Term
| Darwin's theory of genetics |
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Definition
| offspring resemble their parents. more offspring are produced than can survive, so only the best adapted will survive = natural selection |
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Term
|
Definition
Mendelian genetics
4 Laws:
- Traits are the result of genes. One gene = one trait
- Genes come in pairs. One from each parent.
- genes come in different forms (alleles). One is dominant, one is recessive
- Separate genes segregate independently of other genes |
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Term
| 2 revisions to mendel's laws, regarding dominance and segregation |
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Definition
1. alleles can be co-dominant and demonstrate incomplete penetrance
2. genes segregate independently only if they're on separate chromosomes (because of crossing over during meiosis I) |
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Term
|
Definition
Dominant - only one allele of the gene must be abnormal to produce the mutant.
Recessive - both alleles must be abnormal
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Term
| When chromosomes are preparing to divide, the DNA replicates into two strands called _____. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Pattern of Chromosome size |
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Definition
| 1 pair is biggest, 22 is smallest. Y is very small. X is fairly large |
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Term
| Central Dogma of genetics: DNA carries genetic info in a series of _____ that make up the genetic code |
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Definition
| Codons (triplet nucleotide bases) |
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Term
| DNA composition: ___ + ____ backbone. Two ___ bases (A+G), Two ____ bases (C+T). In RNA, __ is used instead of __. |
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Definition
| deoxyribose + phosphate backbone. A+G = purine bases. C+T = pyrimidine bases. RNA = U instead of T. |
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Term
| How many possible combinations of genetic code are there? How many of these possibilities actually form known amino acids in humans? |
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Definition
4 bases, taken 3 at a time = 4^3 = 64 possibilities
20 naturally occuring amino acids
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does DNA replication work? |
|
Definition
1. DNA "unzips" to serve as a template for mRNA
2. mRNA leaves the nucleus and proceeds to ribosomes in the cytoplasm
3. tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosomes
4. Proteins are constructed at the ribosomes with the mRNA serving a the blueprint. |
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Term
| One gene = how many proteins? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| How many genes do we have? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are segments of DNA which code for protein synthesis. ___ are segments of DNA which code for mRNA, which does not result in protein synthesis. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are DNA sequences between genes |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Only __% of genes are exons. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Where else is DNA found besides the nucleus? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What can mutations in mitochondrial DNA cause? |
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Definition
mitochondrial envephalomyopathy (MELAS)
Myclonic epilepsy (MERFF) |
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Term
| The ___ is the sum of all inherited info |
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Definition
|
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Term
| ____ refers to transfer of genetic info through chromosomes but outside DNA. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Genetic info is transmitted in "layers". What are these layers? |
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Definition
1. Classic genes: protein=producing codons
2. RNA-only segments: introns and intergenic sequences
- riboswitch RNA and antisense RNA
3. epigenetic layer - genomic imprinting and histone spools
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Term
| In some genes, only one allele is active... the other is inactive. The inactive gene can be involved in genetic diseases such as prader-willi syndrome or angelman syndrome. This is an example of what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Most people are Rh positive or negative? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
Mitosis - cell division. somatic, germ and neoplastic cells
Meiosis - sexual reproduction. produces gametes (ova and sperm) |
|
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Term
| At the end of which mitotic phase is there a duplicated chromosome (2 sister chromatids) that's ready to complete mitosis? |
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Definition
|
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Term
2 Distinctions of Meiosis.
1. During metaphase I: ___
2. The process involves __ divisions. |
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Definition
1. metaphase 1 - chromosomes form homologous pairs. crossing over occurs
2. Meiosis involves 2 divisions. The first division produces 2 cells with 46 chromosomes but only 1 copy of each of the 23 chromosomes. The second division produces haploid gametes (23 chromosomes) |
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Term
| One primary spermatocyte yields __ spermatozoa. One primary oocyte yields _ mature oocyte and __ polar bodies. |
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Definition
| 4 spermatozoa. 1 mature oocyte. 2 polar bodies |
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Term
___ = one copy of each of the 23 chromosomes.
___ = two copies of each of the 23 chromosomes.
___ = more than 2 copies of the 23 chromosomes.
___ = not an exact multiple of n (usually + or - one chromosome. |
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Definition
haploid (n)
diploid (2n)
polyploid (3n or 4n)
Aneuploid |
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Term
| Possible caues of polyploidy |
|
Definition
Polyspermy
Failure to expel polar body
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Term
|
Definition
2n-1 = monosomy
2n+1 = trisomy |
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Term
| 2 causes of aneuploidy. what may cause aneuploidy to happen more often? |
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Definition
1. nondisjunction during first meiotic division.
2. sporadic event due to chance
older oocytes - more common aneuploidy |
|
|
Term
Miscarriages (spontaneous abortion) occurs in what percent of pregnancies?
When do most miscarriages occur?
Why do they usually occur? |
|
Definition
10-20%
First trimester (<14 weeks)
Rate increases with age of mother
Usually do to cytogenetic abnormalities (polyploidy, trisomy, monosomy) |
|
|
Term
What is the result of each?
1. Autosomal monosomy
2. Monosomy X
3. Monosomy Y
4. Autosomal trisomy |
|
Definition
1. lethal
2. Turner's Syndrome
3. Lethal
4. Usuall lethal, except 13, 18, 21 |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Turner Syndrome - monosomy X
Phenotype: short stature, webbed neck, shield chest
Problems: amenorrhea & infertility, kidney malformation, congenital heart disease, aortic arch dilation/rupture |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Down's Syndrome
Epicanthal folds
Variable degrees of retardation
Increased risk of congenital heart disease, hypotheroidism, cataracts, seizures,
Accelerated aging - high frequency of Alzheimers after age 50 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Edward's syndrome
10% survive to age 1, 1% to age 10 |
|
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Term
|
Definition
patau syndrome
microcephaly, severe mental retardation
Cleft lip/palate
ambiguous genitalia
shortened life span
possible cause: robertsonian translocation |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Klinefelter's Syndrome
Pubertal delay, hypogonadism
Infertility |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Triple X syndrome
no special phenotype, usually normal |
|
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Term
|
Definition
No name
Usually normal, but taller than expected
possible learning disabilities but normal IQ |
|
|
Term
| What is a chromosomal deletion and what causes it |
|
Definition
part of a chromosome is deleted.
causes: errors during crossing over, rare spontaneous events. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
5p- syndrome -- the short arm of the 5th chromosome is deleted.
Phenotype: mental retardation, motor developmental delays
behavioral problems
newborns have distinct kitten-like cry
congenital heart defects |
|
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Term
| ___ is two or more cell lines with different genotypes in one individual, descending from one fertilized egg. Common examples? |
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Definition
| Mosaicism -- 46XXY or 47XY (trisomy) |
|
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Term
| A ____ is an individual with two or more cell lines derived from different zygotes |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Excessive triplet repeats (CGG) lead to inactivation of the FMR-1 gene in which syndrome? Phenotype? |
|
Definition
| Fragile X syndrome - mental retardation, prominent jaw, macro-orchidism. Most common inherited cause of retardation. Most common known cause of autism. |
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|
Term
| Functions of introns (RNA-only genes) |
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Definition
| regulate gene expression, influence protein synthesis |
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|
Term
Mendel's laws:
1. Traits are the result of (a) ("atoms of inheritance"). One trait = one (a)
2. Genes come in pairs, one of (b) origin and one of (c) origin.
3. Genes come in different forms, called (d). Some are dominant, some are recessive.
4. Separate genes are inherited (e) of all others. |
|
Definition
a = genes
b = maternal
c = paternal
d = Alleles
e = independently |
|
|
Term
Revisions to Mende's model
1. Alleles can be co-____.
2. ___ penetrance can occur
3. Genes are located on ___, and one pair is different from the others ____ (Autosomal vs. Sex-linked)
4. Genes are inherited independently only if they are on ____. |
|
Definition
1. co-dominant
2. incomplete penetrance
3. chromosomes, X & Y
4. separate chromosomes |
|
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Term
| 4 types of Mendelian transmission |
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Definition
| autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, sex-linked dominant, sex-linked recessive |
|
|
Term
Recessive Mendelian traits:
Heterozygotes are _____, and are usually asymptomatic.
Heterozygocity may confer a selective advantage, such as ___. |
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Definition
heterozygotes are carriers
sickle cell trait and plasmodium falciparum |
|
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Term
| Effects of dominant traits may be reduced by the actions of other genes or substances. This is known as ____ |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Disorders caused by recessive mutations are most common in ___ populations. Disorders caused by dominant mutations are mmost common in offspring of ___ parents. |
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Definition
inbred
older (father >50) |
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Term
| Can a woman suffer from a sex-linked recessive condition? |
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Definition
| yes, if dad has the condition and mom is a carrier, than 50% of daughters will have it and 50% of sons will have it |
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Term
What kind of analysis can answer these questions?
What is the approximate frequency of affected individuals in an exposed population?
Does the disorder appear in every generation?
What is the gender ratio of affected individuals?
Are there any gender limits to transmission?
Such as no male to male transmission
Or female transmission only |
|
Definition
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Term
| A man with an autosomal dominant disorder marries a woman with the same disorder... what are the chances their child will have it? |
|
Definition
75% -- do a Punnet square:
Aa x Aa = AA, Aa, Aa, aa |
|
|
Term
1. Derangement of function seen in disease
2. The medical science, and specialty practice, conserned with all aspects of disease
3. A condition with signs and or symptoms that is linked to an increased risk of future death or disability |
|
Definition
pathophysiology
Pathology
disease |
|
|
Term
| What 2 factors determine vulnerability to disease? |
|
Definition
Nature of the insult (type, intensity, duration_
Defense and repair capacity (age, genetics, immune status, nutritional status, personality/psychological status, chance) |
|
|
Term
1. absolute or relative shortage of blood supply to an organ
2. inadequate or below normal levels of oxygen
3. absence of oxygen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common type of "injury" to the body? |
|
Definition
| hypoxia - most commonly caused by ischemia |
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|
Term
| Examples of "agents" that cause disease |
|
Definition
Infectious
chemical (poisons, toxins, electrolyte imbalance, oxygen excess from free radicals)
Physical (trauma, thermal, atomspheric, ioningizing radiation, electrical, sonic)
Genetic defectts |
|
|
Term
| What is the layman's term for cellular senescence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 cellular adaptations (changes) to injury |
|
Definition
| atrophy (decrease in size), hypertrophy (increase in size), hyperplasia (increase in number), metaplasia (replaement of one cell type by another), cell death (apoptosis or necrosis) |
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|
Term
Key features of apoptosis:
1. Apoptotic cells are easily recognized by _____ cells and removal is accomplished without _____.
2. ____ cells are those that have lost the ability to undergo apoptosis |
|
Definition
1. phagocytic cells, without inflammation
2. neoplastic cells |
|
|
Term
True/false: inflammation is always the result of immune action.
True/false: inflammation is not specific to the immune system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 Key clinical features of inflammation |
|
Definition
calor (heat), rugor (redness), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain)
...also loss of function |
|
|
Term
The dark side of inflammation:
1. Cell destruction liberates ____ enzymes and digests surrounding tissue.
2. Loss of critical function due to ___.
3. May accelerate chronic processes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In many diseases, damage from ____ exceeds that of the causative injury/agent, so treatment is increasingly directed at controlling this. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All proteins are built of how many amino acids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a ligand is present in high concentration, it will activate its specific receptor and it will also activate ____. |
|
Definition
| closely related receptors |
|
|
Term
| 3 Key features that effect receptor-ligand binding |
|
Definition
Receptor number
Ligand number
Affinity - strength of attachment of ligand to receptor |
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|
Term
A woman who is a carrier for CF and sickle cell marries a man who is also a carrier for both. What are the chances their first child will have both?
What mendelian principle is this an example of? |
|
Definition
Do a punnet square:
AaBb x AaBb
Only children with AABB will have both diseases (1/16 children)
This is example of Dihybrid cross: 9:3:3:1 phenotypes:
9 normal
3 homozygous for one gene
3 homozygous for the other gene
1 homozygous for both
TO do it mathematically:
1/4 risk of homozygous for sickle cell
1/4 risk of homozygous for CF
1/4 x 1/4 = 1/16 chance of homozygous for both
Becuase it's for autosomal recessive, the child must be homozygous dominant to have the disease |
|
|
Term
| What disease does the CFTR gene cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Principles of Incomplete penetrance:
1. mutations can vary in ____.
2. process may be influenced by more than one ____.
3. Gene ___ may vary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The relationship of chromosome morphology to disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regulator genes, operators, structural genes, in which the operator is turned off by a repressor protein is part of what genetic model? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In DNA synthesis, ___ are cut out and ___ are spliced together to form a working protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RNA splicing is done at the ____ by "snurps" (snRNPs) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involves splicing together different combinations of exons |
|
|
Term
| RNA gene regulation concept: Nucleotides from "non-coding regions" can yield RNA which occupy sites on DNA and either ____ or ____ transcription |
|
Definition
| prevent/repress or activate |
|
|
Term
RNA interference (RNAi):
Method of ___ gene expression
2 kinds:
1. _____ - small segment of non-coding RNA derived from a larger nucleotide sequence through the action of endonucleases Drosha and Dicer. Affects the action of what kind of RNA?
2. ___ - small, non-coding RNA that is double stranded and is capable of interfering with gene expression. |
|
Definition
silencing
miRNA (microRNA)- affects action of mRNA
siRNA (small interfering) |
|
|
Term
| Genomic imprinting, histone spool regulation, and X chromosome inactivation are all subsets of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What concept?
In certain genes only one copy (allele) is active and the other is inactive but can be involved in genetic disease.
Example of this? |
|
Definition
Genomic imprinting
ex: methylation, which silences DNA |
|
|
Term
What concept?
One X chromosome is active, the other isn't.
Randomly accomplished via methylation and deacetylation
Happens in approximately __% of genes |
|
Definition
X chromosome inactivation
85% |
|
|
Term
| What happens when a mother sheep ingests V. californicum on gestational day 14? |
|
Definition
| Fetal sheep develops cyclopsia because a compound in the plant blocks the hox-like gene receptor called "sonic hedgehog" |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of excessive sonic hedgehog activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 main sources of mutations |
|
Definition
spontaneous DNA degredations
replication errors
environmental trauma (insults) |
|
|
Term
Example of a spontaneous DNA degredation?
Cytosine deamination |
|
Definition
| converts cytosine to uracil |
|
|
Term
| Consequences of mutations in somatic cells v. germ cells |
|
Definition
Somatic cells: cancer, cell/tissue dysfunction. NOT INHERITABLE
Germ cells: inheritable |
|
|
Term
metabolic consequences of mutations:
1. ___ of function: decreased production of structural proteins can cause tissue dysfunction
2. ___ of function: increased production of structural proteins can be toxic to certain cells
Both can lead to ____.
If this happens in a germ cell, it can results in one of two things... |
|
Definition
1. loss of fxn
2. gain of fxn
Both can lead to neoplasia
In germ cells: can cause congenital anomalies or can be evolutionarily beneficial |
|
|
Term
4 types of DNA mutation
1. ____. Base changes occur but the function of the coded protein is not impaired. Associated with ____.
2. ____. single base changes that result in change of one amino acid to another. Can be silent, or can result in disease (blood disorders like sickle cell)
3. ___. A single base change that turns a single codon into a StOP codon. Almost always deleterious, produces shortened (truncated) protein.
4. ____. Addition or deletion of a single or several bases in any but multiples of 3. Changes transcription/translation drastically downstream. |
|
Definition
1. Silent - associated with SNPs
2. Missense
3. Nonsense
4. Frameshift
|
|
|
Term
| 4 types of DNA repair mechanisms |
|
Definition
Base excision repair
Nucleotide excision repair
mismatch repair
recombination repair |
|
|
Term
Repair effectiveness.
>__% of replication errors are corercted
Most environmental insults are corrected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Genes that are involved in the repair process are calle d____ genes. Mutations in these genes may reduce repair efficiency. Results of significant reduction in repair efficiency = ___ and ____. |
|
Definition
Tumor Suppressor Genes
increased neoplasia risk
Increased aging |
|
|
Term
Examples of Multifactorial/polygenic/quantitative inheritance
Continuous characteristics & Clinical diseases/syndrome |
|
Definition
continuous - height, skin color, intelligence, etc
clinical diseases: congenital and adult onset |
|
|
Term
How do you predict the height of a child?
What principle does this illustrate? |
|
Definition
Male: Mother's height + 5" + father's height / 2
Female: Father's height - 5" + Mother's height /2
Illustrates regression toward the mean - with continuous characteristics, there is a tendency for the offspring to be closer to the population mean than their parents |
|
|
Term
Cleft palate
congenital heart defects
neural tube defects
pyloric stenosis
clubfoot
What kind of inheritance do these disorders have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
These are all key features of what kind of disease inheritance?
Most affected individuals have normal parents
Recurrence risk increases with the number of affected children in the family
Recurrenc erisk increases with the severity of the defect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What model?
Physiologic functions are controlled by many genes and influenced by multiple control systems so clinical disease does not occur until physiologic dysfunction reaches a critical threshold.
Examples of adult onset diseases that follow this model? |
|
Definition
Threshold model
Examples of diseases: diabetes, cancer, epilepsy, glaucoma, schizophrenia |
|
|
Term
For adult onset disorders, how having a first degree relative that has the disease affect your risk?
For congenital disorders, how does family hisotry affect risk? |
|
Definition
Doubles
congenital - recurrence risk increases wiwth the number of affected first degree relatives |
|
|
Term
___ is the branch of biology concerned with the structure and function of all or part of an organism's genome.
__ is the study of the influence of genetic factorss on the variation of drug metabolism in an individual or group of individuals |
|
Definition
genomics
pharmacogenomics |
|
|
Term
| What do we need to know about CYP 450 (cytochrome p-450) |
|
Definition
Enzyme Present in liver and GI tract and is part of phase 1 drug metabolism reactions
can impact genetic diversity and drug interactions |
|
|
Term
What do these patient comments tell us about their ability to metabolize drugs?
1. that stuff never works for me
2. i react strongly to all medicines
3. every medicine i've tried makes me miserable |
|
Definition
1. fast drug metabolism
2. slow drug metabolism
3. multiple slow metabolic pathways |
|
|
Term
| ___ is inserting genetic info into the genome of somatic cells or suppressing or activating genes for therapeutic purposes or for the control of gene expression. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risks associated with gene therapy |
|
Definition
insertional mutagenesis - disrupt normal tumor suppressor genes
immunologic reaction - against vector or gene product |
|
|
Term
| 2 functions of the immune system |
|
Definition
protection against foreign enemies (microbes, parasites)
protection against domestic enemies (cancer) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a complex of cytologic and chemical reactions in the blood vessels and adjacent tissues in response to an injury or abnormal stimulation caused by a physical, chemical, or biological agent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, formation of fluid exudate, formation of cellular exudate are all histologic features of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of the ____ immune system:
Evolutionarily ancient
Very rapid response
Relatively non-specific mode of attack
Localized risk of collateral damage (inflammation) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of the ___ immune system:
Evolutionarily recent
Slow response
Highly specific mode of attack
Risk of local and distant collateral damage due to auto-immunity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cellular and humoral components of the Innate immune system |
|
Definition
cellular: phagocytes (macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils) and NK cells
Humoral: complement |
|
|
Term
| Cellular and humoral components of the adaptive immune system |
|
Definition
Cellular: T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, APCs
Humoral: Immunoglobulins (antibodies) |
|
|
Term
| Types of Leukocytes: Granulocytes and Agranulocytes |
|
Definition
Granulocytes: basophils, eosinophils, polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)
Agranulocytes: Lymphocytes (B&T cells), and monocytes (become macrophages in tissues) |
|
|
Term
What kind of WBC?
Most numerous type (70%)
Mode of action is phagocytosis
Stimulated and attracted by cytokines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are small proteins or polypeptides that modulate immune responses. Common types are Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha, interleukins (IL) 1-18, and interferons (gamma and beta) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are primitive lymphocytes that are effective against microbes and tumor/viral-infected cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is composed of 20-30 plasma proteins that function as proteases and result in a cascade-like sequence called the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 functions of complement |
|
Definition
Direct microbial attack
Opsonize microbes for phagocytosis
Serve as chemoattractants for macrophages and neutrophils
Bridge functions of innate and adaptive immune systems
Waste disposal |
|
|
Term
| ___ is when chemicals or antibodies bind to a target and increase the probabilty that the target will be phagocytized -- makes the target cell more "appetizing" for phagocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of WBC?
___ recognize foreign molecules (antigens ) and carry them to lymphocytes
___ identify extracellular antigens for descruction by other immune cells and produce immunoglobulin
___ attack infected cells (intracellular antigens) |
|
Definition
APCs
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
When B cells are activated, they can become one of two thins:
___ produce immunoglobulins and serve as APCs
___ produce clones should the antigen reappear later |
|
Definition
Plasma cells
memory cells |
|
|
Term
| Antibody response: Ig_ is made first (within a few days) and Ig_ comes later to confer long-lasting resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to IgG and IgM production as a person is repeatedly exposed to the same antigen? |
|
Definition
IgM increases at the time of exposure but remains low between exposures
IgG grows with each consecutive exposure |
|
|
Term
| What is the hygiene hypothesis? |
|
Definition
IgE is very effective against parasites, parasites have evolved immunosuppressants.
As societies have developed, very few parasites are present and then a natural immunosuppressant has been lost
Thus, allergy and autoimmune disease rate rise with improved sanitation |
|
|
Term
| 3 main types of T lymphocytes |
|
Definition
| Helpers, Killers (or cytotoxic), Memory |
|
|
Term
| Where are T and B lymphocytes made? |
|
Definition
T - thymus
B - bursa of fabricus (organ in birds) |
|
|
Term
____ are sites on cell surface that are bound by specific monoclonal antibodies and often represent key functional sites for antigen binding and processing.
Two most important of these lines? |
|
Definition
Clusters of Differentiation (CD's)
Two most important: CD4 (attached to helper T's)
CD8 (attached to cytotoxic T's) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dendritic cells, Macrophages, B cells |
|
|
Term
APCs use the _____, which processes antigens internally and then displays them on the cell membrane to attract T cells.
In humans, this is called the ____ complex. |
|
Definition
MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
HLA complex in humans |
|
|
Term
| Class 1 v. Class 2 HLA complex |
|
Definition
Class I - HLA-A, B, C - found on all nucleated cells
Class II - HLA-DP, DQ, DR - found on macrophages and lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| Possession of certain HLA alleles has been linked to ____ and ___. |
|
Definition
| disease risk and drug reactions |
|
|
Term
HOw the adaptive immune system works:
1. Antigens are recognized and the processed and displayed by ____.
2. These cells move to ___ tissue, where..
3. Proper ____ & ___ cells are activated |
|
Definition
APCs
lymphoid tissue
T&B cells |
|
|
Term
Functions of ___ cells
1. Assist in the activation of B cells
2. Assist in teh activation of Cytotoxic T's (CTLs)
3. Secrete appropriate cytokines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Functions of ___ cells:
Cell destruction by:
1. placement of a "cytoplasmic bomb"... perforin drills hole in target cell membrane and inserts granzyme B into cytoplasm
2. trigger apoptosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 pathways to activate complement
All are activated by the activation of ___. |
|
Definition
classical (antibody dependent)
Alternative (spontaneous/microbe enhanced)
mannose-lectin
All are activated by C3 |
|
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Term
___ activators:
1. antigen-antigen complexes
2. PAMPs -- recognized by PRR (Pattern recognition receptors) and TLRs (Toll-like receptor proteins) |
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Definition
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Term
What concept is being described?
Newly activated B cells secrete IgM
Mature B cells secrete IgG, IgA, or IgE
Eventually the cells have to switch the antibody they secrete by "cutting and pasting" a gene on chromosome 14 |
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Definition
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Term
| Each B and T cell interact and respond to only one antigen. They need assistance to bind to this antigen and to work properly. How does the body increase the likelihood that all these elements will come together? |
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Definition
By having three types of lymphoid tissue:
Lymph nodes (deal with lymph-borne pathogens)
MALT/Peyer's Patches/Appendix (intercept GI tract pathogens in the mucosa)
Spleen (handle blood-borne pathogens) |
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Term
| HIV causes binds to ___ on ___ cells and eventually causes cell death. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
1. Initial infection - 2-4 weeks after infection. Flu/mono symptoms for 1-4 weeks.
2. latent phase - no symptoms. viral load increases, CD4 count decreases.
3. AIDS phase - opportunistic infetions and/or unusual cancer (Kaposi's sarcoma) |
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Term
| The key pathologic feature of ____ is caseating granulomas (necrotic centers) |
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Definition
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Term
| Symptoms of Progressive (Active) TB. When can latent TB become reactivated? |
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Definition
intermittent fever (night sweats)
weight loss
cough/hemoptysis
Fatigue/malaise
Very Infectious
Can be reactivated with HIV, immunosuppression, in children, malnutrition |
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Term
| Apoptosis by negative feedback and apoptosis by positive feedback |
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Definition
Negative feedback - cells will undergo apoptosis unless they are told not to
Positive feedback - cells will not undergo apoptosis unless they are told to |
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Term
| If you're born with the inability to make IgA, what is the result? |
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Definition
| Susceptible to lots of infections bc IgA is found in the mucous |
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Term
| Passive v. active immunization |
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Definition
Passive - give someone antibodies against a disease
Active - give someone a dead or weakened version of the disease |
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Term
| ___ are the communicating molecule between cells |
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Definition
cytokines
interleukins
interferons
TNFs |
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Term
| What is C-Reactive Protein (CRP)? |
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Definition
| A pattern recognition receptor (PRR), which detects PAMPs, which are associated wtih cytokines and innate immunity |
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Term
What makes your body have an inflammatory response during seasonal allergies?
How do you treat allergies? |
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Definition
IgE is on mast cells.
Allergen binds to IgE and mast cells degranulate, releasing histamines and leukotrienes and causing an inflammatory response.
Treatment: anti-histamines and anti-leukotrienes
Allergy shots: Get IgG to bind to allergen so IgE can't |
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Term
| An excess immune response that makes a person very sick to the point of death very quickly is called ____ |
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Definition
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Term
What phenomenon is being described?
Person is infected with virus. Recovers. A few weeks/months later they have some other disease (like Type I Diabetes). It ends up that the body thinks that a normal body cell (such as insulin-producing Beta cells in pancreas) are the virus and it kills them.
examples: |
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Definition
molecular mimicry
ex: virus and type 1 diabetes
strep throat and rheumatic fever |
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