Term
|
Definition
a= the number of pregnancies
b= the number of term pregnancies >37 weeks
c= the number of preterm pregnancies (viability through 36 weeks)
d=the number of abortions (spontaneous or induced) and ectopic pregnancies
e=the number of living children |
|
|
Term
Common benign gynecologic disorder
Predominantly responds to ESTROGEN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside of the normal location
Abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Retrograde Menstruation
instead of the endo tissue only coming out of the vagina it tracks back into the uterous |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
, retrograde menstruation
(transport of menstrual fluid from the uterus through the tube during menstruation) |
|
|
Term
| Coelomic metaplasic- Meyer’s theory |
|
Definition
| that cells develop into functional endometrial tissue. (e.g. teenager before menarche) |
|
|
Term
| COMMON SYMPTOMS endometriousis |
|
Definition
Pelvic Pain: Progressive dysmenorrhea and deep dyspareunia is a common symptom
Abnormal uterine bleeding
Infertility |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| painful periods since menarche |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pain is caused at a later time (e.g. endometriosis) Dysmenorrhea is not always the result of endometriosis |
|
|
Term
| dysmenorrhea pain that doesn't get better with NSAIDS |
|
Definition
| may be endometriosis and may respond to OCPs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| feel like you have to go poo:) |
|
|
Term
| Rectal tenesmus and and dyspareunia are common and severe before and during menstruation if there is considerable involvement in the |
|
Definition
cul-de-sac and uterosacral ligaments.
not constant usually cyclic |
|
|
Term
| Differential Diagnosis with abdominal pain |
|
Definition
Chronic PID
Pelvic adhesions
GI dysfunction (e.g., Irritable bowel)
Ovarian cysts
Ectopic pregnancy
Adnexal torsion
Rupture of a corpus luteum cysts
Ovarian neoplasm/endometrial cancer
Uterine leiomyoma (e.g., fibroids)
Primary dysmenorrhea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
small, clear or white lesions; small dark red or brown; cysts filled with dark-red or brown hemosiderin laden fluid
endometriosis |
|
|
Term
| diagnosis for endometriosis |
|
Definition
The primary method of diagnosis is laparoscopy, with or without biopsy for histologic diagnosis
Using this standard, investigators have reported the annual incidence of surgically diagnosed endometriosis to be 1.6 cases per 1,000 women aged between 15 and 49 years |
|
|
Term
| most important goal for endometriosis tx? |
|
Definition
| to reduce the severity of symptoms and to retain or improve infertility |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Oral contraceptive
GnRH Agonists - Leupron
Danazol – “Androgen”
Causes pseudomenopause
Inhibits the secretion of estrogen & progesterone |
|
|
Term
| This drug is commonly used to treat endometriosis. It is a synthetic androgen (male sex hormone.) It disrupts the action of the pituitary gland by suppressing the output of some hormones which causes the reduction of estrogen, halts menses and promotes the growth of facial hair and acne |
|
Definition
| Danazol is considered a second line treatment |
|
|
Term
| Premature detachment of normally situated placenta after the 20th week of gestation |
|
Definition
| Abruptio placentae Adnexa |
|
|
Term
| Includes ovaries, fallopian tubes, upper portion of the broad ligament and mesosalpinx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Absence or suppression of menstruation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transabdominal puncture of the amniotic sac using a needle and syringe in order to remove amniotic fluid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Congestion and a bluish discoloration of the vagina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| period of transition from the reproductive to the non-reproductive years |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The examination of the vaginal/vulvar and cervical tissues by using a colposcope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Using freezing temperature to destroy tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A scraping, usually of the interior of a cavity or tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A bladder hernia that protrudes into the vagina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The act of stretching or enlarging an opening or the lumen of a hollow structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Difficult and/or painful menstruation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Occurrence of pain during sexual intercourse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coma and convulsive seizures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Implantation of the fertilized ovum outside of the uterine cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ectopic endometrium located in various sites throughout the pelvis or in the abdominal wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A herniation of the intestines through the vagina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any cystic lesion circumscribed by or situated within a conspicuous amount of fibrous connective tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The study of the diseases of the female reproductive organs, including the breasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The presence in one individual of both ovarian and testicular tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excessive growth of hair or the presence of hair in unusual places, especially in women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A fold of mucous membrane that partially covers the entrance of the vagina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An endoscope used in direct visual exam of the uterine cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Examination of the contents of the peritoneum with a laparoscope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The initial menstrual period |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intestinal discharge of the fetus that form the first stools in the newborn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Irregular or excessive menstrual bleeding and bleeding between menstrual periods |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A period of time that marks the permanent cessation of menstrual activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excessive bleeding at the time of a menstrual period (prolonged or profuse menses) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Irregular acyclic bleeding from the uterus between periods |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Subtract 3 from the month of the LNMP and add 7 to the first day of the LNMP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Removal of one or both ovaries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Appliances of varied form, introduced into the vagina to support the uterus or to correct any displacement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Placenta that is implanted in the lower uterine segment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A toxemia of pregnancy characterized by increasing HTN, HAs, albuminuria, and edema of the lower extremities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The period of 42 days following childbirth and expulsion of the placenta and membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Removal of the ovary and uterine tube |
|
|
Term
| Procedure in which the body of the uterus is removed near the level of the internal cervical as, leaving the cervis in place |
|
Definition
| Supracervical hysterectomy |
|
|
Term
| The beginning of breast development at puberty |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Removal of all the uterus |
|
Definition
| Total Hysterectomy (TAH or TVH) |
|
|
Term
| Pouch-like protrusion of the urethral wall in the female |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Painful spasm of the vagina preventing intercourse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, clitoris, vestibule, ducts of glands that open into the vestibule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Referred to as 4th stage of labor
Begins immediately after childbirth and lasts for approximately 6 weeks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bubbles
Postpartum Assessment |
|
Definition
B Breast
U Uterus
B Bowel
B Bladder
L Lochia
E Episiotomy
S Surgical Site
(for C-sections) |
|
|
Term
Colostrum
Thin, yellowish breast fluid
Precedes milk production
Breast milk production begins |
|
Definition
| about 2-4 days postpartum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Wear well-fitted bra 24 hours/day
Warm compresses before breastfeeding increases circulation
Massage the breasts with a gentle, downward motion
Gently expressing milk to empty breasts
Breastfeed frequently and on both breasts
Ice pack may be applied between feedings to help decrease milk production and provide relief
Careful not to diminish supply
Cabbage leaves
Careful not to diminish supply |
|
|
Term
| contraindications to breast feeding |
|
Definition
Breast cancer
Certain medications
radioactive drugs for some diagnostic tests
chemotherapy drugs for cancer
bromocriptine
ergotamine
lithium
methotrexate
street drugs (including marijuana, heroin, amphetamines)
tobacco |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Nonpharmacologic suppression
Tight-fitting Bra, Sports Bra &/or Binder 1-2 weeks
No stimulation
If engorged
Ice packs
Cabbage leaves |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Rapid reduction in size of the uterus and its return to a condition similar to its prepregnant state
Begins immediately after expulsion of the placenta |
|
|
Term
| Three physiologic processes involved in uterine involution |
|
Definition
Uterine contractions
Autolysis“Self-digestion”
Regeneration |
|
|
Term
| About 1 hour postpartum fundus should be? |
|
Definition
should be located at the level of the umbilicus
Measure in reference to umbilicus—fingerbreadths above or below |
|
|
Term
| Full bladder will deviate the fundus postpartum how? |
|
Definition
right or left fundal deviation
Inspect and palpate the bladder while checking the height of the fundus. |
|
|
Term
Postpartum
Endometial lining of the uterus separates into 2 layers
Upper layer becomes necrotic and sloughed off as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Traditionally, blood loss greater than ----- in the first 24 hours indicates postpartum hemorrhage |
|
Definition
500 mls from uterus after vaginal birth
and 1000ml after C-section |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bright red in color
Normal to have a few clots the size of a quarter or so
Occurs for the 1st 2-3 days after delivery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Begins on the 3rd or 4th day and continues until the 10th day
Color is pinkish to brownish tan; translucent
The amount of lochia discharge will begin to |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Begins about the 10th day after delivery and lasts for a week or two
Fewer blood cells
Color is creamy or yellowish |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Perineal Area |
|
Definition
REEDA
Redness
Edema
Ecchymosis
Discharge
Approximation of sutures |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Perineal Area |
|
Definition
REEDA
Redness
Edema
Ecchymosis
Discharge
Approximation of sutures |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Blood Pressure |
|
Definition
During labor, BP usually rises with a contraction
After delivery, BP indicates vascular stabilization and should remain unchanged from those during labor |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Blood Pressure |
|
Definition
During labor, BP usually rises with a contraction
After delivery, BP indicates vascular stabilization and should remain unchanged from those during labor |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Pulse |
|
Definition
| Rate usually decreases in immediate postpartum period |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Pulse |
|
Definition
| Rate usually decreases in immediate postpartum period |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Assessment
Respirations |
|
Definition
| RR should remain within normal range of 12-20/minute |
|
|
Term
| Late postpartum hemorrhage |
|
Definition
| is uterine blood loss in excess of 500mls that occurs during the remaining 6 week postpartum period but after the 1st 24 hours. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Uterine relaxation or atony
instead of contracting it relaxes and blood flows from vessels |
|
|
Term
| Other common causes of PPH |
|
Definition
Genital lacerations
Retained placenta (adherent and nonadherent)
Inversion of the uterus
Subinvolution of uterus |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Hemorrhage
Treatment and Management |
|
Definition
Attempt to determine source and cause of bleeding immediately
Regular uterine massage, expressing any clots
Examination and repair of possible bleeding sites per MD
IV oxytocin, Methergine, possible prostaglandins
Rapid administration of crystalloid solutions and/or blood or blood products to restore intravascular volume |
|
|
Term
Post partum Hematomas
Treatment and Interventions |
|
Definition
Keep clean and excellent perineal care
When infection occurs, ABX may be prescribed
Large hematomas may be surgically excised
Pain medication
Possible foley catheter to relieve pressure on urethra
Serial CBC’s
Possible transfusions
Ice packs
Assess uterine position |
|
|
Term
| Post partum coagulopathies |
|
Definition
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
TX:
Correction of underlying cause (tx for existing infection or preeclampsia or eclampsia, removal of a placental abruption)
Volume replacement
Blood component therapy |
|
|
Term
| painful inflammation of the vein occurring, rapidly provoking thrombus formation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| results from the formation of a blood clot or clots inside a blood vessel and is caused by thrombophlebitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Involvement of the superficial saphenous venous system
Most frequent form of postpartum thrombophlebitis
Pain and tenderness in the lower extremity
Warmth, redness, and an enlarged hardened vein over the site of the thrombosis |
|
Definition
| Superficial venous thrombosis |
|
|
Term
Thromboembolic Disease
More common in pregnancy
Unilateral leg pain usually
Calf tenderness, swelling
Redness and warmth
Positive Homan’s sign may be present
Apprehension, cough, tachycardia, hemoptysis, elevated temperature and pleuritic chest pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Medical Management
Superficial
Thromboembolic Disease |
|
Definition
| analgesia (NSAIDs), rest with elevation of affected leg, elastic stockings, local heat may also be used |
|
|
Term
Medical Management
Deep vein thrombosis— |
|
Definition
| initially treated with anticoagulant (usually continuous IV heparin), bedrest with affected leg elevated, and analgesia; after s/s decreased, IV heparin 3-5 days or until s/s resolve and then oral anticoagulant therapy started for about 3 months |
|
|
Term
| Medical Management Pulmonary embolism |
|
Definition
| Continuous IV heparin therapy until s/s resolved; Intermittent subcutaneous heparin or oral anticoagulant therapy continues for about 6 months |
|
|
Term
Postpartum Infection
Pathways for Pathogens |
|
Definition
Uterus
Cervix
Fallopian Tubes
Pelvic Peritoneum |
|
|
Term
| Most common postpartum infection |
|
Definition
Endometritis
Usually begins as a localized infection at the placental site, but can spread to involve the entire endometrium
Incidence higher after C-section |
|
|
Term
Almost always a unilateral infection of the breast.
*Infecting organism is generally hemolytic Staphylococcus aureus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Almost always a unilateral infection of the breast.
*Infecting organism is generally hemolytic Staphylococcus aureus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Antibiotic therapy
If abscesses present, I&D may be needed
Hospitalization may be necessary for IV ABX, cultures, I&D
Apply heat to breasts
Empty breast--manually or electric pump |
|
|
Term
More serious than “postpartum blues”
May cause intense mood swings, anxiety, guilt, and persistent sadness
Irritability
Prominent feature is rejection of the infant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Depressions, delusions, and thoughts by the mother of harming either the infant or herself
Prolonged crying
Expressed anger
Agitation
Hallucinations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Postpartum Psychosis
Interventions |
|
Definition
Psychiatric emergency
Mother may need psychiatric hospitalization
Attempt to identify risk factors
Refer for psychological or psychiatric treatment
Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers are treatments of choice |
|
|
Term
| The postpartum period is considered up to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When assessing the patient’s fundus, which statement is true?
A. Vigorously massage the abdomen to locate the fundus
B. Measure the height of the fundus in relationship to the symphysis
C. Use only one hand
D. Measure the height of the fundus in relationship to the umbilicus |
|
Definition
| D. Measure the height of the fundus in relationship to the umbilicus |
|
|
Term
. Which description best describes Lochia Alba?
A. Color is creamy or yellowish, fewer blood cells, begins about the 10th day after delivery, and lasts for a week or two
B. Dark red to brownish, occurs for the 1st 2-3 days after delivery
C. Begins on the 3rd or 4th day and continues until the 10th day |
|
Definition
| A. Color is creamy or yellowish, fewer blood cells, begins about the 10th day after delivery, and lasts for a week or two |
|
|
Term
Which is true about a normal patient’s vital signs after a normal delivery?
A. There is no need to obtain vital signs after a normal delivery.
B. Pulse should increase dramatically.
C. Respirations should be elevated around 30-40/min.
D. BP should remain unchanged from those during labor |
|
Definition
| D. BP should remain unchanged from those during labor |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is directly responsible for milk secretion?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. HCG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which intervention would you NOT perform if a patient complained of sore nipples?
A. Check to see if infant is latching on properly
B. Lanolin cream to nipples after each feeding
C. Wash nipples with soap and warm water after each feeding.
D. Have mother air dry her nipples after feedings |
|
Definition
| C. Wash nipples with soap and warm water after each feeding. |
|
|
Term
Which intervention would you NOT perform if a patient complained of sore nipples?
A. Check to see if infant is latching on properly
B. Lanolin cream to nipples after each feeding
C. Wash nipples with soap and warm water after each feeding.
D. Have mother air dry her nipples after feedings |
|
Definition
| C. Wash nipples with soap and warm water after each feeding. |
|
|
Term
What are treatment options for a patient with an episiotomy?
A. Perineal care inclusing sitz bath and heat lamps 3-4 times a day and PRN
B. Topical medications such as Dubicaine ointment
C. Ice packs to perineum for comfort
D. Pain medications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you do if your patient doesn’t want to breastfeed?
A. Educate her on lactation suppression measures including applying a bra &/or binder
B. Educate her to avoid stimulation to breasts
C. If engorgement occurs, apply ice packs and/or cabbage leaves
D. Teach her to use breast pump and discard breastmilk. |
|
Definition
A. Educate her on lactation suppression measures including applying a bra &/or binder
B. Educate her to avoid stimulation to breasts
C. If engorgement occurs, apply ice packs and/or cabbage leaves |
|
|
Term
When does normal involution of the uterus begin?
A. Immediately after delivery of infant
B. Immediately after expulsion of the placenta
C. After 24 hours after delivery
D. At 6 weeks postpartum |
|
Definition
| B. Immediately after expulsion of the placenta |
|
|
Term
When does normal involution of the uterus begin?
A. Immediately after delivery of infant
B. Immediately after expulsion of the placenta
C. After 24 hours after delivery
D. At 6 weeks postpartum |
|
Definition
| B. Immediately after expulsion of the placenta |
|
|
Term
. Your assessment of lochia include which of the following?
A. Amount-scant, small, moderate, and heavy
B. Color and character
C. Odor
D. Number of peripads used during period of time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the leading cause of postpartum hemmorhage?
A. Lacerations
B. Retained placenta
C. Inversion of the uterus
D. Uterine relaxation (atony) |
|
Definition
| D. Uterine relaxation (atony) |
|
|
Term
How is the diagnosis of a patient with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) made ?
A. If the patient exhibits seizure activity
B. If the patient has protein in their urine
C. According to clinical findings and labs (unusual bleeding, spontaneous bleeding from gums/nose, bleeding from injection sites, prolonged PT, normal or shortened PTT, decreased platelets, decreased fibinogen, increased FSP and D-Dimers) |
|
Definition
| C. According to clinical findings and labs (unusual bleeding, spontaneous bleeding from gums/nose, bleeding from injection sites, prolonged PT, normal or shortened PTT, decreased platelets, decreased fibinogen, increased FSP and D-Dimers) |
|
|
Term
Which describes blood loss that is greater than 500mls within the first 24 hours after delivery?
A. Early postpartum hemorrhage
B. Late postpartum hemorrhage |
|
Definition
| A. Early postpartum hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
What is painful inflammation of the vein occurring and rapidly provoking thrombus formation?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Thrombosis
C. Pulmonary embolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of thromboembolic disease is characterized by pain and tenderness in the lower extremity, warmth, redness, and an enlarged hardened vein over the site of the thrombosis?
A. Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Pulmonary embolism |
|
Definition
| Superficial venous thrombosis |
|
|
Term
| In women androgens are produces in the? |
|
Definition
| Adrenal Glands, ovaries, and adipose tissue |
|
|
Term
| weak androgen secreted principally by the adrenal glands and has a long half life |
|
Definition
| Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) |
|
|
Term
| Weak androgen secreted in equal amounts by the adrenal glands and ovaries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Potent androgen secreted by the adrenal glands and ovaries and produced in adipose tissue from the conversion of androstenedione |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infection of the endometrial lining vs infection extending well beyond the thin endometrial lining into the adjacent myometium. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fever and uterine tenderness
both aerobic and anaerobic organisms are commonly isolated. |
|
|
Term
| Post partum febrile morbidity? |
|
Definition
| temp of 38 C (100.4) or higher on any 2 of the first 10 days postpartum exclusive of the first 24 hours |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
infuse oxytocin,
Methegine (prostaglandin) |
|
|
Term
| Drug used by pregnant mother that has been shown to cause infertility problems or vaginal carcinoma in daughters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the follicular phase of the cycle the endometrial stoma ________and the endometrial glands become ___________ to form the proliferative endometrium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endocervix contains glands that secrete endocervical mucus. In the proliferative phase is when the glands secrete mucus. With ovulation the hormonal changes causes the mucus to become _________ and ________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vagina responds to estrogen how? |
|
Definition
| Estrogen stimulates vaginal thickening and maturation of the surface epithelial cells of the vaginal mucosa |
|
|
Term
| Hypothalamic regulating center responds to progesterone how? |
|
Definition
| shift basal body temp upward |
|
|
Term
| Blood tests can pick up hCG earlier in pregnancy than urine tests can. blood tests can tell if pregnant ______ days after you ovulate. Uring test can tell _______ weeks after ovulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Postcoital prevention Yuzpe? |
|
Definition
| Yuzpe: high estrogen and progesterone pill: 2 tablets taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, followed by another 2 tabs in 12 hours |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Progestin only regimen: behind the counter dispensing to woman over 18th with a prescription two tablets of levonorgestrel taken 12 hours apart |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Linear salpingostomy
salpingectomy
expectant management: no surgery and no medical tx |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mild dysplasia. A low grade lesion that demonstrates minimal to mild squamous limited to the lower epidermis. It is either non-neoplastic or an effect of HPV. It most often occurs in condylomata acuminata. |
|
|
Term
| VIN, usual type- VIN 2 and 3 |
|
Definition
| VIN 2(moderate dysplasia) and VIN 3 (severe dysplasia) are combined. These are high-grade, HPV related lesions distinguished only by degree of abnormality. Smoking or secondhand smoke is a common social history finding in patients with VIN. Patients commonly present with vulvar pruritus, chronic irritation, and a development of raised mass lesions on the vulva |
|
|
Term
| VIN, usual type, is subdivided into three categories: |
|
Definition
| 1) VIN, warty, 2) VIN, basaloid, and 3) VIN, mixed, depending on the features present. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the lesion is either a hyperkeratotic plaque, warty papule, or an ulcer, seen primarily in older women. It is often associated with keratinizing squamous cell carcinomas or lichen sclerosus, and is not HPV related. |
|
|
Term
| Tell why cervical cancer is the prototype "controllable" cancer and the means by which "control" has occured. |
|
Definition
a) an identifiable precursor lesion (CIN with a slow history of progression to cancer,
b) cheap and noninvasisve screening tests (PAP smear ) that may be augmented adjunctively with a colposcopy,
c) simple and effective treatment therapies such as cryotherapy, laser ablation, loop electrosurgical excision procedure, and cold knife cone biopsy, and
d) a vaccine that may significantly reduce a patient's risk. |
|
|
Term
| first pap smear at the time a woman becomes |
|
Definition
| sexually active or by the age of 18 and yearly thereafter. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| designed to provide an evaluation of the adequacy of the Pap smear and description of the cells. It divides epithelial lesions into two categories: squamous lesions or glandular lesion. in both categorie |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, which includes VAIN I, II, and III. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| VAIN I and II can be monitored and typically will not require therapy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ablation, local excision, 5-FU cream and total or partial vaginectomy. |
|
|
Term
| Vaginal cancer is usually of the squamous carcinoma cell type. The staging is nonsurgical. Radiation can used for SCC of the vagina. Radical hysterectomy combined with upper vaginectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy can used. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common symptom of endometrial neoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transvaginal ultrasound can detect a pregnancy
Transabd |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
|
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Term
| Positive urine pregnancy test detected |
|
Definition
| : 4 weeks after the 1st day of the LMP |
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Term
| pregnant 3 times but never given birth |
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Definition
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Term
| Unopposed estrogen w/ patient with uterus can cause |
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Definition
|
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Term
| is produced by ovary post menopaus |
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Definition
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Term
| Most common presentation of cervical cancer |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Ectopic pregnancy most common symptom |
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Definition
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Term
| Placenta that is implanted in the lower uterine segment |
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Definition
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Term
| First sign of decreasing ovarian function |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| Chadwick’s sign (congestion/bluish discoloration of vagina) |
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Term
| Abd pain, amenorrhea, and vaginal bleeding |
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Definition
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Term
| Most common way to diagnose endometriosis |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Outcome of each pregnancy |
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Term
| Liquid based (thin prep) pap tests can be done |
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Definition
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Term
| Liquid based (thin prep) pap tests can be done |
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Definition
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Term
| Typically amount of blood loss in a normal menstrual cycle |
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Definition
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Term
| During pregnancy, the risk for thromboembolism: |
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Definition
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Term
| Intrauterine preg is generally detectable by transvaginal u/s when the B-hCG concentrations are abt or greater than? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Endocervical polyps, leiomyomas, PID & cervicitis can be a cause of: |
|
Definition
| Abnormal uterine bleeding |
|
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Term
| Dysfunctional uterine bleeding describes a condition of: |
|
Definition
| Abnormal bleeding not caused by pelvic pathology, meds, preg |
|
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Term
| common cause of perinatal infection: bacteria |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Increase in which of the following hormones indicate ovarian failure? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| Classifying sexual dev. In both males and females |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| List the three indications for coming to the hospital given to guide the patient who suspects labor has begun |
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Definition
a. Contractions every 5 minutes for one hour
b. A sudden gush of fluid or constant leakage
c. Significant bleeding or decrease in fetal movement |
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Term
| Give the four "Leopold’s maneuvers |
|
Definition
a. Determining what occupies the fundus
b. Location of small parts
c. Identifying descent of the presenting part
d. Identifying the cephalic prominence. |
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Term
| Define the four stages of labor. |
|
Definition
a. First Stage - onset to full cervical dilation (10 cms) b. Second Stage - complete dilation to delivery of the infant
c. Third Stage - Delivery of infant to delivery of the placenta
d. Fourth Stage - immediate postpartum period of approximately 2
hours after delivery of the placenta. |
|
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Term
| List the eight cardinal movements of labor. |
|
Definition
a. engagement
b. descent
c. flexion
d. internal rotation
e. extension
f.external rotation
g. expulsion |
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Term
| Discuss the indications for and performance of an episiotomy |
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Definition
| Episiotomy should be performed after the descending fetal head has thinned the perineum. You can do a midline or mediolateral episiotomy. Episiotomy facilitates delivery and may be indicated in cases of instrumental delivery and/or protracted or arrested descent. |
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Term
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Definition
| used to facilitate delivery. One hand is placed over the vertex while the other exerts pressure through the perineum onto the fetal chin. The chin is delivered slowly with control applied by both hands.After delivery of the head, the shoulders descend and rotate to a position in the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvis. The hands (Attendant's) are placed on the chin and vertex, applying downward pressure to deliver the anterior shoulder. The posterior shoulder is then delivered by upward traction on the fetal head. |
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Term
| Tell how the fourth stage of labor is monitored and list the two most common postpartum complications. |
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Definition
| The first hour is when the serious complications are the greatest. Postpartum hemorrhage can occur. Monitered with perianal pads, blood pressure, pulse and frequent uterine palpation. |
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Term
| Apgar are taken at what intervals for what? |
|
Definition
1 and 5 minutes.
The 1 minute reading determines if the newborn requires particular attention.
The 5 minute is used to evaluate the effectiveness of any resuscitative efforts. |
|
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Term
| most accurate measurement available in the determination of gestational age. |
|
Definition
Obstetric ultrasound examination
the first trimester, transvaginal and transabdominal techniques allow gestational age determination with +1 to 2 weeks accuracy by using measurements of the gestational sac and embryo/fetus. In the second trimester, accuracy is still high, in the + 2 week range. In the latter portions of the third trimester, however, accuracy decreases to +2 to 3 weeks. |
|
|
Term
| most accurate measurement available in the determination of gestational age. |
|
Definition
Obstetric ultrasound examination
the first trimester, transvaginal and transabdominal techniques allow gestational age determination with +1 to 2 weeks accuracy by using measurements of the gestational sac and embryo/fetus. In the second trimester, accuracy is still high, in the + 2 week range. In the latter portions of the third trimester, however, accuracy decreases to +2 to 3 weeks. |
|
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Term
| frequency of and elements included in the antenatal visits to assess normal maternal and fetal well-being. |
|
Definition
normal pregnancy, periodic antepartum visits at 4-week intervals are usually scheduled until 32 weeks
2-week intervals between 32 and 36 weeks,
weekly thereafter. |
|
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Term
The only routine laboratory test performed at every prenatal visit is?
Maternal physical findings measured at each prenatal visit include?
Obstetric physical findings made at each visit include? |
|
Definition
determination of glucosuria and proteinuria.
blood pressure, weight, and assessment for edema
assessment of the uterine size by pelvic examination or fundal height measurement, documentation of the presence and rate of fetal heart tones, and determination of the presentation of the fetus. |
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|
Term
Fetal heart activity should be verified at every visit
What is normal? |
|
Definition
| normal fetal heart rate is 120 to 160 beats per minute (bpm.) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Contraction stress test (CST) |
|
Definition
contraction stress test (CST) measures the response of the fetal heart rate to the stress of a uterine contraction. With uterine contractions, utero placental blood flow is temporarily reduced. A healthy fetus is able to compensate for this intermittent decreased blood flow,
tocodynamometer is placed on the maternal abdomen along with a fetal heart rate transducer. If contractions are occurring spontaneously, the test is known as a contraction stress test; if oxytocin infusion is required to elicit contractions, the test is called an oxytocin challenge test (OCT).
The normal fetal heart rate response to contractions is for the baseline fetal heart rate to remain unchanged and for there to be no fetal heart rate decelerations. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
series of five assessments of fetal well-being,each of which is given a score of 0 or 2. The parameters and an adequate amount of amniotic fluid volume.include a reactive nonstress test, the presence of fetal movement of the body or limbs, the finding of fetal tone
A score of 8 to 10 is considered normal, |
|
|
Term
| Headaches are common in early pregnancy and may be severe. The etiology of such headaches is not known. Treatment |
|
Definition
| with acetaminophen in usual doses is recommended. |
|
|
Term
| he majority of pregnant women experience some degree of upper gastrointestinal symptoms in the first trimester of pregnancy. Treatment consists of |
|
Definition
| frequent small meals, avoidance of an empty stomach by ingesting crackers or other bland carbohydrates, and patience. |
|
|
Term
| Herpes Genitalis findings |
|
Definition
vesicular lesions often preceded by a prodromal phase of mild paresthesia and burning beginning 2 to 3 days after primary infection and resolves within 1 week; painful lesion with ulcerations and red border at 3 to 7 days, low grade fever, malaise, inguinal adenopathy in 40% patients.
most women will have atypical lesions-abrasions or fissures, or itching without lesions |
|
|
Term
| Herpes Genitalis Laboratory Data: |
|
Definition
Viral culture,
Wright's stain to see giant multinucleated cells with intranuclear inclusions,
PCR |
|
|
Term
Chlamydia Trachomatis Findings
Labs? |
|
Definition
subtle and nonspecific. Cervicitis, which is characterized by a mucopurulent discharge from the cervix and eversion or ectropion of the cervix that results in cervical bleeding, may be present.
culture, direct immunoflourensce, Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) |
|
|
Term
| Chlamydia Trachomatis –Management: |
|
Definition
| Zithromax, Doxycycline or Floxin. Patients with persistent symptoms should have a test of cure performed 3-4 weeks after treatment completion. Because Chlamydia is also frequently found in conjunction with gonorrhea infections, patients should be tested for both. |
|
|
Term
| Neisseria Gonorrhea Findings: |
|
Definition
| A gram negative intracellular diplococcus, which causes a malodorous, purulent discharge from the urethra, Skene's duct, cervix, vagina or anus. The discharge may be greenish or yellow discharge from the cervix. Infection of Bartholin’s gland is also frequently encountered. |
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Term
| Neisseria Gonorrhea-Laboratory Data: |
|
Definition
| Culture, NAAT (nucleic hybridization), male urethral speciments may be tested by Gram-stain in symptomatic men. Cultures should be obtained from the cervix, urethra, anus and pharynx. |
|
|
Term
| Neisseria Gonorrhea – Management: |
|
Definition
| Treatment with Rocephin, Ciprofloxacin, Cefixime. No quinolones should be used due to resistance. Patients should be concomitantly treated for Chlamydia. |
|
|
Term
| Human Papilloma Virus – condyloma acuminata Findings: |
|
Definition
soft, fleshy growths on the vulva, vagina and cervix, urethral meatus,
perineum and anus. The lesions may be single or multiple |
|
|
Term
| Human Papilloma Virus – condyloma acuminata Laboratory Data: |
|
Definition
| Diagnosis may be based on physical examination or by biopsy. |
|
|
Term
| Human Papilloma Virus – condyloma acuminata Management: |
|
Definition
| small lesions can be treated medically with an application of a 25% solution of podophyllin in mixture of benzoin or trichloroacetic acid. Lesions may be treated with surgical excision, laser vaporization, cryosurgery or electrodessication. 5FU is also a treatment option. |
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|
Term
Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum
Findings:Primary Stage: |
|
Definition
| About 10 to 60 days after infection, a painless ulcer appears which is called a chancre. The primary stage may be accompanied by adenopathy. |
|
|
Term
Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum
Findings:Primary Stage: |
|
Definition
| About 10 to 60 days after infection, a painless ulcer appears which is called a chancre. The primary stage may be accompanied by adenopathy. |
|
|
Term
Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum Findings:
Secondary syphilis: |
|
Definition
| Occurs 4-8 weeks after the lesion appears. The hallmark of the secondary stage is dissemination of the spirochetes in the blood and endarteritis. Symptoms consist of a low-grade fever, headache, malaise, sore throat, anorexia, generalized lymphadenopathy, and a diffuse, symmetric maculo-papular rash often seen over the palm and soles. Condylomata may also be seen in the 2nd stage. |
|
|
Term
| Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum Findings:Latent Stage: |
|
Definition
| After the manifestations of secondary syphilis regress spontaneously in untreated or inadequately treated individuals, latent infection persists. This infection can be detected only by serum serology. |
|
|
Term
| Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum Findings:Tertiary syphilis: |
|
Definition
| usually occurs more than 10 years after primary infection. Tissue damage is permanent with tertiary infection. Manifestations may be seen by cardiovascular lesions, neurologic lesions, and by “gummas” which is a type of granuloma that may be found in any part of the body (skin, musculoskeletal, and visceral organs). |
|
|
Term
| Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum Diagnosis: |
|
Definition
| confirmed by motile spirochetes on dark field microscopic examination; VDRL and RPR are non-specific tests for screening. FTA-ABS and microhemagglutination assay for antibodies to T. palladium tests are specific tests to confirm diagnosis. |
|
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Term
| Syphilis – Trepomema pallidum Management: |
|
Definition
| The treatment of choice is Benzathine Penicillin G. The patient should be followed by quantitative VDRL titers & examinations at 3, 6, and 12 months. |
|
|
Term
| how the diagnosis of PMS is made. |
|
Definition
| diagnosis is made based on the relationship of patient's symptoms to the luteal phase, by using a menstrual diary. |
|
|
Term
| Define the term "fibrocystic change |
|
Definition
| cyclic, bilateral pain and engorgement. |
|
|
Term
| three histological types of fibrocystic changes. |
|
Definition
a. Proliferation of stroma - upper outer quadrant leads to indurations and tenderness.
b. Adenosis - leads to cyst formation
c. Late stage - larger cysts with less pain |
|
|
Term
| diagnosis and management of fibrocystic changes. |
|
Definition
Diagnosis - Fine needle aspiration of cyst
Management - aspiration of cyst or open biopsy. Decreasing caffeine, or salt, taking Vitamin E, or HCTZ 25mg, 1 p.o. for 7 to 10 days before menses. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| firm, painless, freely movable breast masses approximately 2 to 3 cm. in diameter. Usually solitary. Do not change during the menstrual cycle and are usually slow growing. |
|
|
Term
| Lipomas/Fat Necrosis breast |
|
Definition
non-tender, diffuse character may raise suspicions of malignancy.
Fat Necrosis - uncommon, usually the result of trauma, and solitary, tender, ill-defined mass. |
|
|
Term
| current recommendations for mammography screening. |
|
Definition
| annually past 40 years of age. |
|
|
Term
| Breast cancer survival depends more on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| four modalities currently used to evaluate a breast mass |
|
Definition
Imaging - MMG -
Breast cyst aspiration
Fine-Needle Aspiration -
Open-Biopsy |
|
|
Term
| treatment modalities currently used for breast cancer. |
|
Definition
| surgical excision and adjunctive therapy (which may be hormonal, radiation or chemotherapy) |
|
|
Term
| Eighty percent of breast cancers are of what cell type |
|
Definition
| Infiltrating: Papillary carcinoma, Intraductal carcinoma, Colloid carcinoma and Medullary carcinoma. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mutated in families with early-onset breast cancer and ovarian cancer. As many as 85% of women with BRCA1 gene mutations will develop breast cancer in their lifetime. |
|
|
Term
| Which two projections are imaged on a screening mammography |
|
Definition
| Craniocaudad and mediolateral |
|
|
Term
| How does breast cancer spread? |
|
Definition
| By vascular and lymphatic routes |
|
|
Term
| Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM) |
|
Definition
| rupture of the chorioamniotic membrane before the onset of labor. |
|
|
Term
| tests used to diagnose PROM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define preterm labor (PTL) |
|
Definition
| presence of regular uterine contractions, occurring with a requency of 10 minutes or less that occur before 37 weeks gestation, with each contractions lasting at least 30 seconds. This uterine activity is accompanied by cervical effacement, cervical dilation, and/or descent of the fetus into the pelvis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| suppression of uterine contractions. |
|
|
Term
| Abruptio placenta - defined |
|
Definition
| premature separation of the normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall. There is usually abdominal discomfort and painful contractions. |
|
|
Term
| how to manage a patient with abruptio placenta. |
|
Definition
A. Electronic fetal monitoring is to be included in the initial management
because of the interference of oxygenation of the fetus. B. Patients may need to be transfused with whole blood. C. Ultrasound is of little benefit in diagnosing placental abruption,
except to exclude placenta previa as a cause for the hemorrhage. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the umbilical cord inserts into the membranes of the placenta (rather than in to the central mass of the placental tissue) and one such vessel lies below the presenting fetal part in the vicinity of the internal os or the passage of fetal blood vessels over the internals below the presenting part of the fetus. |
|
|
Term
| test used in diagnosis.vasa previa |
|
Definition
Kleihauer - Betke - (Apt test) - Distinguishes fetal blood from maternal blood on the basis of the marked resistance to pH changes in fetal red cells compared with the friable mature of adult red cells in the presence
of strong bases. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A patient who has not delivered by the completion of the forty-second week (294 days from the first day of the last normal menstrual period). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
"difficult labor or childbirth" - results when anatomic or functional abnormalities of the fetus, the maternal bony pelvis, the uterus and cervix and/or a combination of these interfere with the normal course
of labor and delivery. |
|
|
Term
| three categories of cause of fetal distress. |
|
Definition
Uteroplacental insufficiency: fails at providing oxygen and nutrient to the fetus while receiving carbondioxide and wastes.
Umbilical cord compression: via oligohydramnios, abnormal umbilical cord insertion, umbilical cord prolapse.
Fetal anomalies: sepsis, et. al congenital anomalies, prematurity,
postdatism |
|
|
Term
| baseline fetal tachycardia |
|
Definition
| Tachycardia: >160 bpm for 10 or more minutes, being classified as mild if the baseline is between 161 and 180 bpm and severe if more than 181 bpm. |
|
|
Term
| baseline fetal Bradycardia |
|
Definition
| less than 120 bpm for 10 or minutes and is classified as moderate between 80 and 100 bpm and severe at less than 80 bpm. Significance: may be associated with severe fetal compromise such as placental abruption. |
|
|
Term
| criteria which distinguish "physiologic anemia of pregnancy" from true anemia in pregnancy. |
|
Definition
blood changes significantly during the course of pregnancy
there is a 1000 mL increase in plasma volume and a 300 mL increase in red cell mass (a 3:1 ratio).
Hct demonstrates a "physiologic" decrease during pregnancy (the so- called physiologic anemia of pregnancy).
This decrease in hematocrit is not actually an anemia.
Anemia in pregnancy is generally defined a hematocrit less than 30% or a hemoglobin of less that 10 g/d |
|
|
Term
| two most common anemias in pregnancy; |
|
Definition
Iron-deficiency anemia: mcc accounting for 90%
Most RX prenatal vitamin/mineral preparations contain 60-65 mg of iron.
folate deficiency (or megaloblastic anemia) |
|
|
Term
Patients complain of urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and bladder discomfort. Occasionally, hematuria is also seen.
occurs in about 1% of pregnancies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| management of simple and recurrent pyelonephritis. |
|
Definition
| intravenous hydration and antibiotics, commonly a first-generation cephalosporin or ampicillin. Attention must be paid to the patient's response to therapy and her general condition; sepsis occurs in 2 to 3% of patients with pyelonephritis. |
|
|
Term
Peripartum cardiomyopathy
what is it
who is classic patient? |
|
Definition
rare but especially severe pregnancy-associated cardiac condition. It occurs in the last month of pregnancy or the first 6 months following delivery
classic patient at increased risk for peripartum cardiomyopathy is one who is black, multiparous, and over 30 years of age and who has a history of twins or preeclampsia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| refers to a new glucose intolerance identified during pregnancy. In most patients it is a reversible condition, although glucose intolerance in subsequent years occurs more frequently in this group of patients. |
|
|
Term
| The most commonly used screening test for glucose intolerance during pregnancy does not require the patient to be in a fasting state: 1 hr after consuming 50 g of glucose solution (Glucola), blood is drawn for plasma glucose determination. The currently recognized upper limit of normal for the 1-hr Glucola test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gestational diabetes may be suspected in patients with known risk factors. what r they? |
|
Definition
| history of giving birth to an infant weighing about >4000 g, a history of repeated spontaneous abortions, a history of unexplained stillbirth, a strong family history of diabetes, obesity, and/or persistent glucosuria. |
|
|
Term
management during pregnancy
Group B Streptococcus |
|
Definition
frequently obtaining cultures from patients in whom premature delivery is likely,
empiric treatment with penicillin or ampicillin is generally prescribed. |
|
|
Term
management during pregnancy
Syphilis |
|
Definition
Treatment consists of a single 2.4-million-unit i.m. benzathine penicillin injection for primary and secondary infection or latent disease of <1-year duration
latent disease of >1-year duration, three injections are given at weekly intervals.
penicillin is the only antibiotic that will cross the placenta in adequate amount to treat the fetus. |
|
|
Term
management during pregnancy
Gonorrhea |
|
Definition
Routine antepartum screening for Neisseria gonorrhea is universal
prophylactic treatment of the newborn's eyes with silver nitrate or tetracycline is very effective in preventing neonatal gonorrhea. |
|
|
Term
management during pregnancy
Genital Herpes |
|
Definition
Cesarean delivery is recommended if herpes lesions are identified on the cervix, in the vagina, or on the vulva at the time of labor or spontaneous rupture of membrane (SROM).
Acyclovir is used if symptoms are serious |
|
|
Term
| most common congenital infection in USA |
|
Definition
Cytomegalovirus affects 1% of births in the United States
There is no treatment for maternal or neonatal CMV infection. |
|
|
Term
management during pregnancy
Rubella: German or 3-day measles |
|
Definition
| no antiviral therapy is available. Maternal treatment is supportive. |
|
|
Term
management during pregnancy
AIDS |
|
Definition
The administration of zidovudine
(SDV or AZT) to the mother during the antepartum and intrapartum periods and to the infant postpartum has been associated with a decrease in the rate of transmission of HIV from mother to infant, |
|
|
Term
risk of deep venous thrombosis is probably increased in pregnancy
; how to treat |
|
Definition
heparin anticoagulation
Coumadin is reserved for the postpartum state, since it can be teratogenic in early pregnancy and may cause fetal bleeding in later
pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| recommended management for nausea/vomiting and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in pregnancy. |
|
Definition
Antiemetic: Metoclopramide (Reglan), Meclizine (Antivert), Promethazine (Phenergan)
none is completely effective and all carry risks. |
|
|
Term
50% of patients experience gastroesophageal reflux in the third trimester of pregnancy.
how to treat? |
|
Definition
| elevating the head of the patient's bed, small more frequent meals, and liberal use of antacids at bedtime and after meals. |
|
|
Term
| two most common causes of jaundice in pregnancy |
|
Definition
Hepatitis is the major cause of jaundice (bilirubin >4 mg/dL) during pregnancy.
Hepatitis B is the most common in pregnancy
Cholestasis of pregnancy (pruritis gravidarum) occurs in <0.1% of pregnancies and is the second most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy. |
|
|
Term
| abdominal trauma during pregnancy |
|
Definition
| most commonly associated with automobile accidents, falls, and interpersonal violence |
|
|
Term
| differentiate hypertension and preeclampsia in pregnancy |
|
Definition
Hypertensionin pregnancy is generally defined as a diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or greater, a systolic blood pressure at or above 140 mm Hg,
Preeclampsia is defined as the development of hypertension with proteinuria or edema (or both), induced by pregnancy, generally after 20 weeks gestation. |
|
|
Term
| The goal of management of hypertension in pregnancy |
|
Definition
| balance the management of both fetus and mother to optimize each outcome. |
|
|
Term
| mainstay of patients with mild preeclampsia and an immature fetus is |
|
Definition
| bed rest, preferably with as much of the time as possible spent in a lateral decubitus position. |
|
|
Term
| mainstay for the patient with worsening preeclampsia or the patient who has severe preeclampsia or eclampsia |
|
Definition
| stabilization with magnesium sulfate, antihypertensive therapy as indicated, monitoring for maternal and fetal well-being, and delivery by induction or cesarean section are required. |
|
|
Term
| Isoimmunization refers to |
|
Definition
the development of antibodies to red blood cell antigens following exposure to such antigens from another individual. In pregnancy, the "other individual" is the fetus, 50% of whose genetic makeup is derived from the father. If the mother is exposed to
fetal red cells during pregnancy or at delivery, she may develop antibodies to fetal cell antigens
Later in that pregnancy, or more
commonly with the subsequent pregnancy, the antibodies can cross the placenta and hemolyze fetal red cells, leading to fetal anemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| severe fetal anemia can leading to high output cardiac failure. |
|
|
Term
| management of the Rh isoimmunized fetus |
|
Definition
Amniotic fluid assessment is of great value in managing the isoimmunized patient
Assessment of the affected fetus by periodic ultrasonography can be very helpful in detecting severe signs of the hemolytic process, namely subcutaneous edema and ascites. |
|
|
Term
| Transfusion of Rh- red blood cells to the fetus is indicated when |
|
Definition
| the fetus is in significant jeopardy for hydrops or fetal death. |
|
|
Term
| ECC endocervical curettage |
|
Definition
| performed by using a small curette without cervical dilation. It is used to evaluate potential disease farther inside the cervical canal. |
|
|
Term
| Cervical conization or core biopsy of the cervix Indications: |
|
Definition
When a "two-step" discrepancy occurs between the directed biopsy of the cervix and the pap smear,
second reason may be an unsatisfactory colposcopy.
a positive ECC. |
|
|
Term
| The mainstay of treatment for invasive cervical carcinoma includes |
|
Definition
| surgical therapy and/or pelvic radiation. |
|
|
Term
| recommended follow-up for invasive cervical carcinoma. |
|
Definition
| patients should be monitored regularly, with thrice- yearly follow-up exams for the first 2 years and twice-yearly thereafter to year 5, with Pap tests annually and chest x-rays annually for up to 5 years. |
|
|
Term
| What is VAIN and how is it treated |
|
Definition
vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, which includes VAIN I, II, and III.
VAIN I and II can be monitored and typically will not require therapy. VAIN III treatment is ablation, local excision, 5-FU cream and total or partial vaginectomy. |
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|
