Term
| What are the three cardinal manifestations of parkinson's disease? |
|
Definition
| Tremor, rigidity and bradykindesia |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for Lou Gherig's disease? |
|
Definition
| Amytropic Lateral Sclerosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between cutaneous and deep somatic pain? |
|
Definition
| Cutaneous arises from the skin, and deep somatic arises from deep body structures like muscles, tendons, etc. Also the pain is more diffuse with deep somatic. |
|
|
Term
| What is usually the cause of acute pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the pain from osteoarthritis acute or chronic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most diabling of the cardinal symptoms of parkinson's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inherited trait is associated with migraines? |
|
Definition
| Autosomal dominant trait. |
|
|
Term
| What type of headach is usually misdiagnosed (self-diagnosis) as something other than a migraine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of migraine is typically hereditary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a possible side effect of stimulation of the trigeminal nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of headaches can have remissions of months or longer only to return again? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of headache? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of disease is myasthenia categorized as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the peak incidence of myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is myasthenia more common in women or men? By how much? |
|
Definition
| It is 3 times more common in chicks. However, dudes have a second peak in later life. |
|
|
Term
| What is myasthenia thought to be attributed to? |
|
Definition
| An abnormal T-lymphocyte function. (75% have thymic abnormalities) |
|
|
Term
| What type of immunity is affected in myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an increased number of cells in the thymus known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is destroyeed in myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
| Acetylcholine receptors, through an antibody-mediated pathway. |
|
|
Term
| What the heck is diplopia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are most affected in myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why to patients with MG tend to steer toward soft food? |
|
Definition
| Because they have problems with chewing |
|
|
Term
| What might a client need during times of extreme stress like pregnancy or surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The nurse knows that during an anticholinesterase test, the doctor will administer a drug to the client. What is the drug and what is the outcome in a test that is positive for MG? |
|
Definition
| The physician will give tensilon. If they are positive for MG, there will be a dramatic improvement in weakness. |
|
|
Term
| How can acetylcholine antibodies be detected in the blood? |
|
Definition
| Using an immunoassay test. |
|
|
Term
| Is the incidence of back pain higher in men or women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average age of onset for back pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most critical component of the load bearing spine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another word for intevertebral disc? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If nerve root L4 is damaged in the back, the client will feel pain on the _______ ____ ______ __ ___ ____ and numbness in the ____. |
|
Definition
| Side and front of the leg; knee |
|
|
Term
| If nerve root L5 is damaged in the back, the client will feel pain on the _______ ____ ______ __ ___ ____ and numbness in the ____ __ ___ ____. |
|
Definition
| Outer butt cheek and down the side of the leg; side of the calf |
|
|
Term
| If nerve root S1 is damaged in the back, the client will feel pain on the _______ ____ ______ __ ___ ____ and numbness in the ____ and ______ __ ___ ____. |
|
Definition
| down the middle of the butt cheek; calf and bottom of the foot. |
|
|
Term
| How the heck do you do a straight leg test? |
|
Definition
| Lay the patient supine and raise the leg 90 degrees. If they have pain around 60 degrees, they usually have a herniated disc. |
|
|
Term
| What is a defining characteristic of the limb weakness experienced with MG? |
|
Definition
| It is proximal to distal weakness. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major risk factors for acquiring back pain? |
|
Definition
| Heavy lifting, twisting, bodily vibration, obesity and poor conditioning |
|
|
Term
| What are the most commonly affected areas in terms of herniated disks? |
|
Definition
| Cervical and lumbar regions. |
|
|
Term
| Postencephalitic syndrome, side effect of antipsychotic drugs, toxic reaciton to chemical agent, and carbon monoxide poisoning are all causes of what disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Weakness, spasticity/stiffness, impaired fine motor control, dysphagia, dysarthria and dysphonia are all symptoms of Lou Gherig's disease (ALS) occurring in which part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fasciculations, weakness, muscle atrophy, hyporeflexia, progressive weakness/atrophy and muscle cramps are all symptoms of Lou Gherig's diseas occurring in which part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of non-traumatic disability in young and middle adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of non-traumatic disability in young and middle adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What demographic does MS affect the most? |
|
Definition
| Women of northern european descent. |
|
|
Term
| Presence of which allele substantially increases the risk of developing MS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In order for a diagnosis of Multiple sclerosis to be made, what must be present? |
|
Definition
| Cerebral lesion in different areas of the CNS with no other explanation, at least 3 months apart. |
|
|
Term
| Parashtesias, optic neuritis, doplopia, pain, abnormal gait, bladder/sex dysfunction, psychological problems and fatigue are clinical features of which condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When edema forms in the spinal cord and the tissue dies and is replaced by collagen, this is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Temporary complete loss of function below an injury is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Damage to axons near the gray matter can cause what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sensations are affected/unaffected in anterior cord syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Motor functions are affected, but touch sensation is not. |
|
|
Term
| Which spinal cord injury involves the arms more than the legs and where does it occur? |
|
Definition
| Central cord injury. Occurs almost exclusively in the cervical cord. Elderly and congenital stenosis are causes. |
|
|
Term
| Damage to one side of the spinal cord causing loss of function on that side (flaccid paralysis), pain & temp and vibration & proprioception sensation loss from the other side is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If there is a complete spinal cord injury at T12 or above, what will be the resulting symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Spinal reflexes will still work, but will no longer be modulated by the brain. Spastic paralysis will result. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A condition marked by an abnormal increase in the tightness of muscle tone and a recuced ability of a muscle to stretch. |
|
|
Term
| A client presents to the ER with a complete spinal injury at the cervical level. The nurse knows the extent of this clients injuries will probably leave him in a state known as: |
|
Definition
| Quadreplegia or tetraplegia |
|
|
Term
| A client presents to the ER with a complete spinal injury at the thoracic level. The nurse knows the extent of this clients injuries will probably leave him in a state known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client presents to the ER with a complete spinal injury at the lumbar level. The nurse knows the extent of this clients injuries will probably leave him in a state known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of injury occurs at the time of mechanical injury and is irreversible? |
|
Definition
| Primary neurologic injury |
|
|
Term
| What type of injury occurs after the initial injury and promotes the spread of injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an exaggeraged sympathetic reflex symptom that occurs in people with T6 spinal injury at or above T6 and results in full bladder or fecal impaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is nasal stuffiness an important sign to watch for in a client with a T6 or above spinal injury? |
|
Definition
| It is a cue that they could have autonomic visceroplexia. Other symptoms of this are extremely high blood pressure, headache, impaired thought process and changes in levels of consciousness. |
|
|
Term
| What part of brain matter does vasogenic cerebral edema affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of cerebral edema occurs when the BBB is disrupted? |
|
Definition
| Vasogenic. This disruption allows fluid to escape into the ECF that surrounds brain cells. |
|
|
Term
| This type of cerebral edema occurs with tumors, prolonged ischemia, hemorrhage, brain injury, and infectious processes that impair the function of the BBB and allow water and plasma proteins to leave the capillaries and move into the interstitium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of cerebral edema affects the grey matter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal range of ICP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Above what level of ICP will you begin to see signs of swelling. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Direct contact phenomenon is an example of which type of injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the phenomenon that occurs when impact trauma occurs to the head and the brain slams up against the front of the skull, rebounds, and slams against the back of the skull? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Contusions, lacerations and hemorrhage are examples of which category of primary injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Concussion and diffuse axonal injury are what type of primary injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are the signs of MG the worst? |
|
Definition
| With effort and as the day progresses. |
|
|
Term
| Enlargement of the CSF compartment occurs with which disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of hematoma has a rapid onset. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The gelatinous center of the intevertebral disc is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fibrinous ring surrounding the nucleus fibrosis is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How come in an epidural bleed the pupils will be affected on the same side, but the body is affected on the opposite side? |
|
Definition
| Because the cranial nerves to not cross over like the somatic nerves do. |
|
|
Term
| When is the prognosis excellent with an epidural bleed? |
|
Definition
| When it is caught before loss of consciousness occurs. |
|
|
Term
| When a client has changes in levels of consciousness and complains of headaches over a number of days, the nurse might suspect. . . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most sensitive and important indicator of a patient's neurological status? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a sign that a patient is beginning to go into cheyne-stokes's respirations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe cheyne-stokes breathing. |
|
Definition
| an abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by oscillation of ventilation between apnea and hyperpnea, to compensate for changing serum partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide. |
|
|
Term
| What is a stemic type of breathing characterized by sustained, regular, rapid breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve does doll's eye phenomenon assess? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of posturing indicates a lesion of the cerebral hemisphere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of pusturing indicates a midbrain or upper brainstem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person is in decorticate posturing when you leave them, and you return and they are in decerebrate posturing, what does this indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of stroke and what is the prevalence? |
|
Definition
| Ischemic stroke. It accounts for 80% of strokes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of secondary brain injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical term for a central core of dead or dying cells in the brain, surrounded by and ischemic band of minimally perfused cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Focal ischemic cerebral neurologic deficits that last for less than 24 hours (usually less than 1 to 2 hours). |
|
Definition
| Transient eschemic attacks |
|
|
Term
| What is a zone of penumbra without centaral infarction? |
|
Definition
| Transient ischemic attack |
|
|
Term
| Atherosclerotic disease of cerebral vessels and cmboli are risk factors for what conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which age group is more at risk for epidural hematoma? |
|
Definition
| Young persons, because the brain is not sufficiently attached to the dura. |
|
|
Term
| Rupture of an aneurism results in which type of brain hemmorhage? |
|
Definition
| A subarachnoid hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| What is a scale for assessing level of consciousness in a person with brain injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequently fatal stroke? |
|
Definition
| A spontaneous hemorrhage into the brain substance |
|
|
