Term
| What are the components of the Cerebrum? |
|
Definition
Cerebral Hemispheres
- Cerebral Cortex
- Basal Ganglia
Diencephalon
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
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Term
| What are the sections of the Brainstem, from rostral to caudal? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the process that forms the neural tube and neural crest called? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which portion of the neural folds does the CNS form from? |
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Definition
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Term
| What portion of the neural folds does the PNS form from? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 3 divisions of the rostral neural tube? |
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Definition
Prosencephalon
- Telencephalon (Cerebral Hemispheres)
- Diencephalon (Thalamus, Hypothalamus)
Mesencephalon (Midbrain)
Rhombencephalon
- Metencephalon (Pons, Cerebellum)
- Mylencephalon (Medulla)
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Term
| At what point does the neuraxis shift? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What does Grey Matter contain?
2. What are some other terms for Grey Matter? |
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Definition
1. Cell Bodies, Dendrites, and Synapses
2. Cortex, Nuclei, Body, Center |
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Term
1. What does White Matter contain?
2. What are some other names for White Matter? |
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Definition
1. Mylinated Tracts
2. Tract, Fasciculus, Peduncle, Funiculus, Leminscus |
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Term
| What are the "arc structures"? |
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Definition
| Structures that are formed following the curvature of the cerebral hemispheres. These include the lateral ventricles, corpus callosum, hippocampus, and caudate nucleus. |
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Term
| What are the boundries of the 4th ventricle? |
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Definition
Anteriorly: Pons and Medulla
Posteriorly: Vermis of Cerebellum |
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Term
| What connects the Lateral and 3rd ventricles? |
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Definition
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Term
| What connects the 4th and 3rd ventricles? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| How many neurons and synaptic connections are in the human brain? |
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Definition
1011 - 1012 neurons
1015 synaptic connections |
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Term
| What does intracellular communication in the CNS depend on? |
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Definition
1) Chemical and Electrical Synapses
2) Multiple Neurotransmitters and receptors
3) Complex cellular morphologies
4) Low safety factor at the level of individual synapses |
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Term
| T/F: Central Neurons are innervated by one neuron. |
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Definition
| False. They are innervated by many neurons. |
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Term
| What is the safety factor for central neurons? |
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Definition
| Low. Many synaptic potentials are necessary to fire an action potential. |
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Term
Axosomatic synapses are ________.
Axodendritic synapses are ________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is the neurotransmitter for EPSPs? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are the two types of Glu-gated receptors? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Glu-gated receptor is similar to acetylcholine receptors in the NMJ? |
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Definition
| Non-NMDA receptors. The are non-selectively permeable to K+ and NA+, but in contrast to ACh receptors, are usually not permeable to divalent cations. |
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Term
| What are NMDA receptors channels are permeable to and what blocks them? |
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Definition
Permeable to Ca2+
Blocked by Mg2+ |
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Term
| What are some antagonist of NMDA receptors? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is the cofactor for NMDA receptors? |
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Definition
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Term
| Activation of both non-NMDA and NMDA receptors produces a EPSP that decays more _______ than one produced by opening non-NMDA receptors alone. |
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Definition
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Term
| What receptor plays a direct role in associative learning and memory installment? |
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Definition
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Term
| If the rate of stimulation is high enough, what block is removed in NMDA receptors to allow Ca2+ influx? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is Glu excitotoxicity? |
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Definition
| Neuronal death that is a result of excessive Ca2+ influx through NMDA receptors in depolarized neurons. |
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Term
| What is the difference between EPSPs and IPSPs? |
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Definition
| EPSPs lead to depolarization while IPSPs lead to hyperpolarization. |
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Term
1. What is the inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
2. What is the inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord? |
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Definition
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Term
If Vrev > Vthreshold, then the synapse is _______.
If Vrev < Vthreshold, then the synapse is _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are some modulators/inhibitors of GABAA receptors? |
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Definition
| Benzos, Barbituates, EtOH, Anesthetics |
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Term
| What are some modulators/inhibitors of Glycine receptors? |
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Definition
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Term
| If IPSP and EPSP inputs occur simultaneously and within a short distance, then the inhibitory synaptic conductance shunts the excitation; EPSP is then _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the factors that need to be considered when a neuron needs to decide to fire or not? |
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Definition
1. Whether the input is inhibitory or excitatory.
2. Location of the synapse on the postsynaptic neuron
3. The size of the input
4. Proximity and relative strength of other synergistic and antagonistic snyapses. |
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Term
| T/F: Those neurons with a shorter time constant have better discrimination with individual inputs? What is the consequence of this? |
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Definition
| True. It is harder to make the neuron reach the action potential. |
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Term
| T/F: Those neurons with a longer length constants are better able to descriminate between individual inputs. |
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Definition
| False. Those with smaller length constants are better able to discriminate between individual inputs. |
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Term
| Increase in which receptors are normally responsible for IPSPs? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the anatomical boundry between the central and peripheral nervous system? |
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Definition
| Where the nerve fibers exit the spinal cord and where myelinating glia cells of the CNS (oligodendrocytes) give way to those of the PNS (Schwann Cells). |
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Term
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Definition
| These are formed from the merging of the spinal nerves after emerging from the dorsal and central roots. |
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Term
1. Where are the cell bodies of afferent nerve fibers?
2. Where do they synapse? |
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Definition
1. Dorsal Root Ganglion
2. In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord |
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Term
| Where are the cell bodies of efferent neurons located? |
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Definition
| In the ventral and medial horns of the spinal cord |
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Term
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Definition
| Outer most sheath of nerve that is continuous with the dura mater of the spinal cord that completely covers the nerve. |
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Term
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Definition
| Encloses individual fascicles of nerve fibers. Forms tight junctions between the perineural cells that from a blood-brain barrier that prevents toxins from entering the nerve. |
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Term
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Definition
| Connective tissue that completely surrounds and supports individual nerve fibers. Plays an important role in regrowth of nerve fibers after injury. |
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Term
| A series of abutting _________ wrap the axon over its entire length? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is saltatory conduction? |
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Definition
| The process of action potentials jumping from node to node. |
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Term
| T/F: The majority of axons in peripheral nerve is mostly myelinated. |
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Definition
| False. Most nerves are unmyelinated in a ratio of 4 to 1 myelinated. |
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Term
| How many unmyelinated axons can be ensheathed by a single schwann cell? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| How does myelin effectively speed up conduction? |
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Definition
| By increasing the width of the nerve and thus increasing the distance between the "capacitance plates". |
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|
Term
| What is a compound action potential? |
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Definition
| Action potentials that result from the summation of the action potentials from numerous axons. |
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Term
| Why do larger diameter axons conduct action potentials at a faster rate than those with small diameters? |
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Definition
| This is due to passive conduction properties of large versus small axons. |
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Term
| What are the effects of increasing the stimulus intensity? |
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Definition
1. Increases the amplitude of the compound action potential
2. It recruits additional components to the waveform (smaller diameter axons which need higher stimulus intensities). |
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Term
| What is the main form of neurotransmission in the nervous system? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: Neurons are separated by a cleft, thus there is no contact between cytoplasms. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is each connexon made up of? |
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Definition
| Made up of 6 protein subunits called connexins. |
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|
Term
| What is the distance between cell membranes in chemical synapses? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: There is an insignificant synaptic delay with regard to chemical synapses. |
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Definition
| False. The delay is significant and is at least 0.3-5 ms. |
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Term
| What criteria must be fulfilled in order to be considered a neurotransmitter? |
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Definition
1. Must be synthesized in the presynaptic neuron.
2. Must be present in the presynaptic terminal and release in amount sufficient to exert an action on the postsynaptic neuron.
3. When applied exogenously, it mimics the action of the endogenously-released transmitter, activating the same ion channels or 2nd messenger systems.
4. A specific mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action |
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Term
| What are the sequence of events that lead to neurotransmission? |
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Definition
1. Neurotransmitter synthesis. This can occur in the cell body or at the axon terminal. The transmitter is stored in the synaptic vesicles.
2. Release of neurotransmitter into synaptic cleft. Ca2+ influx into the axon terminal causes the fusion of vesicle with presynaptic membrane and transmitter is released into the synaptic cleft.
3. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptor.
4. Inactivation of neurotransmitter |
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|
Term
| What causes the voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Where are are neurotransmitter vesicles stored in the presynaptic neuron? |
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Definition
1. Attached to the cytoskeleton
2. In the releasable pool very close to the synaptic cleft. |
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|
Term
| Through what process do vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is the role of GTP-binding protein Rab3A in neurotransmission? |
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Definition
| The Rab3A cycle targets vesicles to their release sites. Rab3A complexed to GTP binds to synaptic vesicles. When Rab3A hydrolyzes its bound GTP to GDP, the effect is to prevent vesicles from leaving the active zone. When GDP is converted back to GTP, Rab3A associates with another vesicle to repeat the cycle. |
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|
Term
| What are some of the postulated functions of synaptic vesicle proteins? |
|
Definition
1. Storage. Where vesicles are tethered to the cytoskeleton.
2. Trafficking and targeting of vesicles to active zones (Rab3A).
3. Docking of vesicles at active zones and their priming for release.
4. Release of neurotransmitter. |
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Term
| What are the two major functions of synaptic receptors? |
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Definition
1. Recognition of specific transmitters
2. Activation of effectors |
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|
Term
| What are the two different divisions of neurotransmitter receptors? |
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Definition
1. Ionotropic receptors directly gate ion channels as part of a single macromolecule that also forms the ion channels.
2. Receptors that indirectly gate ion channels fall into two classes. 1) G protein coupled receptors 2) Receptor tyrosine kinases |
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Term
| What are the types of ionotropic receptors? |
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Definition
| Acetylcholine receptors, GABA receptors, Glu receptors |
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|
Term
| What are some receptors that use the 2nd messenger pathways? |
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Definition
| alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, serotonin, dopamine, muscarinic ACh receptors and receptors for neuropeptides. |
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Term
| What are the 4 well characterized 2nd messenger pathways? |
|
Definition
1. cAMP cascade
2. inositol polyphosphate pathway
3. diacylglycerol
4. arachidonic acid
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Term
| What is an enzyme that modulates the cAMP pathway? |
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Definition
| Phosphodiseterase, which converts cAMP to AMP |
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Term
| What does the activated G protein activate in the inositol-lipid pathway? |
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Definition
| Phospholipase C (PLC). This cleaves PIP2 into second messengers IP3 and DAG. |
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|
Term
| What is arachidonic acid metabolized into? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Where does sensory information from the cranial structures lead to? |
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Definition
| Cranial Ganglia, which fulfills a similar role to that of the Dorsal Root Ganglion. |
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|
Term
| What is the process of converting stimulus energy into electrical energy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are Receptor Potentials? |
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Definition
| They are the depolarizing voltage changes that result from the inward current caused by the influx of positively charged ions after sensory receptor stimulus. |
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|
Term
| What is the Adequate Stimulus? |
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Definition
| The unique stimulus that activates a sensory receptor at a low energy level. Sensory receptors have a low threshold for their adequate stimulus. |
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Term
| The type of stimulus energy that activates a sensory receptor determines its _______. |
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Definition
| Modality (eg. chemical, environmental, thermal) |
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Term
| Receptors can be tuned to an adequate stimulus resulting in _________. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: Receptor potentials are localized electronic potentials that are actively propagated. |
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Definition
| False. They are passively propagated. |
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Term
| What is modality-specific line of communication? |
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Definition
| Receptors and axons of a sensory neuron that are optimally selective for a single type of stimulus energy form modality-specific lines of communication. Activity in these axons conveys information about a particular type of environmental stimulus to the CNS. |
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|
Term
| What are the important aspects of a stimulus? |
|
Definition
1. Modality
2. Duration
3. Location
4. Intensity |
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Term
| If the stimulus intensity is large enough, the receptor potential will reach threshold and excite actively-propagated ____________ in the primary afferent. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: Only actively propagated action potentials reach the synaptic terminal and stimulate the release of a neurotransmitter. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| How is Modality determined? |
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Definition
| Primarily determined by the type of sensory receptors that are activated by a given stimulus. |
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|
Term
| What is the Frequency Code? |
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Definition
| The relationship between stimulus intensity and action potential firing frequency. Increasing the stimulus intensity produces a larger receptor potential and a higher rate of action potential firing. |
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|
Term
| What is the Population Code? |
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Definition
| This is the recruitment of additional high-threshold sensory neurons with increased stimulus intensity. |
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Term
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Definition
| Process in which the sensitivity of a receptor and action potential firing rate gradually decrease despite continued stimulation. |
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Term
| Which receptors are slowly adapting and remain persistently activated during an applied stimulus which conveys the duration. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which receptors fire action potentials only when the stimulus is changing and thus are good for determining the beginning and end of stimulus? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: Pacinian Corpuscles are slowly adapting receptors. |
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Definition
| False. They are rapidly adapting. The outer layers of the corpuscles attenuate the stimulus to the inner nerve ending during sustained pressure. This is why changes are rapidly felt. |
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Term
| What is the area innervated by sensory fibers of a single dorsal root called? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are the 4 major modalities of somatic sensation? |
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Definition
1. Touch
2. Proprioception
3. Nociception
4. Thermoception
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Term
| What are the cutaneous mechanoreceptors and what are their relative receptive field sizes? Are the rapid of slow adapting receptors? |
|
Definition
Meissner's Corpuscle - Small - Rapid
Merkel Cells - Small - Slow
Pacinian Corpuscle - Large - Rapid
Ruffini Ending - Large - Slow |
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Term
| What is the relationship between the density of mechanoreceptors and the size of receptive fields? |
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Definition
| High density of receptors leads to a smaller receptive field which is associated with high tactile discrimination. |
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Term
| What are the sensory receptors involved in proprioception? |
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Definition
Vestibular
Muscle Spindles
Golgi Tendon Organ
Joint Receptors (Ruffini and Pacnian Corpuscles)
Stretch Receptors in Skin (Ruffini Endings, Merkel Discs) |
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|
Term
| What is the role of Muscle Spindles? |
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Definition
Sense the length and speed of muscle contraction.
Increased activity in the 1a afferent informs that CNS that the muscle has been stretched. |
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Term
| Which receptors are involved in the Monosynaptic Reflex (Knee-Jerk Reflex)? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which fibers are associated with Nociception? |
|
Definition
Free Nerve Endings
Unmyelinated C fibers
Thinly myelinated Aδ fibers |
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|
Term
1. Which fibers are responsible for the rapid component of pain?
2. Which fibers are responsible for the slow aching pain? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are Polymodal Nociceptors? |
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Definition
| These are nociceptors that respond to multiple types of noxious stimulus including pinch, puncture, heat, cold, and irritating chemicals. |
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Term
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Definition
| Chemicals released from damaged cells that produce sensitization. For example, sunburned skin is highly sensitive to even light noxious stimulus. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The condition where normally innocuous non-painful stimulation causes pain. |
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|
Term
| What plays an important role in tissue repair by warding off additional injury? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: The spinal cord receives output from the cortex, but cannot relay directly back to it. |
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Definition
| True. There are no relays from the spine to the cortex. |
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|
Term
| The spinal cord develops from the _______ aspect of the neural tube. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What differentiates into the Dorsal Root Ganglion? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which portion of the spinal cord has relatively more white matter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 major divisions of the spinal cord grey matter? |
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Definition
Dorsal Horn
Intermediate Horn
Ventral Horn |
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Term
| What are the 10 layers of gray matter in the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
1. Marginal Zone
2. Substantia Gelatinosa
3-6. Nucleus Proprius
7. Lateral Horn and Clarke's Nucleus
8. Interneurons
9. Motor Neurons
10. Propriospinal Zone |
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Term
| What are the portions of the grey matter that are present only in specific zones of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
Phrenic Nucleus (C3-C5) - Controls Diaphragm
Clarke's Nucleus or Nucleu Dorsalis (T1-L3) - Relay nucleus for posterior spinocerebellar tract
Lateral Horn or Intermediolateral Cell Column (T1-L3) - Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
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|
Term
| What are the 3 divisions of the white matter of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
1. Dorsal Funiculi
2. Lateral Funiculi
3. Ventral Funiculi |
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|
Term
| Where is the only location where fibers deccusate in the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tract synapses in Clarke's Nucleus? |
|
Definition
| Posterior Spinocerebellar Tract |
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|
Term
| What tract goes through Lissauer's tract? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
1. What are the portions of the dorsal columns?
2. Which portion is only visible above T6? |
|
Definition
1. Fasciculus Gracilis and Fasciculus Cuneatus
2. Fasciculus Cuneatus |
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|
Term
| What is the pathway of the Posterior Column Medial Lemniscus from periphery to cortex? |
|
Definition
1. Peripheral Receptor to DRG
2. Ascends in Fasciculus Gracilis or Cuneatus
3. Synapses in Nucleus Gracilis or Cuneatus in the medulla
4. Decussates via internal arcuate fibers in medulla
5. Enters into Medial Lemniscus pathway
6. Synapses in VPL of thalamus
7. Ascends through internal capsule
8. Synapses in Post-Central Gyrus |
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|
Term
| What is the pathway for the Spinothalamic Tract? |
|
Definition
1. Peripheral Receptor
2. DRG sensory neuron
3. Through Lissauer's Tract
4. Synapses in substantia gelatinosa
5. Decussates in ventral white commisure
6. Ascends as spinothalamic tract
7. Synapses in VPL of thalamus
8. Ascends in internal capsule
9. Synapses in post central gyrus |
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|
Term
| What is the pathway for the Corticospinal Tract? |
|
Definition
1. Precentral Gyrus
2. Internal Capsule
3. Cerebral Peduncle
4. Pons
5. Pyramids of Medulla
6. Pyramidal Decussation
7. 85% in Lateral tract, 15% in anterior tract (later decussate in anterior commisure)
8. lower motor neurons in ventral horn |
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|
Term
| What is the pathway for the Posterior Spinocerebellar Tract? |
|
Definition
1. From Ipsilateral leg
2. Clark's nucleus
3. Posterior Spinal cerebellar tract
4. Cerebellum |
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|
Term
| What is significant with the anterior spinocerebellar tract in terms of decussation? |
|
Definition
| It decussates twice, once in the spinal cord and one when reaching the cerebellum. Thus lesions present ipsilaterally. |
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|
Term
| Muscles with finer control have a _______ innervation ratio. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of muscle fibers? |
|
Definition
1. Slow (red muscle)
2. Fast-fatigue resistable
3. Fast fatigable |
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|
Term
| T/F: Motor units are recruited from strongest to weakest. |
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Definition
| False. Motor units are recruited from weakest to strongest. |
|
|
Term
| What are the intrafusal muscle fibers in muscle spindles innervated by? |
|
Definition
Gamma Motor Axons
Group Ia and II afferent fibers |
|
|
Term
| The stretch reflex is a type of _______ feedback. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Muscle spindles are in parallel and GTOs are in series. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Muscle spindles detect changes in _____.
GTO detect changes in ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Diseased motor nerve roots |
|
|
Term
| What are two diseases associated with acetylcholine deficiency? |
|
Definition
Myasthenia Gravis
Alezheimer's Disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for catecholamines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for acetylcholine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the catecholamines? |
|
Definition
| Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What is the rate limiting step in the synthesis of dopamine and norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
| Tyrosine Hydroxylase, which converts tyrosine to DOPA. |
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|