific disaccharides attached to a core protein |
|
|
Term
| The 4 GAG families are: ____. |
|
Definition
| heparan sulfate, chondroitin/dermatan sulfate, keratan sulfate, and hyaluronan (HA) |
|
|
Term
| Repair by connective tissue deposition includes what 5 features? |
|
Definition
* inflammation
* angiogenesis,
* migration and proliferation of fibroblasts,
* scar formation
* connective tissue remodeling. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 steps of Angiogenesis from Preexisting Vessels ? |
|
Definition
| Vasodilation (NO, VEGF), Degradation fo the basement membrane (MMPs), Migration, Proliferation and Maturation of endothelial cells, Recruitment of periendothelial cells |
|
|
Term
| ____ is the most important growth factor in adult tissues undergoing physiologic angiogenesis (e.g., proliferating endometrium) as well as angiogenesis occurring in chronic inflammation, wound healing, tumors, and diabetic retinopathy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| VEGF is secreted by many _____. |
|
Definition
| mesenchymal and stromal cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hypoxia, TGF-β, PDGF, TGF-α |
|
|
Term
| How does VEGF stimulate the notch pathway? |
|
Definition
| it promotes the proper branching of new vessels and prevents excessive angiogenesis by decreasing the responsiveness to VEGF |
|
|
Term
| Dll4 blockade causes ______. |
|
Definition
| an increase in capillary sprouting and endothelial cell (EC) proliferation, creating vessels that are disorganized and have a small lumen size |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decreases capillary sprouting, and the proliferation and survival of ECs. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 phases of cutaneous wound healing? |
|
Definition
| inflammation, proliferation, and maturation |
|
|
Term
| Healing of a clean, uninfected surgical incision approximated by surgical sutures is referred to as ______. |
|
Definition
| healing by primary union or by first intention |
|
|
Term
| The formation of abundant granulation tissue, and extensive collagen deposition, leading to the formation of a substantial scar, which generally contracts is referred to as ______. |
|
Definition
| healing by secondary union or by second intention |
|
|
Term
| At what time does granulation tissue fills the wound area with maximal neovascularization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibroblasts and vascular endothelial cells proliferate and form granualtion tissue during what time? |
|
Definition
| the first 24 to 72 hours of the repair process |
|
|
Term
| Neutrophils appear at the margins of the incision within what time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neutrophils are largely replaced by macrophages within what time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spurs of epithelial cells move from the wound edge along the cut margins of the dermis, depositing basement membrane components as they move withn what time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is the most important fibrogenic agent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The scar is made up of acellular connective tissue devoid of inflammatory infiltrate, covered by intact epidermis during what time? |
|
Definition
| By the end of the first month |
|
|
Term
| During remodeling, degradation of collagen and other ECM proteins is achieved by |
|
Definition
| matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) |
|
|
Term
| ADAM is an important ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemotaxis and proliferation of fibroblasts and keratinocytes is promoted by ___. |
|
Definition
| PDGF, TGF-Beta, TNF, IL-1, KGF-7 |
|
|
Term
| When sutures are removed from an incisional surgical wound, usually at the end of the first week, wound strength is approximately ___ that of unwounded skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Wound strength reaches a plateau at about ____ of the tensile strength of unwounded skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Systemic factors of wound healing include _____. |
|
Definition
| Nutrition metabolic status, circulatory status, and hormones (glucocortocoids ar eanti-inflammatory) |
|
|
Term
| Local factors of wound healing include_____. |
|
Definition
| Infection, mechanical factos, foreign bodies, and size of the wound |
|
|
Term
| Inadequate formation of granulation tissue or assembly of a scar can lead to _____. |
|
Definition
| wound dehiscence and ulceration |
|
|
Term
| Desmoids, or aggressive fibromatoses are the result of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hypertrophic scar that grows beyond the boundaries of the original wound and does not regress it is called a _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrosis most often indicates the _____. |
|
Definition
| deposition of collagen in chronic diseases |
|
|
Term
| Cytokines such as TNF, IL-1, IL-4, and IL-13 result in increased ____ synthesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is practically always involved as an important fibrogenic agent. |
|
Definition
|
|
