Term
|
Definition
•Post-menopausal symtoms
•Breast cancer
•Prostate cancer
•Uterine cancer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
•Gynecomastia
•Sexual dysfunction
•n/v
•osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
•take with meals
•breast self-exam |
|
|
Term
| Naloxone HCl (Narcan): indications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Naloxone HCl (Narcan): note regarding hospital use |
|
Definition
| Policies may exist permitting use without prior doctor's order (emergency situations) |
|
|
Term
| Naloxone HCl (Narcan): side-effects |
|
Definition
•Tachycardia
•Restlessness
•Insomnia
•Eye tearing |
|
|
Term
| Terbutaline Sulfate (Brethine): indications |
|
Definition
•COPD
•Asthma
•Tocolytic (suppress uterine contractions) |
|
|
Term
| Terbutaline Sulfate (Brethine): side-effects |
|
Definition
•Nervousness
•Restlessness
•Tremors
•May cause paradoxical bronchoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| Indomethacin (Indocin): classification |
|
Definition
•NSAID
•Anti-rheumatic
•Anti-gout |
|
|
Term
| Indomethacin (Indocin): side-effects |
|
Definition
•Bone marrow suppression
•Peptic ulcers
•Dizziness
•Drowsiness
•Blurred vision |
|
|
Term
| Escitalopram (Lexipro): classification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Escitalopram (Lexipro): side-effects |
|
Definition
•Suicideality
•hallucinations
•Libido disturbance
•Diarrhea
•Constipation
•Drowsiness
•Increased appetite |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- collecting and organizing data
- recording of subjective/objective data |
|
|
Term
| Three steps to forming a diagnosis |
|
Definition
- analyzing data
- identifying specific client needs
- establishing a nursing diagnosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Prioritizing how to solve client problems
- Identifying goals or cient outcomes to measure the effectiveness of nursing actions
- selecting nursing interventions
- writing nursing orders |
|
|
Term
| Four steps to implementation |
|
Definition
- reassess the client
- implement nursing orders
- delegate and supervise
- document nursing actions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- collecting data related to outcomes
- comparing data with outcomes
- drawing conclusions
- continue/modify/terminate plan |
|
|
Term
| Pancreatitis: dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- no alcohol
- bland foods
- small, frequent meals
- low fat |
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis: dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- low fat
- small, frequent meals |
|
|
Term
| Hepatitis: dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- NPO initially
- low fat
- high protein
- high carbs |
|
|
Term
| Cirrhosis: dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- small, frequent meals
- low sodium
- low protein |
|
|
Term
| Diaphragmatic hernia: dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- small frequent meals
- low fat
- high protein |
|
|
Term
| Dumping syndrome: dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- high fat
- high protein
- high fiber
- small, frequent meals
- low carbs |
|
|
Term
| Ulcerative colitis: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- AVOID coarse, high-fiber foods
- avoid cold beverages
- bland diet
- high protein
- high calories |
|
|
Term
| Celiac disease: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- no gluten
- high calories
- high protein |
|
|
Term
| Acute renal failure: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- high carbs
- low protein
- low sodium
- fluid restriction |
|
|
Term
| Chronic renal failure: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- low potassium
- low sodium
- high iron
- high calcium
- high vitamins B, C, D |
|
|
Term
| Cushing's syndrome: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- high protein
- high potassium
- low sodium
- low calories |
|
|
Term
| Addison's disease: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- high sodium
- low potassium |
|
|
Term
| Meniere's disease: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heart failure: Dietary considerations |
|
Definition
- low sodium
- low fat
- fluid restriction (maybe) |
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever: complication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vital sign ranges: neonate |
|
Definition
T: 98.6 - 99.8
P: 110 - 160
R: 30 - 50
BP: 70-73/45-48 |
|
|
Term
| Vital sign ranges: 1month - 3 yrs |
|
Definition
T: 98.5 - 99.5
P: 80-130
R: 20-30
BP:90-100/55-63 |
|
|
Term
| Vital sign ranges: 6 - 10 yrs |
|
Definition
T: 97.5 - 98.6
P: 75 - 115
R: 17 - 25
BP: 96-110/57-72 |
|
|
Term
| Vital sign ranges: 11 - 16 yrs |
|
Definition
T: 97.6 - 98.6
P: 55 - 100
R: 15 - 20
BP: 120-123/76-80 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T: 96.8 - 98.6
P: 50 - 95
R: 15 - 20
BP: 120/80 |
|
|
Term
| Vital sign ranges: Elderly |
|
Definition
T: 96.5 - 97.5
P: 55 - 95
R: 15 - 20
BP: 120/80 |
|
|
Term
| Stage I decubitus: factors |
|
Definition
- intact skin
- non-blanching erythema |
|
|
Term
| Stage II decubitus: factors |
|
Definition
- epidermis interrupted
- dermis may be interrupted
- abrasion or blister |
|
|
Term
| Stage III decubitus: factors |
|
Definition
- Full thickness
- damage and/or necrosis down to the fascia |
|
|
Term
| Stage IV decubitus: factors |
|
Definition
- full thickness
- penetrates fascia (tunneling)
- involves muscle, tendon and/or bone |
|
|
Term
flat, nonpalpable skin discoloration
(eg, freckle) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, palpable skin lesion <1cm
(eg, wart or mole) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, firm skin lesion with circumscribed borders, 1-2cm
(eg, lipoma) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, serous/pus-filled skin lesion <1 cm
(eg, acne) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, fluid-filled lesion, <1cm
(eg, Herpes/shingles) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, fluid-filled lesion >1cm
(eg, chickenpox) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, erythematous skin lesion with irregular borders, fluid-filled
(eg, insect bite) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
elevated, firm lesion
(eg, sebaceous) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Superficial burn (1st degree): descriptive factors |
|
Definition
- limited to epidermis
- painful
- redness
- local wound care required |
|
|
Term
| Partial thickness burn (2nd degree): descriptive factors |
|
Definition
- extends beyond epidermis into dermis
- painful
- redness
- swelling
- blisters |
|
|
Term
| Full thickness burn (3rd degree): descriptive factors |
|
Definition
- extends through dermis, leaving only subcutaneous tissue
- painless
- dry, leathery skin |
|
|
Term
| 4th degree burn: descriptive factors |
|
Definition
- extends into muscles, fascia, bone
- usually fatal |
|
|
Term
| ecchymosis over the mastoid process in basilar skull fractures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| constant, involuntary movement of the eyeball |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rhythmical and rapid dilation and constriction of the pupil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Seizure type: brief loss of consciousness or posture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| seizure type: repetitive muscle contractions, brief jerking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| seizure type: stiffness followed by loss of consciousness and rhythmic contractions of all four extremities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complication of status epilepticus |
|
Definition
| respiratory distress leading to respiratory arrest. |
|
|
Term
| status epilepticus: Medication treatment |
|
Definition
- diazepam (Valium)
- phenytoin (Dilantin)
- phenobarbitol (Luminal) |
|
|
Term
| Pain referred to right lower quad, right inguinal region: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| severe burning back pain: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| suprapubc, posterior gluteus/thigh pain: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain on right side of scapula: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain in umbilical region, chest, shoulder and scapula: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain in right shoulder, right side: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain in left upper quad, left hypochondriac region: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain in left shoulder, right back: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain in groin and external genitalia, and back: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Back pain: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pain in left arm, jaw, shoulder and chest: probable cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Late signs of increased ICP include |
|
Definition
- Cushing's sign
- nausea/vomiting
- hemiplegia (paralysis)
- decortigate or decerebrate posture |
|
|
Term
| Three types of seizures to know are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Missing an antiepileptic dose, or toxicity of the med, could lead to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Precursors to a seizure are called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client experiencing a seizure may be given one of these three meds to stop the seizure: |
|
Definition
| valium, Ativan, or phenobarb (usual choice with children) |
|
|
Term
| Clients on Dilantin should be instructed about the common side-effect of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A burhole may be needed to relive pressure caused by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common nursing intervention to treat increased ICP is |
|
Definition
| hyperventilation (of the patient, not the nurse!) |
|
|
Term
| Damage to the hypothalamus can result in lowered ADH production, which leads to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diabetes insipidus can be the result of tramautic injury to the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Early signs of increased ICP include |
|
Definition
- restlessness
- irritability
- DECREASED LOC
- sluggish or fixed (and usually dilated) pupils |
|
|
Term
| A late sign of increased ICP, known as Cushing's triad, includes |
|
Definition
- bradycardia
- bradypnea
- systolic hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Late signs of increased ICP include |
|
Definition
- Cushing's sign
- nausea/vomiting
- hemiplegia (paralysis)
- decortigate or decerebrate posture |
|
|
Term
| Nursing intervention for increased ICP includes |
|
Definition
- positioning with head up at least 30 degrees.
- decrease stimuli (low lights, quiet) |
|
|
Term
| After a lumbar puncture, the client should be monitored for |
|
Definition
| numbness and/or weakness below the puncture site. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing in prepration for an MRI should include |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before performing an EEG, make sure the patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After an EEG, the patient should |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client with pupils of unequal size is suffering from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The client who is unable to speak is suffering from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The client whose eyes move involuntarily is suffering from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The scale used to measure LOC is called the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person with decerebrate postering likely has |
|
Definition
| damage to the upper brain stem. |
|
|
Term
| A person with decorticate postering likely has |
|
Definition
| damage to one or both corticospinal tracts. |
|
|
Term
| A client with arms flexed and extended away from the body is exhibiting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client with arms adducted and flexed upon the chest s exhibiting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ability to speak clearly, but use incorrect words - "word salad" - is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The inability to speak clearly - mumbling - is known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The test that most accurately detects brain tumors is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A technique that attacks tumor cells while having minimal effect on normal tissue is called |
|
Definition
| stereotactic radiosurgery. |
|
|
Term
| A common med used in the treatment of swelling associated with brain tumors is |
|
Definition
| dexamethasone (Decadron). |
|
|
Term
| A client on dexamethasone (Decadron) should be monitored for |
|
Definition
| signs of Cushing's syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| Clients on Decadron should be cautioned about |
|
Definition
| discontinuing the medication abruptly. |
|
|
Term
| The priority nursing concern for a client with status epilepticus is |
|
Definition
| getting oxygen to the brain. |
|
|
Term
| The stage of Alzheimer's at which hallucinations and seizures may occur is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parkinson's is the result of |
|
Definition
| decreased dopamine production. |
|
|
Term
| A patient presenting with tremors, muscle rigidity and akinesia likely has |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients with Parkinson's usually die from |
|
Definition
| complications of immobility. |
|
|
Term
| When taking a drug over a length of time, the user needs to increase dosage to get the same effect. This is known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To determine physical status of an alcohol abuser, which tests would be ordered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where alcohol is absorbed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency, a common result of long-term alcohol abuse, leads to |
|
Definition
| Wernicke-Korsakoff's syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What organ-related disease can be the result of alcohol abuse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
autonomic hyperactivity
neuronal excitation
sensory perceptual disturbances |
|
|
Term
| A common screening test to determine alcohol/drug dependency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what blood alcohol level does coma become a concern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antabuse contraindications |
|
Definition
S/P stroke or heart disease,
diabetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| reduces craving for alcohol |
|
|
Term
| The possible routes for administering thiamine include |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Methadone is usually prescribed to ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is methadone usually administered? |
|
Definition
| in orange juice or citrus drink. |
|
|
Term
| The evaluation tool used specifically to identify alcohism is called the |
|
Definition
| Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) |
|
|
Term
| A diagnostic tool that can be used to determine degrees of addiction to any drug is called the |
|
Definition
| Addiction Severity Index (ASI) |
|
|
Term
| Long-acting meds to control or prevent withdrawal seizures |
|
Definition
- Librium
- Valium/Diastat |
|
|
Term
| Short-acting meds to control or prevent withdrawal seizures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In treating chronic alcohol abuse, thiamine depletion can be worsened by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The IV fluid of choice for alcohol withdrawal treatment is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drug(s) used to counteract overdose of CNS depressants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drug(s) used to counteract overdose of benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drug(s) used to counteract overdose of narcotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The type of therapy used in drug rehab that focuses on the "here and now" is |
|
Definition
| Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) |
|
|
Term
| What abnormal CBC result is likely to be seen in the chronic alcoholic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The kidneys are said to be ______ because they lie behind the peritoneum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| contains the loops of Henle and the collecting tubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the glomerulus is partially enclosed in a funnel-shaped structure called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a long twisted tube that extends from Bowman's capsule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| consists of specialized glandular cell responsible for maintaining blood pressure |
|
Definition
| juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) |
|
|
Term
| hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the stem cells in red bone marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| triangular area on the floor of the bladder that does not expand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| maximum volume of the bladder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| glomerular filtrate contains what? |
|
Definition
| water, glucose, urea, creatinine and electrolytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mechanisms that cause reabsorption (types of reabsorption) |
|
Definition
| active and passive transport |
|
|
Term
| the maximum amount the tubules hold before excreting the excess into the urine is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| process by which substances move from the blood into the urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the process by which substances move from the urine to the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how much urine is excreted daily |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| specific gravity of normal urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| major cause of incontinence as a result of aging |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The functioning unit of the kidney is the ___
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the blood pressure falls too low, the kidneys will secrete ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The function of erythropoetin is to stimulate ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of filtrate formed in all the glomeruli of both kidneys per minute |
|
Definition
| Glomerular filtration rate |
|
|
Term
| The blood vessels, nerves, and ureters enter the kidney through the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The maximum amount of a substance that is reabsorbed back into the body from the kidney tubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition is indicated by the following urinalysis results:
- volume: 100cc
- color: amber
- pH: 6.4
- spec. gravity: 1.035
- blood: none seen
- bacteria: none seen
- albumin: none seen
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Generally, children begin to have voluntary control of urination at approximately what age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A client with a history of nocturia is confined to bed. What should be the nursing intervention?
A) Fluid restriction during the day
B) Restrict cranberry juice
C) Incontinence pads
D) Offer bedpan frequently |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the role of renin?
|
|
Definition
| Regulation of blood pressure |
|
|
Term
| What could lead to low specific gravity of urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the nephron assists in maximum reabsorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of an enlarged prostate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a common site for herniation in men?
A) Inguinal canal
B) Prostate gland
C) Cowper's glands
D) Scrotum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prostatic hypertrophy may cause
A) Difficulty with urination
B) Retention of urine
C) Inability to have an erection
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is correct?
A) One kidney
B) One ureter
C) Two urinary bladders
D) One urethra |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which blood vessels are primarily concerned with reabsorption?
A) renal artery
B) glomeruli
C) renal vein
D) peritubular capillaries |
|
Definition
| D) peritubular capillaries |
|
|
Term
| Where does aldosterone exert its effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urine flows fron the ascending limb of Henle into the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Natriuresis refers to the renal excretion of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The renal excretion of Na+ is generally accompanied by the excretion of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
A) causes polyuria
B) causes albuminuria
C) elevates blood pressure
D) causes hematuria |
|
Definition
| C) elevates blood pressure |
|
|
Term
Aldosterone
A) depletes blood volume
B) causes potassium rebsorption
C) causes sodium excretion
D) causes Na+ reabsorption |
|
Definition
| D) causes Na+ reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| The internal and external sphincters are associated with the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following should not be in the filtrate within Bowman's capsule?
A) albumin
B) sodium
C) potassium
D) water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not true of ADH?
A) secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
B) secreted in response to low blood volume and a concentrated plasma (as in dehydration)
C) causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water
D) a deficiency causes diabetes insipidus |
|
Definition
| C) causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is absorbed across the walls of the collecting duct under the influence of ADH?
A) potassium
B) urea
C) water
D) albumin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pyuria is indicative of
A) infection
B) glomerular damage
C) deficiency of ADH
D) excess of aldosterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine; there is minimal reabsorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following occurs at the distal convoluted tubule?
A) 180 L of water is filtered into the tubules
B) renin is secreted
C) urine flows from the distal convoluted tubule into the ascending loop of Henle
D) sodium and water are reabsorbed |
|
Definition
| D) sodium and water are reabsorbed |
|
|
Term
| Low plasma levels of oxygen stimulate the kidneys to secrete this hormone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria?
A) renal failure
B) diuresis
C) retention
D) cycstitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a possible complication from mumps?
A) Seminal vesicles stop production of semen
B) Prostate gland atrophies completely
C) Orchitis (inflammation of testes) may occur
D) Temperature of scrotum increases drastically |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The part is above another part or is closer to the head; opposite of inferior |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| toward the back surface; another word is dorsal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| toward the midline of the body; opposite of lateral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this word describes the relationship of the wrist to the elbow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| divides body into front and back |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| divides body into left and right |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| passes through middle of body and divides it into left and right |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| divides body into upper and lower halves |
|
|
Term
| The four basic structural levels in the body |
|
Definition
| cells→tissues→organs→systems |
|
|
Term
| The basic unit of structure and function for all living things |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| near the lower end of the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pertaining to the sides or walls of a cavity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pertaining to the organs within a body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1) proximal
2) distal
3) superior
4) inferior
5) anterior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: STDs that usually cause the disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: typical meds used |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A client with urethritis is on Peridium. She calls the clinic, complaining that her urine appears to be bloody. The nurse should
A) advise the client to see her doctor immediately
B) advise the client to discontinue medication
C) ask the client to come in for testing
D) assure the client that the discoloration is normal |
|
Definition
| D) assure the client that the discoloration is normal. |
|
|
Term
A client is prescribed Peridium for urethritis. She asks how long it will take for the medication to rid her system of the infection. The nurse should tell the client,
A) "It will take about 5-7 days."
B) "It will take about 2-3 weeks."
C) "Just take the medication until it is all gone."
D) "This medication does not treat the disease." |
|
Definition
D) "This medication does not treat the disease."
It's an analgesic. It only relieves the pain. |
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: common symptoms |
|
Definition
- Frequency
- Urgency
- Dysuria
|
|
|
Term
| Trichomonas: complication |
|
Definition
Males tend to be asymptomatic, which leads to inadvertently re-infecting their female sex partners.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cystitis: highest risk factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cystitis: diagnostics (4) |
|
Definition
U/A:
- Turbid appearance
- Presence of
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Can cause stones
- Reduces effectiveness of birth control pill
|
|
|
Term
| Complicated cystitis: common med |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complicated cystitis: common cause |
|
Definition
| Failure to complete therapy leaves surviving bacteria that become resistant to sulfameds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which UTI is more serious and why? |
|
Definition
| Pyelonephritis. Larger blood supply, therefore larger risk of transmission into blood. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Chronic renal failure
- Kidney damage
- Sepsis
- Bacterial invasion (E. choli)
|
|
|
Term
| Which UTI are women at high risk for RE-infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inability to control urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why might UTIs among the elderly be missed? |
|
Definition
| The only symptom might be fatigue |
|
|
Term
| "Incubation period" for UTI caused by catheter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Test for renal arterial supply |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing goals to reduce risk of UTI |
|
Definition
Keep area clean and dry
Keep open to air
|
|
|
Term
| Nursing to reduce stress incontinence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common type of incontinence among elderly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of overflow incontinence |
|
Definition
Spinal chord injuries
Prostate enlargement |
|
|
Term
| A client wets himself because he's handcuffed to the bed. What's this called? |
|
Definition
Functional incontinence
(not to mention, cruel and unusual) |
|
|
Term
| How often is a condom catheter changed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing care after cystoscopy |
|
Definition
- warm compress
- sitz bath |
|
|
Term
| How is interstitial cystitis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Painless hematuria
- Frank blood
- Bladder irritability
- Bladder retention
- Metastatic pains
|
|
|
Term
| What is the follow-up procedure after fulguration? |
|
Definition
| Cystoscopy, 3 months after fulguration |
|
|
Term
| What makes caring for a urinary ostomy different from caring for a colostomy? |
|
Definition
| DON'T irrigate a urinary ostomy. |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to reduce the smell of urinary devices |
|
Definition
| Put vinegar in the collection bag |
|
|
Term
Define:
Normal output
Oliguria
Anuria
Polyuria
|
|
Definition
Normal: 1-2 L/dy
Oliguria: <400 ml/dy
Anuria: <50 ml/dy
Polyuria: >2500 ml/dy |
|
|
Term
| What is in the urine of a client with pyelonephritis that is NOT in the urine of clients with other UTIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Appearance of normal urine from ileal conduit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dairy products
Sardines
Broccoli
Green leafy veggies |
|
|
Term
| How to tell pyelonephritis from cystitis (symptoms) |
|
Definition
- Client feels "sicker" than with cystitis
- CostoVertebral Angle Tenderness |
|
|
Term
| Complication of Pyelonephritis |
|
Definition
| Repeated infections may scar tissue, leading to kidney failure |
|
|
Term
| Signs of urosepsis among the elderly: early vs late |
|
Definition
Early sign: may only be fatigue
Late sign: LOC change |
|
|
Term
| Mandelamine: nursing notes |
|
Definition
- Cannot be used with sulfa drugs
- Can be used prophylactically
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Works well in alkaline urine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| urine may be orange-red colored |
|
|
Term
| Urethral stricture: treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are renal calculi typically composed of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: dietary advice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: Risk factors |
|
Definition
- Dehydration
- Family history
- High-calcium diets
- Immobility |
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: classic signs |
|
Definition
- Sudden, severe flank pain
- Renal colic
- Fever |
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
- Treat pain to prevent shock
- strain urine
- Calcium restrictions
- Low-oxylate diet
|
|
|
Term
| Low-oxylate diet restrictions |
|
Definition
- beets
- rhubarbs
- spinach
- cocoa
- coffee
|
|
|
Term
| Meds used to treat calcium stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client with thrombocytopenia is what kind of risk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common complication of most chemotherapeutic agents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common diagnostic test that can help determine the presence of a sarcoma |
|
Definition
| Serum calcium - Sarcomas invade bone, thus increased calcium deposits in the blood may result. |
|
|
Term
| A personal history of which two CIBDs put a client at high risk for colorectal cancer? |
|
Definition
- Ulcerative colitis
- Crohn's disease |
|
|
Term
| A woman in her 30's is receiving tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment. What side effects should she be aware of? |
|
Definition
| Those related to menopause. These side effects include amenorrhea, hot flashes, insomnia, and depression. |
|
|
Term
| Age at which women should start breast self-exams. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Age at which women should start getting ANNUAL mammograms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ages at which annual PSA tests should begin |
|
Definition
50+
45+ if African-American or if a family history of prostate cancer exists.
40+ if multiple first-degree relatives were affected at an early age. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| interfere with DNA synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of a benign neoplasm |
|
Definition
• Slow growth
• Encapsulated (contained within a fibrous cover)
• Composed of differentiated cells (resemble the cells of the tissue from which they develop)
• Lack metastasis (invasion of other tissues in the body) |
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of a malignant neoplasm |
|
Definition
• Rapid growth
• Non-encapsulated
•Infiltrating and invading other tissues
• Anaplastic
• Commonly metastasized |
|
|
Term
| Common colorectal cancer risk factors |
|
Definition
• A personal history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease
• A family history of a hereditary colorectal cancer syndrome (familial adenomatous polyposis or hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer) |
|
|
Term
| Diet considerations for those on chemotherapy |
|
Definition
- High-protein, high-calorie meals
- several small meals throughout the day
- nutritional supplements |
|
|
Term
| Dietary consideration for reduction of cancer risk |
|
Definition
| low fat, high fiber, low sodium |
|
|
Term
| Do a PSA before doing a ____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that interfere with the formation of blood vessels that grow to feed the cancer cells. |
|
Definition
| Antiangiogenic drugs (eg, endostatin, angiostatin) |
|
|
Term
| Education of the client receiving radiation or chemotherapy: basic principle |
|
Definition
| avoid anything that may lead to injury |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant tissue is burned |
|
|
Term
| Grade of tumors that closely resemble normal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a system of looking at abnormal cells under a microscope to determine the cells' degree of dedifferentiation or lack of maturity |
|
|
Term
| IV push, blocks receptors at nerve endings in the brain and GI tract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Monoclonal antibodies (MOAB, MoAb) |
|
Definition
| Highly specific antibodies that seek out and bind to specific targets on cancer cells, causing apoptosis. Produced by genetically fusing cancer cells with normal cells. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing awareness regarding interleukins |
|
Definition
| possible hypotension, edema (incl. pulmonary edema), dyspnea, and tachycardia. |
|
|
Term
| Nursing consideration (personal) when working with a client undergoing implanted radiation therapy |
|
Definition
| Do not stay with client longer than necessary. |
|
|
Term
| Recommended frequency of colonoscopy exams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of cancer |
|
Definition
• General, unexplained feelings of discomfort
• Prickling, tingling, tightness, soreness that does not go away
• Weakness
• Unexplained loss of weight
• Abnormal findings on breast self-examination (BSE) or testicular self-examination (TSE) |
|
|
Term
| Special care in cleaning up chemotherapy spills |
|
Definition
• use gloves
• special container needed for disposal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of the mouth |
|
|
Term
| They promote the immune response of the T lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| They protect normal cells from invasion by intracellular parasites, including viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumor cells that closely resemble normal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumor marker for breast, colorectal, and lung cancers |
|
Definition
| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) |
|
|
Term
| Tumor marker for germ-cell tumors, liver cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumor marker for ovarian, colorectal, and gastric cancers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| specific enzymes, cancer antigens, oncofetal proteins, hormones, or genes that can indicate malignancies. |
|
|
Term
| Type AND frequency of enema done to test for colon and/or rectal cancer |
|
Definition
| double-contrast barium enema - every five years |
|
|
Term
| Unusual bleeding or spotting after menopause is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
| Endometrial (uterine) cancer |
|
|
Term
| What do sealed mold internal radiation devices need (from nurses)? |
|
Definition
| protective protocols for nursing care. |
|
|
Term
| What should the nurse watch for during administration of monoclonial antibody treatment? |
|
Definition
| severe anaphylactic reactions |
|
|
Term
| When should cervical cancer screening begin? |
|
Definition
| Age 21 or 3 years after beginning vaginal intercourse. |
|
|
Term
| Which cancer treatment drug causes hot flashes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cancer treatment drug makes urine red and causes hair loss |
|
Definition
| doxorubicin HCl (Adriamycin) |
|
|
Term
| a swish-and-swallow solution that often contains a mixture of diphenhydramine (Benadryl), viscous Xylocaine, and antacid is used. The nurse advises the client to swallow only small amounts. Why? |
|
Definition
| The mixture will anesthetize the throat and may cause difficulty in swallowing, talking, or even breathing. |
|
|
Term
| a system of looking at abnormal cells under a microscope to determine the cells' degree of dedifferentiation, or lack of maturity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The body uses its own defenses against tumor cells |
|
|
Term
| can improve the client's immune response to cancer and interfere with the growth of cancer cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
dietary recommendation in response to stomatitis:
A) a clear, full-liquid diet
B) a soft, bland, tepid diet
C) a high-protein diet.
D) TPN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant tissue is destroyed by high-frequency current. |
|
|
Term
| made by lymphocytes, enhance the effects of the immune system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| radioactive implants deliver ionizing radiation from within the tumor or a body cavity |
|
Definition
| internal brachytherapy, interstitial irradiation, intracavity irradiation |
|
|
Term
| removal of peripheral blood through a large vein of blood that is then sent via tubing through special collection filters in a machine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| side effects of interferon use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| special consideration when using monoclonal antibodies |
|
Definition
| acute anaphylactic reaction |
|
|
Term
| tumors that are very anaplastic, often having little or no resemblance to the tissue cells from which they developed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abciximap (ReoPro): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acebutolol (Sectral): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acetazolamide (Diamox): class |
|
Definition
| carbonic anhydrase inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alteplase (Activase): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amiloride (Midamor): class |
|
Definition
| potassium-sparing diuretic |
|
|
Term
| Amlodipine(Norvasc,Amvaz) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atenolol (Tenormin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atorvastatin (Lipitor): class |
|
Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Benazepril (Lotensin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bendroflumethiazide (Naturetin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Benthiazide (Exna): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Betaxolol (Kerlone): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bisoprolol (Zebeta): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bivalirudin (Angiomax): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bumetanide (Bumex): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Candestartan (Atacand): class |
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Carteolol (Cartrol): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carvedilol (Coreg): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Catopril (Capoten): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chlorothalidone (Hygroton): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chlorothiazide (Diuril): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholestyramine (Questran): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cilostazol (Pletal): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clonidine (Catapres): class |
|
Definition
| centrally acting sympatholytic |
|
|
Term
| Clopidogrel (Plavix): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Colesevelam (Welchol): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Colestipol (Colestid): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dalteparin (Fragmin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Desirudin (Ipravask): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diltiazem(cardizem,cartia XT,Dilacor XR, diltia XT,Tiazac): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dipyridamole (Persantine): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Doxazosin (Cardura): class |
|
Definition
| peripherally acting α-adronergic blocker |
|
|
Term
| Enalapril (Vasotec): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enalaprilat (Vasotec): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enoxaparin (Lovenox): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Eptifibatide (Integrilin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Esmolol (Brevibloc): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Esmolol(Brevibloc): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Esprosartan (Teventen): class |
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin): clss |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Other antilipemic medications
|
|
|
Term
| Exetimibe/simivastatin (Vytorin): class |
|
Definition
Other antilipemic medications
|
|
|
Term
| Felodipine(plendil): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fenofibrate (Tricor): class |
|
Definition
Other antilipemic medications
|
|
|
Term
| Fluvastatin (Lescol): class |
|
Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
| Fondaparinux (Arixtra): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fosinopril (Monopril): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Furosemide (Lasix): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gemfibrozil (Lopid): class |
|
Definition
Other antilipemic medications
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| centrally acting sympatholytic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hydrochlorothiazide (HydrDIURIL, HCTZ): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Indapamine (Lozol): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Irbesartan (Avapro): class |
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Isosorbide mononitrate: class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Labetalol (Nadolol): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lepirudin (Refludan): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Lovastatin (Mevacor): class |
|
Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
| Mannitol (Osmitrol): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Methazolamide (GlaucTabs, Neptazane): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Methyclothiazide (Aquastensen, Enduron): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Methyldopa (Aldomet): class |
|
Definition
| centrally acting sympatholytic |
|
|
Term
| Metolazone (Zaroxolyn): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metoprolol (Lopressor): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metoprolol (Lopressor,toprol-XL): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Moexipril (Univasc): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Other antilipemic medications
|
|
|
Term
| Nifedipine (Adalat, Nifedical, Nifediac, Procardia): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nimodipine (Nimotop): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nisoldipine (sular): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Olmesartan (Benicar): class |
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Penbutolol (Levatol): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Perindopril (Aceon): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline): class |
|
Definition
| peripherally acting α-adronergic blocker |
|
|
Term
| Phentolamine (Regitine): class |
|
Definition
| peripherally acting α-adronergic blocker |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Polythiazide (Renese): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pravastatin (Pravachol): class |
|
Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
| Probucol (Lorelco): class |
|
Definition
Other antilipemic medications
|
|
|
Term
| Propranolol (Inderal): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Quinapril (Accupril): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Quinethazone (Hydromox): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reteplase (Retavase): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simvastatin (Zocor): class |
|
Definition
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
| Sotalol (Betapace): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| potassium-sparing diuretic |
|
|
Term
| Streptokinase (Stretase): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tamsulosin (Flomax): class |
|
Definition
| peripherally acting α-adronergic blocker |
|
|
Term
| Telmisartan (Micardis): class |
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Tenecteplase (TNKase): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Terazosin (Hytrin): class |
|
Definition
PERIPHERAL VASODILATORS: Alpha-adnergic blockers
|
|
|
Term
| Ticlopidine (Ticlid): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Timolol (Blocadren): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tinzaparin (Innohep): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tirofiban (Aggrastat): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Torsemide (Demadex): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Trandolapril (Mavik): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Triamterene (Dyrenium): class |
|
Definition
| potassium-sparing diuretic |
|
|
Term
| Trichlormethazide (Metahydrin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urokinase (Abbokinase): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Valsartan (Diovan): class |
|
Definition
| angiotension II receptor blocker |
|
|
Term
| Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin, Covera-HS, Verelan): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Warfarin sodium (coumadin): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| isradipine (dynacirc): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ydroflumethazide (Diucardin, Saluron): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nicardipine (Cardene): class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pentoxifylline (Trental): class |
|
Definition
| hemorrheaologic peripheral vasodilator |
|
|
Term
| Rosuvastatin (Crestor): class |
|
Definition
| HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| A client is 2-3 weeks status post strep throat. What is he at risk for next? |
|
Definition
| rheumatic fever, leading to rheumatic heart disease |
|
|
Term
| A person with hypertensive crisis is at risk for what specific event? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Basic types of food to avoid (how they're prepared)(2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Calcium channel blockers: what NOT to worry about. |
|
Definition
| Will not affect bones. CCBs block calcium ions, not bone-forming calcium |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac tamponade: disease process (4) |
|
Definition
- fluid accumulates in the pericardium
- pressure on the heart prevents the heart's ventricles from filling properly
- low stroke volume
- end result is ineffective pumping of blood, shock, and often death. |
|
|
Term
| Cardiomyopathy: Disease process (6) |
|
Definition
- Portion of heart muscle suffocates, deteriorates and necroses
- dead area is replaced with non-functioning scar tissue
- reduced heart efficiency puts additional stress on heart, leading to hypertrophy of myocardium
- cardiac output drops
- eventual heart failure |
|
|
Term
| Cardiomyopathy: drug treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristic of infective endocarditis that makes it difficult to treat |
|
Definition
| Infected area gets covered - thus protected - by platelets and fibrin |
|
|
Term
| Creatinine reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deposit of fatty material in the artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: Nursing considerations (2) |
|
Definition
- Monitor for Digoxin toxicity
- Monitor potassium levels, especially if patient also on diuretics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increases the force of myocardial contraction |
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: treatments for toxicity (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Elimination of fluid and potassium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endocarditis: hallmark sx |
|
Definition
- High fever
- heart murmur |
|
|
Term
| First line of treatment for hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For whom would beta blockers be a waste of time?
A) Ronan
B) Carly
C) Adenike
D) Stacy
E) Mr. Adnan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Primary (Essential) hypertension |
|
|
Term
| High BP that is a symptom of a specific cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you know diuretics are working |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypertension drug therapy: age-related consideration |
|
Definition
| Drug tolerance decreases with age. Older patients should be started more slowly. |
|
|
Term
| Hypertension medication of choice for blacks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infective endocarditis: diagnostics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Maximal pressure exerted on arteries during contraction of left ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Myocarditis: drug treatment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
D) Notify RN
Holding the next dose will probably be next, but that's not your call. |
|
Definition
| Patient on Heparin or Coumading has bleeding gums. What do you do? A) Switch to Trident B) Oral care C) Hold the next dose D) Notify RN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient shows signs of pulmonary effusion. What do you do? |
|
|
Term
C) raise his head.
He's suffering from an increased fluid volume around his heart and lungs.
(unless he really does have a pillow on his face) |
|
Definition
Patient wakes up feeling like he's suffocating. What do you do?
A) take the pillow off his face
B) raise his feet
C) raise his head
D) give him something warm and soothing to drink |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Powerful vasoconstrictor produced by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulmonary effusion: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- Feeling of pending doom
- Sudden severe SOB (hence the pending doom)
- Sudden chest pain (yes, more reason for pending doom)
- decrease in pulse ox (now the nurse senses pending doom) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rhematic carditis: prevention (for all) |
|
Definition
| - treat sore throats promptly |
|
|
Term
| Sign of left-sided heart failure (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- spinach
- lima beans
- garbonzo beans |
|
|
Term
| Systolic > 140, diastolic < 90 |
|
Definition
| Isolated systolic hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Term denoting normal blood pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Those with Rheumatic carditis usually have what kind of history? |
|
Definition
| Beta hemolytic group A strep throat |
|
|
Term
| Uric acid reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What areas do infective endocarditis affect? |
|
Definition
| - mitral and aortic valves |
|
|
Term
| What does Rheumatic carditis usually affect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of hypertensive crisis? |
|
Definition
| Client with history of hypertension stops taking meds - BP spikes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major complication of infective endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where's the best place for a patient with DVT?
A) Ron's chair
B) Matt's bicycle
C) Nicole's bed
D) The other end of Douglas' leash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which patient(s) can be sent home? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A) Patient who just dated Ron
B) Patient on Heparin
C) Patient on Coumadin
D) Patient on Digoxin |
|
Definition
C) Patient on Coumadin
D) Patient on Digoxin
Heparin is fast-acting, and needs to be monitored closely.
The patient who dated Ron will need to go back to the psyche ward. |
|
|
Term
Who is most prone to hypertension?
A) Ngok
B) Olaniyi
C) Matt
D) Mrs. Lee |
|
Definition
B) Olaniyi
(Except when grading tests, it's Mrs. Lee) |
|
|
Term
| Who tends to be at risk for pulmonary effusion? |
|
Definition
- Those on prolonged bedrest
- Those who constantly cross their legs in bed (probably not Ron). |
|
|
Term
| Antihypertensive of choice for europeans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: Effects on blood |
|
Definition
- Potassium levels decrease
- Dig levels increase |
|
|
Term
| Potassium-sparing loop diuretic that works on the distal tubule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Doctor orders Digoxin. What else would you expect to see ordered? |
|
Definition
| Potassium chloride, 10-20 MG |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procardiac: classification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient on hypertension meds. Latest BP=120/80. What do you do? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A) hold dose
B) give dose
C) ask MD about reducing dosage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Beta blockers: pre-admin intervention |
|
Definition
| Check BP and pulse. Hold if sys<100, dias<70, or pulse<60 |
|
|
Term
| Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG); advantage and disadvantage of using mammary artery over saphenous |
|
Definition
A: longer patency
D: procedure more difficult and time-consuming. |
|
|
Term
| Bumex: diet consideration |
|
Definition
| Increase potassium intake |
|
|
Term
| Coronary Artery Bypass Graft: Purpose (2) |
|
Definition
- Increase blood flow to myocardium
- Alleviate angina |
|
|
Term
| Endarterectomy: What to expect in the long-term |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Classic symptom of an arterial clot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aneurysm: Treatment and its goal |
|
Definition
| Reduce BP to lessen chance of rupture. |
|
|
Term
Thoracic aneurysm: s/sx (3)
- Chest pain
- Shoulder pain |
|
Definition
| - Back pain (caused by pressure on vertebrae) |
|
|
Term
| Dissecting aneurysm: Definition |
|
Definition
| Process of artery wall layers being pulled apart |
|
|
Term
| Dissecting aneurysm: s/sx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prominent, pulsating bulge in abdomen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What NOT to do to an abdominal aneurysm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Modifiable risk factors for blood clots (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for VENOUS blood clots (3) |
|
Definition
- extended bed rest
- crossing legs
- dehydration (increases blood viscosity) |
|
|
Term
| nursing care is directed at _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain-sensing nerve endings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain felt in limbs no longer present (ie, amputee patients) |
|
Definition
phantom pain
treat it as any other pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Physical manifestation of depression |
|
|
Term
| natural pain-killers. Don't last long. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A form of pain management that utilizes imagination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Examples include sprains, bone fractures, burns, bumps, bruises, inflammation (from an infection or arthritic disorder), obstructions, and myofascial pain (which may indicate abnormal muscle stresses). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the point at which pain begins to be felt. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, usually abbreviated to NSAIDs or NAIDs, are drugs with analgesic, antipyretic (fever-reducing) and, in higher doses, with anti-inflammatory effects (reducing inflammation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is a computerized pump that safely permits you to push a button and deliver small amounts of pain medicine into your intravenous (IV) line, usually in your arm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation - the application of electrical current through the skin for pain control. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nervous system changes painful stimuli in the nerve endings to impulses. |
|
|
Term
| that originates in one body part but is perceived in another part of the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| that originates in one body part but is perceived in another part of the body. |
|
|
Term
| discomfort that continues for a long period (6 months or longer). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| withdrawn, sleeplessness, appetite changes, other behaviors out of thier norm. |
|
|
Term
| effect of most pain medications - slowing down of vitals, etc. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pain rating scales used for children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain assessment tool in which the nurse uses observed behaviors to determine pain level |
|
Definition
| FLACC - The nurse observes the child's face, legs, activity, cry, and consolability |
|
|
Term
| When would we give planned pain medications? |
|
Definition
| Right after surgery and 30 min before a painful procedure. |
|
|
Term
| what is the term used for a chronic pain that resists therapeutic actions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| another name for a chronic pain is...... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most dangerous of the antidepressants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the traditional Chinese belief regarding pain? |
|
Definition
| That pain is related to the imbalance of yin and yang or hot and cold. |
|
|
Term
| This culture tends to express pain quite regularly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mneumonic used when gathering information on client symptoms (including pain). |
|
Definition
COLDSPA
CHARACTER: Describe the sign or symptom. How does it feel, look, sound, smell, and so forth?
ONSET: When did it begin?
LOCATION: Where is it? Does it radiate?
DURATION: How long does it last? Does it recur?
SEVERITY: How bad is it?
PATTERN: What makes it better? What makes it worse?
ASSOCIATED FACTORS: What other symptoms occur with it? |
|
|
Term
| How analgesics provide pain relif |
|
Definition
| by altering the body's sodium and potassium levels, thus slowing or haltin pain transmission. |
|
|
Term
| nursing interventions for pain management. |
|
Definition
| diversion, change position, bathing, back rub, massaging hands. |
|
|
Term
| What structure does diabetes damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Early signs of hypoglycemia: select all that apply
a) coma
b) confusion
c) headache
d) hunger
e) pallor
f) palpitations
g) seizures
h) sweating
i) tremor
|
|
Definition
C) headache.
D) hunger
E) pallor
F) palpitations
G) sweating
H) tremor
|
|
|
Term
| What does the Glucose Tolerance Test involve? |
|
Definition
- Client ingests a concentrated carbohydrate drink.
- Blood glucose measured 2 hrs later
- result over 200 indicates DM
- result 140-199 indicates impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) |
|
|
Term
| Fruity breath: sign of? Who can get it? |
|
Definition
- DKA
- Type 1 DM only (for now) |
|
|
Term
| Foot care for the diabetic: What NOT to do. |
|
Definition
- Don't soak feet
- Don't put lotion between the toes
- Don't wear rubber shoes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Tremors,
- diaphoresis,
- change LOC quickly,
- irritable,
- weakness,
- cold and clammy skin |
|
|
Term
| Examples of macrovascular complications |
|
Definition
- arthersclerosis
- arteriosclerosis
- hyptertension
- elevated LDL and trigs
- stroke
- heart attack |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- brings down glucose levels
- reduces need for insulin |
|
|
Term
| Purpose for rotating insulin injection sites |
|
Definition
- decreases irritation
- increases absorption rate. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- pancreas doesn't make enough insulin
- insufficient or ineffective insulin receptors |
|
|
Term
| Reasons for recommending 5-6 meals per day |
|
Definition
| - stable input, maintains constistent glucose levels |
|
|
Term
| Give the steps for mixing 10 units regular insulin and 20 units NPH insulin |
|
Definition
1- Inspect both bottles for proper type, expiration date, etc.
2- wipe off both bottle tops with alcohol wipe
3- Insert syringe into NPH bottle and inject 20 units air. withdraw needle
4- insert needle into regular bottle and inject 10 units air. DO NOT remove needle.
5- invert bottle and draw 10 units regular insulin. withdraw needle
6- re-insert needle into NPH bottle and withdraw 20 units insulin. Withdraw needle.
NOTE: If you withdraw too much from the second bottle, you CANNOT inject it back in. Discard the syringe and start over. |
|
|
Term
| According to the carb exchange list, how much rice equals one slice of bread |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Client takes regular insulin, but does not eat enough. When is he at risk for hyperinsulinism? |
|
Definition
| 2 hrs later - at the peak of the insulin cycle. |
|
|
Term
| Exchange list: 1 cup rice can be exchanged for what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Postprandial glucose test: diabetes diagnosed at what limit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When to check client after giving regular insulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proper glucose testing schedule |
|
Definition
30 min before meal
AND
2 hrs after meal |
|
|
Term
| How soon after giving INSULIN will you check BLOOD SUGAR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normal preprandial plasma glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| you administer LISPRO @ 0730, what time should BREAKFAST be served? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long can insulin be stored after being opened? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If lispro is given at 7:30 am, when should breakfast be given? |
|
Definition
| As soon after as possible |
|
|
Term
When administering insulin to a type 1 diabetic, what is the most important thing the nurse needs to know?
A) duration of insulin
B) accuracy of the dose
C) site of injection
D) technique of injiction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The nurse reviews the lab tests of a DKA patient. Which is an expected finding?
A) BS=250
B) pH=6.9
C) HCO3=19
D) PCO2=40 |
|
Definition
B) pH=6.9
Indicates acidosis |
|
|
Term
| If the abdomen is not available, what is the next choice for insulin injection |
|
Definition
Anterior thigh
HCO3 is only slightly low, not quite low enough to indicate the kind of acidity expected from DKA |
|
|
Term
| where is the PREFERRED site for SHORT and INTERMEDIATE acting Insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug inhibits glucose production by the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which would be included in teaching about foot care?
A) Wash feet in hot water daily
B) Use razor to remove cysts or calluses
C) Apply moisterizer daily
D) wear well-fitting comfortable rubber shoes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most important diabetic dietary consideration |
|
Definition
| Calories: consistent intake |
|
|
Term
| Sugars are the digested result of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most recognizable symptom of possible diabetes. |
|
Definition
| Constant infections (slow healing). |
|
|
Term
Major factor in type diabetes
A) high-fat diet
B) diet high in carbs
C)
D) Obesity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is appropriate for insulin
A) Deltoid
B) forearm
C) lateral gluteus
D) anterior thigh |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nurse typically give to unconscious pt for low BS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperglycemia in a DM 1 patient can lead to what? |
|
Definition
| DKA - Diabetic ketoacidosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Caused by autoimmune destruction of beta cells |
|
|
Term
| most important intervention to tell DM patients: |
|
Definition
| Do Not skip meals, CONSISTENCY, eat all meals at consistent times. |
|
|
Term
| What advice is given to the client regarding exercise when glucose is above 250 and keytones are present? |
|
Definition
Don't exercise. This indicates insufficient insulin is present, and glycogen may be released during exercise, making the problem worse instead of better.
(Also true if BS>300 without ketones) |
|
|
Term
| DM 1 patients who get sick should do what? |
|
Definition
| Drink juice to bring up glucose. |
|
|
Term
After teaching a group of students about DKH, and HHNK, more teaching needed if which is identified as HHNK
A) glucose over 500
B) elevated potassium
C) decreased sodium
D) ph 7.35 - 7.45 |
|
Definition
Elevated potassium
lytes elevate in DKA, not HHNK |
|
|
Term
| Why does exercise lower blood sugar levels? |
|
Definition
| Exercising muscle cells do not need insulin to help absorb glucose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DM client complains of symptoms, but is stable. What to do first |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| triamcinolone (Aristocort) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
client must fast 12 hrs before test. |
|
|
Term
| What test is used to monitor progress of diabetes control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are macrovascular complications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Responsible for up to 90% of diabetes 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rapid-acting insulin: give onset, peak and duration |
|
Definition
Humalog:
- Onset 15-30 min
- Peak 30-90 min
- Duration up to 5 hrs
NovoLog:
- onset 10-20 min
- peak 1-3 hr
- duration 3-5 hr |
|
|
Term
| long-acting: give onset, peak and duration |
|
Definition
Humulin U:
onset 4-6 hr
peak 14-24 hr
duration 26-36 hr
Glargine (lantus):
- onset 70 min
- no peak
- 24 hr |
|
|
Term
| When mixing insulins (NPH and Regular), into which bottle do you inject air first? |
|
Definition
| Inject air into NPH bottle first. |
|
|
Term
| Why glucophage is a preferred treatment med. |
|
Definition
It rarely causes hypoglycemia
(although it could cause lactic acidosis) |
|
|
Term
| Side effect of Desmopressin (DDAVP) to watch for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diabetics of all types should have what sort of protection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drug that helps tissue use insulin more effectively |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| flurocortisone (Florinef Ac..) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lispro/Aspart/Exubera/Humalog/Novalog: insulin type: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of insulin can be given via the pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only type of insulin that can be given by IV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Short-acting: give onset, peak and duration |
|
Definition
Short-acting
- Onset 30 - 60 min
- Peak 2-5 hr
- duration 3-5 hr |
|
|
Term
| Erectile dysfunction is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
| Sign of autonomic neuropathy |
|
|
Term
| Chlorpropamide (Diabinese) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do we know patients know how to check glucose or give insulin? |
|
Definition
| The patient demonstrates it back to you. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All are symptoms of hypoglycemia except
A) Shaking
B) Feeling cold
C) Dizziness
D) Excessive thirst |
|
Definition
Thirst:
This is hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
| Who would most likely need the following advice: "avoid exercising at the time of day when your blood sugar is at its lowest." |
|
Definition
| Those on intermediate-acting insulin |
|
|
Term
| How to know if a cut or injury is healing? |
|
Definition
| Through documentation. Comparing size and appearance from shift to shift. |
|
|
Term
| levothyroxine (Synthroid) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why the type 2 diabetic cannot take oral insulin? |
|
Definition
| Won't work - stomach won't absorb it. |
|
|
Term
| What to avoid when on glyburide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with type 1 has glucose 324. Usually <150. What does he do first
A) Drink OJ
B) Call MD
C) Check urine for ketones and drink water
D) Lie down and recheck glucose in 2hr |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If diabetec has MILD symptoms, what do do first |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Best way to prevent nephropathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt's on GLYBURIDE should avoid what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when administering HUMULOG, what precaution must be taken? |
|
Definition
| have FOOD TRAY readily available (this insulin is fast acting) |
|
|
Term
| low, bounding pulse is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What client can do to reduce risk of ketoacidosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NPH Humulin N/Novalin N: insulin type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intermediate-acting: give onset, peak and duration |
|
Definition
intermediate-acting:
onset 1-2 hr
peak 6-12 hr
duration 18-26 hr |
|
|
Term
| Patient's wife asks why his dm has fruity odor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Humulin U/Ultralente/glargine/lantus/Levemir: insulin type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| make proper insulin adjustments |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| moves glucose into body cells for use |
|
|
Term
| Unconscious patient with severe hyperglycemia and dehydration, AND elevated osmolarity. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| nonketotic hyperosmolar coma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pancreas stops making insulin |
|
|
Term
| A client has peripheral neuropathy. How is this manifested? |
|
Definition
| peripheral neuropathy - tingling, numbness, and a general lack of sensation in the fingers. |
|
|
Term
| Preferred site for intermediate or short-acting insulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diabetic would be prescribed Diabeta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Age of onset for type 1 DM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tests that require contrast medium |
|
Definition
- Upper GI series
- Lower GI series
- computer imaging |
|
|
Term
| B12 Deficiency results in ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| peripherally inserted central catheter |
|
|
Term
| Nursing intervention for patient gagging and complaining of pain from NG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NG tube: intervention NOT requiring MD order |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Total Parenteral Nutrients
- central venous access
- placement of catheter in to large blood vessel (sup. vena cava)
- direct IV admin of fluids
- nutrients into circulatory system |
|
|
Term
| air being instilled into the bowel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anything you can see through |
|
|
Term
| colon is inflated with air during colonoscopy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| colonoscopy: post-procedure consideration |
|
Definition
| colon is insufflated during procedure. Help patient release air afterwards. |
|
|
Term
| description of the Levin tube |
|
Definition
- single lumen
- no air vent (so use low intermittent suction |
|
|
Term
| description of the Salem sump |
|
Definition
- double-lumen
- has air vent (so low to medium continuous suction allowed) |
|
|
Term
| dumping syndrome: Causal foods |
|
Definition
- High in cholesterol and electrolytes, especially salt.
- MSG |
|
|
Term
| dumping syndrome: intervention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dumping syndrome: process |
|
Definition
| Rapid entry of food into the jejunum without proper mixing of the food with digestive juices |
|
|
Term
| dumping syndrome: s/sx (7) |
|
Definition
- palpitations
- sweating
- faintness
- excessive weakness
- diarrhea
- vomiting
- Signs of shock may develop |
|
|
Term
| four abdominal assessments |
|
Definition
- inspection
- auscultation
- palpitation
- percussion |
|
|
Term
| function of Intrinsic factor |
|
Definition
| Required for absorption of vitamin B12 |
|
|
Term
| gastric surgery: NG tube precautions |
|
Definition
- no pushing the tube
- no irrigating |
|
|
Term
| how do you get rid of gas in an ostomy bag? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how to decrease patient anxiety regarding therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how to determine if TPN is working |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| colon is inflated with air during colonoscopy |
|
|
Term
| intervention for starting tube feeding |
|
Definition
| check placement - aspirate contents |
|
|
Term
| interventions for the patient about to have GI therapy (6) |
|
Definition
- informed consent
- NPO midnight
- void prior
- GoLytely
- Labs
- V/S
|
|
|
Term
| is gag-reflex check needed after lower GI exam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is gag-reflex check needed after upper GI exam? |
|
Definition
| No. Barium does not numb the throat |
|
|
Term
| key points to removing NG tube |
|
Definition
- clamp tube before removing
- remove in a continuous motion |
|
|
Term
| needed for absorption of vitamin B12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing care of patient with NG tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ostomy type: discharge is liquid to mushy, foul odor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ostomy type: discharge is liquid, mushy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ostomy type: discharge is mushy to semiformed |
|
Definition
| Right transverse colostomy |
|
|
Term
| ostomy type: discharge is semiformed, soft |
|
Definition
| Left transverse colostomy |
|
|
Term
| ostomy type: discharge is soft to hard formed |
|
Definition
| Descending or sigmoid colostomy |
|
|
Term
| ostomy: Nursing considerations for client (5) |
|
Definition
– Clothing: not tight
– Bathing
– Skin care: Review appliance application
– Activity
– Diet |
|
|
Term
| ostomy: Skin barrier circumference: |
|
Definition
| 1/16" – 1/8” from the stoma |
|
|
Term
| ostomy: diet considerations (9) |
|
Definition
Avoid foods that could cause blockage:
- Green leafy vegetables,
- cole slaw,
- celery, corn,
- foods with nondigestible peels, - coconut,
- mushrooms,
- nuts,
- dried fruits,
- chinese vegetables,
- meats with casings |
|
|
Term
| ostomy: frequency of appliance change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ostomy: normal appearance (4) |
|
Definition
- pink
- moist
- some blood right after
- no blood after 3 days |
|
|
Term
| ostomy: when is the pouch emptied |
|
Definition
| When it is 1/3 to 1/2 full |
|
|
Term
| peptic ulcer: description |
|
Definition
| ulceration in mucosal wall of stomach, pylorus, duodenum or esophagus |
|
|
Term
| position for tube-feeding of comatose patient |
|
Definition
| 30 degrees to high-Fowlers |
|
|
Term
| post-GI therapy intervention |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| process of transferring food elements into circulation for transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| situations requiring alternative feeding between 2 wks and 2 months |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Do not change the dressing
- Check glucose q6h
- Start (and stop) slowly to allow pancreas to adjust |
|
|
Term
| tube feeding: when is it held? |
|
Definition
| When residual is over 100cc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- esophagus
- stomach
- duodenum |
|
|
Term
| what to do if NG tube is not draining |
|
Definition
- check for leaks by aspirating
- flush with water (30ml max) |
|
|
Term
| when is irrigating an NG tube with normal saline the only correct choice? |
|
Definition
- tube in place for extended period AND
- electrolytes are low |
|
|
Term
| why we put skin barrier on stoma |
|
Definition
| prevent skin breakdown from frequent appliance changes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enteral nutrition: description (2) |
|
Definition
| - tube feeding - catheter into stomach |
|
|
Term
Blood is responsible for the transportation of:
1._________, 2._________, 3.________, 4._________, 5.__________, and 6._____________ to and from the cells |
|
Definition
1.oxygen
2.carbon dioxide
3.nutirents
4.heat
5.waste products
6.hormones
Blood also helps regulate pH, body temperature, and cellular water content. It contributes to protection from blood loss and foreign body invasion. |
|
|
Term
| Blood is considered a ___________ tissue |
|
Definition
Connective Tissue
It differs from other connective tissues, however, in that its cells are not fixed, but move freely in liquid portion of the blood know as plasma. |
|
|
Term
KEY CONCEPT PG 236
A form of erythropoietin derived in DNA technology may be used to treat the type of anemia caused by insufficient or ineffective RBCs. This is called? |
|
Definition
| recombinant human erythropoietin or epoetin alfa |
|
|
Term
| What can the loss of albumin result in? |
|
Definition
| dramatic fluid shifts, edema, hypotension, and even death. |
|
|
Term
| both are essential for blood clotting. |
|
Definition
| Fibrinogen and prothrombin |
|
|
Term
| Loss of albumin can result in ___ |
|
Definition
| dramatic fluid shifts, edema, hypotension, and even death |
|
|
Term
| What mineral is important for hemoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the universal recipient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which WBC carries heparin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which WBC detoxifies foreign bodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which WBC recognizes foreign antigens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which WBC releases histamine during an inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which WBC is important in allergies and parasitics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Percentage of WBCs that are Basophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Percentage of WBCs that are monocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Percentage of WBCs that are Neutrophils |
|
Definition
57-67:
3-5% bands, 54-62% segmented |
|
|
Term
| Percentage of WBCs that are Lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Percentage of WBCs that are eosinophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin (Hgb) reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hematocrit (Hct) reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH) reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
Concentration (MCHC) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
White Blood Count (WBC)
(Leukocytes) reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelets (Thrombocytes) indication |
|
Definition
| Helps blood clotting in order to stop bleeding from injury. Decreased platelet count is called thrombocytopenia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Low levels associated with risk of infection; high levels indicates possible
infection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| These cells provide primary defense against bacterial infection Range: 50-70% of White Blood Cells Bands: 2-6% of White Blood Cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Many kinds of immune cells; protect
against pathogens (bacteria, virus, fungi)
and cancer |
|
|
Term
Which of the following medications should be witheld from a patient with a bleeding disorder?
A. Digoxin(Lanoxin)
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Morphine
D. Aspirin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following nutrient deficiencies are most likely to be the cause of anemia?
A Vitamin C,D, and selenium
B Iron,folic acid,and vitamin B12
C Vitamin A,calcium, and phosphorus
D Aluminum, vitamin E, and beta carotene. |
|
Definition
B. Iron,folic acid,and vitamin B12
MS, pg 510 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the patiennt with iron deficiency anemia to eat?
A molasses and red meats
B citrus fruits and dairy products
C yellow vegetables,green teas
D Berries and natural cereals |
|
Definition
A. molasses and red meats
MS, pg 522 |
|
|
Term
A patient with aplastic anemia is to receive an injction of erythropoietin (Epogen). She asks what the injection intended to do.Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
A it works like a blood transfusion to give you extra red blood cells
B it will inhibit the protein that is attacking byour red blood cells.
c It will stimulate your body to produce more of its own red blood cells
D it will give you energy while your body is recovering from the anemia. |
|
Definition
C. It will stimulate your body to produce more of its own red blood cells
MS, pg 525 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following manifestations alerts the nurse to the possibility of disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC)?
A Weakness of paralysis on one side
B Rising blood pressure and pulse
C Petechiae
D Absence of pulses in extremeties |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following nursing actions is the best way to prevent infection in the post operative patient?
A Practice good hand washing
B Check vital signs every 4 hours
C Change wound dressings daily.
D Encourage 2 liters of fluid daily. |
|
Definition
| A. Practice good hand washing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| This enzyme dissolves a clot |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Another name for platelets |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| its primary role is the defense of the body, especially against pathogens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| this anticoagulant acts primarily as an antithrombin agent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| converts fibrinogen to fibrin threads |
|
|
Term
| It is one of the most common reasons that people seek healthcare |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It is the single best indicator of pain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing care is directed at _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain-sensing nerve endings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain felt in limbs no longer present (ie, amputee patients) |
|
Definition
phantom pain
treat it as any other pain |
|
|
Term
| Physical manifestatin of depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Physical manifestation of depression |
|
|
Term
| Those at risk for poor pain management include ____ and ______ |
|
Definition
| Children / mentally disabled |
|
|
Term
| natural pain-killers. Don't last long. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A form of pain management that utilizes imagination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Normal process of stimuli that damages normal tissues or has the potential to do so if prolonged; usually responsive to nonopioids and/or opioids. |
|
|
Term
| Examples include sprains, bone fractures, burns, bumps, bruises, inflammation (from an infection or arthritic disorder), obstructions, and myofascial pain (which may indicate abnormal muscle stresses). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the point at which pain begins to be felt. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the amount of pain that a person can withstand before breaking down emotionally and/or physically. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pain perceived at a site adjacent to or at a distance from the site of an injury's origin.[ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, usually abbreviated to NSAIDs or NAIDs, are drugs with analgesic, antipyretic (fever-reducing) and, in higher doses, with anti-inflammatory effects (reducing inflammation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is a computerized pump that safely permits you to push a button and deliver small amounts of pain medicine into your intravenous (IV) line, usually in your arm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation - the application of electrical current through the skin for pain control. |
|
|
Term
| Needed in order for patient to feel pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemicals released during inflammatory pain |
|
Definition
| histamine, acetocholine, prostaglandis and bradykinin |
|
|
Term
| the four phases of nociception |
|
Definition
| Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation |
|
|
Term
| the four phases of nociception |
|
Definition
| Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation |
|
|
Term
| normal pain transmission and interpretation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nervous system changes painful stimuli in the nerve endings to impulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nervous system changes painful stimuli in the nerve endings to impulses. |
|
|
Term
| The impulses travel from their original site to the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The impulses travel from their original site to the brain. |
|
|
Term
| The brain recognizes, defines, and responds to pain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The brain recognizes, defines, and responds to pain. |
|
|
Term
| The body activates needed inhibitory responses to the effects of pain (Craven & Hirnle, 2007). If the modulation response of the body is not successful, external intervention is required to manage the pain. Some of these interventions are discussed later in this chapter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The body activates needed inhibitory responses to the effects of pain (Craven & Hirnle, 2007). If the modulation response of the body is not successful, external intervention is required to manage the pain. Some of these interventions are discussed later in this chapter. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Usually a sensation that ends abruptly. Typically lasts less than six months. Usually intermittent, not constant. |
|
|
Term
| Usually a sensation that ends abruptly. Typically lasts less than six months. Usually intermittent, not constant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| that originates in one body part but is perceived in another part of the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| that originates in one body part but is perceived in another part of the body. |
|
|
Term
| Verey severe pain that may be considered intractable and chronic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| discomfort that continues for a long period (6 months or longer). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| withdrawn, sleeplessness, appetite changes, other behaviors out of thier norm. |
|
|
Term
| Sustained release pain med. When it isn't lasting long enough. What is that called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| effect of most pain medications - slowing down of vitals, etc. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Problem with giving a placebo to a patient |
|
Definition
| It is only a fake, and you can't lie to the patient about what they're getting. |
|
|
Term
| Issue regarding effectiveness of pain patch |
|
Definition
| It's going to take a while. Give something fast acting to relieve in the short-term. |
|
|
Term
| What degree (strength) of pain med should you start with to treat long-term pains? |
|
Definition
| start low, work up as necessary. NSAIDs are a good start. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Neuropathic pain - longer than 6 months. Can be difficult to treat. Patient may complain of burning, tingling, shooting pains. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A pain disorder associated with psychological factors. Some types of mental or emotional problems can cause, increase, or prolong pain |
|
|
Term
| Area of brain in which pain threshold is found |
|
Definition
| thalmus and cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
| May decrease endorphine production |
|
Definition
| caffein, nicotein, alcohol |
|
|
Term
| Pain relief can ____ the healing process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Key concepts regarding the documentation of pain management. |
|
Definition
Level
description
action taken
results. |
|
|
Term
| pain rating scales used for children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used on children 3-7 (and those unable to effectively communicate verbally) to determine pain level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used on children under 3 to determine pain level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain assessment tool in which the nurse uses observed behaviors to determine pain level |
|
Definition
| FLACC - The nurse observes the child's face, legs, activity, cry, and consolability |
|
|
Term
| A person can continue to function with a pain rating of no more than ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would we give planned pain medications? |
|
Definition
| Right after surgery and 30 min before a painful procedure. |
|
|
Term
| Cognitive behavioral measure of pain management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Independent nursing intervetion |
|
Definition
| Comfort control. No order necessary |
|
|
Term
| what pain scale can be used for a patient 3years or younger? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cause of Myocardial infarction pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What clients would you use the Wong baker scale for? |
|
Definition
| age 3-7 yrs or patients with language barrier. |
|
|
Term
| What requires orders for pain management and what doesn't (examples). |
|
Definition
| positioning,breathing techniques,guided imagery. |
|
|
Term
| How to help a client deal with terminal illness. |
|
Definition
| Group activities are good. |
|
|
Term
| patient w terminal cancer at pain=7. vitals are unchanged. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pain that originates from one part of the body but is felt in another part of the body is called..... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term used for a chronic pain that resists therapeutic actions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| differentiate between a pain threshold and a pain tolerance. |
|
Definition
| pain tolerance is the maximum point to which a patient can no longer condone pain while pain threshold is a state at which an individual recognizes pain. |
|
|
Term
| what is another word for a nociceptive pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| another name for a chronic pain is...... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the three class of analgesics commonly used to control pain? |
|
Definition
| NSAIDS,opoids,adjuvant drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it is a pain that is felt from an amputated part of the body |
|
|
Term
| what is the 5th vital sign? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does TENS help relieve pain |
|
Definition
| it sends electric stimulus to the pain site when an individual feels pain. |
|
|
Term
| what are the consequences of unrelieved pain? |
|
Definition
| visual disturbances,nausea and vomiting. |
|
|
Term
| what part of the brain perceives pain? |
|
Definition
| thalamus and cerebral cortex. |
|
|
Term
| what chemicals are released during inflammatory pain? |
|
Definition
| prostaglandins and bradykyn |
|
|
Term
| Causes of pain are........? |
|
Definition
| trauma,surgical incision,tumor growth,excess in pressure,heat and cold. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| whatever the person experiencing it says it is |
|
|
Term
| Another definition of pain....... |
|
Definition
| Body signal of distress that cannot be ignored. |
|
|
Term
| What can past experiences of pain in our children do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does fentynl patch help control pain? |
|
Definition
| it delivers continuous pain relief |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| if a client complains of pain,the pain is real. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation |
|
|
Term
| Nerve endings specialized for pain reception |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nerve endings specialized for pain reception |
|
|
Term
| How is phantom pain treated as compared to other types of pain? |
|
Definition
| Treat it as you would any other pain |
|
|
Term
| The most dangerous of the antidepressants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Children who have past pain experiences tend to be _________ toward pain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of depression |
|
Definition
extreme fatigue
inability to sleep or sleeping too much
lack of interest in surroundings
lack of or excessive appetite
guilt feelings
sexual impotence
withdrawal from social activities |
|
|
Term
extreme fatigue
inability to sleep or sleeping too much
lack of interest in surroundings
lack of or excessive appetite
guilt feelings
sexual impotence
withdrawal from social activities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endorphines and enkephalins |
|
Definition
| naturally occurring substances that relieve pain |
|
|
Term
| naturally occurring substances that relieve pain |
|
Definition
| endorphins and enkephalins |
|
|
Term
| Why exercise and laughter are good pain medicines? |
|
Definition
| increases endorphine production. |
|
|
Term
| Caffeine, nicotine, alcohol, salt and sugar |
|
Definition
| substances believed to decrease endorphin production |
|
|
Term
| substances believed to decrease endorphin production |
|
Definition
| caffeine, nicotine, alcohol, salt, and sugar |
|
|
Term
| What is the traditional Chinese belief regarding pain? |
|
Definition
| That pain is related to the imbalance of yin and yang or hot and cold. |
|
|
Term
| What culture tends to believe pain is related to immoral behavior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This culture believes religious beliefs may contribute to high pain tolerance |
|
Definition
| African American pain belief |
|
|
Term
| This culture tends NOT to express pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This culture tends to express pain quite regularly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This culture tends to believe that pain is a sign of guilt or punishment from God |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| whenever vital signs are measured. |
|
|
Term
| What is included in the documentation of pain? |
|
Definition
Pain level
description of pain
action taken
results |
|
|
Term
| The mneumonic used when gathering information on client symptoms (including pain). |
|
Definition
COLDSPA
CHARACTER: Describe the sign or symptom. How does it feel, look, sound, smell, and so forth?
ONSET: When did it begin?
LOCATION: Where is it? Does it radiate?
DURATION: How long does it last? Does it recur?
SEVERITY: How bad is it?
PATTERN: What makes it better? What makes it worse?
ASSOCIATED FACTORS: What other symptoms occur with it? |
|
|
Term
| Nurse documents an infant's FLACC scale as Legs-1, Crying-1. What did she likely observe? |
|
Definition
Legs-1: uneasy, restless and/or tense
Crying-1: Moaning/whimpering, occasional complaints. |
|
|
Term
| Nurse documents an infant's FLACC scale as Legs-0, Crying-0. What did she likely observe? |
|
Definition
Legs: normal position, relaxed
Crying: none. |
|
|
Term
| Nurse documents an infant's FLACC scale as Legs-2, Crying-2. What did she likely observe? |
|
Definition
Legs: kicking or drawn up
Cry: crying/screaming steadily, frequent complaints. |
|
|
Term
| What is uneasy, tense leg activity on the FLACC scale |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is leg activity involving kicking and/or drawn up legs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An infant's legs appear to be relaxed and/or in normal position. What is your FLACC scale documentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An infant is sleeping without crying. What is your FLACC scale report. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An infant is moaning in its sleep. What is your FLACC scale report? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An infant is crying steadily. What is your FLACC scale report |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pain assessment scale would be best used on a 2-year-old receiving paralytic medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is meant by "Character" of the pain |
|
Definition
| What the pain feels like: ie, aching, burning, crushing, dull, pounding, etc. |
|
|
Term
| What is meant by "duration" of pain. |
|
Definition
| How often and how long it lasts, ie occasional, intermittent, spasmotic, or constant. |
|
|
Term
| Medications that relieve pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How analgesics provide pain relif |
|
Definition
| by altering the body's sodium and potassium levels, thus slowing or haltin pain transmission. |
|
|
Term
| Surgery may be needed to relieve what kind of pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nursing interventions for pain management. |
|
Definition
| diversion, change position, bathing, back rub, massaging hands. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Diverticulitis develops from diverticulosis. Diverticulitis results if one of these diverticula becomes inflamed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| involves the formation of pouches (diverticula) on the outside of the colon. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- exam of hepatobiliary system with flexible endoscope into esophagus
- multiple positions required
- if meds given, monitor for signs of respiratory and CNS depression, hypotension, oversedation, vomiting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- V/S
- gag reflex
- monitor for signs of perforation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- NPO several hours prior
- sedation |
|
|
Term
| Parenteral nutrition: nursing considerations (6) |
|
Definition
- start slowly
- check glucose q6hr
- strict steril when changing botles, tubing, filters, dressings
- constant rate
- monitor skin integrity
- client teaching re line management |
|
|
Term
| anoscopy, proctoscopy & sigmoidoscopy: postprocedure |
|
Definition
| monitor for rectal bleeding and signs of perforation and peritonitis |
|
|
Term
| anoscopy, proctoscopy & sigmoidoscopy: preprocedure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| commonly administered antiemetics(13) |
|
Definition
Diphenidol
Dolasetron(Anzemet)
Dronabinol(Marinol)
Granisetron(Kytril)
Hydroxyzine pamoate(Vistaril)
Meclizine hyrochloride(Antivert)
Metoclopramide(Reglan)
ondansentron(Zofran)
prochlorperazine(compazine)
Promethazine hydrochloride(phenergan)
Scopolamine transdermal(transderm-scop)
Thiethylperazine meleate(Torecan)
trimethobenzamide hydrochloride(tigan) |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcer: causes (5) |
|
Definition
- alcohol
- smoking
- stress
- caffeine
- NSAIDS, aspirin, Corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcer: definition |
|
Definition
| breakdown of mucosa in duodenum |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcer: nursing interventions (6) |
|
Definition
- monitor V/S
- monitor for signs of bleeding
- abdominal assessments
- bland diet
- small frequent meals
- stop smoking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- burning pain in epigastric area 2-4 hrs after eating and at night
- pain is often relieved by eating
- weight gain
- melena |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: complications (4) |
|
Definition
- bleeding
- perforation
- gastric outlet obstruciton
- intractable disease |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: interventions (10) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- bland diet
- small frequent meals
- rest
- no smoking
- no alcohol
- no caffeine
- no aspirin, corticosteroids, NSAIDs
- antacids
- H2-receptor antagonists |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: risk factors (8) |
|
Definition
- alcohol
- smoking
- stress
- caffeine
- aspirin
- corticosteroids
- NSAIDs
- H. pylori |
|
|
Term
| duodenal ulcers: s/sx (3) |
|
Definition
- burning pain in midepigastric area 1.5-3 hrs after meal
- food relieves pain
- melena (more often than hematemesis) |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: client education (7) |
|
Definition
- no alcohol
- no caffeine
- no chocolate
- no smoking
- no aspirin or NSAIDs
- reduce stress
- rest |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: complications (3) |
|
Definition
- hemorrhage
- perforation
- pyloric obstruction |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: description |
|
Definition
| ulceration of mucosal lining that extends to submucosal layer of stomach |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: interventions (8) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- bland diet
- small, frequent meals
- H2 receptor antagonists
- antacids
- anticholinergics
- mucosal barrier protectants 1 hr before meal
- prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: interventions during active bleeding (10) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- NPO
- IV fluid replacement
- monitor I & O
- monitor hgb/hct
- blood transfusions
- ng tube
- lavage (saline or tap water)
- Pitressin
- assess for signs of other problems (see other card) |
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers: interventions during active bleeding; assess for signs of .. |
|
Definition
- dehydration
- hypovolemic shock
- sepsis
- respiratory insufficiency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of gastric mucosa |
|
|
Term
| gastritis: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
- hold fluids and food until symptoms subside. Then feed progressively
- ice chips
- clear liquids
- solid food |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- abdominal discomfort
- headache
- anorexia
- hiccups |
|
|
Term
| gastroesophageal reflux disease: description (2) |
|
Definition
- backflow of contents into esophagus
- caused by incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric stenosis, or a motility disorder |
|
|
Term
| gastroesophageal reflux disease: interventions (7) |
|
Definition
- avoid factors that decrease lower esophageal sphincter pressure
- low-fat, high-fiber diet
- no caffeine, tobacco, carbonated drinks
- loose clothes
- elevate head of bed on blocks
- no anticholinergics
- laparoscopic fundoplication |
|
|
Term
| gastroesophageal reflux disease: s/sx (5) |
|
Definition
- pyrosis
- dyspepsia
- regurgitation
- pain and difficulty swallowing
- hypersalivation |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: complications (7) |
|
Definition
- ulceration
- hemorrhage
- regurgitation and aspiration
- strangulation
- necrosis
- peritonitis
- mediastinitis |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: description (2) |
|
Definition
- part of stomach herniates through the diaphragm into the thorax
- result of weakening of muscles of diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: interventions (5) |
|
Definition
- med/surg like GE reflux
- small frequent meals
- limit fluids with meals
- do not recline for 1 hr after eating
- no anticholinergics |
|
|
Term
| hiatal hernia: risk factors (5) |
|
Definition
- pregnancy
- ascites
- obesity
- tumors
- heavy lifting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- heartburn
- vomiting
- dysphagia
- feeling full |
|
|
Term
| inflammatory disease of the intestines, tends to exacerbate, affects any part of the GI tract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: description (5) |
|
Definition
- ulcerative and inflammatory disease of the bowel resulting in poor absorption of nutrients.
- commonly begins in rectum, spreading upward
- edematous colon
- bleeding lesions- scar tissue, causing loss of elasticity
- remission and exacerbation periods |
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: interventions (10) |
|
Definition
- NPO if acute
- restrict activity
- bowel sounds
- monitorfor abdominal tenderness/cramping
- monitor stools (color, consistency, blood)
- monitor for bowel perforation, peritonitis and hemorrhage
- low-residue, high-protein diet
- avoid gas-forming foods
- avoid whole grains, nuts, alcohol, etc.
- no smoking |
|
|
Term
| ulcerative colitis: s/sx (8) |
|
Definition
- anorexia
- weight loss
- malaise
- abdominal tenderness/cramping
- severe diarrhea (may contain blood/mucus
- dehydration/electrolyte imbalances
- anemia
- vitamin K deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What is the common effect of a deficiency of ADH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease defined as hypofunction of the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease commonly caused by hypersecretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You tap on the patient's facial nerve in front of the ear. What are you looking for and what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| Chvostek's sign: spasm indicates hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
| Major lab consideration regarding Addison's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Addison's: nursing consideration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypoparathyroidism: complications |
|
Definition
| Bone density loss: osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Moon face
- Red cheeks
- Thinning hair
- Striae (stretch marks)
- Easy bruising
- Thin extremities
- Osteoporosis
- Pendulous abdomen |
|
|
Term
| Cushing's: nursing diagnosis |
|
Definition
| Risk for infection due to high cortisol and immunosuppression |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hypotension, related to lack of aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| What 2 things are needed for the thyroid to function correctly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease in childhood thyroid dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- decreased metabolism
- mental dullness
- lethargy
- dry skin
- heart failure
- edema
- hyperlipidemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
•Rapid heart beats
•Greatly increased body temperature
•Chest pain
•Shortness of breath
•Anxiety and irritability
•Disorientation
•Increased sweating
•Weakness
•Heart failure |
|
|
Term
| Thyroid storm: nursing alert |
|
Definition
| Don't use aspirin to bring down fever. Use Tylenol instead |
|
|
Term
| Post thyroidectomy: Why have patient talk? |
|
Definition
| Check for hoarse voice - sign of airway obstruction. |
|
|
Term
| signs and sx of a complication following a thyroidectomy |
|
Definition
| airway complications (stridor), shock, fever, loc changes |
|
|
Term
| what causes diabetes incipitus? |
|
Definition
| body does not produce enough ADH. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| OVERSTIMULATED thyroid gland. |
|
|
Term
| what do you teach an addison's crisis pt who is being discharged. |
|
Definition
| teach importance of hormone replacement, |
|
|
Term
| What to have at bedside after thyroidectomy |
|
Definition
- trach tray
- suction
- calcium glubinate |
|
|
Term
| Cushing's patients tend to have joint pain in what three areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metabolic acidosis can result from which of the following?
A) Increased ketones
B) decreased salicylate
C) excess reabsorption of HCO3
D) kidneys response to respiratory acidosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tap over facial nerve anterior to ear and observe for twitching. What is this and why are we doing it/ |
|
Definition
Chvosteck's sign.
Sign of calcium deficiency |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac cath: pre-op nursing |
|
Definition
- consent form
- assess dye allergies
- uncomfortable, not painful
- NPO 6 hrs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- encourage fluids
- ambulate ASAP
- pressure to insertion site
- monitor for hemmorhage
- don't flex affected side |
|
|
Term
| Peritoneal dialysis: concerns |
|
Definition
- infection
- hyperglycemia (if dwell time extended) |
|
|
Term
| Hypothyroidism: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
daily weights
restrict salt
monitor metabolic rate |
|
|
Term
| Hypothyroidism: what food to increase |
|
Definition
fiber
fruits/vegetables
shellfish (sourc of iodine) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- weight gain
- cold intolerance
- lethargy
- dry skin/hair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| chest drainage: water seal chamber - indication of normal function |
|
Definition
| water level fluctuates with each breath |
|
|
Term
| Chest drainage: suction control chamber - indication of normal function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nurse is counseling an elderly female client who has developed hair growth on her upper lip. What should the nurse suggest to the client?
A) Physical examination
B) Moisturizer
C) Hair removal methods
D) Greater calcium intake |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After entering the vagina, sperm can live for a maximum of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At puberty, these hormones lead to female breast enlargement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what phase does the fertilized ovum become a fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procedure that provides direct visualization of the uterus/accessory organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is a skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal orifice and the anus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs around the same time as menarch?
A) Irritability and insomnia
B) Hot flashes
C) Breast development
D) Urinary incontinence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a boy reaches puberty, the hypothalamus stimulates secretion of
A) ICSH and FSH
B) FSH and LH
C) FSH and testosterone
D) LH and ICSH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the oviduct or fallopian tube?
A) located between the cervix and the vagina
B) site of fertilization
C) an anatomical extension of the ovary
D) connects the fundus with the cervix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do sperm cells mature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Semen normally contains how many sperm per mL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sperm survive better and have more motility in a medium that has a pH of
A) 3.7
B) 5.9
C) 7.0
D) 8.2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mature sperm contains how many chromosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which vaginal pH is most viable for sperm?
A) 3.7
B) 6.9
C) 7
D) 8.5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Number of chromosomes in a zygote |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a result of declining testosterone levels?
A) lower sperm production
B) lower muscle mass
C) lower libido
D) None: all are affected |
|
Definition
B
muscle mass is NOT diminished by lowered testosterone levels |
|
|
Term
| Intermittent bladder irrigation: purpose |
|
Definition
| Washes out clots that plug the catheter. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
A) causes polyuria
B) causes albuminuria
C) elevates blood pressure
D) causes hematuria |
|
Definition
| C) elevates blood pressure |
|
|
Term
Which of the following should not be in the filtrate within Bowman's capsule?
A) albumin
B) sodium
C) potassium
D) water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not true of ADH?
A) secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
B) secreted in response to low blood volume and a concentrated plasma (as in dehydration)
C) causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water
D) a deficiency causes diabetes insipidus |
|
Definition
| C) causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water |
|
|
Term
| Urethritis: typical meds used |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A client with urethritis is on Peridium. She calls the clinic, complaining that her urine appears to be bloody. The nurse should
A) advise the client to see her doctor immediately
B) advise the client to discontinue medication
C) ask the client to come in for testing
D) assure the client that the discoloration is normal |
|
Definition
| D) assure the client that the discoloration is normal. |
|
|
Term
| Complicated cystitis: common cause |
|
Definition
Failure to complete therapy.
leaves surviving bacteria that become resistant to sulfameds |
|
|
Term
| Which UTI are women at high risk for RE-infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition to report on client on prolonged nephrotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Costal Vertebral Angle tenderness: flank pain below the ribs, radiating to the ilium. |
|
|
Term
| IVP: nursing interventions |
|
Definition
- informed consent
- NPO 8 hrs pre
- laxative pre
- allergies to iodine
- epinephrine handy
- teach about salty taste
- increase fluids post
|
|
|
Term
| Renal calculi: Procedural treatment |
|
Definition
- Chemolysis
- Lithotripsy
- Lithotomy
|
|
|
Term
| Meds used to treat calcium stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Meds used to treat uric acid stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates sperm production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Promotes contraction of myometrium (labor) and release of milk from mammary glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regulates sleep-wake cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| System by which hormone secretions are regulated by the response they elicit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decreases reabsorption of calcium from the bones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the production of milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the release of milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What supplement is needed for normal thyroid function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thyroid stimulation test: What result indicates normal thyroid function? |
|
Definition
| Increase in T3 and T4 levels |
|
|
Term
| ____ increases glucose levels, while _____ lowers them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone stimulates cortisol? |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) |
|
|
Term
| Hormones that mimic the sympathetic nervous system |
|
Definition
| epinephrine and norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What hormone regulates reabsorption of sodium from the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone needed to assist in kidney reabsorption of calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| condition that causes muscle twitching, spasms, and convulsions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone that stimulates the release of bile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the common effect of a deficiency of ADH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease defined as hypofunction of the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease commonly caused by hypersecretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You tap on the patient's facial nerve in front of the ear. What are you looking for and what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| Chvostek's sign: spasm indicates hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
| What 2 things are needed for the thyroid to function correctly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disease in childhood thyroid dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- decreased metabolism
- mental dullness
- lethargy
- dry skin
- heart failure
- edema
- hyperlipidemia |
|
|
Term
| Thyroid storm: nursing alert |
|
Definition
| Don't use aspirin to bring down fever. Use Tylenol instead |
|
|
Term
| elective procedure in which a SYNCHRONIZED shock of 25 to 50 joules is delivered to restore normal sinus rhythm |
|
Definition
| SYNCHRONIZED CARDIOVERSION |
|
|
Term
the use of electrical device to apply countershocks to the heart through electrodes placed on the chest wall to stop fibrillation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
heart rhythm with no identifiable P waves, normal QRS,described as "IRREGULARLY IRREGULAR" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
SINUS rhythm, above 150 bpm |
|
Definition
| SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA (SVT) |
|
|
Term
the most unstable phase of the cardiac cycle. |
|
Definition
| during REPOLARIZATION, T-wave |
|
|
Term
pacemaker that fires ONLY when it senses BRADYCARDIA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pacemaker that stimulates a P wave and a QRS complex. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| normal CONDUCTION PATHWAY(4) |
|
Definition
| SA node, AV junction, Bundle of Hiss, Purkinje Fibers |
|
|
Term
| Length of a normal QRS interval |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A heart rate greater than 100 beats/min |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A heart rate less than 60 beats/min |
|
|
Term
A normal QRS interval: (select all that apply)
A) is about half the length of a normal P-R interval
B) is about 0.15 sec
C) is a positive deflection
D) remains on the isoelectric line |
|
Definition
A) is about half the length of a normal P-R interval
|
|
|
Term
A patient experiences shortness of breath. What is our first nursing intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A positive Homan's sign is an indication of . . . |
|
Definition
| Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) |
|
|
Term
A structure that receives the electrical signal from the conduction tissue in the atria; it delays the entrance of the electrical signal into the His-Purkinje system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amount of ventricular force needed to open valves and eject blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are electrical terms except
A) systole
B) depolarization
C) action potential
D) repolarization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Amount of blood pumped by a ventricle in one beat (2) |
|
Definition
- stroke volume
- 60-80ml |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amount of ventricular force needed to open valves and eject blood |
|
|
Term
Another name for the mitral valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BP-regulating systems include the ____, _____, ______, and _____ |
|
Definition
- cardiovascular
- nervous
- urinary
- endocrine |
|
|
Term
Blood flows from the right atrium through this atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood passes through the tricuspid valve into |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Central Venous Pressure: - determines how much fluid/hydration patient is in - determines right atrial preload |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: patient teaching
|
|
Definition
| - Inform MD if you feel burning, headache, chestpain |
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: post-op nursing (6) |
|
Definition
- no flexing leg 4 hrs
- log roll to turn
- V/S
- sand bag over insertion area |
|
|
Term
Cardiac catheterization: pre-op nursing (5) |
|
Definition
| - obtain consent - NPO 8-12 hrs - explain procedure - fluoroscope - IV insertion |
|
|
Term
Cardiac risk factors: non-modifiable (5) |
|
Definition
| - age - race - gender - family history - diabetes |
|
|
Term
Cardiac tests (procedural) available (4) |
|
Definition
| - EKG - treadmill test - Thallium test - Blood gases |
|
|
Term
| Cardioversion v Defibrillation: purpose |
|
Definition
| Cardioversion corrects Atrial fibrillation D-fib corrects Ventricular fibrillation |
|
|
Term
Chamber that pumps "blue" blood to the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chamber that pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chamber that receives blood from the venae cavae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chamber that receives oxygenated blood from four pulmonary veins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cholesterol: reference range
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Degree of stretch of ventricles before contraction (systole)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most apt to cause
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Failure of the S-wave to return to the isoelectric line (stays in positive) indicates what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of pericardium |
|
|
Term
Friction rub: how best to find (2) |
|
Definition
| - have patient sitting, leaning forward - listen to left upper sternum |
|
|
Term
Friction rub: when best found |
|
Definition
| After Myocardial Infarction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Holter monitor: patient teaching (4) |
|
Definition
| - take daily diary - no shower while wearing leads - press "event" button during cardiac event (palpitations, chest pain, SOB) - return box and diary when instructed |
|
|
Term
How to know if SA node is working (2) |
|
Definition
| - pulse: at least 60 - EKG: normal P-wave |
|
|
Term
How to reduce Risk for varicose vein formation |
|
Definition
| Prevent venous stasis and pressure ulcers. |
|
|
Term
Hypertension has the greatest effect on what part of the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the AV valves, chordae tendineae, or papillary muscles become damaged, what can occur with ventricular contraction? |
|
Definition
| backflow of blood (regurgitation) into the atria |
|
|
Term
If the BP readings from each of a client's arms is different, which is used for subsequent assessments? |
|
Definition
| The arm that gave the higher reading |
|
|
Term
Place where electrical tracing is at zero (neutral)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Length of a normal QRS interval |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mediastinum between lungs - thoracic cavity |
|
|
Term
Low CVP and interpretation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal cardiac output of resting adult |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal expectation from a client moving from lying position to sitting, or from sitting to standing (3) |
|
Definition
- systolic drop of up to 15pts
- diastolic change (up or down) of 3-10 pts
- 15-20 bpm increase in pulse
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pain in the patient’s calf or behind the knee when the foot is quickly dorsiflexed with the knee in a slightly flexed position. |
|
|
Term
Special sensory receptors in blood vessel walls, stimulated by a change in blood pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stenosis of a valve or blood regurgitating through a valve that does not close properly causes what abnormal heart sounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sympathetic nerve stimulation of the myocardium
A) cause a (+) inotropic effect
B) decreases cardiac output
C) decreases heart rate
D) decreases stroke volume |
|
Definition
| A) cause a (+) inotropic effect |
|
|
Term
Systemic veins and venules house approximately _____ of the body's blood volume at rest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The aorta receives blood from here |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The atrioventricular valve on the right side of the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The atrioventricular valve through which blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The autonomic nerve that slows the heart rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The electrical signal arises in this structure in normal sinus rhythm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The myocardium is thickest in this chamber |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The normal adult heart rate is set by the:
a. Atrioventricular node
b. Purkinje fibers
c. Septum
d. Sinoatrial node |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The only veins with oxygenated blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The right ventricle pumps blood to the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The semilunar valve through which blood leaves the right ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The three layers of the heart wall, from inside to outside |
|
Definition
Endocardium,
myocardium,
epicardium
|
|
|
Term
| The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle |
|
Definition
| mitral valve (bicuspid valve) |
|
|
Term
Time it takes the contraction signal to get from SA node to AV node (name and length) |
|
Definition
- P-R interval
- 0.12 - 0.2 sec |
|
|
Term
Tough bands of tissue that anchor the cusps of the atrioventricular valves to the walls of the ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transcutaneous pacemaker: description (3) |
|
Definition
| - external - patient feels every shock - Isuprel may be tried first |
|
|
Term
Triglycerides: reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| to diagnose (or rule out) heart attack |
|
|
Term
Vagal stimulation to the heart causes |
|
Definition
| the heart rate to slow down |
|
|
Term
What are ventricles "doing" during atrial systole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What event causes the pulmonic valve to open? |
|
Definition
| B) an increase in the pressure within the ventricle |
|
|
Term
What happens to heart valves and conduction system as an effect of aging (4)? |
|
Definition
- Fibrosis in the conduction system and heart
- Calcification of the valves
- Increased size of myocardium and atria
- Decreased cardiac output |
|
|
Term
What is occuring during S1? (3) |
|
Definition
- AV valves are closing.
- Ventricles are contracting.
- Atria are filling. |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the sequence of events that occur during one heartbeat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term that refers to an increase in stroke volume in response to the stretching of the heart?
|
|
Definition
| starling's law of the heart |
|
|
Term
| What prevents the the valve cusps from everting (turning inside-out)? |
|
Definition
| As the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, tightening the chordae tendineae. |
|
|
Term
| What separates the left and right atria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What separates the left and right ventricles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What to do if heart rate takes longer to return to normal after exercise |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would a spiked T-wave indicate? |
|
Definition
Possible hyperkalemia (high potassium)
|
|
|
Term
| What food you usually have to avoid with most BP meds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which group is incorrect?
A) atrioventricular veins: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral
B) layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
C) abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia
D) parts of the conduction system: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, medulla oblongata |
|
Definition
| D) parts of the conductionL SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers, Medulla Oblongata |
|
|
Term
Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
B) atrioventricular valves: triscuspid, bicuspid, mitral
C) oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
D) unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavea, pulmonary veins |
|
Definition
| D) Structures that carry unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavae, pulmonary veins |
|
|
Term
Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
B) oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
C) layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
D) abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, sinus rhythm |
|
Definition
| D) Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, sinus rhythm |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is descriptive of the vagus nerve?
A) fight or flight
B) parasympathetic
C) sympathetic
D) adrenergic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the mitral and bicuspid valves?
A) they are semilunar valves
B) they are both located on the right side of the heart
C) they "see" only unoxygenated blood
D) they are the same valves
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
| D) they are the same valves |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of the pulmonic and aortic valves?
A) they are atrioventricular valves
B) they "see" only oxygenated blood
C) they are attached to the ventricular walls by chordae tendineae
D) they are semilunar valves
E) all of the above |
|
Definition
| D) they are semilunar valves |
|
|
Term
Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle?
A) coronary arteries
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) cardiac veins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these does NOT occur in the aging adult? (Select all that apply)
A) Decrease in heart size
B) Thinning of left ventricular wall
C) Decreased collagen in the cardiac muscle
D) Decreased elastin in the cardiac muscle
E) Stiffer and thicker cardiac valves
F) Fibrosis of the SA node
G) Increased number of pacemaker cells
H) Calcification of blood vessels
J) Increased arterial distensibility
K) More tortuous vessels
L) Decreased response to baroreceptors |
|
Definition
B) left vent. wall actually gets THICKER
C) collagen in cardiac muscle INCREASES
G) number of pacemaker cells DECREASES
J) arterial distensibility (elasticity) DECREASES
|
|
|
Term
| right atrium receives venous (deoxygenated) blood from |
|
Definition
| the superior and inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus |
|
|
Term
| the force opposing the movement of blood through the blood vessels |
|
Definition
| Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) or total peripheral resistance |
|
|
Term
| the middle and thickest layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the only veins that carry oxygenated blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin: therapeutic level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- increases cardiac contractility WITHOUT increasing O2 consumption
- increases cardiac output
- diuretic effect |
|
|
Term
| A client is 2-3 weeks status post strep throat. What is he at risk for next? |
|
Definition
| rheumatic fever, leading to rheumatic heart disease |
|
|
Term
| A person with hypertensive crisis is at risk for what specific event? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac tamponade: disease process (4) |
|
Definition
- fluid accumulates in the pericardium
- pressure on the heart prevents the heart's ventricles from filling properly
- low stroke volume
- end result is ineffective pumping of blood, shock, and often death. |
|
|
Term
| Cardiomyopathy: Disease process (6) |
|
Definition
- Portion of heart muscle suffocates, deteriorates and necroses
- dead area is replaced with non-functioning scar tissue
- reduced heart efficiency puts additional stress on heart, leading to hypertrophy of myocardium
- cardiac output drops
- eventual heart failure |
|
|
Term
| Creatinine reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endocarditis: hallmark sx |
|
Definition
- High fever
- heart murmur |
|
|
Term
For whom would beta blockers be a waste of time?
A) Ronan
B) Carly
C) Adenike
D) Stacy
E) Mr. Adnan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you know diuretics are working |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Powerful vasoconstrictor produced by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulmonary effusion: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- Feeling of pending doom
- Sudden severe SOB (hence the pending doom)
- Sudden chest pain (yes, more reason for pending doom)
- decrease in pulse ox (now the nurse senses pending doom) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rhematic carditis: prevention (for all) |
|
Definition
| - treat sore throats promptly |
|
|
Term
| Sign of left-sided heart failure (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Systolic > 140, diastolic < 90 |
|
Definition
| Isolated systolic hypertension |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Those with Rheumatic carditis usually have what kind of history? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Uric acid reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Rheumatic carditis usually affect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major complication of infective endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where's the best place for a patient with DVT?
A) Ron's chair
B) Matt's bicycle
C) Nicole's bed
D) The other end of Douglas' leash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is most prone to hypertension?
A) Ngok
B) Olaniyi
C) Matt
D) Mrs. Lee |
|
Definition
B) Olaniyi
(Except when grading tests, it's Mrs. Lee) |
|
|
Term
| Potassium-sparing loop diuretic that works on the distal tubule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Doctor orders Digoxin. What else would you expect to see ordered? |
|
Definition
| Potassium chloride, 10-20 MG |
|
|
Term
| Beta blockers: pre-admin intervention |
|
Definition
| Check BP and pulse. Hold if sys<100, dias<70, or pulse<60 |
|
|
Term
| Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG); advantage and disadvantage of using mammary artery over saphenous |
|
Definition
A: longer patency
D: procedure more difficult and time-consuming. |
|
|
Term
| Endarterectomy: What to expect in the long-term |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Classic symptom of an arterial clot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aneurysm: Treatment and its goal |
|
Definition
| Reduce BP to lessen chance of rupture. |
|
|
Term
| Thoracic aneurysm: s/sx (3) |
|
Definition
- Chest pain
- Shoulder pain
- Back pain (caused by pressure on vertebrae) |
|
|
Term
| Dissecting aneurysm: s/sx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What NOT to do to an abdominal aneurysm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for VENOUS blood clots (3) |
|
Definition
- extended bed rest
- crossing legs
- dehydration (increases blood viscosity) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| new born with adnormally small head |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| new born, born with part of brain or total brain missing. |
|
|
Term
| What's the first thing done in preparation for amniocentesis? |
|
Definition
| ultrasound to determine placenta location |
|
|
Term
| A pregnant client with diabetes can expect to have what fetal test done? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which test is considered positive when fetal heart rates increase? |
|
Definition
| nonstress test: When fetal heart rate increases with fetal movements, test is considered reactive |
|
|
Term
| The oxytosin challenge test compares fetal heart rates with ________, while the nonstress test compares fetal heart rates with _____. |
|
Definition
OCT: contractions
NST: fetal movement |
|
|
Term
Presentation: bleeding during weeks 10-20, no cervical dilation.
Indication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Client presents with threatened abortion: nursing intervention? |
|
Definition
| The client is put to bed with her feet elevated for 48 to 72 hours |
|
|
Term
| Complete abortion: nursing considerations |
|
Definition
- hemorrhage
- cyanosis
- shock |
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of recurrent spontaneous abortions? |
|
Definition
| incompetent cervix that dilates prematurely |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| suture used to hold an incompetent cervix closed. |
|
|
Term
| more severe than regular morning sickness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium sulfate: antidote |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RhoGam administration schedule |
|
Definition
28 weeks gestation and 72 hrs after:
- birth
- abortion
- amniocentesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rh (-) mother with Rh (+) fetus |
|
|
Term
| Client in 4th pregnancy with 3 previous C-sections is at risk for what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Effects of placenta previa |
|
Definition
- uterine atony
- bleeding
- air emboli |
|
|
Term
| Placenta previa: treatment |
|
Definition
- bed rest
- probable C-section unless previa is minimal |
|
|
Term
| premature separation of placenta from uterine wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Placentiae abruptio: usual time of occurrance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| placentae abruptio: treatment |
|
Definition
EMERGENCY: C-section
post-delivery hysterectomy possible |
|
|
Term
| Dark vaginal bleeding may be a sign of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abruptio placentae: signs |
|
Definition
- tender, rigid uterus
- bleeding (may not show)
- rising fundus
- maternal shock
- sudden, severe pain |
|
|
Term
| How often is fetal heart rate monitured during placentae abruptio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Client has prolapsed cord. What's the first nursing intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Presentation(s) that require c-section |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Client with prolapsed cord. What does client need to be prepared for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Client has prolapsed cord. What does nurse need to prepare for? |
|
Definition
| Infant CPR after C-section delivery |
|
|
Term
| What is the criteria for a reactive nonstress test? |
|
Definition
| reactive when at least two episodes of fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 beats per minute (BPM) last at least 15 seconds within a continuous 10-minute period. |
|
|
Term
| A laceration that involves the perineal skin and vaginal mucous membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A laceration that involves muscles of the perineal body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A laceration that involves the anal sphincter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A laceration that extends to the anal canal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| postpartum hematoma: s/sx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a complete breech? |
|
Definition
| presentation of buttocks: knees bent and feet near buttocks |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| buttock presented, feet in face |
|
|
Term
| What kind of delivery is of highest risk to fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Post-op care for C-section includes what additional assessment? |
|
Definition
| inspect the incision for hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| What can the nurse do to reduce the risk of post-partum hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| - massage fundus - encourage breastfeeding |
|
|
Term
| Physical features of an SGA newborn |
|
Definition
| - poor skin turgor - loose and dry skin - sparse or absent hair - wide skull sutures caused by inadequate bone growth - diminished muscle and fatty tissue. - Weight, length, and head circumference are below normal expectations as defined on growth charts |
|
|
Term
| Complication of the LGA newborn |
|
Definition
| - birth injury - brain injury - respiratory disorders |
|
|
Term
| Physical features of a postterm newborn |
|
Definition
| - long fingernails and hair - dry parched skin - no vernix caseosa - wrinkled and old-looking |
|
|
Term
| Complication of the postterm newborn |
|
Definition
| respiratory disorders caused by meconium aspiration |
|
|
Term
| Forceps delivery carries what risk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Shoulder dystocia can lead to what problem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition may require a "triple-diaper"? |
|
Definition
| congenital dislocated hip |
|
|
Term
| Folic acid intake reduces the risk of what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| vertebral spaces fail to close, allowing a herniation (bulging) of the spinal contents into a sac |
|
|
Term
| vertebral spaces fail to close, allowing a herniation (bulging) of the spinal contents into a sac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| condition in which nostrils close, not allowing normal "nose-breathing" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would a pregnant diabetic on oral antidiabetics need to switch to insulin? |
|
Definition
| oral antidiabetics are teratogenic |
|
|
Term
| Test performed to determine fetal Rh factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Effect of phototherapy on jaundice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Physiologic jaundice v Pathologic jaundice |
|
Definition
| Physiologic jaundice: caused by hyperbilirubinemia Pathologic: caused by hemolytic disorder |
|
|
Term
| Mortality rate of preterm infant as compared to full term infant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is gestational age determined? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cephalopelvic disproportion? |
|
Definition
| head too big to pass through pelvis |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual reason for cephalopelvic disproportion among adolescent mothers? |
|
Definition
| mother's body still developing, thus pelvis is not yet full-sized. |
|
|
Term
| True of False: the fetus produces its own insulin |
|
Definition
| False. Fetal insulin is supplied by the mother (So Ms. Lee says) |
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic heart disease can lead to what condition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kick count is considered bad? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition should be reported to the MD at all stages of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for ectopic pregnancy |
|
Definition
| surgical removal (abortion) |
|
|
Term
| What is a common complication of multifetal pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If two fetuses share one placenta, wha is guaranteed? |
|
Definition
| They are identical (monozygotic) twins |
|
|
Term
| If two fetuses have separate placentas, what is likely? |
|
Definition
| fraternal (dizigotic) twins |
|
|
Term
| Complications from hyperemesis gravidarum |
|
Definition
| - Dehydration -Lyte imbalance -Death if untreated |
|
|
Term
| Expectant mother begins early labor. Delivery is inevitible. What needs to be given to mom to improve chances for baby? |
|
Definition
| Betamethasone to promote fetal lung maturity |
|
|
Term
| Baby receiving phototherapy. Notify MD if the following is noted. |
|
Definition
| - not eating - not voiding |
|
|
Term
| Supportive care for RDS infant |
|
Definition
| - thermoregulation - infection prevention |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of withdrawal in the infant? |
|
Definition
| Irritability Marked jitteriness Rapid changes in mood Lethargy Hypersensitivity to noise and external stimuli Poor feeding Irregular sleep patterns Tachypnea (rapid respirations) Tachycardia Diarrhea Diminished interactive behavior |
|
|
Term
| Caring for the infant on withdrawal |
|
Definition
| - Provide eye contact. - Touch the newborn gently. - Rock up-and-down (not side-to-side: this makes the newborn more hyperactive). |
|
|
Term
| What type of jaundice presents 2-3 days after birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| interventions for physiologic jaundice |
|
Definition
| - phototherapy: Give extra fluids. Cover eyes. Monitor bili levels. Watch for dehydration, loose greenish stools. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - possible fetal injury (puncture) - Could trigger premature labor |
|
|
Term
| Amniocentesis: nursing considerations (before and after) |
|
Definition
before: empty bladder
after: monitor VS at least 1 hr |
|
|
Term
| What is the common method for determimine fetal age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A full bladder is recommended for which fetal test(s)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oxytocin challenge test: expected results |
|
Definition
| - 3 contractions every 10 minutes - no late decelerations |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can be a cause of recurrent spontaneous abortions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Likely medical response to an incomplete abortion |
|
Definition
| Dilation & curettege (D&C) |
|
|
Term
| What drug is used to expel the fetus in the event of an inevitible, missed or incomplete abortion? |
|
Definition
| dinoprostone (Prostin E2) |
|
|
Term
| Most common type of ectopic pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Client presents with spotting and pain 2-3 weeks after a missed period. Probabe cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The woman has episodes of spotting and bleeding, with brownish-red discharge of “tapioca-like” vesicles. Indication? |
|
Definition
| Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (Hydatidiform Mole) |
|
|
Term
| Test required after treatment for hydatiform mole |
|
Definition
| human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) titer |
|
|
Term
| What kind of contraception during choriocarcinoma treatment is contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pre-eclampsia: weight changes |
|
Definition
| - gain of 1 lb/wk during 2nd/3rd trimester or 4+ lbs/wk any time during pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| Diet consideration for severe preeclampsia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| client with severe preeclampsia should have what checked at least twice daily? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium sulfate: main purpose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood pressure meds commonly used in preeclampsia treatment |
|
Definition
| - Hydralazine HCl (Apresoline) - labetalol HCl (Normodyne) - methyldopa (Aldomet) - nifedipine (Adalat, Procardia) |
|
|
Term
| Prolonged pregnancy: definition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pre procedure for amniocentesis |
|
Definition
| Ultra Sound to check position of fetus, fetal parts |
|
|
Term
| Reasons for amniocentesis (3) |
|
Definition
| determine Lung maturity, L/S ratio, Rh status |
|
|
Term
The thyroid gland is unable to function correctly if the body does not have an adequate dietary intake of
A) vitamin K
B) iron
C) folic acid
D) iodine |
|
Definition
D
PG 206: The thyroid secretes two hormones: thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones are synthesized in the thyroid gland from iodine. A person's diet must supply this iodine. |
|
|
Term
The hormone responsible for calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood is the
A) parathormone
B) norepinephrine
C) somatostatin
D) thyroxine |
|
Definition
A
PG 206: The parathyroids secrete a hormone, parathormone or parathyroid hormone (PTH), that regulates the amounts of calcium and phosphorus in the blood |
|
|
Term
The hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that causes the growth and development of ova is called
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) steroids
D) follicle-stimulating hormone |
|
Definition
D
PG 203: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth and secretion of ovarian follicles in women and the production of sperm in men. |
|
|
Term
Erythropoietin Stimiulates
A) white cell production
B) sperm production
C) red cell production
D) the release of gastric acids |
|
Definition
C
PG 209: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a normal response to aging?
A) Lack of a sexual response
B) Thin hair
C) Hirsutism in women
D) Dry skin |
|
Definition
A
PG 210: Impotence in men and a lack of sexual response in women are not natural results of aging. |
|
|
Term
Which endocrine gland is NOT paired with its correct location?
A) ovaries - on either side of the uterus
B) testes - in the scrotum between the upper thighs
C) pancreas - between the duodenum and the spleen
D) adrenal glands - one below each kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In women, the function of FSH is to
A) initiate development of egg cells in the ovaries
B) increase the secretion of estrogen
C) both A and B
D) both A and B, and increase the secretion of GnRH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function of calcitonin is to
A) decrease the reabsorption of calcium from the bones
B) increase the reabsorption of calcium by the small intestine
C) decrease the reabsorption of calcium by the small intestine
D) increase the reabsorption of calcium from the bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that increases the excretion of potassium ions by the kidneys is
A) ADH
B) PTH
C) cortisol
D) aldosterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that increases the use of all three food types for energy is
A) thyroxine
B) insulin
C) GH
D) cortisol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates sperm production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the growth and secretion of ovarian follicles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Promotes contraction of myometrium (labor) and release of milk from mammary glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases water reabsorption by kidney tubules |
|
Definition
| Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
|
Term
| Hormones of the Posterior pituitary gland |
|
Definition
- Oxytocin
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
|
Term
| Hormones of the Anterior Pituitary gland |
|
Definition
- Growth Hormone (GH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Prolactin
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Luteinizing Hormone (LH) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Glucagon (alpha cells)
- Insulin (beta cells)
- Somatostatin (delta cells) |
|
|
Term
| Hormones of the adrenal medulla |
|
Definition
- Norepinephrine
- Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- reabsorption of sodium and water
- excretion of potassium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regulates sleep-wake cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| System by which hormone secretions are regulated by the response they elicit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decreases reabsorption of calcium from the bones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increases reabsorption of sodium, thus increasing water reabsorption, resulting in increased blood volume |
|
|
Term
| What supplement is needed for normal thyroid function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thyroid stimulation test: What result indicates normal thyroid function? |
|
Definition
| Increase in T3 and T4 levels |
|
|
Term
| ____ increases glucose levels, while _____ lowers them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- radioactive material injected or taken orally
- thyroid scanned with scintillation camera
- "hot" and "cold" spots indicate nodules (Cold=bad) |
|
|
Term
| Vasopression (ADH) action |
|
Definition
| constricts blood vessels AND increases reabsorption of water |
|
|
Term
| What hormone stimulates cortisol? |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) |
|
|
Term
| Thyroid gland responsibility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormones that mimic the sympathetic nervous system |
|
Definition
| epinephrine and norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| What hormone regulates reabsorption of sodium from the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone responsible for ova production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone is responsible for calcium and phosphorus levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nursing alert regarding hyperthyroidism |
|
Definition
| don't palpate the thyroid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| on either side of the uterus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Stems from curve of duodenum to spleen |
|
|
Term
| Location of adrenal glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Location of pituitary gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Other name for growth hormone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone needed to assist in kidney reabsorption of calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| condition that causes muscle twitching, spasms, and convulsions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone that stimulates the release of bile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Converts glycogen to glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Endocrine glands are different from exocrine glands in that they
A) produce essential body secretions
B) secrete substances directly into the bloodstream
C) secrete substances into a duct system
D) produce enzymes |
|
Definition
B
PG 211: Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream; exocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts. |
|
|
Term
The thyroid gland is unable to function correctly if the body does not have an adequate dietary intake of
A) vitamin K
B) iron
C) folic acid
D) iodine |
|
Definition
D
PG 206: The thyroid secretes two hormones: thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones are synthesized in the thyroid gland from iodine. A person's diet must supply this iodine. |
|
|
Term
The amount of T3 and T4 produced by the thyroid gland determines
A) the quantity of breast milk produced
B) the contraction of blood vessels
C) the speed of body metabolism
D) muscle strength and coordination |
|
Definition
C
PG 206: It is believed that T4 is converted to T3 before it can work in the body. These hormones regulate body metabolism, controlling the rate at which cells do their work. |
|
|
Term
The hormone responsible for calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood is the
A) parathormone
B) norepinephrine
C) somatostatin
D) thyroxine |
|
Definition
A
PG 206: The parathyroids secrete a hormone, parathormone or parathyroid hormone (PTH), that regulates the amounts of calcium and phosphorus in the blood |
|
|
Term
The hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that causes the growth and development of ova is called
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) steroids
D) follicle-stimulating hormone |
|
Definition
D
PG 203: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth and secretion of ovarian follicles in women and the production of sperm in men. |
|
|
Term
The hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that acts on the renal tubules to reabsorb sodium is
A) aldosterone
B) epinephrine
C) androgen
D) renin |
|
Definition
A
PG 207: Aldosterone, the most important mineralocorticoid, stimulates reabsorption of sodium into the plasma. |
|
|
Term
Which hormone is responsible for the conversion of glycogen into glucose?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Gastrin
D) ANP |
|
Definition
B
PG 208: Glucagon is needed to break down glycogen (stored sugar) into glucose, a process called glycogenolysis. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a function of glucocorticoids?
A) Regulation of sodium and water balance
B) Depression of the immune response
C) Decreased inflammatory response
D) Regulation of the synthesis of glucose |
|
Definition
A
PG 207: Glucocorticoids have an important influence on the synthesis of glucose, amino acids, and fats during metabolism. They also depress the immune response and decrease the inflammatory response. |
|
|
Term
The human body requires which of the following to metabolize glucose?
A) Adrenalin
B) Gastrin
C) Insulin
D) Lipase |
|
Definition
C
PG 208: Insulin stimulates the liver to convert extra glucose into glycogen |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is responsible for the sleep-wake cycle?
A) Melatonin
B) Thymosin
C) Calcitonin
D) Parathyroid hormone |
|
Definition
A
PG 211: Melatonin, the hormone secreted by the pineal gland, helps regulate the sleep–wake cycle. |
|
|
Term
The hormone released by the lining of the duodenum, which travels to the gallbladder causing it to contract and release bile, is called
A) Secretin
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Pancreozymin
D) Gastrin |
|
Definition
B
PG 208: The lining of the upper part of the small intestine secretes ... another hormone that regulates the release of bile from the gallbladder and causes the gallbladder to contract (cholecystokinin). |
|
|
Term
Erythropoietin Stimiulates
A) white cell production
B) sperm production
C) red cell production
D) the release of gastric acids |
|
Definition
C
PG 209: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production. |
|
|
Term
You are teaching your client what happens in the body when there is a lack of insulin or the insulin in the body is not working. Which of the following statements is your best explanation regarding what occurs?
A) The cells work harder to get rid of the glucose
B) The glucos level increases in the cells
C) The glucose level decreases in the blood
D) the glucose level increases in the blood. |
|
Definition
D
PG 208: If there is a lack of insulin or if the insulin is not working as it should, an increased blood glucose level will result. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a normal response to aging?
A) Lack of a sexual response
B) Thin hair
C) Hirsutism in women
D) Dry skin |
|
Definition
A
PG 210: Impotence in men and a lack of sexual response in women are not natural results of aging. |
|
|
Term
The hormone produced by the male sex gland is
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) lutenizing hormone |
|
Definition
C
PG 206: Testes (male) - Testosterone - Develops male sex characteristics (also influenced by androgens) |
|
|
Term
The function of ADH is to
A) increase the reabsorption of water by the kidneys
B) increase the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys
C) decrease the reabsorption of water by the kidneys
D) decrease the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effect of oxytocin on the uterus is to
A) contribute to the growth of the placenta
B) help increase circulation in the fetus
C) prevent contractions before the end of gestation
D) cause contractions for delivery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxytocin and ADH are both secreted by the
A) ovaries
B) anterior pituitary gland
C) posterior pituitay gland
D) adrenal glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that initiates sperm production in the testes
A) FSH
B) LH
C) ACTH
D) GH |
|
Definition
A
PG 290: FSH stimulates the formation of sperm. |
|
|
Term
In men, the function of LH is to
A) increase secretion of testosterone
B) stimulate sperm production in the testes
C) both A and B
C) both A and B, and increase secretion of GnRH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In women, the function of FSH is to
A) initiate development of egg cells in the ovaries
B) increase the secretion of estrogen
C) both A and B
D) both A and B, and increase the secretion of GnRH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In women, the function of LH is to
A) increase secretion of progesterone in the ovary
B) cause ovulation
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that stimulates secretion of thyroxine is
A) TSH
B) ACTH
C) prolactin
D) GH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that stimulates the secretion of cortisol is
A) TSH
B) ACTH
C) prolactin
D) GH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that increases milk production is
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) prolactin
D) oxytocin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that decreases the blood calcium level is
A) thyroxine
B) PTH
C) calcitonin
D) insulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function of calcitonin is to
A) decrease the reabsorption of calcium from the bones
B) increase the reabsorption of calcium by the small intestine
C) decrease the reabsorption of calcium by the small intestine
D) increase the reabsorption of calcium from the bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that enables cells to take in glucose to use for energy production is
A) insulin
B) cortisol
C) glucagon
D) GH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that decreases the blood glucose level, as after a meal is
A) aldosterone
B) insulin
C) glucagon
D) epinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone cortisol is produced by the
A) adrenal cortex
B) adrenal medulla
C) pancreas
D) thyroid gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that increases the absorption of sodium ions by the kidneys is
A) aldosterone
B) ADH
C) calcitonin
D) PTH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that increases the excretion of potassium ions by the kidneys is
A) ADH
B) PTH
C) cortisol
D) aldosterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone aldosterone is secreted by the ___, and its target organs are the ___.
A) adrenal cortex / blood vessels
B) adrenal medulla / blood vessels
C) adrenal medulla / kidneys
D) adrenal cortex / kidneys |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The adrenal medulla is the ___ part of the adrenal gland, and produces the hormones ___.
A) inner / epinephrine andnorepinaphrine
B) outer / cortisol and aldosterone
C) inner / cortisol and aldosterone
D) outer epinephrine and norepinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormones directly necessary for development of egg cells in the ovary are
A) LH and estrogen
B) FSH and estrogen
C) FSH and progesterone
D) LH and progesterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormones directly necessary for the development of sperm in the testes are
A) LH and testosterone
B) LH and FSH
C) testostrone and inhibin
D) FSH and testosterone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone estrogen is produced by the
A) egg cell in the ovary
B) follicl in the ovary
C) interstitial cels in the ovary
D) myometrium of the uterus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone progesterone is produced by the
A) interstitial cells in the ovary
B) follicle in the ovary
C) corpus luteum in the ovary
D) myometrium of the uterus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hormone that increases the use of all three food types for energy is
A) thyroxine
B) insulin
C) GH
D) cortisol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the mineral ____ is necessary for the production of thyroxine and T3 by the
A) iron / thyroid gland
B) iodine / thyroid gland
C) iodine / adrenal gland
D) iron / adrenal gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function of growth hormone is to
A) increase the rate of mitosis in growing tissues
B) increase the rate of protein synthesis
C) both A and B
D) both and B, and enable cells to take in glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The human cell has ___ chromosomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Carries genetic factors
Contains hereditary information found on the chromosome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Langerhans (also called nonpigmented granular dendrocyte) |
|
|
Term
| A direct cause of varices |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A possible esophageal effect of liver cirrhosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patient states improved appetite and food intake |
|
|
Term
| Ascies: treatment medication that saves potassium while releasing water and sodium |
|
Definition
| Spironolactone (Aldactone) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before performing a cholecystogram, what should you ask the client about? |
|
Definition
| allergy to iodine or shellfish |
|
|
Term
| Bilirubin: reference range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and Cholelithiasis: dx (5) |
|
Definition
- labs
- ultrasound
- x-ray
- cholecystogram
- EGD or ERCP |
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and Cholelithiasis: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- sudden acute pain
- pain may radiate to back or right shoulder
- clay colored stools
- jaundice |
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and cholelithiasis: foods to avoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cholecystitis and cholelithiasis: preferred pain med (and what NOT to give) |
|
Definition
- Give Demerol
- Don't give morphine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cirrhosis: client teaching (6) |
|
Definition
- don't drink
- don't smoke
- fluid restrictions
- low protein
- high vitamins
- no acetaminophen or diazepam |
|
|
Term
| Cirrhosis: nursing considerations (2) |
|
Definition
- soft-bristled toothbrush
- monitor daily weight and girth |
|
|
Term
| Drainage tube used to treat cholecystitis and cholelithiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fatty, foul-smelling stools |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fulminant liver failure is most often caused by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- high-cholesterol, low-acid bile is thick
- gallbladder absorbs water, drying out bile
- bile hardens |
|
|
Term
| Hepatic encephalopathy: s/sx (4) |
|
Definition
- somnolence
- increased serum ammonia
- confusion
- coma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- virus
- autoimmune conditions
- toxic substances |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acute or chronic condition of liver inflammation |
|
|
Term
| How do nutrients absorbed in alveoli get back to liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Laparoscopic cholecystectomy: common complaint and its cause |
|
Definition
- right shoulder pain
- caused by CO2 instilled in abdomen |
|
|
Term
| Liver biopsy: post-procedure nursing care (5) |
|
Definition
- V/S
- check biopsy site if V/S change
- keep patient on right side
- pressure applied
- watch for signs of pneumothorax |
|
|
Term
| Liver biopsy: pre-op tests of interest (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Liver cirrhosis: s/sx (8) |
|
Definition
- anorexia
- fever
- abdominal pain
- bleeding problems
- jaundice
- spider angiomas
- veins dilated
- esophageal varices |
|
|
Term
| Liver cirrhosis: treatment (6) |
|
Definition
- goal is to stop or delay progression
- avoid alcohol
- low-protein
- electrolyte balance
- Lactulose
- ascites treatment |
|
|
Term
| Liver failure: client teaching (5) |
|
Definition
- tepid baths and lotion for itching
- positioning for breathing
- put pressure on punctures longer
- explain jaundice |
|
|
Term
| Liver failure: signs and symptoms (8) |
|
Definition
- tremors
- clay colored stools
- jaundice
- mental changes (seizures, stupor, etc)
- dull sound heard with percussion over liver
- ascites/edema
- coagulopathy
- shrinking liver |
|
|
Term
| Liver failure: treatment (6) |
|
Definition
- Vasopressin to control varices
- low-protein diet
- manage fluid, electrolyte balance
- antibiotics
- lactulose
- Vitamin K |
|
|
Term
| Liver transplant: early sign of rejection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inability to take a deep breath when fingers are pressed under liver margin |
|
|
Term
| Neurological changes from excess ammonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oliguria and sodium retention without kidney defects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pancreatic cancer: diagnostic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pancreatic juices: contents |
|
Definition
- water
- enzymes
- protein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- infection
- trauma
- alcohol
- drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- intractable pain in mid-epigastric area
- fever
- anorexia
- persistent vomiting
- distention |
|
|
Term
| Pancreatitis: secondary effect |
|
Definition
| diabetes mellitus due to affected islets of Langerhans |
|
|
Term
| Pancreatitis: treatment (4) |
|
Definition
- hourly V/S
- Non-morphine narcotics
- no alcohol
- Discharge planning: call if weight loss, hi blood sugar, fatty stools |
|
|
Term
| Problem with liver: what specific lab test would be important |
|
Definition
| Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment that allows for continuous shunting of ascitic fluid into the superior vena cava |
|
Definition
| LeVeen continuous peritoneal jugular shunt |
|
|
Term
| diet for hepatic encephalopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| discoloration at the periumbilical area. May indicate underlying subcutaneous intraperitoneal hemmorhage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patient has chronic liver failure. Presents with asterixis, fetor hepaticus, confusion. What's the complication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| procedure that can retrieve or crush leftover gallstones |
|
Definition
| Endoscopic Retrograde CholangioPancreatography (ERCP) |
|
|
Term
| symptoms include confusion and coma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| syndrome that causes anuria |
|
Definition
|
|
