Term
| what biochemical component of cartilage provide both rigidity and porosity? |
|
Definition
| proteoglucans (glycosaminoglycans) |
|
|
Term
| appositional growth of cartilage |
|
Definition
| matrix secreted by cells adjacent to the cartilage which adds onto the surface of existing cartilage |
|
|
Term
| interstitial growth of cartilage |
|
Definition
| cells within the cartilage that continue to secrete matrix and divide |
|
|
Term
| isogenous groups/nests in cartilage |
|
Definition
| these are caused by the interstitial growth of cartilage that results in daughter cells that cannot spread out as evenly |
|
|
Term
| how do nutrients get to cartilage tissue? |
|
Definition
| cartilage is avascular; the perichondrium has blood vessels and nutrients diffuse through the porous matrix of glycosaminoglycans |
|
|
Term
| what type of collagen fibers are in cartilage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| type of collagen fibers associated with fibrocartilage |
|
Definition
| type 1 collagen AND type 2 collagen |
|
|
Term
| where is fibrocartilage found? |
|
Definition
| intervertebral disks, pubic symphysis |
|
|
Term
| type of cartilage that lacks perichondrium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do you tell the difference btw dense irregular CT and fibrocartilage? |
|
Definition
| cells in lacunae indicate fibrocartilage |
|
|
Term
| bone matrix is made from what type of collagen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what secretory method do sebaceous glands use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| muscle that controls hair |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| musculoskeletal system develops from which tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| somites are derived from which tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| somites become which two tissue types? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dermomyotome gives rise to what tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sclerotome gives rise to what tissue? |
|
Definition
| vertebrae and most of skull |
|
|
Term
| what separates the somites into presumptive vertebrae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| outer hard layer of intervertebral disk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| jelly-like center of intervertebral disk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are chordomas and why are they challenging to treat? |
|
Definition
| they are derived from remnants of the notochord; they are infiltrated into bone and other tissues and organs |
|
|
Term
| when is ossification of vertebrae complete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dz characterized by anomolous segment of cervical vertebra, low hair line, compromised neck mobility, MMs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ossification of mesenchyme into bone |
|
Definition
| intramembranous ossification |
|
|
Term
| ossification of cartilage into bone |
|
Definition
| endochondral ossification |
|
|
Term
| what is skeletal muscle derived from? |
|
Definition
| mesenchymal and neural crest cells (mostly mesench, but NCs in head and neck) |
|
|
Term
| when are muscles and nerves laid down? |
|
Definition
| before birth, early on, then migrate to locations |
|
|
Term
| epimeres derive from what tissue and give rise to what tissue? |
|
Definition
| myotome; dorsal muscle groups |
|
|
Term
| hypomeres derive from what tissue and give rise to what tissue? |
|
Definition
| myotome; ventral muscle groups |
|
|
Term
| epaxial muscles are enervated by what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hypaxial muscles are enervated by what nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| congenital syndrome characterized by muscle hypoplasia, stiff joints, foot clubbing, inability to fully extend joints, reversal of thoracic kyphosis and lumbar lordosis |
|
Definition
| congenital arthrogryposis |
|
|
Term
| congenital syndrome caused by damage to sternocleidomastoid at birth causing fibrosis of the muscle and fixed rotation of the head |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how are limbs oriented during development? |
|
Definition
| palms and feet face ventrally with big toes and thumbs pointed up |
|
|
Term
| pigment cells derive from what tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what initiates limb development and sets up proximal-distal axis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| flexor muscles and extensor muscles both come from what muscle type? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| flexor and extensor muscles are both enervated by what kind of nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do lower limbs rotate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the critical time period for limb development? |
|
Definition
| 3-5 wks (as is for most things) |
|
|
Term
| what is thalidomide still used for today? |
|
Definition
| epilepsy, multiple myeloma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cleft hand/foot (lobster claw) |
|
Definition
| absent third diget and fusion of 1/2, 4/5 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| absence of proximal limb structures |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| two main joints of the spine |
|
Definition
| uncovertebral joints and facet joints |
|
|
Term
| which imaging modality is good for looking at neural foramina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| of the three spinal lines, abnormalities in which is the most sensitive for detecting occult fractures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if patient has spine trauma and xray is not telling, what should you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MVC without neck pain; should you get cspine xrays as precaution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fracture of C6 or C7 spinous process (supraspinous ligament avulsion)
no neuro impairment, stable fracture |
|
|
Term
flexion-tear drop fracture
|
|
Definition
| severe flexion of cervical spine causes disruption of posterior ligaments with anterior compression fracture of vertebral body |
|
|
Term
| flexion-teardrop fracture is often associated with what sequelae? |
|
Definition
| spinal cord injury from posterior part of vertevral being displaced into central canal, causes anterior cord syndrome and quadraplegia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| interruption of anterior blood supply to spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| predental space in adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hyperextension and distraction injury
fracture of posterior elements of C2 and displacement of C2 body anterior to C3
unstable |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
flexion distraction injury
posterior element fixation
2/3 occur at T12/L1 (common in seatbelt mvc)
variations in how the vertebra splits, can be pure soft tissue flexion distraction injury (w/o fracture) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
axial load, usually secondary to mvc or fall
comminuted fracture through vertebral body that may resemble flexion-teardrop fracture |
|
|
Term
| anterior compression fracture |
|
Definition
common in osteoporosis
compressed, wedge-shaped vertebrae (causes kyphosis) |
|
|
Term
| dark spot on nuclear medicine bone scan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fracture of tip, usually stable |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fracture at the base of dense |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fracture through the body of the vertebra of C2 |
|
|
Term
| ankylosing spondylitis is associated with which MHC type? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does ankylosing spondylitis affect spine? |
|
Definition
| ossification of annular fibrosus, spine fuses and is easily fractured |
|
|
Term
| diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)/ Forestier's disease |
|
Definition
laminated flowing osteophytes on anterolateral margin involving 4 contiguous vertebral bodies
mostly lower C and lower T spine
disk height maintained |
|
|
Term
| ossification of posterior longitudinal ligament can be associated with what spine pathologies? |
|
Definition
ankylosing spondylitis
DISH |
|
|
Term
| how do you confirm where pain is coming from in disk disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| diffuse bulging disk that extends symmetrically and circumferentially by more than 2mm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| focal assymetric extension of disk beyond vertebral body, wide base |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| more pronounced portrusion, narrow neck |
|
|
Term
| central disk herniation of L3/4 will impinge what nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| lateral disk herniation of L4/5 will impinge what nerve root? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| clinical nerve impingement of L4 nerve root could be the result of what disk disease? |
|
Definition
| lateral L3/4 or central L4/5 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| narrowing of central canal exclusive of disk disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| usually result of facet joint osteophytes and inward buckling of lig flav posteriorly with disk bulging anteriorly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| degenerative osteophytes of facet joints or of uncovertebral joints in Cspine, in ward buckling of lig flav, foraminal disk protrusion, extrusion, diffuse disk bulge, post op fibrosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
usually caused by hypertrophic degenerative changes of facet joints or less commomnly by disk fragment or post op fibrosis
nerve roots lie in recess after leaving thecal sac, but before exiting neural foramen |
|
|
Term
| spondylolytic spondylolisthesis |
|
Definition
| defect in pars interarticularis, posterior aspect of vertebral body separates from anterior |
|
|
Term
| degenerative spondylolisthesis |
|
Definition
freq L4/5
not result of pars defect, but complex interaction btw disk, facet joints, and ligamentous structures
usually narrowing, sclerosis of facet joints from osteoarthritis
less forward slipping than those with spondylolysus and may get retrolisthesis |
|
|
Term
| why is spine the site of most bone metastases and myeloma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| spine infection is most caused from what? |
|
Definition
| staph aureus from distant site |
|
|
Term
| what molecule links a large aggregate of GAGs in cartilage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| future of hyaline cartilage in devel |
|
Definition
| model for bones, articular cartilage, support respiratory passages (trachea, costal cartilage) |
|
|
Term
| future of elastic cartilage in devel |
|
Definition
| auricle of the ear, wall of auditory canal, epiglottis |
|
|
Term
| matrix that surrounds isogenous cell nest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cartilage type that lacks perichondrium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| osteoclasts arise from what cell precursors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| osteoblasts arise from what cell precursors? |
|
Definition
| undifferentiated mesenchymal cells |
|
|
Term
| early deposited formation of organic bone matrix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is deposited to mineralize osteoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| flat bones tend to form by what process? |
|
Definition
| intramembranous ossification |
|
|
Term
| cells that secrete osteoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| osteoid is composed of what three types of material? |
|
Definition
>90% type 1 collagen
proteoglycans
glycoproteins |
|
|
Term
| hydroxyapatite forms from what minerals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do osteoblasts mineralize bone? |
|
Definition
| they secrete vesicles that concentrate Ca and PO4, crystals nucleate in these vessicles and also nucleate in gap regions of type 1 collagen fibers |
|
|
Term
| how long does the mineralization of osteoid take? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lacuna formed by osteoclast chewing into bone |
|
|
Term
| how do osteoclasts resorb bone? |
|
Definition
secrete H+, resulting acidic environment dissolves hydroxyapatite;
also release lysosomal enxymes that degrade collagen and proteoglycans (therefore, both organic and mineral component) |
|
|
Term
| how is osteoclast acidic secretion contained? |
|
Definition
| circumferential clear zone |
|
|
Term
| zone of osteoclast that resorbs bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| collagen is secreted in diverse orientations, during mineralizations, a relatively small amount of Ca2+ is deposited. AKA woven bone |
|
|
Term
| secondary bone deposition |
|
Definition
| continual process of resorption and redeposition converts primary to secondary (lamellar) bone which is stronger |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| long bones form by what process? |
|
Definition
| endochondral bone formation |
|
|
Term
| beginning portion of ossification of bone from cartilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which region of endochondral bone growth attracts the formation of blood vessels, how does it do this? |
|
Definition
| hypertrophic chondrocytes; secretion of VEGF |
|
|
Term
| what age (roughly) do bones stop growing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do bones stop growing? |
|
Definition
| the epiphyseal plate from the lengthening endochondral center meets the radially expanding endochondral region and all of the cartilage is used up |
|
|
Term
| in compact bone, remodeling occurs through what structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| canals that run perpendicular to osteons which connect their blood supply |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the signaling mechanism for osteocytes negative feedback on osteoblasts? |
|
Definition
| sclerostin; inhibits osteoblast bone deposition |
|
|
Term
| A 34yo delivery man lifting refrigerator notes a pop in his back. He has immediate pain in his back radiating down R leg to buttock, post thigh, lat leg, into dorsum of foot. what is most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 59yo w several yrs of progressively worsening low back pain. He is crouched when he walks more than 5min and has to sit; is then able to walk again. leans on shopping cart. sx start proximally and radiate distally, sleeps in recliner at night. what is most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 86yo w hx of end stage renal disease gets dialysis 3x/wk. Presents with a 2wk hx of low back pain. Pain is constant, but aggrevated by activity. he has night pain constant and severe, associated with sweats and chills. what is next most appropriate action? |
|
Definition
| order xrays and MRI of lumbar spine |
|
|
Term
| 44yo accountant presents with 2mo hx of left sided neck pain that extends to trapezius and scapula. He has difficulty lifting his arm, combing hair and brushing teeth, and getting dressed. Phys exam shows full range of motion of the neck with minor discomfort, pain is reproduced with shoulder rotation. what is likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| shoulder rotator cuff tear |
|
|
Term
| annulus fibrosus has what type of collagen in it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nucleus pulposus has what type of collagen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what creates lumbar curvature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what prevents hyperflexion of the intervertebral joint? |
|
Definition
| facets and interspinous and supraspinous ligaments |
|
|
Term
| spine segment responsible for flexion |
|
Definition
| lumbar (and lower cervical) |
|
|
Term
| spine segment responsible for rotation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| serious neurologic condition in which there is acute loss of function of the lumbar plexus, neurologic elements (nerve roots) of the spinal canal below the termination (conus medullaris) of the spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
| what are the two groups of lower back pain pts who are good candidates for spine surgery? |
|
Definition
| cauda equina syndrome and/or unable to tolerate 6 wks of symptoms |
|
|
Term
| what is the number one reason for spine reconstruction surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nerves responsible for perianal sensation and rectal tone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In C spine, spinal nerve comes out above or below its corresponding vertebra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| spurling test: what is it and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
| lateral bending of head during extension, used to detect cervical radiculopathy |
|
|
Term
| indications of cauda equina syndrome |
|
Definition
| bladder dysfunction, saddle anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| treatment for disk herniation |
|
Definition
| epidurals and pain meds for 6 wks to see if symptoms improve (unless cauda equina present or progressive neurological deficit) |
|
|
Term
| laminectomy is contraindicated in C spine if what is present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the trelenberg sign and what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| pelvis slips to one side while walking; indicates L5 nerve impingement |
|
|
Term
| how do you differentiate between neural and vascular etiology in lumbar stenosis? |
|
Definition
| normal pulses, normal skin/no vein stasis = nx |
|
|
Term
| surgery for lumbar stenosis (if surgery is pursued) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15yo presents w 3mo history of low back pain.
Gymnast and dancer; what is a likely diagnosis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| common cause of back pain in adolescents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| common sources for discitis |
|
Definition
| bladder or dental infection |
|
|
Term
fibrous dysplasia of bone (polyostotic)
cafe-au-lait
endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism, precocious puberty in girls) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| "shepherd's crook" deformity of the hip is associated with what disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does fibrous dysplasia of bone mean? |
|
Definition
| abnormal curvilinear trabeculae (chinese calligraphy symbol) |
|
|
Term
| genetic transmission of McCune Albright syndrome |
|
Definition
| mutation in GNAS, but occurs post fertilization (not vertically transmitted |
|
|
Term
| small jaws, abnormal ears, eyes slanting downward, hypoplasia of face with or without cleft palate |
|
Definition
| Treacher-Collins syndrome |
|
|
Term
| genetic transmission of Treacher collins syndrome |
|
Definition
| mutation of TCOF1, autosomal dominant, apoptosis of neural crest cells |
|
|
Term
skeletal abnormalities of upper limbs: phocomelia, absent digits, hypoplastic clavicles,
present with congenital heart disease (septal defects) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heart hand syndrome is another name for what disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| genetics of holt-oram syndrome |
|
Definition
TBX5 gene mutated, autosomal dom
mutation impacts early limb development laying down of cartilage |
|
|
Term
| short stature, hands are higher than they ought to be, midface hypoplasia, frontal bossing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| genetics of achondroplasia |
|
Definition
FGFR3 mutation
autosomal dom
common in children of older fathers (new gamete mutations)
|
|
|
Term
| etiology of achondroplasia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| more severe form of dwarfism, commonly lethal, smaller underdeveloped thoracic cavity that leads to respiratory insufficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the genetic difference and similarity between achondroplasia and thanatophoric dwarfism? |
|
Definition
| both are mutations in FGFR3 (FGF receptor), but thanat is mutation in transmembrane domain |
|
|
Term
| club foot is varus or valgus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is typical tx for club foot? |
|
Definition
splinting/casting
surg used sparingly |
|
|
Term
| bowing of legs, frontal bossing of skull, chest protruberances |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rickets usually results from what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| short stature, severe mental impairment, thin stunted limbs, poor ossification, expanded dysfunctional cartilage scaffold, soft, week epiphyseal plates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bluish sclerae, brittle bones, increased risk of fractures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| osteogenesis imperfecta is a mutation in what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which type of osteogenesis imperfecta have bluish sclerae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| short stature but normal body proportions, |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| increased osteoclastic resorption, delayed matrix mineralization, short stature, osteoporosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pathophys of renal osteodystrophy |
|
Definition
| phosphate retention in kidneys induces secondary hyperparathyroidism, osteoclast activity stimulated |
|
|
Term
| bone weakening in adults that increases risk of vertebral, femoral fractures, due to deficiency in vit D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
markedly decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration, prone to fractures from mild stress
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| two types of primary osteoporosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| quantitative measurement for osteoporosis vs osteopenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| causes of secondary osteoporosis |
|
Definition
| disuse (paraplegia), immobilization, hormonal (hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism), drugs (roids, chemo), malnutrition (C, D) |
|
|
Term
| in senile osteoporosis, what is the relative effect of ostioclast vs blast? |
|
Definition
| reduced osteoblast activity |
|
|
Term
| In post menopausal osteoporosis, what is the relative effect of osteoclast vs blasts? |
|
Definition
| clasts increase activity (blast increases too, but not as much) |
|
|
Term
| brittle bones, may present as fractures at birth, deposited bone is not remodeled, |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pathophys of osteopetrosis |
|
Definition
| marble bone disease, osteoclast dysfunction, brittle bones |
|
|
Term
| affects elderly adults, usually incidental xray finding, chalkstick fracture |
|
Definition
| Paget disease of the bone |
|
|
Term
| pathophys of paget's disease of bone |
|
Definition
mutation in gene SQSTM1
increased osteoclast activity |
|
|
Term
| microscopy of bone reveals mosaic pattern |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| alkaline phosphatase is produced by what type of cells and is indicative of what if elevated in the blood? |
|
Definition
| osteoblasts, increased osteoblast activity |
|
|
Term
| treatment of paget's disease of bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| enlarged jaw, hands, feet in adult |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| classification system for growth plate fractures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fraction parallel to growth plate, good prognosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fracture along growth plate with lateral oblique fracture through diaphysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| parallel to growth plate with section through the epiphysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| oblique fracture through epiphysis and diaphysis through growth plate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| compression fracture of the growth plate, worst prognosis |
|
|
Term
| secretory products of sebaceous gland; function |
|
Definition
| complex lipids; protection and moisturizer |
|
|
Term
| apocrine gland secretes what products? function? |
|
Definition
iron, SCFAs, aromatic glycoproteins, ammonia
fxn: social and sexual |
|
|
Term
| apocrine gland does what type of secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| eccrine gland does what type of secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| eccrine gland secretion products, function |
|
Definition
| electrolytes, lactate, urea/ammonia; thermoregulation and electrolyte balance |
|
|
Term
| layer of epiderm that is single layer at the base, where division occurs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| epiderm layer where keratinocytes become more cuboidal, stop proliferation and migrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| epiderm layer where cells become granulated, flatten and form layers. here is where a rapid apoptotic process happens that cells lose all contents except keratin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| layer formed after keratinocytes have lost all contents and apoptosed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cells that secrete melanin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| resident macrophage of skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cell line of keratinocytes that anchors epiderm to basement membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| intermediate filaments specific to keratinocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what molecule in keratinocyte contributes to water barrier? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at stratum granulosum layer, keratin is bound by what molecule? |
|
Definition
| flaggrin, filament aggregating factor |
|
|
Term
| EM of cell contains tennis racket shaped granules |
|
Definition
| Langerhans cell (birbeck's granules) |
|
|
Term
| melanin that makes brown and black pigment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| melanin that makes yellow and red pigment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| shield from UV light, absorb free radicals |
|
|
Term
| merkel cells have what function and are found where? |
|
Definition
| they are fine touch mechano receptors, they are found in basal layer of epidermis in lips, finger tips, and genitalia |
|
|
Term
| EM shows cauliflower shaped nucleus, finger like philipodia, dense granules on one side |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| type of collagen that composes most of dermis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the bulk of ground substance in dermis is composed of what? |
|
Definition
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Term
| EBM in PT is an integration of what 3 features |
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Definition
| best research evidence, clinical expertise, patient's own unique set values and expectations |
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Term
| PT is increasingly emphasizing what 3 tools in practice |
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Definition
| therapeutic exercise, manual therapy (manipulation) and pt educat |
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Term
| what are some important red flags in PT for an underlying pathology? |
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Definition
| age <20 or >55; night pain; systemically unwell (fatigue, malaise, etc); failure to respond to conservative care |
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Term
| what are recent onset signs and symptoms that require emergency referral? |
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Definition
| difficulty with micturition, loss of sphincter tone/urinary/fecal incontinence, saddle anesthesia, gait disturbance with the above, bilatera sciatica with nx signs |
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Term
| most common spinal site of metastatsis |
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Definition
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Term
| how frequently is T spine involved in mechanical problems? |
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Definition
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Term
| four factors, if present, have nearly 100% for id cancer in spine |
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Definition
failure to respond to concervative treatment
unexplained weight loss
hx of cancer
age >55 |
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Term
| tool for evaluating improvement in lumbar spine |
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Definition
| Oswestry disability index |
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Term
| tool used to help id yellow flags in spine PT patients |
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Definition
| Fear-Avoidance beliefs questionaire |
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Term
| what are yellow flags in spine PT patients? |
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Definition
| psychosocial indicators for chronicity |
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Term
| what two questions can screen for depression in spine PT patients? |
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Definition
1. during past month have you often been feeling down, depressed or hopeless
2. during the last month, have you often been bothered by little interest or pleasure in doing things |
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Term
| manipulation is usually used for what kind of lower back pain? |
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Definition
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Term
| when is stabilization used in therapy? |
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Definition
| patient <41 yrs, SLR>91, +instability test, aberrant motion present |
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Term
| when do you use specific exercise (extension, flexion, lat shift) in spine PT? |
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Definition
| use exercise that decreases leg pain/centralizes or has directional prefeference |
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Term
| when do you use traction in PT? |
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Definition
| If no centralization, +Well SLR then traction may be worth trying |
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Term
| when do you use manipulation on C spine? |
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Definition
| useful to address restricted upper cervical segments in cases of cervicogenic headaches |
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Term
| what does deep neck flexor endurance test for? |
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Definition
| those with neck pain can do for 25 sec, w/o can do for 40 |
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Term
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Definition
| analogous to SLR, but for C spine |
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Term
| what are indications of neck pain with mobility deficits? |
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Definition
| unilateral neck pain, limited neck motion, recent onset, restricted cervical and thoracic joint segment mobility |
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Term
| intervention for neck pain with mobility deficits |
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Definition
| cervical and thoracic mobilization and manipulation |
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Term
| indications of neck pain with headache |
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Definition
| restricted mobility in upper cervical segments, tight subocciput muscles, decreased neck flexor strength and endurance |
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Term
| greater occiputal nerve comes from which spinal nerve? |
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Definition
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Term
| greater occip nerve passes through which two muscles on its way to the skin? |
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Definition
semispinalis capitis
trapezius |
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Term
| proximal attachment of trapexius |
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Definition
| external occipital protuberance, medial superior nuchal line, nuchal ligment, spinous processes of C7-T12 |
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