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New MQF
Flight Engineer MQF C-130
250
Aviation
Professional
11/21/2013
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Term
1. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a________.
 Definition
B. Caution
Term
2. Normal operation of the NTS system does not commit the propeller to feather. However, a malfunctioning NTS system may completely feather the propeller or cause the engine to:
 Definition
D. Stall/flameout
Term
3. The hydromechanical fuel control senses ________ , and varies fuel flow accordingly.
 Definition
C. Engine inlet air temperature and pressure, RPM, and throttle position
Term
4. In most cases degradation of an individual thermocouple assembly would affect each circuit equally. The indicating signal will be lower (_________ ° C) than the actual temperature experienced by each thermocouple sensing element.
 Definition
B. 3 ½ to 22
Term
5. The Temperature Datum Control Valve switches lock a fuel correction only when they are positioned at LOCKED/LKD while the:
 Definition
D. Throttle is in the temperature controlling range and the fuel correction lights are out
Term
6. The engine low oil quantity warning light illuminates when an oil tank quantity level drops to approximately:
 Definition
B. 4 gallons
Term
7. The PROPELLER LOW OIL WARNING light and the PROP LOW OIL QUANTITY light will illuminate when the oil quantity for any propeller drops approximately ________ below normal in the pressurized sump.
 Definition
B. 2 quarts
Term
8. Early stage thermocouple decay may be difficult to identify, due to:
 Definition
D. No change in TIT and minimal increase in fuel flow and torque
Term
9. During the landing approach, ________before the throttles are retarded should give more equal power distribution on all engines.
 Definition
B. Locking the TD valve
Term
10. In case of power failure, the crossfeed valves:
 Definition
B. Hold the last energized position
Term
11. The fuel low pressure warning light is turned on when fuel supply pressure at the point where fuel enters the engine pump falls below approximately ________ PSI.
 Definition
A. 8.5
Term
12. When operating with less than 6,000 pounds of total fuel in the main fuel tanks:
 Definition
D. All the above
Term
13. The 28 volt external DC source should have a capacity of ________ amperes.
 Definition
D. 400
Term
14. The battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the _______ when external DC power is being used.
 Definition
A. Battery bus
Term
15. The engine hydraulic pump pressure warning light will illuminate whenever the pump output pressure drops below approximately 1,000 PSI or:
 Definition
C. Engine pump switch is placed in the OFF position
Term
16. The ADS control panel ramp and door control switch must be set to OFF, and the ramp manual control knob, above the ramp control panel, must be set at the ________ position before operating the pump switch on the ramp control panel.
 Definition
D. 6N (neutral)
Term
17. Prior to raising the ramp, ensure that:
 Definition
D. All ramp locks are retracted and the ramp seal area is clear
Term
18. If an individual landing gear position indicator becomes inoperative because of a faulty grounding circuit, the warning horn and warning light will indicate the position of:
 Definition
B. The other two gear only
Term
19. After any full anti-skid braking operation above 130,000 pounds (aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps-up landing, etc.), the approximate ground cooling time is ________ minutes.
 Definition
D. 65
Term
20. Elevator trim tab travel is controlled by limit switches set at ________ degrees nose down and ________ degrees nose up.
 Definition
A. 6/25
Term
21. The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flap lever is retracted above ________ %.
 Definition
C. 70
Term
22. When the flight station air conditioning is on, the bleed air pressure indicator reads ________ than the actual pressure in the cross wing manifold.
 Definition
C. 6 PSI lower
Term
23. Cabin differential pressure will be zero for landing. If the differential pressure is less than ________ Hg, no discomfort will be experienced if the air conditioning master switch is turned to a nonpressure position.
 Definition
D. 0.5
Term
24. When the leading edge temperature reaches approximately ________ the overheat warning light for that area is energized and the light illuminates.
 Definition
B. 200 degrees F
Term
25. In any airplane configuration that could limit the normal climb capability of the airplane (such as engine out, ramp door open, etc) or operational situation where an RA maneuver is prohibited, the TCAS should be placed in:
 Definition
D. Either A or C
Term
26. Ensure that the secure voice system mode switch is in the ________ position to provide normal operation (plain text) of the UHF radio when secure voice is not to be used.
 Definition
B. P
Term
27. The electrical control system of the ramp and door is inactivated when the:
 Definition
C. Anchor line support arms are not in the UP position
Term
28. The LAPES/CDS switches must remain _________ in the NORMAL/OFF (guarded) position except when required to be in ARM for operational check or mission requirements.
 Definition
D. Safetied
Term
29. When 100 percent oxygen is being supplied, _________ oxygen is consumed per person as altitude ________.
 Definition
B. Less/increases
Term
30. The AERP system ________ protect the user against ammonia fumes or carbon monoxide gas and _______ be used without an oxygen source in an oxygen deficient atmosphere.
 Definition
C. Will not, shall not
Term
31. Do not enter/exit from the ________ side of the nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.
 Definition
D. Right
Term
32. The CVR is operational anytime the ________ bus is powered by any source other than external power.
 Definition
B. Essential AC
Term
33. The high pressure of the Halon fire extinguisher can spread a class ________ fire.
 Definition
A. A
Term
34. With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center overhead escape hatch using the ________ side of the ladder.
 Definition
B. Left
Term
35. In emergencies, MIL-L-7808 and MIL-L-23699 may be mixed. The amount of emergency oil added should not exceed ________ tank capacity.
 Definition
C. One-half
Term
36. During the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION and before any electrical power is applied to the airplane, the engineer will:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
37. While accomplishing the POWER ON INSPECTION, if a light in the overheat test panel fails to illuminate during testing, bleed air systems:
 Definition
B. Should not be pressurized until proper inspection and repairs have been made
Term
38. During the POWER ON INSPECTION, movement of the flaps is essential at this time to enable detection of ________ or malfunctions during the walk-around inspection.
 Definition
C. Hydraulic leaks
Term
39. Do not ________ or open the ground test valve if ramp hydraulic actuators are preloaded or cargo loading operations are in progress.
 Definition
D. Deplete hydraulic pressure
Term
40. Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of a(n) ________ failure.
 Definition
C. Emergency brake selector valve
Term
41. During EXTERIOR INSPECTION, if not previously checked by maintenance, a work stand/ladder will be required to check:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
42. Normally, the quick don oxygen mask system is the _______ use equipment.
 Definition
C. Primary
Term
43. After moving the condition lever to ground stop, do not move the lever from this position until ________.
 Definition
D. Engine rotation has stopped
Term
44. During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is ________ seconds.
 Definition
A. 70
Term
45. The throttles must not be moved out of the ________ detent during engine starting.
 Definition
A. GROUND IDLE
Term
46. If there is no positive indication of oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by _________ % RPM, immediately discontinue the start.
 Definition
B. 35
Term
47. A positive hydraulic pressure indication must be noted by the time the engine is _______. Normal operating pressure should be indicated within ________ after on speed.
 Definition
A. On speed/30 seconds
Term
48. If start TIT is less than _________degrees C, record in AFTO Form 781. Maintenance action is required prior to flight.
 Definition
C. 720
Term
49. If auxiliary feather motor operation is not indicated for a propeller:
 Definition
C. The malfunction will be corrected prior to flight
Term
50. When down-shifting from normal to low-speed ground idle, the engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to GROUND STOP if the temperature exceeds ________ degrees C or a stall occurs.
 Definition
C. 850
Term
51. If a stop, sudden or severe braking application has occurred during turns:
 Definition
B. Record in Form 781A
Term
52. The use of brakes during reverse taxiing should be ________ to prevent the airplane from setting on the tail.
 Definition
B. Avoided
Term
53. Do not hold the ice detector TEST switch in the No. 2 or No. 3 position longer than five seconds. The test cycle may be repeated once, but then wait ________ minutes for the ice detector to cool before performing this test again.
 Definition
A. Five
Term
54. With engines running, never operate the propeller anti-icing or de-icing system for more than ________ cycles while the airplane is on the ground.
 Definition
D. Two
Term
55. If the BLADE DE-ICING ammeter falls below________, do not fly into icing conditions.
 Definition
C. 65 amperes
Term
56. Observe engine torque and TIT when placing each ________ switch in the ON position when accomplishing the Before Takeoff checklist.
 Definition
A. ENGINE INLET AIR DUCT ANTI-ICING
Term
57. Main tank boost pump switches ________ be turned off in-flight unless directed by a specific procedure in the flight manual.
 Definition
D. Will not
Term
58. Above crossover, if the engine instruments are not similar in ________, with throttles aligned, a propulsion system malfunction may exist.
 Definition
D. Fuel flow, TIT, or torque
Term
59. If indicated torque exceeds 19,600 inch pounds:
 Definition
C. An entry in the FORM 781A is required noting the highest torque value observed and describing the runway and/or flight conditions
Term
60. Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the ________, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque.
 Definition
B. Torque meters
Term
61. The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is:
 Definition
C. Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots
Term
62. For GCAS ESCAPE MANEUVERS; Crewmembers will back up the pilot who is performing the escape maneuver. The __________ and ____________ will confirm escape maneuver is being properly flown.
 Definition
D. Engineer, pilot monitoring
Term
63. For GCAS ESCAPE during IMC Departure/Approach. Immediately and simultaneously rotate the airplane to at least 7° pitch-up, roll wings level and add maximum power to alter the airplanes flight path until _______________.
 Definition
A. The warning has ceased and adequate terrain clearance is verified
Term
64. New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes 5,000 pounds or more, outside temperature changes ________ degrees C or more, or pressure altitude changes 1,000 feet or more.
 Definition
D. 5
Term
65. Higher than normal ________ system pressure may be encountered in-flight.
 Definition
B. Emergency brake
Term
66. At high airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in:
 Definition
A. Pitchlock
Term
67. The two common types of wind shear phenomena found on final approach are:
 Definition
A. Decreasing headwind, increasing headwind
Term
68. If severe wind shear is encountered on final and a recovery is flown, the navigator/engineer will monitor and call out ___________________.
 Definition
C. Radar Altimeter
Term
69. The only sound response when severe wind shear is encountered during an approach is an immediate decision to _______________
 Definition
A. Execute a go around
Term
70. During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately:
 Definition
B. Return all throttles to GROUND IDLE
Term
71. The nose gear must be on the ground prior to _________.
 Definition
B. Reversing
Term
72. When moving the flaps at low airspeed, an asymmetrical flap may go undetected until near or above ___________.
 Definition
D. Takeoff speed
Term
73. If a go-around is accomplished, retracting flaps from 100 to 50 percent will:
 Definition
D. Increase stall speed
Term
74. The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for:
 Definition
B. Zero fuel flow and TIT and RPM decrease
Term
75. If NTS advisory lights do not illuminate when shutting down engines from low-speed ground idle:
 Definition
B. A recheck of the NTS system must be made before the next flight
Term
76. Regardless of specific emergency encountered:
 Definition
D. All the ab
Term
77. When pulling the condition lever to FEATHER, pull it all the way to the detent to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off. If the lever is left at a mid-position, and NTS is inoperative, a(n)
 Definition
C. Engine decoupling is possible
Term
78. If on crossfeed during the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE, ________ before shutting off the fuel boost pump and closing the crossfeed valve for the affected engine.
 Definition
C. Ensure source of fuel to operate engines
Term
79. If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means then:
 Definition
D. All the above
Term
80. If either the left or right wheel well overheat light illuminates after takeoff and the condition persists after isolation procedures have been accomplished, it may be indicative of:
 Definition
B. Overheated brakes
Term
81. The correct procedure for high TIT on the ground is:
 Definition
C. Retard the throttle toward GROUND IDLE, and place the temp datum control valve switch to the NULL position. If this fails to eliminate the over temperature condition, place condition lever to GROUND STOP
Term
82. If a tailpipe fire occurs in-flight, follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If the fire persists:
 Definition
C. The airplane should be accelerated as rapidly as possible, not exceeding maximum airspeed
Term
83. If a turbine overheat occurs in-flight:
 Definition
A. Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE. If the condition persists, proceed with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE
Term
84. During GROUND EVACUATION; if pyrotechnics are loaded on the airplane, evacuate a minimum of ______ feet from the airplane.
 Definition
D. 600
Term
85. If parking brake handle does not properly retract and requires additional force to fully seat:
 Definition
D. Document in Form 781
Term
86. If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while throttle is in:
 Definition
A. FLIGHT IDLE
Term
87. For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to ________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration.
 Definition
B. Turn toward
Term
88. For a takeoff continued after engine failure, flap retraction should be accomplished in ______ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately ________ knots between retraction increments.
 Definition
C. 10, 5
Term
89. In all combinations of two engine failures, monitor ________ to keep it within the range of available output.
 Definition
D. Generator loading
Term
90. Two-engine operation above ________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal.
 Definition
C. 120,000
Term
91. If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ________ is reached.
 Definition
B. Two-engine inoperative air minimum control speed
Term
92. During pitchlocked propeller operation, the engine should be shutdown when:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
93. If a propeller fails to feather in flight, it is critical to restore oil to the ________ of the windmilling propeller as soon as possible.
 Definition
C. Reduction gearbox
Term
94. For PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE; if the propeller does counter-rotate, and the procedures are ineffective:
 Definition
B. Land as soon as practical
Term
95. If throttle control cable failure is suspected, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause:
 Definition
D. The propeller to go into reverse pitch or to full power
Term
96. Any time an IGNITION CONTROL circuit breaker is pulled on an inboard engine, the ________ for that engine is inoperative.
 Definition
D. Ice detection system
Term
97. A sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by:
 Definition
D. All the above
Term
98. In case of loss of oil pressure:
 Definition
B. Shut down the engine in accordance with the Engine Shutdown Procedure
Term
99. A negative G condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately ________ later due to oil pump cavitation.
 Definition
C. 30 to 90 seconds
Term
100. If a Tachometer Generator Failure occurs on the engine selected as the master engine, first:
 Definition
B. Place the synchrophaser master switch to OFF/other master
Term
101. When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative fuel boost pump,
avoid:
 Definition
C. Rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes
Term
102. Do not select ________ unless the crossfeed system is pressurized by operating
fuel boost pumps in other tanks.
 Definition
A. Crossfeed
Term
103. After confirmed fuel pump failure, fuel boost pump circuit breakers may be reset and
the pump operated only:
 Definition
B. To prevent fuel starvation when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of available fuel
Term
104. Prior to performing any procedure which involves removing all AC power:
 Definition
C. Configure the fuel system for tank to engine operation
Term
105. Failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC bus will be
indicated by:
 Definition
D. Illumination of the ISOL DC ON BATT/BAT DSCH light and/or a battery
voltmeter indication of 24 volts or less
Term
106. If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the
FUSELAGE FIRE/SMOKE AND FUME ELEMINATION procedure should:
 Definition
C. Not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated
Term
107. Smoke developed in the cargo compartment ________ move forward into the flight
station. The hatch ________ be opened to effectively eliminate smoke and fumes during all
elimination emergencies.
 Definition
B. Will/must
Term
108. If an in-flight door warning occurs and it cannot be determined what caused the door
light to illuminate, the flight ________ at the discretion of the pilot (below the point where
the light illuminates and with all personnel secured with safety belts).
 Definition
B. May be continued with partial pressurization
Term
109. If the inner and outer panes of a flight deck windshield should crack in-flight, reduce
the cabin pressure to ___________.
 Definition
D. 10 inches or less
Term
110. In the event that utility or boost hydraulic pressure in excess of 3,450 psi is indicated:
 Definition
B. Do not turn off the individual hydraulic pump switches
Term
111. If elevator control should fail (hydraulic assistance is lost), achieve approximately level
flight and ________ KIAS and land with 50% flaps recommended.
 Definition
C. 170
Term
112. If movement of the flaps, after an outboard flap failure, must be attempted, return them
in increments of ________ toward the position last selected before failure. During flap
movement, check aileron control ________.
 Definition
D. 10 percent/constantly
Term
113. Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during ________ hydraulic
flap operation.
 Definition
A. Normal
Term
114. ________ take-off with a known or suspected landing gear malfunction.
 Definition
B. Do not attempt a
Term
115. If the landing gear selector valve DOWN button requires holding to lower the gear,
hydraulic pressure will not be available for:
 Definition
B. Nose wheel steering
Term
116. For Manual Gear Extension, make sure the ratchet on the hand crank is set for ______
rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft.
 Definition
A. Down
Term
117. The order of preference of bailout exits are:
 Definition
A. Cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors and forward crew door
Term
118. When landing with two engines inoperative, a go-around is not recommended:
 Definition
B. After the flaps are lowered
Term
119. When Ditching, the severity of fuselage structural damage or failure depends on sea
conditions and aircraft ___________ upon touchdown.
 Definition
D. Speed/descent rate
Term
120. If a decision is made by the pilot to ditch the airplane then a minimum of ________
pounds of fuel should remain at time of descent from altitude.
 Definition
C. 2,000
Term
121. Negative thrust from propeller(s) retarded to the FLIGHT IDLE position will produce
_____ drag than a feathered or windmilling propeller and _________ air minimum control
speeds for the condition.
 Definition
C. More, increase
Term
122. If NTS is not indicated during an airstart, interruption of the start cycle after light off by
an attempt to feather before the engine has reached a stabilized speed may result in:
 Definition
C. Decoupling and severe over speed
Term
123. Ensure INU power switch has been off for more than ________ seconds before turning
SCNS power switch OFF.
 Definition
B. 10
Term
124. When oil temperature exceeds ________ degrees C. for any time duration, an entry will
be made in the Form 781 to include duration and temperature.
 Definition
D. 100
Term
125. Normal limits for AC voltage:
 Definition
D. 110 to 125 Volts
Term
126. Power section oil pressure up to ________ PSI is allowable during start and warm-up.
 Definition
D. 100
Term
127. Normal limit for the cabin differential gage:
 Definition
C. -1.2 to 15.8 In. Hg
Term
128. The external fuel tank fuel boost pump pressure limits are ________ PSI.
 Definition
B. 28 to 40
Term
129. The normal limits on the DC voltmeter are ________ volts.
 Definition
D. 25-30
Term
130. In case of emergency, oxygen usage may be continued until:
 Definition
D. System is empty
Term
131. During propeller reversing check, if symmetrical torque differences are ________ inch
pounds or more, record in AFTO Form 781.
 Definition
C. 1,000
Term
132. Do not exceed ________ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless
of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors.
 Definition
C. 150
Term
133. Maximum airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is:
 Definition
A. 250 KIAS
Term
134. With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ________ G in
unsymmetrical maneuvers.
 Definition
B. 1.5
Term
135. Secondary fuel management will shorten the service life of the wings and should be
avoided unless necessary for mission accomplishment. This becomes more critical when:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
136. Maximum effort operations with airplane configuration (fuel, cargo, etc.) that
necessitate 300 FPM rate-of-sink should be restricted to wartime operation only. To perform
during peacetime will require ________ approval.
 Definition
D. Major Command
Term
137. Under stable conditions, allowable oil pressure fluctuation is _________ psi
(_________ psi excursion) for the power section.
 Definition
B. +/- 10 psi/20 psi
Term
138. Normal speed ground idle RPM limits are ________ percent.
 Definition
D. 94-102
Term
139. Reduction gearbox oil pressure is permitted to go below ________ PSIG when RPM is
below 100% if 150 PSIG can be maintained at 100% RPM with oil temperature normal.
 Definition
C. 150
Term
140. If start TIT is between 720-750 degrees C:
 Definition
A. Record in Form 781and perform a temperature controlling check IAW section 1B
Term
141. If the feather override button fails to pop out within 6 seconds after the the propeller is feathered:
 Definition
B. Pull it out manually to shut off the pump. Maintenance action is required prior to flight
Term
142. Allowable propeller fluctuations are:
 Definition
B. Plus/minus 0.5% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 1%
Term
143. Raising of the flaps is permissible during stall recovery to decrease drag and assist in
the recovery.
 Definition
B. False
Term
144. Fin stall can occur at all speeds between stall speed and approximately ________ KIAS
in all flap configurations with power________.
 Definition
D. 170/ON
Term
145. The recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is:
 Definition
C. 65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 180 KIAS
Term
146. Cold weather procedures are generally considered to be applicable when the temperature is ________ and below.
 Definition
D. Both B and C
Term
147. Starts in cold weather conditions may result in start TIT less than normal starting limits.
If all engine starts are similar in TIT:
 Definition
A. Consider this a normal start, no further action is required
Term
148. ________ should be on during takeoff and climb if temperature is 32 degrees F or
lower and any visible moisture is present.
 Definition
B. Propeller and engine anti-icing and deicing
Term
149. Takeoff run is ________ and rate of climb decreased in high temperatures.
 Definition
C. Considerably increased
Term
150. In accordance with hot weather procedures, during descent (for landing) below
________ feet, manually open the oil cooler flaps and place the switches to the FIXED
position.
 Definition
C. 15,000
Term
151. As soon as the airplane is parked during hot weather, chock wheels and ________ in
order to avoid possible damage to brake components from excessive heat generated while
taxiing.
 Definition
B. Release brakes
Term
152. In accordance with desert procedures; when propeller reversing is used during landing,
start moving the throttles from MAXIMUM REVERSE to GROUND IDLE at approximately
________ KIAS and have the throttles at GROUND IDLE by the time 40 KIAS is reached.
 Definition
A. 60
Term
153. Take-Off factor combines the parameters of:
 Definition
B. Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency
Term
154. When the crosswind component and_____________ fall within the caution area, the
take-off or touchdown speed should be increased until the recommended area is reached or
until the aircraft speed has been increased by 10 knots.
 Definition
B. Normal take-off or touch down speed
Term
155. When corrected refusal speed exceeds take-off speed, use _________.
 Definition
D. Take-off speed for refusal speed
Term
156. When computing climb-out performance, a headwind ________used for obstacle
clearance, but the tailwind component ________ used to determine an effective obstacle
distance.
 Definition
C. is not / is
Term
157. The RCR factor ________ affect the 4-engine climbout, but ________ affect the 3-
engine climbout.
 Definition
A. does not / does
Term
158. For normal take-off, rotation speed is _________ than take-off speed to be used.
 Definition
C. 5 KIAS less
Term
159. For Refusal Speed, in the event of an engine failure, the options available are based on
________.
 Definition
A. Vmcg, Vr, and Vcef
Term
160. If headwinds of more than 70 knots are encountered, increasing the cruise TAS by
_________ knots for every _________ knots above 70 knots headwind will result in
operating the airplane near the maximum nautical miles per pound of fuel.
 Definition
A. 4/10
Term
161. ________ is operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the
given configuration, altitude, temperature, and gross weight.
 Definition
C. Maximum endurance
Term
162. When landing with one or two engines inoperative, it is recommended that the in-flight
________ be compared to the ________ and the higher speed be used for approach.
 Definition
B. Minimum control speed/recommended approach speed
Term
163. Take-off and immediate landing data for the departure airfield will be completed prior
to ________. The destination landing data will be computed prior to the completion of
________.
 Definition
D. Take-off/DESCENT checklist
Term
164. Temperature and pressure altitude will be obtained from __________.
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
165. Which of the following information is obtained from the FLIP?
 Definition
C. Runway heading/Length , obstacle height/distance, climb gradients, and slope
Term
166. Unless otherwise directed, waiver authority for the contents of AFI 11-2C-130V3 is the
__________ with mission execution authority.
 Definition
C. MAJCOM/A3/DO
Term
167. __________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately
after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day.
 Definition
A. Flight Duty Period
Term
168. Complete all mission-related events (i.e., FCF/ACF checks, transition events, or tactical
events) during the first _____ hours of the FDP.
 Definition
C. 12
Term
169. SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member
perform aircrew duties:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
170. The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an
aircraft for the mission.
 Definition
A. PIC
Term
171. A PIC who accepts an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to
subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment.
 Definition
A. True
Term
172. Do not connect unauthorized equipment (laptop computers, video equipment, food
preparation equipment, radios/tape players, CD players, etc.) to:
 Definition
D. all of the above
Term
173. Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed,
or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.
 Definition
C. 200/10
Term
174. The stabilization point for precision approaches is at _______ feet above Threshold
Elevation (THRE). For all other approaches (except tactical approaches), the stabilization
point is at ______ feet above THRE unless otherwise briefed by the PF.
 Definition
D. 1000/300
Term
175. At the briefed stabilization point, the _____ will state the altitude (AGL) and announce
“stable” or “go-around”.
 Definition
B. PM
Term
176. It is imperative for aircrews to review the airfield environment. Identify key features
such as:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
177. In terminal areas, __________ (if able) will monitor the command radio unless directed
otherwise.
 Definition
C. all crewmembers
Term
178. With the exception of cruise flight, conversation below _________ will be limited to
mission, departure, or approach essential items.
 Definition
D. 18,000 feet MSL
Term
179. Any crewmember that observes both pilots heads-down at the same time (other than
heads-down instrument flying) shall alert the PF without delay.
 Definition
A. True
Term
180. This is a closed-loop system of communication designed to significantly reduce typical
automation selection errors between the PF, PM, and the navigator.
 Definition
B. Verbalize, Verify, and Monitor (VVM)
Term
181. For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet.
 Definition
A. 3,000
Term
182. All maximum effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts (corrected
for RCR) unless otherwise approved by OG/CC.
 Definition
B. recommended
Term
183. Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers
monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi
obstructions by at least ____ feet.
 Definition
C. 25/10
Term
184. __________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning
Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft.
 Definition
C. Any crewmember
Term
185. Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to
or greater than takeoff speed.
 Definition
B. reduced power
Term
186. Crewmembers will carry __________ on all flights
 Definition
B. two identification tags
Term
187. Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight for night flights.
 Definition
A. True
Term
188. Any crewmember that experiences NVG problems will:
 Definition
B. inform the rest of the crew
Term
189. The __________ will provide the obstacle height, distance, and gradient information
necessary for performance computations to the flight engineer.
 Definition
B. Pilot In Command (PIC)
Term
190. When any doubt exists about which screen height to use, plan to cross the DER at _____
feet (minimum) unless you can ascertain a different screen height requirement from an
appropriate authority.
 Definition
C. 35
Term
191. Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway
with all engines operating. If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm to MSA
will be used.
 Definition
B. 200
Term
192. Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited.
 Definition
D. severe turbulence
Term
193. Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain.
 Definition
A. True
Term
194. Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds.
 Definition
C. 2000
Term
195. Aircraft damage may occur up to _____ from any thunderstorms.
 Definition
C. 20 NMs
Term
196. Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers.
 Definition
A. 5 NMs
Term
197. The aircraft dash one preflight inspection will remain valid until either:
 Definition
D. all of the above
Term
198. Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor.
 Definition
A. True
Term
199. Crewmembers will fit and adjust LPUs for overwater flights and will wear them on
overwater missions below _______ feet.
 Definition
C. 2,000
Term
200. Non-Current and/or unqualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures in weather
down to ______.
 Definition
B. 1500/3
Term
201. The C-130 is a category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the
minimums for category “D” will be used.
 Definition
C. 140
Term
202. If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull
the ___________ power circuit breaker.
 Definition
B. CVR and FDR
Term
203. The maximum number of persons on the flight deck will be the minimum
commensurate with the mission requirements. At no time will this exceed _____ (unless
otherwise specified in a MAJCOM supplement).
 Definition
B. seven
Term
204. If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their
ability. In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended. Crew rest will be
subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk.
 Definition
A. True
Term
205. Crews facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________.
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
206. When required to transfer a loaded weapon to another crew member, __________.
 Definition
C. place the weapon on a flat surface
Term
207. The __________ is a tool to notify appropriate authorities of any mishap involving
crewmembers or aircraft.
 Definition
B. AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet
Term
208. This is used for the purchase of aviation fuel and ancillary ground services at
commercial airports (and some military installations) worldwide.
 Definition
D. U.S. Government Aviation Into-Plane Reimbursement (AIR) card
Term
209. Initial qualification or re-qualification for pilots ____________ be conducted with
passengers onboard.
 Definition
B. will not
Term
210. Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet.
Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet.
 Definition
C. 5,000/6,000
Term
211. Touch and go landings are only authorized when the crosswind component corrected for
RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart.
 Definition
B. Recommended
Term
212. Do not conduct simulated aircraft systems emergency procedures training during any
tactical training (operating in low level environment or during tactical approaches).
 Definition
A. True
Term
213. Maximum gross weight for a no-flap landing is _____ lbs.
 Definition
B. 120,000
Term
214. When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater
than or equal to __________.
 Definition
A. CFL
Term
215. With actual or suspected vapor contamination, the aircraft must be purged for
__________ using Smoke and Fume Elimination procedures to eliminate the vapor hazard.
 Definition
B. Two hours
Term
216. When it is suspected or known that an aerospace vehicle or piece of equipment has been
contaminated with a radiological, biological or chemical contaminant, a _________ will be
entered and an annotation will be made in historical records for the lifecycle of the
equipment.
 Definition
C. Red X
Term
217. If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance
personnel are not available to clear it, the highest qualified flight engineer on scene may
obtain authorization to sign off the Red X from the ___________, in accordance with TO 00-
20-1.
 Definition
D. Home station MXG/CC or designated representative
Term
218. When crewmembers are required to refuel, the flight engineer will act as the
__________.
 Definition
A. Refueling team supervisor
Term
219. Unless servicing JP-4, simultaneous servicing of fuel while loading passengers, cargo,
performing maintenance, aircrew members performing inspections, or operating aircraft
systems is considered to be a normal fuel servicing operation.
 Definition
A. True
Term
220. During normal fuel servicing operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is not
authorized.
 Definition
A. True
Term
221. In addition to the procedures in __________ and ___________, the flight engineer will
assist the pilot in maintaining the AFTO Form 781.
 Definition
B. T.O. 00-20-1/AFI 11-401
Term
222. When conducting flaps up landings, compute and post VMCA speeds for both
configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost). For example: VMCA, in ground
effect, one engine inoperative - 105/122.
 Definition
A. True
Term
223. Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are: Air Minimum Control
Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds
and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________.
 Definition
D. 3 Eng Ft/NM
Term
224. The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the
__________.
 Definition
C. AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record
Term
225. Authority to use the Hostile Environment Kit and Repair Procedures is granted by
OG/CC/CD for Operations; this authority is documented on the:
 Definition
D. Both A and C
Term
226. Air Force policy is to conserve aviation fuel when it does not adversely affect
________, ______________, or _______________.
 Definition
D. Training, flight safety, operational readiness
Term
227. Aircrews will consider delaying engine start on all departures whenever practical to
minimize fuel consumption.
 Definition
A. True
Term
228. Day VMC En-Route. Fly no lower than ___________ (or __________ IAW paragraph
16.4.4.8) modified contour altitude above terrain using visual references and radar altimeter.
 Definition
C. 500 feet AGL, 300 feet AGL
Term
229. Night VMC En-Route (Non-NVGs). Fly no lower than an indicated altitude of
________-feet above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made obstacle, terrain feature, or
spot elevation), or _____-feet plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted
terrain contour, whichever is highest, within the tactical corridor to include the aircraft turn
radius over each point.
 Definition
A. 500/400
Term
230. NVG Enroute. Fly no lower than an indicated altitude of _________feet abouve the
highest spot terrain elevation, or __________ feet plus one chart contour interval above the
highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within the tactical corridor.
 Definition
C. 500/400
Term
231. If either the pilots' NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, or radar altimeter fail, climb to
MSA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to MSA to resolve any T.O. 1C-
130(x)/(x)-1 Section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation.
 Definition
A. True
Term
232. Plan MSA at an indicated altitude of _____-feet above the highest obstruction to flight
(man-made obstacle, terrain feature, or spot elevation), or _____-feet plus one chart contour
interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within _____ of
route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius.
 Definition
C. 500/400/5 NMs
Term
233. To compute ESA, add _____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the elevation of
the highest obstruction to flight within _____ NMs either side of the planned route centerline.
An ESA will be computed for the route and conspicuously annotated on the chart.
 Definition
B. 1,000/2,000/22
Term
234. Airdrops will not be conducted below the following altitudes:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
235. Low Altitude Approach maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and
operational missions with passengers aboard. In all cases plan to roll out on final at
__________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____.
 Definition
B. approach/150/AGL
Term
236. EROs will not be conducted simultaneously through the __________ door and
__________ door.
 Definition
C. crew entrance door/paratroop doors/cargo ramp and door
Term
237. During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as
the situation dictates.
 Definition
D. wing leading edge/taxi lights
Term
238. When personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a
crewmember (normally the loadmaster) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately
______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis.
 Definition
A. 20/45
Term
239. Combat Off-load Method “A” Procedures. A taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long
is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety.
 Definition
B. 500/1000
Term
240. NVG Airland. Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________
and _________ are critical.
 Definition
C. approach/landing
Term
241. NVG Operations. For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____
degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until rolled on final.
 Definition
B. 45/150’
Term
242. NVG Operations. IMC Approaches. The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will
be no lower than _____.
 Definition
A. 300’ AGL
Term
243. Minimum taxi interval is _____ aircraft length with four engines operating and _____
aircraft lengths with two engines operating.
 Definition
A. one/two
Term
244. Formations. At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft.
 Definition
B. 500
Term
245. When flying at night, potential for spatial disorientation increases with:
 Definition
D. All of the above
Term
246. Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless:
 Definition
D. Never
Term
247. After Slowdown, element leads will not exceed _____ degrees of bank.
 Definition
B. 10
Term
248. Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with
__________.
 Definition
A. one engine inoperative
Term
249. CDS Airdrops. It is not recommended to drop CDS at gross weights less than _____
pounds.
 Definition
B. 104,000
Term
250. Towed Parachutist. The PIC must consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in
formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____
and _____ percent should be used.
 Definition
C. 50/100
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