Term
| The increased metabolic rate and greater body surface area in infants makes them more succeptible to changes in what? |
|
Definition
| Total body water (dehydration) |
|
|
Term
| How does a decrease in oncotic pressure cause edema? |
|
Definition
| When pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure, fluid is reabsorbed into circulation. Decrease in oncotic pressure fluid remains in the interstitial space, resulting in edema. |
|
|
Term
| Renal tubules are the site of action of ADH and aldosterone resulting in what? |
|
Definition
| Renal regulation of blood pressure |
|
|
Term
| Atrial natriuretic peptide causes vasodilation and increase in urinary excretion of sodium and water in which biologic process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When cells neither shrink or swell, what is the characteristic of the fluid they are in? |
|
Definition
| It's an isotonic solution. |
|
|
Term
| When cells shrink because the ECF is more concetrated than the ICF, what is the nature of the fluid they are immersed in? |
|
Definition
| It's a hypertonic solution |
|
|
Term
| Less than 3.5mEq during hypoKalemia. Which area of the body will be most affected by the low potassium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The nurse inflates the pressure cuff to a ridiculous pressure for 3 minutes. The patient has carpal spasms and flexion at the wrist and joints with extension of fingers and adduction of the thumb. What type of trousseau sign is this and what does it mean? |
|
Definition
| A positive trousseau sign that means the patient is hypocalcemic. |
|
|
Term
| Inspiration and expiration in the lungs results in what? |
|
Definition
| Blowing off Co2 and leaving H2O. |
|
|
Term
| The kidneys reabsorb _________ or create new ________ from CO2 and water. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When PH is greater than 7.45, PaCo2 is greater than 35, and HCo2 is normal, what is this condition called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the action of the ascending loop of henli? |
|
Definition
| It reapsorbs Na+, Cl-, K+ so the urine is more dilute. |
|
|
Term
| What is the filtration of plasma per unit of time called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the GFR directly related to? |
|
Definition
| Perfusion pressure of renal blood flow! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will renin be released and why? |
|
Definition
| In response to a decrease in blood pressure in order to regulate blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
| What is a potent vasoconstrictor causing the kidneys to lessen Na+ and water excretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs and where is it produced? |
|
Definition
| Erythropoeitin is produced in the kidneys. |
|
|
Term
| Mg+ ammonium phosphate stones are also called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A male patient is doubled over in pain which had an abrupt onset. The patient has colicky pain in the flank and upper quadrant with radiation to the bladder, taint, and junk. What does the nurse first suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most uncomplicated UTI are caused by which microorganism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A diagnosis is made for UTI when? |
|
Definition
| With the presence of 1 million or more bacteria per milliliter of urine. |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of the tubules, interstitium, and renal pelvis is called what, and what is the most common cause of the chronic form? |
|
Definition
| It's called pyelonephritis and the most common form of the chronic form is reflux of urine due to obstruction. |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a derangement in the glomerular membrane causing increased permeability to plasma proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased irritation of the kidneys puts clients at risk for what disease? |
|
Definition
| Adult kidney cancer (renal cell carcinoma) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of intrinsic (intrarenal) failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first sign of acute renal failure? |
|
Definition
| Polyuria is the first sign. The urine is dilute also. Kidney is not pulling out waste. |
|
|
Term
| Pruritis, uremic frost, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and osteodystrophy are all signs and symptoms of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Failure of the chromosomes to separate during oogenesis or spermatogenesis occurs in the autosomes or the sex chromosomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Caused when a chromosome breaks and neucleoides are removed from the chain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This happens when a chromosome breaks apart and comes back together in an inverted way. It's not a problem for that person, but can be a problem for the offspring. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of deletion codes for a premature stop in a protein resulting in a nonfunctional protein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the risk of having a downs syndrome child between the ages of 35 and 41? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the risk of having a down syndrome child in women aged 42-48? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the risk of having a down syndrome child for women age 49 and above? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Necrotic gummas in the liver, bone and testes problems are characteristics of which stage of syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease is an autosomal dominant disease mapped to the long arm of chromosome 15? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A woodford lasting more than four hours is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disorder is known as a bag or worms? a dialation of veins in the satchel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it known as when the testes don't descend and what are the possible complications? |
|
Definition
| Cryptorchidism. It can cause infertility. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of prostatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ar ethe signs and symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| Hesitance, decrease in stream, and post-void dribbling! |
|
|
Term
| After spermatogenesis, where do the sperm go to mature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nitric oxide is a ________ causing relaxation of muscle of the corpora ________, causing in flow of blood, resulting in ________. |
|
Definition
| vasodilator, cavernosa, erection |
|
|
Term
| What is the biggest risk factor for developing erectile dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In ischemic (low flow) priapism, what happens? |
|
Definition
| There is a stasis of blood, resulting in a failure of detumescence (going down). |
|
|
Term
| Which hormone is necessary for normal female physical maturation, growth and development, reproductive processes, and general metabolic effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the manifestations of pelvic inflammatory disease? |
|
Definition
| Lower abdominal pain, pain after menstrual period, purulent discharge, pelvic tenderness, painful cervix (tenderness isn't normal), and fever greater than 101. |
|
|
Term
| What the heck is endometriosis? |
|
Definition
| Found in etopic sites outside the uterus. Tissue may be small hemorrhagic lesion that may be surrounded by scar tissue. Bleeding into surrounding strictures can cause pain and development of pelvic adhesions. |
|
|
Term
| What are benign neoplasms of smooth muscle developed in the corpus of the uterus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Herniation of the bladder into the vagina which makes it feel like you always have to bear down? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the number one risk factor for the development of cervical cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What STD is the most common and often results in ectopic pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organisms are the most common cause of mastitis and what the H is it? |
|
Definition
| Staph and Strep are the most common causes. It's an inflammation of the breasticles. |
|
|
Term
| In hypopituitarism with growth hormone deficiency, what are the clinical manifestations in males and females? |
|
Definition
| Females it's infertility. In males, it's impotence, mainly with added headache, letharge, and cold intolerance. |
|
|
Term
| Tasteless urine is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SIADH results from a negative feedback system. It's most commonly seen in small cell lung cancer. What a main defining characteristic of it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Change in RBCs caused by change in production o fRBCs. dysfunction, or blood loss is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does chronic blood loss lead to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tissue hypoxia can be caused by? |
|
Definition
| Abnormally low hemoglobin level. |
|
|
Term
| What mineral is required for DNA synthesis and red cell maturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia and how is it diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of anemia leads to bone marrow failure. Can be cause by hemorrhage into tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What vitamin deficiency is caused by malabsorption syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A decrease in all cells (red, white, and platelets) |
|
|
Term
| This is an autosomal recessive disease in which hemoglobin is deoxygenated and forms longg protein rods that make the cell sickle. The causes are dehydration and poor oxygenation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of edema is a hard pitting type caused by water being trapped in the interstitial space? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of edema does hypothyroidism cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some signs of hypoparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
| Muscle cramps, carpopedal spasm, positive trousseau's sign |
|
|
Term
| What can primary adrenal insufficiency cause and what are some manifestations? |
|
Definition
| Addison's disease. Manifestations are hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. A decrease in mineralcorticoid steroids. |
|
|
Term
| An increase in adrenal gland functioning can cause what disease and what is a major manifestation? |
|
Definition
| cushing's syndrome; manifestation is buffalo hump. |
|
|
Term
| name the 5 symptoms, of which someone must posses 3 to diagnose metabolic syndrome. |
|
Definition
1. Waist larger than 35 in for females or 40 in for males.
2. triglycerides greater than or equal to 150mg/dl
3. HDL less than 50 mg/dl for females and less than 40mg/dl for males.
4. blood pressure greater than 130/85
5 fasting plasma glucose greater than 110 |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the major symptoms of type II diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
| Obesity, chronic skin infections, pruritis, fatigue |
|
|
Term
| To be diagnosed with DM, what should the fasting plasma glucose be at? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long is the lifespan of a hemoglobin molecule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics of DKA? |
|
Definition
| Hyperglycemia greater than 250, ketosis, metabolic acidosis (bicarb Hc03 greater than 15 and a decrease in pH 7.3) |
|
|
Term
| What is characterized by hyperglycemia greater than 600, dehydration, hyperosmolarity (plasma osmolarity greater than 310) with No ketoacidosis. |
|
Definition
| DM-HHNK (remember dehydration) |
|
|
Term
| Too little food, too much insulin oral diabetic meds, or extra exercise in diabetes mellitus can cause what? |
|
Definition
| Acute complications such as hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of end-stage renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics of end stage renal disease? |
|
Definition
| Increase in urinary albumin excretion (30-eoomg/day) seen with HgA1C levels greater then 8.1%. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of newly diagnosed blindness b/w the ages of 20 and 74? |
|
Definition
| Diabetic retinopathy. Typical with type I after 20 years of DM, poor glucose control, HTN, and hyperlipidemia. |
|
|
Term
| What are some ways to avoid the chronic complication of diabetic foot ulcers? |
|
Definition
| Fitted shoes, daily foot inspections, avoid smoking, avoid cold, cut toenails straight across, avoid lotion between toes. |
|
|
Term
| What does the epstein barr virus trtansmitted via oral roit cause and who is it more common in? |
|
Definition
| Causes infectious mononucleosis; most common in adolescent and young adults between 15 and 30. |
|
|
Term
| These diseases arise from hematopooietic precursors in the bone marrow and can involve lymphocytes, granulocytes and "white blood" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This disease has the presence of reed sternberg cells |
|
Definition
| Malignant hodgkins lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| Which leukemia is more common in children and when does it peak? |
|
Definition
| ALL (acute lymphocyitic) and it peaks from 2-4 years old. |
|
|
Term
| which type of leukemia has the presence of philadelphia chromosomes? |
|
Definition
| Chronic myelocytic leukemia. |
|
|
Term
| Bone marrow expansion in leukemia causes what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bence jones proteins are present in which type of leukemia, and how are they found? |
|
Definition
| Present in multiple myeloma, and they are excreted in urine. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of proteins, are found in a certain type of leukemia and are toxic to renal tubules of the kidneys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a decrease in the number of circulating platelets known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is thrombocytopenia diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| By doing a platelet count below 20000. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the major manifestations of thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| petechiae, purpura (purple areas of bruising) |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the most common causes of thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| Diseases of the bone marrow such as aplastic anemia. |
|
|
Term
| What is an autoimmune disorder that results in platelet antibody formation and excessive destruction of platelets, and what does it normally follow? |
|
Definition
| Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. It normally follow a viral infection in children. |
|
|
Term
| This disease is characterised by multiple lymph node enlargement, widespread, extranodal envolvement, and onset after 50. |
|
Definition
| Non-hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the main characteristics of non-hodgkins lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| Onset after 50, can develop abdominal pain, lung problems, spleen enlargement (not seen with hodgkins) |
|
|
Term
| What is a change in RBCs caused by a change in production of RBCs, dysfunction, or chronic blood loss ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a main manifestation of anemia? |
|
Definition
| Tissue hypoxia and abnormally low oxygen level. |
|
|
Term
| What substance is required for DNA synthesis and red cell maturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is iron deficiency anemia diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| By finding a hemoglobin level below 7-8g/dl |
|
|
Term
| Aplastic anemia, and/or hemorrhage into tissue can lead to what disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for a decrease in all blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of disease is Sickle cell classified as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The jaw enlargement is a characteristic of which blood disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A ruddy red color and red rosy face and hands |
|
|
Term
| People with polycithemia are at risk for developing what syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common age-related change in RBCs in the neonate? |
|
Definition
| Increased level of serum bilirubin, causing jaundice. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first main lesion of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| A fatty streak (thin, flat, yellow intimal discolorations that progressively become thicker) |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus? |
|
Definition
| An embolus is circulating and a thrombus is a stationary clot. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In stable angina, the person has a stable fixed atherosclerotic plaque, but no damage. Pain is provoked when the heart's oxygen demand is increased. |
|
|
Term
| When does variant angina occur and what is it? |
|
Definition
| Occurs during the night or with exercise. It's a spasm of the coronary artery. |
|
|
Term
| What is cardiac tamponade? |
|
Definition
| When rapic accumulation of exudates compresses the heart. |
|
|
Term
| With fibrous pericarditis, what is common? |
|
Definition
| Friction rub, adhesions, ST elevation in all 12 leads. |
|
|
Term
| What is the diff between stenosis and regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| In stenosis, the valve does not open all the way. It is harder to force blood through. In regurgitation, the valve will not close al the way. It leaks when it should be closed. |
|
|
Term
| What side of the heart doea mitral valve prolapse occur on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common causes of aortic stenosis, and what is it? |
|
Definition
| Rheumatic fever and congenital valve malformation. It is an increased resistance to ejection of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta causing systemic blood decrease. |
|
|
Term
| What heart disease is most common to intravenous drug users? |
|
Definition
| Infective endocarditis (bacterial endocarditis) characterized by right sided tricuspid lesions. |
|
|
Term
| What happens in transposition of the great vessel? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary artery and aorta are reversed. PA leaves left ventricle instead of right. |
|
|
Term
| What is narrowing of the aorta near the ductus arteriosus known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Weak or absent peripheral pulses of legs and bounding pulses of the arms in kids could be caused by what heart defect? |
|
Definition
| Coarctation of the aorta. |
|
|
Term
| When the heart fails to pump blood adequately, causing decreased cardiac output, which lowers BP, sympathetic sustem responds, vasoconstriction increases resistance to blood flow, and the workload on the heart is increased, worstening heart failure, what is this called and when does it happen? |
|
Definition
| Cardiogenic shock. Follows MI. |
|
|
Term
| What is it called when neurogenic shock caused by brain or spinal cord injury cause a decrease in sympathetic control of blood volume due to a defect in the vasomotor center w/ symptomatic outflow to the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is diminished blood volume known to cause when there is an inadequate filling of the vascular compartment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an abnormal pattern of respiration that increases in depth and sometimes in rate followed by periods of apnea. . .who is it most often seen in and why? |
|
Definition
| Cheyne-stokes respirations, normally seen in comatose patients because of NS disruption. |
|
|
Term
| What is an increase in PaCO2 also known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can hypercapnia progress to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the levels of PaO2, PaCO2, and pH in acute respiratory failure? |
|
Definition
| PaO2<60mmHg is the main one you need to know... also, PaCO2 is greater then or equal to 50 and pH is less than or equal to 7.25 |
|
|
Term
| What is incomplete expansion of a lung known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is seen most commonly in persons with pleural effusion from CHF or cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can usually be heard over areas of effusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What the hell is it when there is lymph fluid in the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an accumulation of AIR in the pleural cavity that leads to partial or complete lung collapse? And what is a characteristic of the chest wall movement seen with it? |
|
Definition
| Pneumothorax. There will be asymmetrical chest wall movement. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary difference between chronic bronchitis and emphysema? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory responsiveness to hypoxic stimuli |
|
|
Term
| With this condition, you have increased mucus production. Hypersecretion of mucus and productive cough lasts 3 consecutive months for at least 2 consecutive years. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In emphysema, what helps prevent airway collapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease is an autosomal recessive disorder whose common symptoms of steatorrhea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test is used to test for CF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a respiratory disorder characterized by sudden chest pain, tachypnea and dyspnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased hypertension with pulmonary HTN places a strain on what part of the heart? |
|
Definition
| The right ventricle. It has to work harder than usual aganst this resistance to move adequate amounts of blood through the lungs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first sign of hypoxemia (low PO2)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PCo2 may be asymptomatic until when? |
|
Definition
| until PCo2 levels are severely high |
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Advanced age, immuno-compromised, underlying lung disease (COPD), alcoholism, altered consciousness, smoking, endotracheal intubation, malnutrition, and immobilization |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus pneumonia (gram +) |
|
|
Term
| How is tuberculosis transmitted from person to person, and what are the main symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Transmitted from person to person in AiR BORNE droplets (coughing, sneezing and talking). The main symptoms are weight loss, decreased appetite, FATIGUE, NIGHT SWEATS and CHILLS. |
|
|
Term
| Brain metastasis is very common in which type of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| Small cell carcinoma (oat cell) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of cancer is more amenable to early detection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of lung cancer originates in cetral bronchi in mostly men and smokers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| "I cause a child to have inspiratory stridor, hoarsness, barking cough, and nasal flairing. What am I?" |
|
Definition
| Croup (Laryngeotracheobronchitis) |
|
|
Term
| Child is sitting up with mouth open, drooling, chin thrust forward, difficulty swallowing, fever and extreme anxiety. What does he have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a viral infection of the lower airways caused by viral RSV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a condition that manifests as heartburn occurring 30-60 mins after a meal that is worse with bending down and relieved by sitting straight up? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a transient inflammation of the gastric mucosa, caused by staphylococcal enterotoxins and what are the manifestations? |
|
Definition
| Acute gastritis, and the manifestations are an abrupt and violent onset usually 5 hours after ingestion of contaminated food sources and may be mistaken for food poisoning. |
|
|
Term
| Which condition is characterized by pain relieved by food or antacids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of ulcer develops in relation to major physiologic stress (trauma, burns, liver faiure, major surgical procedures)? |
|
Definition
| Curling/stress ulcer (curling was on the test) |
|
|
Term
| What condition is characterized by pain relieved with defecation and associated with a change in consistency or frequency of stools? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition is characterized by intermittent diarrhea, colicky RLQ pain, weight loss, malaise, and low grade fever? |
|
Definition
| Chron's disease. Another distinguishing characteristic is cobblestone appearance of the gastric mucosa. |
|
|
Term
| What is a nonspecific inflammatory condition of the colon and rectum manifested as frequent diarrhea (30-40 movements per day), typically with bliid and mucus, muld abd cramping and fecal incontinence, anorexia, weakness and fatigue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| "I cause LLQ pain with N/V, slight fever and elevated WBC. Who am I" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you be most concerned about in terms of the gastric area for a patient that just got out of surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a rigid (board-like) abdomen a manifestation of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a symptom of malabsorption syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Fractures and tetany, bruising, bleeding, and failure to absorb fat-soluble vitamins. |
|
|
Term
| What is celiac disease and how is it diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| AKA gluten sensitive enteropathy. Diagnosed by serum IgA. |
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for esophageal cancer? |
|
Definition
| Elderly, average age 67 y/o. Alcohol and tobacco use. |
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for esophageal cancer? |
|
Definition
| Elderly, average age 67 y/o. Alcohol and tobacco use. |
|
|
Term
| Pruritis occurs when bile acids accumulate in the blood, clay colored stool, DARK URINE, yellowing skin and sclera. . .what is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pruritis occurs when bile acids accumulate in the blood, clay colored stool, DARK URINE, yellowing skin and sclera. . .what is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hepatitis is caused by eating contaminated shellfish? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fulminating hepatitis is associated with which Hep virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an end stage chronic liver disease which functional tissue is replaced with fibrous disrupting blood flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chronic disease manifests with signs of diabetes mellitus, and malabsorption syndrome (steatorrhea, weight loss)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alpha feta-protein presence is used to diagnose what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Rubor, tumor, calour, dolor, and function laesa. |
|
|
Term
| Redness and warmth result from congestions in capillaries in acute inflammations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During this stage of inflammation, white blood enters the injured tissue releasing more inflammatory mediators to control further inflammation and healing? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary phagocyte of inflammation and when does it arrive on the scene? |
|
Definition
| Neutrophils. Within 90 min. |
|
|
Term
| Which phagocytes engulf bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Macrophaves accumulate in the damaged area and keep releasing inflammatory mediators in this kind of inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is tissue organization is controlled by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a main factor that affects wound healing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is type 1 hypersensitivity mediated by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| De-granulation of _______ cells cause a release of ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity is RH and ABO reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hypersensitivity can be detected with a tuberculin test? |
|
Definition
| type IV (cell mediated) hypersensitivity. |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of host v. graft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does the latent period of HIV infection last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of immunity does not distinguish between different pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of immunity has components which include T and B lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
| Acquired/adaptive immunity |
|
|
Term
| This is a substance recognized as foreign by the body which stimulates an immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulins are found on mast cells and tissues that start on inflammation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first antibody to be made in an infant and the 1st circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These antigens play a role in transplant rejection. |
|
Definition
| HLA (Human leukocyte antigens) |
|
|
Term
| T Helper cells must activate B cells how do they do this? |
|
Definition
| By releasing cytokines in the primary immune response. |
|
|
Term
| What is the process of cel division? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of specialization, whereby new cells acquire the structure and function of the cells they replace? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When differentiated cells mutate, what type of tumors do they form? |
|
Definition
| Working cells mutate, they form working or "benign" tumors. |
|
|
Term
| What type of tissue can liberate enzymes and toxins that destroy tumor tissue and normal tissue? |
|
Definition
| Malignant neoplasms (tumors) |
|
|
Term
| Is an osteoma malignant or benign, and where does it originate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are malignant tumors named? |
|
Definition
| According to the cell type they originated from. |
|
|
Term
| What type of malignant tumor might you find on the surface of the skin? |
|
Definition
| A squamous cell carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of a tumor originating from striated muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tumor marker for ovarian cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In metastasis, what is invaded? |
|
Definition
| The surrounding extracellular matrix is envaded. |
|
|
Term
| What is the development of the new vascular supply that provides nutrients to facilitate tumor growth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It's an attachment factor that aids in attachment of an invading neoplasm to the matrix. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The process whereby normal cells are transformed into cancer cells. |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal genes that code for notmal proteins used in cell division called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These substances can interrupt the production of tumor cells until a defect in normal cells is corrected. |
|
Definition
| Tumor supressor proteins. |
|
|
Term
| Esphagus, stomach, and bladder cancer, as well as myeloid lukemia are all related to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a diet-related carcinogen? |
|
Definition
| Grilled fish and meats such as BBQ chicken. |
|
|
Term
| What is a manifestation in a site not directly affected by the disease known as? |
|
Definition
| A paraneoplastic syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| What is removal of a tissue for microscopic study? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a type of bone tumor common in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a characteristic of most childhood cancers that is opposite that of adults? |
|
Definition
| Common metastasis at time of diagnosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for a freckle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema that is solid, transient and variable in diameter, and when is it generally found? |
|
Definition
| A Wheal. It is generally found in an allergic reaction. |
|
|
Term
| What disease commonly produces vesicles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a honey-crusted pustule commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of impetigo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common benign papilloma caused by DNA containing HPV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a viral infection of the skin and mucous membranes that is usually confined to the mouth and spread by respiratory droplets? |
|
Definition
| Type 1 Herpes simplex virus |
|
|
Term
| Common inflammatory skin disease characterized by circumscribed, red, thickened plaques with an overlying silvery white scale? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of butn is superficial and involves the outer later of the epidermis only. |
|
Definition
| First degree. They're very painful. |
|
|
Term
| How can the pain of a 3rd degree burn be described? |
|
Definition
| There is no pain because the pain sensors are destroyed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It inhibits the release of calcium from bone. |
|
|
Term
| When is calcitonin released, and where from? |
|
Definition
| It is released from the thyroid gland when serum calcium is too high. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Injury to a muscle or tendon. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An injury to ligament or joint. |
|
|
Term
| What type of bone disorder deals with vascular insufficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bone disease in adults can spread to the joint spaces? |
|
Definition
| Hematogenous osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| What is crystallization caused by in gout? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the condition that results in decreased compartment size, increased volume of contents, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a partial dislocation in which the bone ends in the joint are still in partial contact with each other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition causes defective mineralization, but not loss of matrix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a main characteristic of osteoarthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the swelling with rheumatoid arthritis symmetric or asymmetric? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a malignant tumor of the cartilage that is often painless? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a characteristic of postural scoliosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you describe pain which is diffuse and poorly localized such as pain originatin in the abdominal or thoracic area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of pain is generally manifested by grimaces or facial tics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a headache that is unilateral, pulsatile and throbbing, and may move? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What muscle is most commonly affected with MG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an early sign of LMN symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Muscle spasms in the legs (distal limbs). |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common clinical feature of MS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will be the result of spinal cord transsection below t12? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can becuased by a spinal cord injury above t6 that will manifest as really high BP (240/120), sweating, increased level of injury, and anxiety? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an effect of spinal shock? |
|
Definition
| Temorary flaccid paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common reason for developing a herniated intevertebral disk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 cardinal symptoms of parkinson's disease? |
|
Definition
| tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for the LMN cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides the LMN, what other neuron cells does lou gherig's disease affect? |
|
Definition
| UMN cells of the cerebral cortex and the motor nuclei of the brain stem |
|
|
Term
| What happens when in the white matter, fluid is allowed to escape into the ECF that surrounds the brain cells, and what else happens as a hallmark characteristic of this disorder? |
|
Definition
| Vasogenic edema; BBB integrity is disrupted |
|
|
Term
| What does coup-contracoup injury lead to? |
|
Definition
| Permanant destruction of brain cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the most sesitive and important indicator of a patient's mental status? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does decorticate posturing indicate? |
|
Definition
| Lesions of the cerebral hemisphere (elbows flexed) |
|
|
Term
| What is a congenital tangle of arteries and veins frequently found in the middle cerebral artery? |
|
Definition
| An arteriovenous malformation |
|
|
Term
| What type of stroke is caused by atherosclerotic plaques? |
|
Definition
| Large vessel or "Thrombotic" stroke |
|
|
Term
| Nuccal rigidity is a sign of what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a funny feeling before a seizure occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the state after a seizure has occured and why is the patient drowsy and lethargic? |
|
Definition
| Known as the post-ictal state. They are drowsy and lethargic because they have depleated their energy/O2 stores. |
|
|
Term
| What is the second stage of alzheimer's marked by? |
|
Definition
|
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