Term
| What is the plasma membrane? |
|
Definition
| It's the outer cell surface |
|
|
Term
| Name three things about the plasma membrane? |
|
Definition
| It selectively permeable with an electric charge, got a lipid bilayer with inserted glycolipids and glycoproteins, and they have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a substance that is created and has an effect on what created it. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a substance that has an effect on an adjacent cell but does not go through the blood stream. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Is a substance that travels through the bloodstream and has an effect on a distant cell. |
|
|
Term
| Decrease in size of a cell tissue organ or the entire body can be referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This two types of atrophy? |
|
Definition
| Physiological and predictable or pathologic |
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of predictable or physiological atrophy? |
|
Definition
| Atrophy of the thymus after puberty and aging |
|
|
Term
| List four or forms of pathological atrophy? |
|
Definition
| Caused by lack of nutrition, chronic ischemia, denervation, inactivity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the wall of the heart and the chambers during hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
| The wall of the heart thickens and the chambers get smaller. |
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
| Hypertension for the heart and bodybuilders for hypertrophy of the skeletal muscles. |
|
|
Term
| What is hypertrophy often combine with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| And increased number of cells in a tissue or organ |
|
|
Term
| Give four examples of hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| Endometrial hyperplasia caused by action of estrogen, benign prostatic hyperplasia and elderly men, callus or corn on the heels from tight shoes, hyperplastic polyps of the intestines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It's the change in the type of cells. For example squamous cells to columnar cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Precancerous condition in which the cells continue change until they be recognized. |
|
|
Term
| Somatic death, clinically defined as brain death occurs when tissues undergo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two types of cell death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the features of necrosis in apoptosis? |
|
Definition
| Exogenous injury, involves a group of cells, swollen mitochondria and rough endoplasmic reticulum, a ruptured cell membrane, nuclear fragments |
|
|
Term
| What are the features of apoptosis in apoptosis? |
|
Definition
| Activated by a suicide gene, involves a single cell, programmed death, no changes no changes in the plasma membrane |
|
|
Term
| List four types of necrosis? |
|
Definition
| coagulative necrosis, liquefactive necrosis, caseous necrosis, enzymatic fat necrosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of necrosis and where would you see it? |
|
Definition
| Coagulative necrosis and it would be seen as cerebral vascular accident and myocardial infarction |
|
|
Term
| What type of necrosis is seen with acute pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of necrosis is seen in the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Caseous necrosis is typically seen with what pathology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the five signs of inflammation and their Latin root? |
|
Definition
Name the five signs of inflammation and their Latin root?
Heat, redness, swelling, pain, disturbed function
calor, rubor, tumor, dolor, functio laesa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It's a biogenic amine, which released from platelets and mast cells, it stimulates retraction of the endothelial cells of venules, this leads to the formation of gaps, which increases its permeability. There is a short action immediate transient reaction because it is an activated by histaminase |
|
|
Term
| What are the main features of the complement system? |
|
Definition
| They are a group of plasma proteins produced by the liver circulating in inactive form. They are activated through a classical or alternative pathway. Activation leads to formation of biologically active fragments such as C3a, intermediate complexes such as C567, and terminal membrane attack complex Mac |
|
|
Term
| What are the Main functions of activated complement derivatives? |
|
Definition
| opsonitation, anaphylaxis, chemotaxis, cell lysis |
|
|
Term
| This involves a histamine release with increased vessel wall permeability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Involves the migration of leukocytes on a chemical gradient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is attacking of a bacteria and its phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With the emigration of leukocytes and extravasation of fluids what are the steps? |
|
Definition
| There is increased permeability of the vessel wall and increased hydrostatic pressure which is called transudate. There is emigration of leukocytes called exudate. There is diabetes is of leukocytes and their movement is a consequence of chemotaxis which is released by bacteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Low number of proteins, low number of neutrophils |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Leukocytes squeeze through the gaps of the vessel wall |
|
|
Term
| What are the steps of emigration of leukocytes? |
|
Definition
| margination with retraction of epithelial cells, adhesion of the vessel wall, diapedesis out of the vessel wall, chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
| What does a granuloma consist of? |
|
Definition
| Lymphocytes, epithelioid cells(macrophages), giant cells |
|
|
Term
| List five cells that participate in wound healing? |
|
Definition
| Neutrophils, macrophages, myofibroblasts, fibroblasts, angioplasties |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a myofibroblasts do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Involved in phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
| Neutrophils and macrophages |
|
|
Term
| What does a fibroblast do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Wound healing by which intention has granulation tissue? |
|
Definition
| Wound healing by secondary intention |
|
|
Term
| A person who has a scar that will not hold together as what type of a scar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person who has a scar that is raised as what type of a scar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person who has a scar that is so tight causes contractions and is commonly seen in burn victims as what type of scar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does T.. O. R. C. H. stand for? |
|
Definition
| Toxoplasma, others, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes virus |
|
|
Term
| What is most affected when somebody has torch syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give examples of how the brain is affected with torch syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Mental retardation, microcephaly, hydrocephalus(dilation of the lateral ventricles), microphthalmia, chorioretinitis(calcifications), and cataracts |
|
|
Term
| Give eight characteristics of down’s syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Mental retardation, simian crease, wide gap between first and second toes, caused by trisomy 21, gaping mouth and a large tongue, heart disease, intestinal defects unique facial features, eye abnormalities |
|
|
Term
| What is the karyotype of somebody with Turner syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is this phenotype of somebody with Turner syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Short stature, women, heart shaped face, webbing of the neck, heart disease, broad chest with wide nipples, cubitus valgus, street ovaries, hypoplastic uterus, and amenorrhea |
|
|
Term
| What is the karyotype for Klinefelter syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the phenotype of somebody with Klinefelter syndrome? |
|
Definition
| tall, long arms and legs, lack of beard, body hair, pubic hair, gynecomastia, female like hips, testicular atrophy, infertility, mainly seen in men |
|
|
Term
| What tissue is defective in Marfan's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main cause of death in someone who has Marfan's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Cardiac usually from a ruptured aneurysm or floppy mitral valve |
|
|
Term
| What is this phenotype of someone with Marfan's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Elongated head, eye abnormalities aortic aneurysm with dissection and exsanguination, floppy mitral valve, vertebral deformity, long fingers(arachnodactyly) |
|
|
Term
| What is the defect and cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
| Defect in the chloride channel |
|
|
Term
| What type of issues might someone with cystic fibrosis have? |
|
Definition
| Pancreatitis, recurrent pulmonary infection, meconium ileus(no first bowel), abnormal sweat(have chloride and sweat), malabsorption of lipids, steatorrhea |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual cause of death in someone who has cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
| Complication from pulmonary infection due to fibrosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the age for sudden infant death syndrome, which is the most common cause of death in infants beyond the immediate neonatal period? |
|
Definition
| Older than two months younger than nine months |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of sudden infant death syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Not known but related to hypoxia |
|
|
Term
| All cells of the immune system originate where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do lymphocytes include? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do T. lymphocytes mature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cells help B. cells produce antibodies? |
|
Definition
| T. helper cells or CD4 cells |
|
|
Term
| The cells suppress unwanted antibody production and mediates killing of virus-infected cells or tumor cells? |
|
Definition
| T. suppressor cells/cytotoxic cells CD8 |
|
|
Term
| Which cells need to be sensitized with MHC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These cells react against virus-infected cells and kills tumor cells without prior sensitization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These cells are trying to differentiate into IG producing plasma cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fully differentiated descendents of B. cells and have an abundance of ribosome due to their extensive ig production. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the macrophages? |
|
Definition
| Phagocytosis, they present antigens, it can stimulate interleukin |
|
|
Term
| Name the five antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is the smallest but most abundant, acts as inopsonin, crosses the placenta, production is small after immunization or production increases on second exposure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antibody has five subunits and is the largest, it functions to neutralize organisms and activates the complement system, it is also the first IG to appear after immunization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Found in the mucosal secretions, it carries a secretory piece that protects the IG when it is secreted into the intestines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Present in trace amounts attached and mast cells and mediates allergic reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cell membrane-bound IG found on B. cells, part of the antigen receptor and B. cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the result of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in a type I hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| You get exposed to an allergen and your immune system is IGE against it. The allergen goes away. Sensitization to the mast cells upon second exposure. The IGE attaches to the mast cells and the allergen and floats around the system and causes degranulation of the mast cell and mast cell releases histamine. |
|
|
Term
| Name for diseases caused by type I hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
| Hayfever, asthma, atopic dermatitis like eczema, and anaphylactic shock |
|
|
Term
| A type II hypersensitivity reaction is caused by? |
|
Definition
| cytoxic antibody mediated |
|
|
Term
| What happens in a type II hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| Cytotoxic antibodies produced by your own system react with your own tissues and cause cell lysis because that recognizes tissue is foreign. It is mediated by IgG or IgM informs AG -- AB complexes which activate the complement system |
|
|
Term
| Identify for diseases that would be considered type II hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
| Hemolytic anemia where the red blood cells are recognized as foreign, Goodpaster syndrome show along pulmonary changes, Graves' disease which is hyperthyroidism, Myasthenia Gravis in which antibodies attach to the ACH causing paralysis of the smooth muscles. These are all autoimmune diseases. |
|
|
Term
| A type III hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in a type III hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| In overproduction of antibodies and then you produce a high amount of immune complexes which deposit themselves in the tissues. They activate the complement system or initiate localized inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
| Give examples of a type III hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| Systemic lupus erythmatosus, post streptococcal glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa (antibodies deposit themselves in the vessel walls) |
|
|
Term
| A type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by? |
|
Definition
| Cell mediated and it's a delayed hypersensitivity reaction |
|
|
Term
| Because a type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by cells, what happens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give examples of diseases caused by type IV hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
| Tuberculosis and contact dermatitis |
|
|
Term
| Even though type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve the formation of granulomas is there any situation in which there would be no formation of granulomas? |
|
Definition
| No granulomas and contact dermatitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A transplantation between animals of different species |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A transplantation between genetically identical individuals of the same species |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient serves as both the donor and recipient |
|
|
Term
| What is a Homograft or an allograft? |
|
Definition
| A transplantation between individuals of the seen species |
|
|
Term
| Before allografting, what type of histocompatibility tests are using? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens graft versus host reaction? |
|
Definition
| It is mediated by transplanted T. lymphocytes and is most often a complication of a bone marrow transplant. It can affect the skin giving you exfoliative dermatitis, the intestines causing malabsorption and diarrhea, and the liver causing jaundice |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic defect from systemic lupus? |
|
Definition
| It is a malfunction of suppressor T cells which allows polyclonal activation of B. cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the antibodies produced with systemic lupus? |
|
Definition
| Anti-nuclear antibodies or ANA |
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is systemic lupus? |
|
Definition
| It's a type III hypersensitivity reaction |
|
|
Term
| Systemic lupus can happen anywhere in the body but we're does it most likely occur? |
|
Definition
| The glomerular basement membrane, synovial membranes of joints, the pleura and peritoneum, endocardium which is the heart valves, Raynaud's phenomenon, and butterfly rash on the face |
|
|
Term
| What two things occur with systemic lupus? |
|
Definition
| Activation of the complement system with inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
| List several things about benign tumors? |
|
Definition
| They grow slow and expensive, they do not metastasize, they resemble normal tissue, they're well differentiated their of normal size and shape and uniform, and very few cells undergo mitosis |
|
|
Term
| Identify several things about malignant tumors? |
|
Definition
| Their growth is fast and invasive, they do metastasize they do not resemble normal tissue (anaplasia), they are poorly differentiated in many of the cells go through mitosis |
|
|
Term
| Tumor cells may acquire embryonic/fetal features. Give two examples? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four types of transformations of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes? |
|
Definition
| Point mutation, gene amplification, chromosomal rearrangement, insertion of viral oncogenes |
|
|
Term
| Cell acquires and increased number of proto-oncogene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Get juxtaposition of genes that normally wouldn't be close to each other. They get a promoter next to a proto-oncogene? |
|
Definition
| Chromosomal rearrangement |
|
|
Term
| It's a single based substitution in the DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disruption of normal chromosomal architecture and end up with genetic dysregulation? |
|
Definition
| Insertion of viral oncogene |
|
|
Term
| Tumor suppressor genes protect the cells against activated or newly acquired oncogenes. Which tumor suppressor gene acts as both a tumor suppressor gene and oncogene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which tumor suppressor gene only acts as a tumor suppressor gene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Excess fluid in the interstitial spaces and/or body cavities |
|
|
Term
| Edema can be either generalized or localized. If it is localized, how is it named and if it is generalized, what is a called? |
|
Definition
| Localized is named by the organ, generalized is called anasarca |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms of edema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in hydrostatic pressure HTN? |
|
Definition
| Hypertension causes venous stagnation which increases intravascular pressure and pushes fluid out of the venous side |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It's caused by a reduction and osmotic pressure of plasma and is a consequence of hypoalbumenia, which is produced by the liver so a lack of production of albumin is seen in patients with the cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
| What is inflammatory edema? |
|
Definition
| Fluid leaks of the vessel wall due to increased permeability and hyperemia |
|
|
Term
| Is the circulatory system an opened or closed system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name four possible outcomes for thrombus? |
|
Definition
| Lysis and resolution (thrombus breaks up resolves), organization (forms granulation tissue), recanalization (makes channels for some blood flow), embolism |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| freely movable, intravascular mass that is carried from one anatomic site to another by blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| s the most common form of embolism in which fragments of the thrombi are carried by venous or arterial blood? |
|
|
Term
| name two types of liquid emboli? |
|
Definition
1. Fat emboli (from fractured long bones)
2. Amniotic fluid (during delivery) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| caused from air injection or caisson disease? |
|
|
Term
| made of cholesterol crystals, bone marrow, or tumor emboli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a complication of a venous emboli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of pulmonary embolism can cause a saddle emboli which totally includes the pulmonary artery and leads to acute anoxia and possibly death because no blood enters along? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These embolus lodge into minor branches of the artery and causes infarcts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the shape of the pulmonary infarct that occurs from a small embolus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of congenital defect of the heart? |
|
Definition
| Ventricular septal defect |
|
|
Term
| Does a ventricular septal defect shunt from left to right or right to left at first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four complications of tetralogy of fallot? |
|
Definition
| Overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and a ventricular septal defect |
|
|
Term
| If somebody has the trilogy of fallot a day cyanotic or acyanotic and why? |
|
Definition
| They are cyanotic because the ventricular defect shunts from right to left, so the deoxygenated blood is going throughout the body |
|
|
Term
| Give me three examples of the skin hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| Petechia, ecchymosis, Purpura |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Respiratory tract with expectoration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Anorectal bleeding which is bright red |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Black, discolored blood in the stool, typically a complication of gastric ulcer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal uterovaginal bleeding, which can lead to an iron deficiency anemia |
|
|
Term
| What are the steps to atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| The endothelial cell injury, buildup of LDL cholesterol, macrophages (foam cells), proliferation of the smooth muscle cells, fibrous cap (no clot), when the cap ruptures you get a thrombus. |
|
|
Term
| Name three complications myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
| You get a thrombus and the myocardial wall, an aneurysm in the myocardial wall, or rupture |
|
|
Term
| What is a complication from a thrombus of the myocardium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a complication of an aneurysm of the heart? |
|
Definition
| Rupture which can lead to hemopericardia or cardiac tampanaud, or turbulent blood flow which will lead to the formation of a clot. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of primary hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two causes of secondary hypertension? |
|
Definition
| Atherosclerosis of the renal artery causes decreased blood flow to the kidney, which increases the production of rennin. And endocrine pheochromocytoma |
|
|
Term
| Name five complications of hypertension? |
|
Definition
| Stroke, hypertensive retinopathy, cardiac hypertrophy, hypertensive nephropathy, accelerated atherosclerosis |
|
|
Term
| How is anemia classified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of dilutional anemia? |
|
Definition
| normocytic, normochromic (caused by lower levels of RBC’s due to a high level of plasma) |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of iron deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
| microcytic, hypochromic (due to bleeding, iron deficiency) |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
| Deficiency of vitamin B12 and/or folic acid |
|
|
Term
| List three causes of vitamin B12 deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Pernicious anemia, lack of the gastric intrinsic factor, atrophic gastritis |
|
|
Term
| List two causes for folic acid deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Inadequate intake or by malabsorption |
|
|
Term
| Who tends to suffer from folic acid deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three anemias characterized by abnormal red blood shapes? |
|
Definition
| elliptocytosis, spherocytosis, sickle cell anemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name some symptoms of anemia? |
|
Definition
| Fatigue, pale, delayed capillary reflexes |
|
|
Term
| Name three causes of hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
| Hemolysis, intra-corpuscular defects or structural defects (sickle cell anemia thalassemia, or hereditary spherocytosis), extra corpuscular defects from antibodies infectious agents or mechanical factors (transfusion reaction, malaria, cardiac valve prosthesis, DIC) |
|
|
Term
| We sickle cell anemia what is substituted by what? |
|
Definition
| Glutamic acid is substituted by valine |
|
|
Term
| What causes this substitution of glutamic acid by valine and sickle cell anemia? |
|
Definition
| A synthesis of and abnormal beta chain of globin. |
|
|
Term
| Sickle cell anemia is most common in blacks and has multiple infarcts in various organs. Name some of these infarcts? |
|
Definition
| autosplenectomy, sharp pain in the bones, retinal infarcts, neurological defects |
|
|
Term
| Those with sickle cell anemia tend to have hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice from bile stones.. Why? |
|
Definition
| The spleen recycles hemoglobin and because the spleen is nonfunctional, bile goes through the system. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of leukemia in children? |
|
Definition
| Acute lymphoblastic leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of leukemia in adults? |
|
Definition
| Acute myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What happens in acute lymphoblastic leukemia? |
|
Definition
| Massive infiltration of the bone marrow and peripheral blood which immature lymphoid cells (blasts) |
|
|
Term
| Name three manifestations of acute lymphoblastic leukemia and explain why? |
|
Definition
| Recurrent infections (due to immature lymphoid cells), generalized weakness and bleeding (due to overproduction of the blast cells causing lower production of red blood cells) |
|
|
Term
| What is acute myelogenous leukemia? |
|
Definition
| Clonal proliferation of myoblasts in the bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| What type of cells are present in Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the number one symptom of a Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is there any leukemic or extranodal spread into the blood with Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a sex linked congenital clotting factor deficiency.. |
|
|
Term
| A deficiency of factor IX is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A deficiency in factor VIII is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| People who have hemophilia have? |
|
Definition
| Uncontrollable bleeding following trauma, subcutaneous hematomas or hemarthrosis |
|
|
Term
| What is an acute and possibly life threatening infection of the larynx . It is a disease that is most common in children younger than three? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of croup? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the key feature of croup? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of epiglottitis? |
|
Definition
| What is the cause of epiglottitis? |
|
|
Term
| What is the peak incidence in epiglottitis? |
|
Definition
| School aged children and adolescents |
|
|
Term
| Identify four symptoms of epiglottitis? |
|
Definition
| Sudden loss of voice, hoarseness, throat pain, Cherry red epiglottis |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one cause of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| A bacteria called streptococcus pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| Name an opportunistic infection is common in patients with AIDS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is unique about atypical pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Milder symptoms with less fever and chills |
|
|
Term
| Name two examples of atypical pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae (walking pneumonia), pneumocystis Carinii |
|
|
Term
| Primary TB involves what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two features of the Ghon complex? |
|
Definition
| One granuloma, lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph) |
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Term
| We a secondary pulmonary tuberculosis, what happens? |
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Definition
| Develops due to reactivation of dormant infection, there bacteria spreads to the apex of the lungs and causes granulomatous lobar pneumonia, involves many granulomatous |
|
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Term
| List three symptoms of secondary TB? |
|
Definition
| Night sweats, hemoptysis, fever |
|
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Term
| Spread a bacteria from air spaces producing a massive lobar pneumonia. Can involve the same long or the contralateral one? |
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Definition
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Term
| TB gets to the larynx and if swallowed can cause G. TB in the small intestines? |
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Definition
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Term
| Widespread seeding of bacteria in the lungs or other organs causing the formation of many small granulomatous? |
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Definition
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Term
| Infection spreads to the pleura and is accompanied by pleural effusion and formation of granulomas in the pleura? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What occurs in the center of the Ghon complex? |
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Definition
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Term
| Miliary TB, TB pneumonia, pleuritis, and extrapulmonary TB are all examples of? |
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Definition
| Secondary TB extrapulmonary dissemination(spread) |
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Term
|
Definition
| Enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles with the structuring of alveolar walls. |
|
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Term
| List two causes of emphysema? |
|
Definition
| Cigarette smoking, alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency |
|
|
Term
| Name two types of emphysema? |
|
Definition
| Centrilobular and panicinar |
|
|
Term
| Define centrilobular emphysema? |
|
Definition
| Widening of the air spaces in the center of the lobby all (found in smokers) |
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|
Term
| Define panacinar emphysema? |
|
Definition
| Involves all the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles (occurs with alpha-1 deficiency) |
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|
Term
| Incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung can be referred to as? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| In atelectasis, compression of the lung can be referred to as? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| In atelectasis, and obstruction can be referred to as? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| In atelectasis, collapse can be referred to as? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A congenital defect in which the esophagus and the blind pouch. It can form a fistula, where the esophagus attaches to the trachea |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Stenosis of the distal end of the esophagus |
|
|
Term
| Name two types of hiatal hernias? |
|
Definition
| Sliding and peraesophageal |
|
|
Term
| What happens in a para-esophageal hiatal hernia? |
|
Definition
| A portion of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| What happens in a sliding hiatal hernia? |
|
Definition
| The gastroesophageal junction and a portion of the stomach protrudes up through the diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 causes of carcinomas of the esophagus? |
|
Definition
| Alcohol and tobacco use and uncontrolled reflux |
|
|
Term
| What type of carcinoma is related to alcohol and tobacco? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of carcinomas related to GERD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does somebody get adenocarcinoma from GERD? |
|
Definition
| The acid reflux changes the squamous cells through metaplasia to columnar cells (which is called Barrett's esophagus), and these changes continue until it eventually turns into adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
| True or false, peptic ulcer only refers to the stomach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three contributing factors to peptic ulcer? |
|
Definition
| Gastric juice, mucosal barrier defects, Helicobacter pylori |
|
|
Term
| Name the complications of peptic ulcer disease? |
|
Definition
| Hemorrhage(most common) such as hematomesis and Melena (which will lead to iron deficiency), penetration in the pancreas(causing acute pancreatitis), perforation(causing peritonitis), Cicatrization which is scarring (causing stenosis) |
|
|
Term
| What are I'll pouches of the wall of the colon called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List complications of diverticulosis? |
|
Definition
| Fistula, rupture, bleeding, fibrosis, abscess |
|
|
Term
| True false, both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis is hereditary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease has these features: segmental including Ilium, transmural, granuloma, fistula, cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease has these features: diffuse, involving only the colon, megacolon, high risk of cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is this diarrhea coming from: small amount, mucoid in appearance, has blood, presence of leukocytes? |
|
Definition
| Large intestinal diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| Tell me what the volume, appearance, and blood would look like if the diarrhea was coming from the small intestines? |
|
Definition
| Large volume, watery stool, but blood is rare |
|
|
Term
| Define and intestinal obstruction by hernia? |
|
Definition
| Outward protrusion of the intestines through the muscle wall. |
|
|
Term
| Define intestinal structures by intussusception? |
|
Definition
| Telescoping one section of the intestines into another |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Twisting of the small intestines |
|
|
Term
| Name two causes of malabsorption resulting from defective uptake of nutrients? |
|
Definition
| Celiac Sprue (glutin insensitivity) and tropical sprue (caused by an infectious agent). |
|
|
Term
| What does celiac sprue and tropical sprue due to cause malabsorption? |
|
Definition
| Blunting of the intestinal villi |
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of pre-hepatic jaundice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes somebody to become jaundice? |
|
Definition
| Hemoglobin is metabolized into bilirubin |
|
|
Term
| Name five types of hepatic jaundice? |
|
Definition
| Viral and chronic hepatitis, drug and alcohol induced liver disease, cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
| Viral and chronic hepatitis, drug and alcohol induced liver disease, cirrhosis |
|
Definition
| Anything that will cause an obstruction into the biliary tree, such as gallstones in the bile ducts, carcinomas of the head of the pancreas, common bile duct, or of the gallbladder |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of hepatitis B & C? |
|
Definition
| Blood-borne/sexually-transmitted |
|
|
Term
| What is cirrhosis and what is the cause from? |
|
Definition
| Fibrotic tissue replacing normal tissue and it is caused from alcohol, drugs, hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the clinical features of cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
| Ascites, splenomegaly, anastomosis between portal and systemic circulation, such as hemorrhoids, esophageal varices, caput medusae |
|
|
Term
| Why is bleeding tendency causing reduced clotting factors and thrombocytopenia a problem with cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
| Because the liver produces the blood |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of esophageal varices and cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
| Hematomesis and exsanguination |
|
|
Term
| What causes spider nevi, Palmar erythema, gynecomastia, and testicular atrophy in people with cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes hepatic encephalopathy in people who have cirrhosis of the liver? |
|
Definition
| Increased levels of ammonia |
|
|
Term
| Name three hereditary liver diseases? |
|
Definition
| Hemochromatosis (excess iron), Wilson 's disease (excess of copper), alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 immune disorders that affect the liver? |
|
Definition
| Immune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis |
|
|
Term
| Who gets autoimmune hepatitis and what are their antibodies in serum? |
|
Definition
| Young women/anti-nuclear antibodies and anti-smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| Who gets primary biliary cirrhosis and what are their antibodies? |
|
Definition
| Middle aged women chronic jaundice and hypercholesterolemia and they have anti-mitochondrial antibodies |
|
|
Term
| Who gets primary sclerosing cholangitis, whats it associated with, what type of antibodies? |
|
Definition
| Men under 40, ulcerative colitis, no specific antibodies |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common causes of acute pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
| Alcohol, bile stones, unknown |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the complications of acute pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
| Pseudo cyst, shock, ascites, sterile peritonitis, abscess formation, fat necrosis, calcification, hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
| Insulinoma and gastronoma are tumors of? |
|
Definition
| Endocrine pancreas (islet cell tumors) |
|
|
Term
| What happens when somebody has an insulinoma? |
|
Definition
| They have too much insulin and become hypoglycemic |
|
|
Term
| What will somebody get if they have a gastrinoma? |
|
Definition
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (Jujenal ulcer)
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (Jujenal ulcer) |
|
|
Term
| What happens in type I diabetes? |
|
Definition
| Antibody production of beta islet cells, which causes hypoinsulinism |
|
|
Term
| Listed three causes of type II diabetes? |
|
Definition
| Normal insulin production but glucose is too great from over eating. The body makes enough insulin blood is not functional, tissues or not respond to insulin stimulation. |
|
|
Term
| Which diabetes is this: under 30, acute onset, normal body build, not hereditary, not common in twins, have anybody is to islet cells, loss of beta cells,low insulin level, must treat with insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four complications of diabetes mellitus: |
|
Definition
| cardiovascular(atherosclerosis), kidney (glomerulosclerosis), eye (retinopathy), nervous system (cerebrovascular disease, peripheral neuropathy) |
|
|
Term
| List two conditions from pituitary hypo function? |
|
Definition
| Pituitary dwarfism and Sheehan’s syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is Sheehans’s Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Acute postpartum pituitary insufficiency |
|
|
Term
| What is diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
| A disease of the posterior pituitary gland |
|
|
Term
| Name two types of diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is central diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
| The body produces enough ADH but the kidneys are not responding |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one symptom of diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Autoimmune disease causing hyperthyroidism. IgG connects to TSH receptor and constantly produces TSH producing T3 & T4 cells. (graves' disease is a form of hyperthyroidism that typ. develops in women who have autoantibodies to thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH receptor on the surface of their own follicular cells of the thyroid) |
|
|
Term
What features I describing: thin hair, exopthalmos, tachycardia,
Diarrhea, weight loss pre-tibial edema, hot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease in my describing? |
|
Definition
Loss of hair coarse and brittle, periorbital edema, bradycardia, constipation, edema of the extremities, cold?
Hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What is a developmental disorder causing hypothyroidism, due to aplasia of the thyroid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Hashimoto's disease? |
|
Definition
| Is autoimmune destruction of the thyroid by lymphocytes (hypothyroidism) |
|
|
Term
| Name three causes of Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, and exogenous cortisol(too much cortisol) |
|
|
Term
| is Cushing's disease or Cushing's syndrome related to the manifestations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of Cushing's disease? |
|
Definition
| A pituitary adenoma or a lung tumor tells the adrenals to produce ACTH causing adrenal hyperplasia, resulting in Cushing's disease. The adrenals are normal |
|
|
Term
| What are the features of somebody with Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Moon face, buffalo hump, obese, easy bruising, purple striae, trunkal obesity, facial hair |
|
|
Term
| What's more common Cushing's syndrome or Cushing's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two tumors of the adrenal medulla? |
|
Definition
| Neuroblastoma(seen in children and usually malignant), pheochromocytoma (seen in adults and mostly benign) |
|
|
Term
| When would a tumor of the adrenal medulla be suspected? |
|
Definition
| Somebody has acute uncontrollable hypertension |
|
|
Term
| What is found in the urine of somebody who has a tumor of the adrenal medulla? |
|
Definition
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