| Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Corticosteroid- inhibits phospholipase A Asthma, Arthritis, Lupus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Corticosteroid- inhibits phospholipase A Asthma, Arthritis, Lupus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Corticosteroid- inhibits phospholipase A Asthma, Arthritis, Lupus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Corticosteroid- inhibits phospholipase A Asthma, Arthritis, Lupus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Thromboxane Antagonist-leaves prostacyclin synthesis intact so fewer AEs than aspirin AE- loss of platelet aggregation- bleeding
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Thromboxane Antagonist-leaves prostacyclin synthesis intact so fewer AEs than aspirin AE- loss of platelet aggregation- bleeding
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Thromboxane Antagonist-leaves prostacyclin synthesis intact so fewer AEs than aspirin AE- loss of platelet aggregation- bleeding
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Non-selective COX1 and COX2 inhibitor- COVALENT BOND IS PERMANENT- Platelets become useless-
 Ulcers, bleeding, asthma exacerbation, bronchospasm, angioedema
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID- Inhibits COX1 more than COX2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID- Inhibits COX1 more than COX2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID- Inhibits COX1 and COX2 equally |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID- Inhibits COX1 and COX2 equally |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID- Inhibits COX2 more than COX1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID- Inhibits COX2 more than COX1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Propionic Acid NSAIDS- list |  | Definition 
 
        | Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Ketoprofen, Flurprofen (PROFENS)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Propionic Acid NSAIDS- attributes |  | Definition 
 
        | For pain, fever, arthritis, dysmenorrhea, gout AE- GI hemorrhage, ulceration, perforation, nephrotoxic, stevens-johnson syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cyclobenzaprine- indications |  | Definition 
 
        | Spasmolytic for acute conditions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Two drugs that reduce abnormally elevated muscle tone without paralysis |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Neuromuscular blocker that interferes with transmission at the neuromuscular end plate- NON-CENTRALLY ACTING MUSCLE RELAXANT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Neuromuscular blocker that interferes with transmission at the neuromuscular end plate- NON-CENTRALLY ACTING MUSCLE RELAXANT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Neuromuscular blocker that interferes with transmission at the neuromuscular end plate- NON-CENTRALLY ACTING MUSCLE RELAXANT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Baclofen, diazepam, tizanidine- MOA |  | Definition 
 
        | Centrally acting muscle relaxants -spasmolytics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Spasticity- centrally-acting muscle relaxant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Spasticity- centrally-acting muscle relaxant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Spasticity- centrally-acting muscle relaxant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Spasticity- centrally-acting muscle relaxant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a peripherally acting drug for spasticity? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of Baclofen? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acts in spinal cord to suppress hyperactive reflexes involved in regulating muscle movement -STRUCTURAL ANALOG OF GABA
 -may mimic actions of GABA on spinal nerves
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug facilitates GABA mediated presynaptic inhibition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug interferes with release of excitatory neurotransmitters (GABA-B)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug acts at the level of the spinal cord to restore inhibiting tone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is an agonist for the Alpha2 receptor that is inhibitory for glutamate in the lower motor neuron? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug reduces spasticity associated with MS, spinal cord injury, and cerebral palsy but is NOT effective in stroke and does NOT relieve the spasticity of Parkinson's disease? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of baclofen on flexor and extensor spasms and resistance to passive movement? |  | Definition 
 
        | Baclofen decreases flexor and extensor spasms and suppresses resistance to passive movement |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is baclofen preferred to dantrolene? |  | Definition 
 
        | In patients whose spasticity is associated with significant muscle weakness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If the default tone of the lower motor neuron is too high and there is not enough influence from the upper motor neuron, what drug reinforces the signal from the upper motor neuron that has been lost? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is compliance low with Baclofen? |  | Definition 
 
        | T1/2 is 2.5-4 hours, so patients have to take it too often |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where is baclofen metabolized and excreted? |  | Definition 
 
        | Metabolized in the liver, excreted by the kidneys |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common side effects of Baclofen? |  | Definition 
 
        | CNS- depressant- dizziness, drowsiness, weakness, fatigue GI Tract
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the contraindications of using Baclofen? |  | Definition 
 
        | NO ALCOHOL or other CNS depressants -potentiates the depressant action of these drugs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What anxiolytic treats both spasticity and spasm? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of diazepam? |  | Definition 
 
        | It acts within the CNS by facilitating GABA-A mediated PRESYNAPTIC INHIBITION -it mimics the actions of GABA-A at receptors in the spine AND brain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is preferred over dantrolene in patients whose strength is marginal, and causes sedation in most patients at therapeutic dosage? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the major side effect of Dantrolene? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 drugs that interact badly with Baclofen and what is the interaction? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alcohol Antihistamines
 CNS Depressants
 MAO Inhibitors
 CNS depression; risk of hepatotoxicity with combination of chloroxazone and alcohol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the drugs that interact badly with Chlorphenesin and what is the interaction? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tricyclic antidepressants- Increased CNS depression; risk of hepatotoxicity with combination of chloroxazone and alcohol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug acts directly on skeletal muscle to relieve spasticity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dantrolene PERIPHERALLY ACTING |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of dantrolene? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks the ryanidine receptor- SUPRESSES CALCIUM RELEASE FROM THE SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM which
 decreases the ability of skeletal muscle to contract
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are two important therapeutic uses of Dantrolene? |  | Definition 
 
        | Spasticity MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What causes malignant hyperthermia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Excessive calcium release- caused by certain drugs- basically, the ryanidine receptor freaks out- muscles twitch causing HEAT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the symptoms of malignant hyperthermia, and how is it treated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Muscle rigidity, profound elevated temperature from massive calcium release inducing muscle contraction TREAT WITH DANTROLENE TO BLOCK Ca RELEASE
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of Dantrolene? |  | Definition 
 
        | Liver damage- test liver function before administering BAD COMBINATION WITH ESTROGEN
 Also, drowsiness, dizziness, malaise, lightheadedness, insomnia, fatigue, confusion, urinary frequency
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muscle relaxant causes urinary frequency? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the drugs that Dantrolene interacts negatively with? |  | Definition 
 
        | Estrogen (LIVER TOXIC) CNS Depressants- sedation
 Clindamycin
 Verapamil
 Warfarin
 Clofibrate
 Tolbutamine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens if you give Dantrolene to someone on Clindamycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased neuromuscular blockade |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens if you give Dantrolene to someone on Verapamil? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hyperkalemia and cardiac depression |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muscle relaxant is also an antifungal and antibiotic? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Centrally acting drug for acute local muscle spasm of the lower motor neuron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Centrally acting drug for acute local muscle spasm of the lower motor neuron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug for acute local muscle spasm of the lower motor neuron is given for INJURY-RELATED spasms? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug for acute local muscle spasm of the lower motor neuron is given for strains and sprains? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug for acute local muscle spasm of the lower motor neuron makes for HIGH RISK IN THE ELDERLY? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muscle relaxant is a GABA transaminase inhibitor? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug for acute local muscle spasm is contraindicated during pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Drug used for acute local muscle spasm |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Drug used for acute local muscle spasm WITH ANTICHOLINERGIC PROPERTIES |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do most drugs for acute LOCAL muscle spasm work? |  | Definition 
 
        | They act as a sedative or at the level of the spinal cord or brainstem |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is the prototype of the drugs for acute local muscle spasm, and is believed to have muscarinic effects? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is cyclobenzaprine ineffective? |  | Definition 
 
        | Muscle spasm due to cerebral palsy or spinal cord injury |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does cyclobenzaprine have high protein binding or low? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does Baclofen have high protein binding or low? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does Dantrolene have high protein binding or low? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does tizanidine have high protein binding or low? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is Baclofen contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Skeletal muscle spasms caused by rheumatoid arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is Carisoprodol contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patients with known hypersensitivity to meprobamate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is Cyclobenzaprine contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | MI, Cardiac conduction disorders, hyperthyroidism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is dantrolene contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Active hepatic disease, muscle spasms caused by rheumatoid arthritis, patients taking estrogen (because of liver toxicity) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of tizanidine, and what are its side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alpha2 agonist- hypotension, drowsiness, and dry mouth |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is botulinum toxin indicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Spasticity from cerebral palsy, cosmetic surgery |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the definition of a spasmolytic? |  | Definition 
 
        | A drug that reduces abnormally elevated muscle tone without paralysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Sudden, violent, painful, involuntary contractions of a muscle or a group of muscles |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What neurons are involved with spasm? |  | Definition 
 
        | Damage to LOWER MOTOR NEURON |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NTM is released from the nerve terminal to stimulate a receptor to produce muscle contractions, and what is its receptor? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acetylcholine, Nicotinic Receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the definition of spasticity? |  | Definition 
 
        | An increase in passive stretch resistance of a muscle or muscle group- movements are stiff and awkward CONDITION IS PERMANENT
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List 7 common causes of spasticity: |  | Definition 
 
        | Head injuries, cerebral palsy, MS, stroke, Alzheimers, Parkinsons, Upper Motor Neuron Lesions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spasticity is a condition of what neurons? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The spindle sends a monitoring signal to the spinal cord via what type of motor neuron? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The spinal cord sends a reflex signal to the muscle via what type of neuron (after receiving monitoring signal from the spindle)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Extrafusal Efferents and Fusimotor Efferents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The ventral root carries the motor signal heading in what direction? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of signal is carried by the dorsal root? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sensory from periphery to spinal cord |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of nerve carries stretch information to the spinal cord? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of cortisol? |  | Definition 
 
        | Induce lipocortin to inhibit phospholipase A which ELIMINATES ALL ARACHIDONIC ACID DERIVATIVES |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of corticosteroids on inflammation cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | Redistribution of neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of corticosteroids on macrophages? |  | Definition 
 
        | A decrease in the ability of macrophages to release TNFAlpha and IL1, metalloproteinase, and plasminogen factor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do TNFAlpha and IL1 stimulate with regards to the action of corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 
        | They stimulate Phospholipase A- corticosteriods decrease release of TNFAlpha and IL1 from macrophages, thereby reducing the stimulation of Phospholipase A |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of corticosteroids on mast cells, and on cytokines in general? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease in synthesis of protaglnadins, leukotrienes, thromboxane, and histamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do corticosteroids effect COX2 expression? |  | Definition 
 
        | They inhibit expression of COX2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Prednisone is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Triamcinolone is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dextamethasone is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Fludrocortisone is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which synthetic corticosteroid interferes with the aldosterone receptor and has both cortisol AND aldosterone properties? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main ways that synthetic corticosteroids are different from natural corticosteroids (cortisol)? |  | Definition 
 
        | -difference in affinity for mineralcorticoids and glucocorticoid receptors -different protein binding affinity; rate of elimination; metabolic products
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hydrocortisone is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Betamethasone is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of cortisol on insulin? |  | Definition 
 
        | OPPOSITE OF INSULIN- physiological antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What synthetic corticosteroid has the highest salt and water retaining activity? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the joint related indications for corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, bursitis, tenosynovitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the GI related indications for corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Crohn's disease; Ulcerative Colitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Under what conditions is it OK to give corticosteroid for inflammatory GI issues, and what needs to be ruled out? |  | Definition 
 
        | Only give steroids if the issue is IDIOPATHIC- always rule out H. Pylori |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What mediates inflammation in Crohn's disease and is suppressed by corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What mediates inflammation in asthma and is suppressed by corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What skin condition is treated with corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What head problem is treated with corticosteroids ?(awkward question, I know) |  | Definition 
 
        | Temporal Arteritis (Giant cell arteritis) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of corticosteroids on electrolytes (salt, potassium) and sugar? |  | Definition 
 
        | Na+ retention HYPOkalemia
 HYPERglycemia
 Glycosuria
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of corticosteroids on blood pressure? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypertension (remember, we are retaining water) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do corticosteroids cause hypokalemia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sodium is ALWAYS retained at the expense of potassium |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of corticosteroids on bone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When are corticosteroids contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Peptic Ulcers, hypertension, osteoporosis, heart failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some of the negative effects of long term use of NSAIDS? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased bleeding time Dyspepsia
 Subepithelial Damage and Hemorrhage
 Gastric Mucosal Erosion
 Frank Ulceration
 Frank Zappa
 Gastric Mucosal Necrosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect does long term NSAID use have on blood vessels? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease blood vessel sensitivity to bradykinins and histamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect does long term NSAID use have on the kidneys? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mode of action of aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Irreversible inhibition of COX1 and COX2- inhibits Prostaglandins, Thromboxanes AND Prostacyclins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between the action of aspirin on endothelium versus platelets? |  | Definition 
 
        | Endothelium can make new COX to replace that which is inhibited by aspirin Platelets have no nuclei, can't make more COX, are rendered useless
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of aspirin on NADPH oxidase? |  | Definition 
 
        | Reduction- reduce neutrophils oxidative burst |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Inhibition of which COX leads to aspirin-triggered lipoxins? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical usefulness of low doses of aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Long term prevention of thrombosis and ischemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What conditions are prevented/reduced by aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Transient ischemic attacks, unstable angina, coronary artery thrombosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Aspirin is synergistic with what other drugs in pain management? |  | Definition 
 
        | Synergistic with opioids- use in combo with morphine against cancer pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Severe adverse effect of aspirin in children |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of aspirin in patients with asthma? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 6 NSAIDs can produce adverse effects in asthma patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aspirin, indomethacin, naproxen, ibuprofen, mefenamate, phenylbutazone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the clinical uses of ibuprofen? |  | Definition 
 
        | Arthritis, anklyosing spondylitis, gout, primary dysmenorrhea |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Naproxen as an NSAID? |  | Definition 
 
        | Long half life, 20 times more potent than aspirin, less severe adverse effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID directly inhibits leukocyte function? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Indomethacin is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sulindac is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Etodolac is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Diclofenac is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ketorolac is what type of drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is unique about the MOA of indomethacin, sulindac, etodolac, diclofenac, and ketorolac? |  | Definition 
 
        | They decrease the availability of arachidonic acid IN ADDITION TO COX INHIBITION -other eicosanoids are affected
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID is a direct inhibitor of neutrophil motility and promotes closure of patent ductus arteriosus? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is given to CLOSE a patent ductus, and what drug is given to MAINTAIN a patent ductus? |  | Definition 
 
        | To close:  Indomethacin To maintain: Alprostadil
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug, used for renal stone-associated pain, decreases the intracellular concentration of arachidonic acid? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID is given for renal stone associated pain? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What strong analgesic is used in post-surgical patients? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is unique about the mechanism of action of mefenamate and meclofenamate? |  | Definition 
 
        | They antagonize prostanoid receptors to various degrees, and have less anti-inflammatory activity and more adverse effects than aspirin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used ONLY for primary dysmenorrhea, and antagonizes prostanoid receptors? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to treat arthritis and antagonizes prostanoid receptors? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Meclofenamate is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Mefenamate is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Diclofenac is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Renal stone associated pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | In post-surgical patients, for treating pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is as efficacious as aspirin, naproxen, and ibuprofen against arthritis and is better tolerated? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug inhibits collagenase, proteoglycanase, and the oxidative burst? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What arthritis drug can be administered once a day? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Piroxicam is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Arthritis (give once a day) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What pro-drug is more selective for COX2 and causes less GI disturbance? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nabumetone is more selective for : |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Acetaminophen, unlike aspirin, lacks what important use? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is acetaminophen better for children than aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aspirin can cause Reyes syndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 2 main indications for acetaminophen? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the toxicity risk of acetaminophen? |  | Definition 
 
        | May cause kidney and liver damage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What mediates toxicity in acetaminophen? |  | Definition 
 
        | CYP2E1 and CYP3A4 mediate toxicity via release of N-Acetyl-benzoquinone imine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Under what conditions would acetaminophen have less use and more side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Some people have a faster CYP450 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of celecoxib? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main indications for celecoxib? |  | Definition 
 
        | Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, primary dysmenorrhea, familial adenomatous polyposis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID is given for familial adenomatous polyposis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main risk with celecoxib? |  | Definition 
 
        | Higher risk of cardiovascular toxicity- heart attack and stroke |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Anti-TNF Alpha monoclonal antibody -human IgG1
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Anti-TNF Alpha monoclonal antibody -dimeric fusion protein
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Anti-TNF Alpha monoclonal antibody -human mouse chimeric
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do the anti-TNF alpha monoclonal antibodies suppress? |  | Definition 
 
        | IL-1, IL-6, and adhesion molecules involved in leukocyte migration |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main risk of using anti-TNF alpha monoclonal antibodies? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody that has no effect on TNF Beta is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adalimumab is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Etanercept is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody can be combined with methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody is used to treat Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, rheumatoid arthritis, anklyosing spondylitis, and psoriatic arthritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Infliximab is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and psoriatic arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What mediator is found in the synovial fluid in rheumatoid arthritis and how does this affect treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | LEUKOTRIENES- give anti-leukotriene drugs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What inflammatory mediator is primary in ankylosing spondylitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of abatacept? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks T-cell activation with decrease in TNF Alpha |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody blocks T-cell activation and decreases TNF alpha? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Abatacept is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Severe resistant rheumatoid arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody is given to treat severe resistant rheumatoid arthritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Recombinant human anti-CD11a monoclonal antibody |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Efalizumab is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Adults with severe psoriasis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody is used to treat severe psoriasis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of omalizumab? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks the interaction between IgE and the FcE receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Omalizumab is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Resistant allergic asthma in adults and adolescents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody is used to treat resistant allergic asthma in adults and adolescents? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Chimeric mouse-human monoclonal antibody |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Basiliximab is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Prophylaxis of acute organ rejection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Daclizumab is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Prophylaxis of acute organ rejection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two monoclonal antibodies are given to prevent acute organ rejection? |  | Definition 
 
        | Basiliximab and daclizumab |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the common risk with all monoclonal antibody treatments? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of buspirone? |  | Definition 
 
        | 5HT1A agonist- non-benzodiazepine selective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Buspirone is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the advantages of Buspirone in treating anxiety? |  | Definition 
 
        | Relieves anxiety without causing sedative, hypnotic, and euphoric effects DOES NOT AFFECT DRIVING SKILLS
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of buspirone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tachycardia, palpitation, nervousness, GI distress, and paresthesia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 5HT1D/1B receptor agonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sumatripatn is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute migraine and cluster headache attacks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to treat acute migraine and cluster headaches? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of sumatriptan? |  | Definition 
 
        | Coronary artery vasospasm; contraindicated in patients with coronary artery disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When are naratriptan and eletriptan contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patients with hepatic and renal insufficiency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used to treat irritable bowel syndrome with constipation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tegaserod is used to treat what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Irritable bowel syndrome with constipation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of receptor is the 5HT3 receptor? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ion Channel- FAST ACTING Remember: all other 5HT's are G-protein coupled
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ondansetron is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | (Prevention) nausea and vomiting associated with surgery and chemotherapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What class of drugs do we give to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with surgery and chemotherapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | 5HT3 antagonists, like Ondansetron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Second Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | First Generation Antihistamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What class of drug is cimetidine and what are common adverse effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | H2 Blocker for stomach acid control Can cause diarrhea, headache, fatigue, and constipation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What class of drug is ranintidine and what are common adverse effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | H2 Blocker for stomach acid control Can cause diarrhea, headache, fatigue, and constipation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What class of drug is fomotidine and what are common adverse effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | H2 Blocker for stomach acid control Can cause diarrhea, headache, fatigue, and constipation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cetirizine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis; allergic urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Acrivastine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Loratadine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis and urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Desloratadine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis and urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Levocabastine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis and urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ebastine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis and urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Mizolastine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis and urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Fexofenadine is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Allergic rhinitis and urticaria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of the first generation antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some clinical indications for first generation antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rhinitis, conjunctivitis, urticaria, pruritus (itching), anaphylaxis, insomnia, motion sickness, Parkinsonism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the common adverse effects of first generation antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sedation, dizziness, pupillary dilation, dry eyes, dry mouth, urinary retention, hesitancy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major contraindications for first generation antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 
        | Narrow angle glaucoma Peptic Ulcers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name three drugs that act on leukotrienes: |  | Definition 
 
        | Zafirlukast, montelukast, zileuton |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What three drugs inhibit thromboxanes? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dazoxiben, pirmagrel, ridogrel |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What serious issue can occur with inhibiting PI2? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do prostacyclins have on vasculature? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of dazoxiben? |  | Definition 
 
        | Specific antagonist of thromboxanes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of pirmagrel? |  | Definition 
 
        | Specific antagonist of thromboxanes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of ridogrel? |  | Definition 
 
        | Specific antagonist of thromboxanes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical application of thromboxane antagonists, and what advantage do they have? |  | Definition 
 
        | Same as aspirin and NSAIDS- because they only inhibit thromboxanes, they leave prostacyclin synthesis intact so have less side effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of taking thromboxane antagonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bleeding- loss of platelet aggregation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 3 adverse effects of NSAID use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gastric irritation, nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two NSAIDs are most likely to cause GI disturbances? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between COX1 and COX2? |  | Definition 
 
        | COX1 is the "housekeeping cocks"- it is on constitutively COX2 is the inducible COX, which activates with inflammation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Indometacin and sulindac are more selective for which COX? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Meclofenamate and ibuprofen are more selective for which COX? |  | Definition 
 
        | Equally Selective for both |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Celecoxib and rofecoxib are more selective for which COX? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some adverse effects of aspirin? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI ulcers, bleeding, asthma exacerbation, bronchospasm, and angioedema |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ibuprofen, naproxen, ketoprofen, and flurprofen are given for what indications? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pain, fever, arthritis(es), dysmenorrhea, gout |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of ibuprofen, naproxen, ketoprofen, and flurprofen? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI Hemorrhage, ulceration, perforation, nephrotoxicity, and stevens-johnson syndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Long term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Long term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Long term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is given for closure of a patent ductus arteriosus? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Piroxicam is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, and PRIMARY DYSMENORRHEA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the adverse effect of piroxicam? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI bleeding worse than aspirin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of acetaminophen? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some adverse effects of acetaminophen? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, hypothermia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is inhibited by Zileuton? |  | Definition 
 
        | Leukotrienes and lipoxins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of zileuton? |  | Definition 
 
        | Urticaria, abdominal discomfort, dizziness, and insomnia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs ONLY inhibit leukotrienes? |  | Definition 
 
        | Montelukast and Zafirlukast |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between montelukast/zafirlukast and zileuton? |  | Definition 
 
        | In contrast to zileuton, monet. and zafir. keep LIPOXINS around |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Montelukast is used to treat: |  | Definition 
 
        | Perennial and seasonal allergic rhinitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Both montelukast and zafirlukast are used to treat: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of montelukast and zafirlukast? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI distress, hallucination, agitation Allergic granulomatous, angiitis, hepatitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two cytokines can terminate pregnancy at any stage secondary to uterine contraction? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is a synthetic PGE2? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dinoprostone is used for: |  | Definition 
 
        | Induction of labor at term 2nd trimester abortion
 Missed abortion
 Benign hydatidiform mole
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of dinoprostone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prolonged vaginal bleeding and severe menstrual cramps can occur if used for menstrual regulation or early abortion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What eicosanoid enhances pain transmission? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What eicosanoid terminates the inflammatory effect? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lipoxins, made by lipoxygenase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What PGE1 derivative is given along with mifepristone for early abortion? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Misoprostol is given for: |  | Definition 
 
        | Peptic Ulcers from NSAIDS Early abortion (if given with mifepristone)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What PGF2 analog is given for 2nd trimester abortion? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Carboprost is a synthetic version of which eicosanoid? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd trimester abortion Resistant postpartum hemorrhage
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What eicosanoids are responsible for severe menstrual pain in dysmenorrhea? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dysmenorrhea is easily treated with: 
 Why?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAIDS- decrease activity of COX so no production of PGE2 and PGF2 alpha |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adverse effects of carboprost? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI Disturbances, dystonia, pulmonary edema |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug, a PGE1 analog, is given to treat erectile dysfunction? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Alprostadil is given for: 
 How?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Erectile dysfunction (second line) 
 Intracavernosal injection (may cause penile pain, obviously- OUCH!)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect does PGE have on vasculature? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treprostinil and epoprostenol are synthetic versions of what eicosanoid? What do they treat?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | PGI2; pulmonary hypertension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect do lipoxins have on vasculature? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of Alprostadil? |  | Definition 
 
        | Apnea, bradycardia, hypotension, hyperpyrexia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Alprostadil is a synthetic analog of what eicosanoid, and it is given to treat what? |  | Definition 
 
        | PGE1- maintenance of a patent ductus arteriosus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Alprostadil is contraindicated in what condition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Latanoprost is a stable version of what eicosanoid, given to treat what condition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | PGF2 alpha has what effect on vasculature? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Bimatoprost, travoprost, and unoprostone are given to treat what condition? |  | Definition 
 
        | Glaucoma secondary to decreased intraocular pressure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs may cause irreversible brown pigmentation of the iris and eyelashes, conjunctivitis, blurred vision, and drying of eyes? |  | Definition 
 
        | PGF2 alpha drugs: latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost, and unoprostone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 4 cells that synthesize and store histamine: |  | Definition 
 
        | Mast Cells, Basophils, Neurons, Enterochromaffin-like cells of the gastric mucosa
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect does histamine have on blood vessels and airways? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What causes release of histamine from granules when mast cells are injured? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What autacoids are associated with arthritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What autacoids are associated with asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | PGD2, LTB4, LTC4 and LTD4 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What autacoids are associated with Crohns and ulcerative colitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What autacoids are associated with dysmennorhea? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What autacoids are associated with glomerulonephritis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |