Term
| What are the 3 basic components of connective tissue? |
|
Definition
| Cells, protein fibers, and ground substance |
|
|
Term
| _______ canals connect osteons in bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An _______ is an osteoblast that has become encased in bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The embryonic precursor to osteoblasts and osteocytes is ____________. |
|
Definition
| Osteoprogenitor cells, which are a mesenchymal stem cell |
|
|
Term
| In _________ syndrome, the protein necessary for strengthening the connective tissue, fibrillin 1, does not work properly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In Marfan's syndrome, the protein necessary for strengthening the connective tissue, _______, does not work properly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a glycoprotein that forms the microfibrils that make up connective tissue. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| deleterious effects on smooth muscle development and the integrity of the extracellular matrix. Along with mutated fibrillin, excessive TGF-beta weakens tissues and can cause Marfan syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| Is marfan's syndrome genetic? |
|
Definition
| yes, it is autosomal dominant. |
|
|
Term
| ________ differentiates into connective tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erethrocytes, eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils, monocytes, platelets all arise from ___1____ and originate in the ___2___. |
|
Definition
1. myeloid stem cells
2. bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) T and B lymphocytes arise from myeloid stem cells. |
|
Definition
| False, they arise from Lymphoid stem cells. |
|
|
Term
| What type of connective tissue is the dermis of the skin, periosteum covering bone, perichondrium covering cartilage and some organ capsules? |
|
Definition
| dense irregular connective tissue |
|
|
Term
| What type of connective tissue is the walls of elastic arteries(such as aorta), trachea, vocal cords, and suspensory ligament of penis? |
|
Definition
| Elastic connective tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of dense connective tissue? |
|
Definition
| REgular, irregular, elastic |
|
|
Term
Dense connective tissue has __1__ fibers, and __2__ ground substance compared to loose connective tissue.
Options: more, less |
|
Definition
1. more fibers
2. less ground substance |
|
|
Term
loose connective tissue has __1__ fibers, and __2__ ground substance compared to dense connective tissue.
Options: more, less |
|
Definition
1. fewer fibers
2. more ground substance |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of loose connective tissue? |
|
Definition
| Areolar, adipose, reticular |
|
|
Term
| _______ connective tissue is located in the papillary layer of the dermis, subcutaneous layer, surrounds nerves and blood vessels and organs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ connective tissue is located in the subcutaneous layer, surrounds and covers some organs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ connective tissue is located in the spleen, lymph nodes, thymus, and bone marrow. IT is made of viscous ground substance, scattered reticular fibers, fibroblasts, and leukocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 main types of cartilage? |
|
Definition
| hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) cartilage is avascular |
|
Definition
| True, nutrients diffuse through the matrix. |
|
|
Term
| early states of arthritis is called _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ is the strongest form of cartilage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______ is a group of disorders in which the cartilage is ossified or transformed into bone.
A. Chrondrodystrophies
B. Arthritis
C. Achondroplasia
D. Chondroma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is the degredation of cartilage in joints.
A. Chrondrodystrophies
B. Arthritis
C. Achondroplasia
D. Chondroma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______ is a cartilage disorder resulting in dwarfism.
A. Chrondrodystrophies
B. Arthritis
C. Achondroplasia
D. Chondroma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ is a benign tumor that arises in the cartilage
A. Chrondrodystrophies
B. Arthritis
C. Achondroplasia
D. Chondroma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with _1__ genes and mutations involved in __2__ cell activation and cytokine secretion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In RA antibodies specific for ____ peptides migrate to joints and cause an inflammatory response. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is important in RA, it is located on an APC and is a HLA class 2 molecule that presents to CD4 cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunity molecules are targeted for releif in RA? |
|
Definition
| TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6, |
|
|
Term
| CD4+ T cells in the presence of high amounts of TGF-beta and other inflamatory cytokines, differentiate into ____ cells that produce IL-17, IL-21, IL-22 and TNF-alpha. They supress Treg cells and enhance inflamation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CD4+ cells can mature into ____ cells that provide help to CD8+ T cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ has 10 binding sites and is produced with a specificity for the Fc region of IgG. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Citrullination is a post translational modification of ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HLA-DR4 molecules preferentially bind _____ peptides. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ in RA activates monocytes/macrophages (inflamation), induces fibroblast proliferation (pannus formation), activated chondrocytes (breaks down cartilage), and activates osteoclasts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 23-year-old female presents with right hip pain for the past 3 weeks. Four weeks ago, she started an exercise program in which she runs 4 days per week. Physical examination reveals vital signs to be stable with full and non-painful active and passive range of motion of the knee and hip joints bilaterally. Reproducible pain to palpation is noted over the right greater trochanter. The cause of the patient’s right hip pain is most likely ______ in origin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first step in the process of determining a causative mutation for a particular phenotype is to |
|
Definition
| determine whether the occurrence of the phenotype reflects Mendelian inheritance. |
|
|
Term
| In genetics, _______ is a phenomenon in which the expression of one gene depends on the presence of one or more 'modifier genes'. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ occurs when one gene influences multiple traits |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is chronic arthritis occuring before 16 years of age with no identified cause. |
|
Definition
| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis |
|
|
Term
| _______ is a heterogenous group of inflamatory diseases that causes inflamation of attachments of tendons and ligaments to bones. Associated with MHC genes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ nodes are bony proliferations of the proximal interphalangeal joints. Leads to difficulty wearing rings. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ nodes are bony proliferations of the distal interphalangeal joints. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is osteoarthritis inflamatory or not? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 things are typically seen in osteoarthritis clinically? |
|
Definition
Age > 50
Crepitus
No palpable warmth |
|
|
Term
| ________ is a group of diseases that are seen in patients with chronic arthritis with inflamation but negative for rheumatoid factor. There is a genetic predisposition due to class I histocompatability antigen HLA-27. E.G. Ankylosing Spondylitis, Reiter Syndrome (Acute), Psoriatic arthritis, inflamatory bowel disease. |
|
Definition
| Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a form of arthritis that has a genetic predisposition due to class I histocompatibility antigen HLA-B27. Patient will present as bent over, back pain and lacking spinal mobility. More common in men. affects mostly the spine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In this disease, the skin grows too quickly causing skin lesions and you can develop arthritis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ is a form of arthritis associated with inflamatory bowel disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Morning joint stiffness lasting for an hour or more is a sign of _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ typically presents as chronic inflamation of the distal and proximal finger joints. Normal for inflamation lab rests and RA lab tests |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 lab tests used to look for RA? |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-cyclic citrullated peptide (Anti-CPP antibodies) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do monoclonal antibodies do? |
|
Definition
| bind to the ligand and receptor to inhibit the Kinase |
|
|
Term
| What do fusion proteins do? |
|
Definition
| bind to ligands and act as a false decoy receptor to inhibit the kinase. |
|
|
Term
| What are some risks for DMARDs? |
|
Definition
| increased risk for TB and fungal infections. |
|
|
Term
high doses of _______ inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). DHFR converts Dihydrofolate into tetrahydrofolate. This inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis, used for cancer.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low doses of ________ increases adenosine and is used in RA.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________ inhibits pyrimidine synthesis which inhibits T and B cell proliferation. Used in RA. Acts as a non-competitive inhibitor of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase.
|
|
Definition
| Terifluromidine or Leflunomide |
|
|
Term
What Cephalosporin would be used for MRSA?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Oral cephalosporins work against Ps. Aerug. and B frag. |
|
Definition
| False they do not work against it. |
|
|
Term
What cephalosporin would u use against MSSA?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Cephalosporin would be used for meningitis?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Cephalosporin would be used for lyme disease?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Cephalosporin would be used for gonorrhea?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Cephalosporin would be used for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Cephalosporin would be used for anaerobic Bacteroides fragilis?
A. Cefazolin
B.Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazimide/ cefepime
D. Cefoxitin
E. Ceftaroline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria does Daptomycin work on? |
|
Definition
Gr+
Pneumococci, GAS, MSSA, MRSA, Enterococci/VRE |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria does Linezolid work ok? |
|
Definition
Gr+
GAS, Pneumonococci, MSSA, MRSA, Enterococci/VRE
$150-250/day |
|
|
Term
| What medicine would be recommended for treating necrotizing fasciitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism Cephalosporins use to kill bacteria? |
|
Definition
| Beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism that Daptomycin uses to kill bacteria? |
|
Definition
| Alteration of cell wall permeability. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism that Linezolid uses to kill bacteria? |
|
Definition
| inhibition of protein metabolism. Prevents formation of a functional 70S initiation complex that is used in translation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism that Clindamycin uses to kill bacteria? |
|
Definition
| Inhibition of protein synthesis. Binds to 50S ribosomal subunits |
|
|
Term
| What nerve would be damaged in a surgical neck fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve would be damaged in a radial groove fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve would be damaged in a distal humerus fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve would be damaged in a medial epicondyle fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the arm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the arm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lies in the cubital fossa? |
|
Definition
Radial nerve
Biceps tendon
Brachial artery
Median nerve |
|
|
Term
| Cephalic vein empties into ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Basilic vein empties into _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What innervates te deltiod? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates Serratus anterior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In genetics, _______ is a phenomenon in which the expression of one gene depends on the presence of one or more 'modifier genes'. The presence of one allele masks that of another. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ occurs when one gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______ (one gene)- provides flexibility to various tissues. Consists mainly of gly, pro, and other hydrophobic residues. Lys-derived cross links are catalyzed by lysyl oxidase.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______ ( 2 genes)- Cysteine rich domains have homology to a domain found in the type 1 TGFβ receptor. Fibrillin may modulate TGFβ signaling by regulating the availability of TGFβ ligand. Fibrillin forms microfirbrils in the presence of Ca+2.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Elastin and fibrillin form ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
A ______ is a protein with a simple or elaborate sugar side chain attached to either serine or asparagine. Sugars provide structural complexity and serve as binding sites (signals) for other molecules.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
A _________ is a repeated array of disaccharide units that gets coupled to a protein or proteoglycan. Attracts water and swell to form a gel providing tissues resistance against compression.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
A ______ consists of a protein or glycoprotein core molecule that is associated with several GAGs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant
Mutation of FBN1, but mutation of FBN1 is not enough to diagnose marfan syndrome. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
super stretchy skin, rupture of large vessels
Defective fibrillar collagens types I, III, and V
Autosomal dominant |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal deposition of bone matrix w/ secondary osteoporosis due to defective assembly of type I collagen |
|
|
Term
| What inheretence type are connective tissue diseases typically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Autosomal dominant
most common cause of short limb dwarfism
mutation of glycine at position 380 to arginine leading to loss of FGFR3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ enzymes cut DNA at specific sites |
|
Definition
| Restriction endonucleases |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hybridization of probe to DNA to see what DNA sequences are present and if they are arranged normally. If some regions fail to hybridize while others do hybridize it means a deletion is likely. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| method based on the hybridization of complementary DNA to probes attached to the surface of a chip |
|
|
Term
Describe what OMIM is and how it is useful to clinicians
|
|
Definition
Database of single gene disorders. Gives info on these diseases.
|
|
|
Term
| In the early stages of osteosrthritis the cartilage undergoes _____, with the formation of ventrical clefts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During osteoarthritis, continued pressure will induce sclerosis of the subchondral plate, which is called ______ because the bone appears dense like ivory. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In osteoarthritis, bone degredation under stress leads to the formation of ______, which are filled with synovial fluid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During osteoarthritis , at the margins of the joint there is spurs of new bone known as _____ that form and project into adjacent connective tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does osteoarthritis most commonly affect? |
|
Definition
| spine, primarily the cervical or lumbar areas in the intervertebral joints. Leads to lipping. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| osteophyte formation in the spine |
|
|
Term
| In osteoarthritis, the nodular deformities of the DIP joints are called ___1___ where as those of the PIP joint are called ___2___. |
|
Definition
1. Herberden's nodules
2. Bouchard's nodules |
|
|
Term
| When osteoarthritis shows deformities of the toes, the most common joint involved is the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint which leads to the phormation of ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initially in RA, the inflamation begins as a _____ and leads to exudation of fluid and inflamatory cells into the joint cavity. The inflammatory infiltrates consists of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and neutrophils. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In RA the exuberant synovial fronds transform into granulation tissue. This is called ______. Like any granulation tissue, it is rich in inflamatory cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In RA joints become immobilized and the intraarticular space becomes completely obliterated as the pannus transforms into a collagenous scar, causing ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is pigmented Villonodular Synovitis? |
|
Definition
benign tumor of the synovial lining.
Different from RA in that it usually only affects one joint.
containt multinucleated giant cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is nodular tenosynovitis? |
|
Definition
| Variant of Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis that affects the tendon sheeth. |
|
|
Term
| ______ is fibrocartilage interposed between 2 synovial cavities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 3 most common ligaments involved in ankle sprains in order from most > least common |
|
Definition
ACP it is alphabetical order.
Anterior talofibular
Calcaneofibular
Posterior talofibular |
|
|
Term
| What ligament(s) are involved in a type I ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ligament(s) are involved in a type II ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
Anterior talofibular
Calcaneofibular |
|
|
Term
| What ligament(s) are involved in a type III ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
Anterior talofibular ligament
Calcaneofibular
Posterior talofibular |
|
|
Term
| What is commonly seen clinically with an inversion ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a 1st degree ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
| ligament completely intact |
|
|
Term
| What is a 2nd degree ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a 3rd degree ankle sprain? |
|
Definition
| complete rupture surgery usually required. |
|
|
Term
| When do you xray an ankle? |
|
Definition
Pain in malleolar zone
AND
have bone tenderness on tip of medial or lateral malleolus
or
Unable to bear weight for 4 steps |
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates brachioradialis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates pronator teres? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates Flexor carpi radialis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates Flexor Carpi Ulnaris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates Flexor digitorum superficialis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates flexor pollicis longus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates pronator quadratus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates extensor carpi radialis longus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates extensor carpi radialis bevis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates extensor digitorum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates extensor digiti minimi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates extensor carpi ulnaris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates supinator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates extenor indicis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 muscles make up the outcropping in the forearm? |
|
Definition
APL, EPL, EPB
These form the anatomical snuffbox |
|
|
Term
| The extensor hood leads to flexion of ____1___ joint(s) and extention of ___2___ Joint(s) |
|
Definition
1. metacarpophalangeal joint
2. Interphalangeal joints |
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates the 3 muscles of the thenar eminence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates the lateral 2 lumbricals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates all hand muscles except the thenar eminence muscles and the lateral 2 lumbricals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| building of biological molecules |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| breaking down of biological molecules |
|
|
Term
| ____ metabolism is the only source of uric acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excess purines from the ________ pathway are catabolized to uric acid in the liver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does allopurinol do to uric acid concentrations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does fructose do to uric acid concentrations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is purine biosynthesis inhibited by AMP and GMP? |
|
Definition
AMP and GMP signal that there is low energy so the body breaks down purines for energy.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between inosine and hypoxanthine? |
|
Definition
| inosine is the nucleoside that contains the base hypoxanthine. |
|
|
Term
Explain why IMP conversion to GMP is powered by ATP, whereas IMP conversion to AMP is powered by GTP.
|
|
Definition
Balance. Need balanced amouts of GTP and ATP. Too much of one leads to formation of the other.
|
|
|
Term
Most animals oxidize uric acid to allantoin which is remarkably soluble and easily excreted.
Why don’t humans finish the oxidation of purines all the way to allantoin?
|
|
Definition
lack Urate Oxidase
Uric acid acts as an antioxidant in our blood.
giving man made urate oxidase can be used to lower uric acid levels.
|
|
|
Term
What is the enzyme used to make PRPP?
What activates it?
What inacivates it? |
|
Definition
PRPP synthetase
Activated by Pi
Inhibited by: Purine ribonucleotides |
|
|
Term
Rank the following in terms of oxidation from Least to most oxidized:
xanthine, hypoxanthine, and uric acid |
|
Definition
hypoxanthine, xanthine, and uric acid (most oxidized) |
|
|
Term
Inosine is a:
A. Nucleotide
B. Nucleoside
C. Nitrogenous base |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hypoxanthine is a:
A. Nucleotide
B. Nucleoside
C. Nitrogenous base |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PRPP is made from what pathway? |
|
Definition
| pentose phosphate pathway |
|
|
Term
______ is the substrate upon which purines are built onto a ribose. Used in purine synthesis.
______ is the building block so high amounts signals the need for purine biosynthesis.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The key regulated step of purine biosynthesis is regulated by ________
|
|
Definition
| glutamine-phosphoribosylpyrophosphate aminotransferase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______ is when HGPRT is inactive. Leads to a decrease up of purines and build up of uric acid.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is von Gierke disease? |
|
Definition
| Excessive glucose storage in the glucose. |
|
|
Term
Explain how conditions of excess glucose in the liver such as von Gierke leads to hyperuricemia.
|
|
Definition
| Glucose -> Ribose-5-phosphate -> PRPP -> Purines -> uric acid |
|
|
Term
What pathway is this?
Ribose-5-phosphate -> PRPP |
|
Definition
| pentose phosphate pathway |
|
|
Term
| hyperurecemia is defined as blood levels greater than __ mg/dl |
|
Definition
| blood levels greater than 7 mg/dl |
|
|
Term
_____ (organ) are the most devastated by uric acid stones.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) all people with hyperuricemia have gout. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What population is most at risk for gout? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ gout is caused by either too much production or too little excretion. Usually too much production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ gout is related to another disease. Usually causes too little excretion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperuricemia leads to deposits of crystals in tissues. Most deposits are in the form of _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in the formation of gout? |
|
Definition
| uric acid released from the joint capsule usually from minor trauma. |
|
|
Term
uric acid released from the joint capsule usually from minor trauma.
What happens next? |
|
Definition
| Crystalization in the joint usually at sites of lower temperatures. |
|
|
Term
| What does the crystalization of the uric acid do to the joint? |
|
Definition
| inflamation, activation of Compliment and Kallikrein systems, recruits leukocytes |
|
|
Term
| In addition to joint involvement, gout ofen presents with subcutaneous deposits of uric acid known as _____, most common on the ears, extensor sites of the arms, over the olecranon, and over the patella. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| accumulation of Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate (CPPD) in synovial membranes. |
|
|
Term
| When CPPD deposits in the joint cartilage, ligaments, or tendons it is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how is receptor potential generated? |
|
Definition
| Transient receptor potential (TRP) channels open and let in positively charged ions (Cations) |
|
|
Term
______ nociceptor: sensitive to capsacin.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ nociceptors: found on A-delta fibers, mainly activated by high temperatures.
Thermal: (>45 deg C or <-5 deg C), small diameter, thinly myelinated A-delta (Aδ) fibers, 5-30 m/s (fast)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
______ nociceptors: sensitive to loTRPV1: sensitive to capsaicin and noxious thermal stimuli. Currents are also affected by reductions in pH (chemical environment of inflammation) and w temperatures and menthol
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mechanical nociceptors involve _____ fibers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Polymodal nociceptors: high-intensity mechanical, chemical, or thermal (both hot and cold stimuli), small diameter, nonmyelinated ___ fibers, slow (< 1.0 m/s).
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A-Delta fibers are ____
C-fibers are ____
Options: fast or slow, dull or sharp pains |
|
Definition
A are fast due to myelination, shap pains
C are slow, dull aching pains |
|
|
Term
| ______ and _____ can sensitize nociceptors. |
|
Definition
| prostaglandins and bradykinin |
|
|
Term
| What does substance P do in relation to pain sensation? |
|
Definition
| causes neurologic inflamation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
increased pain in response to a noxious stimulus.
Caused by bradykinin, histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, serotonin and substance P |
|
|
Term
| What causes referred pain? |
|
Definition
| Convergence of fibers in the dorsal horn leads to an incorrect localization of pain. |
|
|
Term
| Describe gate control theory of pain |
|
Definition
With only C fibers firing there is strong activation and strong pain
With Aβ anf C fibers Both firing there is reduced activation and reduced pain. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 steps in treating gout? |
|
Definition
1. treating the acute attack
2. Providing prophylaxis to prevent acute flares
3. lowering excess stores or urate to prevent flares of gouty arthritis and to prevent deposition of urate crystals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| halts cell division by interfering with microtubules. Prevents activation of neutrophils and mediates gout symptoms. |
|
|
Term
| What does allopurinol do? |
|
Definition
inactivates Xanthine oxidase that converts hypoxanthine-> xanthine and xanthine -> uric acid
allopurinol gets converted to oxypurinol that is long lasting. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inactivates Xanthine oxidase that converts hypoxanthine-> xanthine and xanthine -> uric acid
more short term that allopurinol |
|
|
Term
| How does probenicid work? |
|
Definition
| Blocks URAT1 in the kidneys from reabsorbing uric acid. Causes more to be excreted. |
|
|
Term
| What does rasburicase (uricase) do? |
|
Definition
converts uric acid to allantoin.
used in children with leukemia and other cancers receiving cancer therapy. |
|
|
Term
| What does pegloticase do? |
|
Definition
Converts uric acid to allantoin
used for chronic gout in adult patients refractory to conventional therapy |
|
|
Term
| What 2 drugs interact with xanthine oxidase to treat gout? |
|
Definition
| Febuxostat and allopurinol |
|
|
Term
| What is a grade 1 ligament sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a grade 2 ligament sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a grade 3 ligament sprain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In closed chain roll and glide the tibia and femur roll in ______ (Same or opposite) direction and the ______ (femur or tibia) is fixed |
|
Definition
opposite direction
Fixed tibia |
|
|
Term
| In open chain roll and glide the tibia and femur roll in ______ (Same or opposite) direction and the ______ (femur or tibia) is fixed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 tests are used to test the ACL? |
|
Definition
Anterior Drawer
Lachman's |
|
|
Term
| What 2 tests are used to test the PCL? |
|
Definition
Posterior Drawer
Sag Sign |
|
|
Term
| What 2 tests are used to look for a medial meniscus injury? |
|
Definition
Apley's test
McMurray's Test |
|
|
Term
| What injuries make up the unhappy triad? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a bump on the back of the knee indicitive of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the action of subscapularis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most of the forearm extensors originate from the _________ tendon. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gout involving the big toe |
|
|
Term
| A virchow's node, a lump supraclavicular on the left side is usually indicitive of ______ in men. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A virchow's node, a lump supraclavicular on the left side is usually indicitive of ______ in women. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| complete physical examination of the head and neck by pharyngoscopy, laryngoscopy, or upper GI endoscopy |
|
|
Term
| What type of masses is ultrasonography useful for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Prune-Belly syndrome and how do u diagnose it? |
|
Definition
3 symptoms: lack of ab muscles, undescended testes, urinary tract abnormalities
Use ultrasound to look for these symptoms. |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat an inguinal hernia? |
|
Definition
| Tuss/support or surgical repair |
|
|
Term
What is a Diastasis Recti?
how do you treat it? |
|
Definition
bulge in midline of abdomen with no associated fascial defect.
No repair needed. |
|
|
Term
| Where is a Grynfeltt-Lesshaft hernia located? |
|
Definition
Superior lumbar triangle
Defined by Quadratus lumborum, 12th rib, and internal oblique muscle. |
|
|
Term
| Where is a Petit's hernia located? |
|
Definition
Inferior lumbar triangle
Defined by latissamis dorsi, external oblique, and illiac crest. |
|
|
Term
| What is a ventral hernia? |
|
Definition
| Any hernia occuring on the ventral abdomen |
|
|
Term
| What is a Spigelian hernia? |
|
Definition
| Special type of ventral hernia occuring at the semi-lunar line and lateral to the rectus musculature, at or below the level of the umbilicus. |
|
|
Term
| how do you diagnose a sarcome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a rectus sheath hematoma?
how do you diagnose and treat? |
|
Definition
punched in abs and then bleed into the rectus sheath.
diagnosed with imaging (CT), and treat with an abdominal binder and bed rest. |
|
|
Term
What is a Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor?
|
|
Definition
Tumor of the GI tract derived from mesenchymal tissue.
related to the c-kit pathway gene |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose and treat endometriosis? |
|
Definition
abd pain, lump in a scar, mass in an abdomen muscle
Treatment: Hormonal manipulation or surgical excision. |
|
|
Term
What is a Leiomyoma?
how is it treated? |
|
Definition
Cancer in the wall of the uterus.
Treatment: Ablation, hysterectomy, embolization, myomectomy, hormonal control |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat Psoas Muscle Abscess |
|
Definition
|
|
