Term
| What determines the rate of a reaction? |
|
Definition
| Initial concentration of reactants. |
|
|
Term
| What is chemical equilibrium? |
|
Definition
| the forward and reverse rates of reactions are happening at the same rate. There is no change in concentration of reactant and products. |
|
|
Term
| as a reaction proceeds, why does the rate of the forward reaction decrease? |
|
Definition
| because the rate of the reactant decreases. |
|
|
Term
| How can you increase the rate of a reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give the formula for Keq. |
|
Definition
Keq = ([product A]^a*[product B]^b)/([reactant C]^c*[reactant D]^d)
-[] is concentration -exponent is the amount of molecules in the reaction. |
|
|
Term
| what does the Keq tell you? |
|
Definition
| Which will be favored: products or reactants. |
|
|
Term
| when will you not reach equilibrium in the cell? |
|
Definition
| when you reach a steady state instead of an equilibrium. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When one reactant creates a product which is then used as a substrate to create another product. In steady state the forward reaction is faster. |
|
|
Term
| How can you calculate dissociation constant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Your dissociation constant is really small, what does this say about the extent to which a protein is bound to DNA? |
|
Definition
| The protein is bound very tightly to DNA. |
|
|
Term
| Your dissociation constant is very large, what does this tell you about the extent to which a protein is bound to DNA? |
|
Definition
| The protein is not bound very tightly to DNA. |
|
|
Term
| Sodium Hydroxide has a pH of 14. hydrochloric acid has a pH of 0.which one has a higher concentration of H+ atoms? by how much? |
|
Definition
| Hydrochloric acid has a 10^14 fold higher concentration of H+ ions. |
|
|
Term
| are bases H+ acceptors or H+ donors? Bonus: what is this definition of a base called? |
|
Definition
| Bases are proton acceptors. Bronstead-Lowrey bases. |
|
|
Term
| are acids H+ acceptors or H+ donors? Bonus: what is this definition of an acid called? |
|
Definition
| Acids are H+ donors. Bronstead-Lowrey acids. |
|
|
Term
| In an exergonic reaction the delta G for the products will _______ with respect to the reactants. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an endergonic reaction the delta G of the products will ______ with respect to the reactants. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an exergonic reaction the formation of products is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in an endergonic reaction the formation of products is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of reaction (endergonic or exergonic) will happen spontaneously? why? |
|
Definition
| exergonic. because no energy must enter the system for the reaction to take place. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lowers the activation energy (AKA the delta G of the transition state) |
|
|
Term
| the ______ of the _______ of ATP releases free energy to drive many cellular processes. |
|
Definition
| Hydrolysis of the phosphoanhydride bond... |
|
|
Term
| the conversion of succinate to fumarate is a red-ox reaction. when succinate is converted to fumarate, succinate is _______ and fumarate is _______. |
|
Definition
Succinate is oxidized. Fumarate is reduced. |
|
|
Term
| What four things are attached to the alpha carbon of an amino acid? |
|
Definition
1) a hydrogen 2) an amino (NH3+) 3) a carboxyl (COO-) 4) an R group (Hydrocarbons) |
|
|
Term
| which is more hydrophobic: an amino acid with a CH3 R group (alanine) or a CH(CH3)2 R group (Valine)? |
|
Definition
| Valine - more hydrocarbons = more hydrophobic. |
|
|
Term
| What is the N-terminus of a polypeptide chain? |
|
Definition
| The end of a polypeptide chain containing the amino group (NH3+) |
|
|
Term
| how does a peptide bond form? |
|
Definition
| The carboxyl (COO-) of one amino acid and the amino end (NH3+) of another amino acid react via a dehydration reaction (H2O is expelled). |
|
|
Term
| What is the C-terminus of an amino acid? |
|
Definition
| The end of an amino acid that contains the carboxyl group (COO-). |
|
|
Term
| You are analyzing the primary structure of a polypeptide chain. What end would you start? where would you end? |
|
Definition
| You would start at the N-terminus and end at the C-terminus. |
|
|
Term
| what is the directionality of an amino acid? |
|
Definition
| N-terminus to the C-terminus |
|
|
Term
| What is Edman degradation? |
|
Definition
| an early method for figuring out the structure of a polypeptide chain. You label a residue then cleave it with an acid and run a liquid chromatography and repeat with another amino acid until you have the entire structure. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An amino acid that has undergone dehydration synthesis. (an amino acid in a polypeptide chain) |
|
|
Term
| what do we do now so we don't have to do the laborious Edman degradation? |
|
Definition
We sequence the genome then look at the gene sequence to figure out the amino acid sequence of the proteins.
We also use mass spec to find the molecular mass of the peptides in the protein. |
|
|
Term
| How do you do a mass spec of a protein? |
|
Definition
| you digest the protein and you take a mass spec of the several peptides. you then determine the mass of these peptides and you get the peptide mass fingerprint. You can then search the database to find the data that matches your fingerprint. |
|
|
Term
| How can you directly sequence the protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes sickle cell anemia? |
|
Definition
| a mutation in just one amino acid of the hemoglobin protein. |
|
|
Term
| why is sickle cell anemia bad? why is it good? |
|
Definition
Sickle cell anemia causes RBC's to clog up small blood vessels causing severe pain called crysis.
SCA puts people at an evolutionary advantage because it gives them a resistance to malaria. |
|
|
Term
| Linus Pauling and Robert Corey found that polypeptide chains exist in secondary structures that maximize _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The backbone of the polypeptide is a spiral structure in which the carbonyl oxygen bonds with the H-atom on the amino acid 4 residues away. |
|
|
Term
| What causes alpha-helices? |
|
Definition
| hydrogen bonding of the carbonyl oxygen to an amino acid 4 residues away. |
|
|
Term
| in an alpha helix the ______ is inside and the _____ project outward. |
|
Definition
peptide backbone is inside R group is projecting outward. |
|
|
Term
| Give 3 examples of proteins that contain alpha helices |
|
Definition
| keratin, myoglobin, hemoglobin. |
|
|
Term
| in _______ the hydrogen bonds are taking place BETWEEN adjacent strands. In the ______ the hydrogen bonds are taking place WITHIN adjacent strands |
|
Definition
B-pleated sheets
Alpha helix |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of proteins in fish that has a lot of B-pleated sheets? |
|
Definition
| circulating antifreeze proteins. |
|
|
Term
| about what percent of a protein is alpha helices and beta pleated sheets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many residues are involved in a beta turn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alpha helices, beta pleated sheets, and beta turns are all part of the ______ structure of a protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the beta turn do the polypeptide backbone? |
|
Definition
| Changes the directionality. |
|
|
Term
| How do they determine the tertiary structure of a protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tertiary structure of a protein? |
|
Definition
| The conformation of the entire protein. |
|
|
Term
Covalent or noncovalent? primary structure of a protien Secondary structure of a protein Tertiary structure of a protein |
|
Definition
primary - covalent secondary - noncovalent (only h-bonding) tertiary - noncovalent. |
|
|
Term
| what three bonding types cause the tertiary structure? |
|
Definition
| Ionic, hydrogen, van der waals |
|
|
Term
| in the tertiary structure, functionally distinct modules that fold independently of one another are called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 3 protein folding motifs did we talk about? |
|
Definition
| Coiled-coil motif, zinc-finger motif, EFhand/Helix-loop-helix motif. |
|
|
Term
| what are the three main classes of proteins? |
|
Definition
Structural Functional Topographical |
|
|
Term
| The protein tertiary structure consists of domains that can either be ______ or ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F The tertiary structure is static |
|
Definition
| False, small randome changes in the presence or absence of bonds can change the structure. |
|
|
Term
| proteins that are made up of more than one polypeptide chain are called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a multimeric protein with two of the same subunits (polypeptide chains) is called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a protein with two different subunits, four subunits total is called ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an example of a heterotetradimer is _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a protein can only have a quaternary structure if it is a ________ protein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the highest level of protein structure? |
|
Definition
| The association of proteins into macromolecular assemblages. |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a macromolecular assemblage? |
|
Definition
| The conversion of general transcription factors and a mediator complex into a transcription preinitiation complex by RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| Many proteins exist in _________ where different proteins with different functions physically associate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| interacting proteins may have ________ where one molecule fits into the pocket of another. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a protein scaffold will ... |
|
Definition
| Bring proteins together into ordered arrays |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| regulate the flow of ions and molecules across a membrane. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| signals, senses and switches to control the activity of cells by altering the function of other proteins and genes. |
|
|
Term
| signaling proteins are... |
|
Definition
| cell surface receptors that transmit extracellular membrane signals to the intracellular matrix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| move other proteins in organelles and cells. |
|
|
Term
| why aren't b-pleated sheets considered tertiary structure? |
|
Definition
| the polypeptide chains in the sheets are only 4-8 residues long. |
|
|
Term
| mammalian proteins tend to have ______ domains than a fruit fly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| similarities in domains across species indicate... |
|
Definition
| a common evolutionary origin. |
|
|
Term
| what does acetylcholine esterase do? |
|
Definition
| degrades acetylcholine left behind after transmission of an impulse from one neurone to the next. |
|
|
Term
| pyruvate dehydrogenase consists of ______ polypeptide chains and ____ different enzymes that catalyze a series of reactions connecting glycolysis and TCA cycle. |
|
Definition
60 different polypeptide chains 3 different enzymes. |
|
|
Term
| what is the advantage to linking associated enzymes in multiprotein complexes? |
|
Definition
| the substrate from one enzyme can move to the next without being diluted in the cytosol. |
|
|
Term
| what do molecular chaperones do? |
|
Definition
| bind and destabilize unfolded proteins. this prevents proteins from forming aggregates. |
|
|
Term
| are the major anabolic and catabolic pathways interconnected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two functions of the catabolic pathway? |
|
Definition
To provide raw materials to provide chemical energy |
|
|
Term
| T/F the cell can break down more complex molecules to make simpler molecules or it can put together simple molecules to make complex molecules. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what happens in an red-ox reaction? |
|
Definition
| one molecule is oxidized and loses it's electrons, one molecule is reduced and gains the electrons lost from the oxidized molecule. |
|
|
Term
| what are the three classes of macromolecules? |
|
Definition
| Proteins, lipids, polysaccharides. |
|
|
Term
| why is methane the most reduced state while carbon dioxide is the most oxidized state? |
|
Definition
| because in methane the carbon is the most electronegative atom which means it gets the highest share of electrons. In CO2 the oxygens take most of the electrons because they are more electroneg. |
|
|
Term
| why is methane the simple compound with the potential to produce the most energy? |
|
Definition
| Because it has 4 hydrogens with one attached to a highly electronegative oxygen. methane has 4 hydrogens but no oxygen. |
|
|
Term
| explain why C6H1206 + 602 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O is a red-ox reaction. |
|
Definition
| The glucose is losing hydrogens and electrons when it is converted to CO2 and the O2 is gaining hydrogens and electrons to become H2O so it is being reduced. |
|
|
Term
| is energy released when bonds are formed or broken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| do cells obtain energy from oxidizing or reducing macromolecules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does digestion take place inside of the cell? |
|
Definition
| the lysosome breaks down macromolecules into subunits. |
|
|
Term
| Without oxygen, your muscle cells will breakdown _______ to produce ______ which then undergoes _______. |
|
Definition
glucose lactic acid lactic acid fermentation |
|
|
Term
| T/F ATP, pyruvic acid, and NADH are produced in glycolysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main product of glycolysis is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in what stage of cellular respiration are most of the high energy electrons stripped away from organic compounds and stored in NAD and FAD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the net gain from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis? |
|
Definition
| 2 (3C) Pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NADH |
|
|
Term
| explain in detail the energy investment phase of glycolysis. |
|
Definition
| one glucose molecule is turned into glucose 6 phosphate by the enzyme hexokinase which transfers a phosphate from the ATP to glucose. This makes G6P. G6P is turned into Fructose 6-phosphate by phosphoglucose isomerase (not important for exam). Fructose 6-phosphate is phosphorylated and turned into fructose 1,6-bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase using one ATP. |
|
|
Term
| what two enzymes in glycolysis are involved in phosphorylation? |
|
Definition
| Hexokinase and phosphofructokinase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transfer of phosphate groups from high energy donor molecules like ATP to specific substrates. |
|
|
Term
| what does the enzyme phosphofructokinase do? |
|
Definition
| phosphorylates Fructose 6-phosphate to make Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. |
|
|
Term
| what two three carbon molecules are Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate broken down into and by why enzyme. |
|
Definition
| Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is broken down into Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate by aldolase. |
|
|
Term
| why does hexokinase have to expend ATP converting glucose into glucose 6-phosphate? |
|
Definition
| first, if the glucose is not phosphorylated, it can not do the subsequent reactions. Second, it lowers cytosolic glucose which causes continued influx of glucose into the cell. |
|
|
Term
| what does the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase do? |
|
Definition
| converts dihydroxyacetone to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate |
|
|
Term
| what two important things does the enzyme Glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase do in glycolysis? |
|
Definition
1) adds a phosphate to turn G3P into 1,3-phosphoglycerate 2) strips the hydrogen off of G3P and gives the two electrons to NAD+ |
|
|
Term
| To what group in NAD+ is the hydrogen added? |
|
Definition
| to the nicatinamide group |
|
|
Term
| What does NAD+ stand for? |
|
Definition
| Nicotinamide Adenine Dinuncleotide. It has two ribose groups. One ribose group has a nicotinamide and the other has an adenine. |
|
|
Term
| what is the principal source of ATP in aerobic organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| considering the enzyme phosphofructo kinase-1 is an enzyme that strips a phosphate off of ATP and phosphorylates Fructose 6-phosphate to make fructose 1,6-biphosphate in glycolysis, and that ATP allosterically inhibits the phosphofructo kinase-1 enzyme, explain why the presence of ATP does not stop glycolysis. |
|
Definition
| The active site is more reactive than the allosteric site so in low concentrations the ATP will bind the the active site of the phosphofructo kinase enzyme, but in high concentrations the ATP will inhibit the enzyme. |
|
|
Term
| what inhibits pyruvate kinase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is hexokinase inhibited by? |
|
Definition
| It's product, Glucose 6-phosphate. |
|
|
Term
| how does the feed forward reaction work in glycolysis? |
|
Definition
| The creation of Fructose 6-phosphate by phosphoglucose isomerase accelerates the formation of fructose 2,6 biphosphate which is an allosteric activator of phosphofructo kinase-1. So the abundance of this metabolite, fructose 6-phosphate will induce the acceleration of it's own metabolism into fructose 1,6-biphosphate. |
|
|
Term
| when in carbohydrate starvation, what happens in glycolysis? |
|
Definition
| Glycogen is converted directly to glucose 6-phosphate. Glucose 6-phosphate from glycogen is then turned into glucose by phosphotase. |
|
|
Term
| how does insulin and glucagon control blood glucose? |
|
Definition
| Insulin is released by the pancreas when blood glucose levels are high to induce phosphofructo kinase-2 activity and stimulate glycolysis |
|
|
Term
| what happens to pyruvate in the absence of oxygen? |
|
Definition
| NADH donates its electrons to pyruvate to make lactic acid. |
|
|
Term
| what enzyme helps NADH put a hydrogen on pyruvate to make lactic acid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does the liver turn the lactate back into glucose? |
|
Definition
| It does glycolysis and lactic acid fermentation in reverse, costing 6 ATP. |
|
|
Term
| Does the RBC have mitochondria? |
|
Definition
| No it uses glycolysis exclusively to create energy. |
|
|
Term
| why does the RBC need energy? |
|
Definition
| to maintain electrochemical and ion gradients across it's membrane. |
|
|
Term
| do mitochondria have ribosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| describe the endosymbiont theory for mitochondria in one sentence. |
|
Definition
| The eukaryotic cell arose when a glycolytic protoeukaryotic cell engulfed a oxidative bacterium and they formed a symbiotic relationship. |
|
|
Term
| what is a missense mutation? |
|
Definition
| a point mutation of one nucleotide that causes a different amino acid to be coded for. |
|
|
Term
| what is a nonsense mutation? |
|
Definition
| A point mutation of one nucleotide that causes a premature stop codon. |
|
|
Term
| what is a silent mutation? |
|
Definition
| a point mutation of one nucleotide that causes no change in amino acid arrangement. |
|
|
Term
| explain how people get Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON). |
|
Definition
| it is inherited from the mother and causes sudden onset blindless resulting from a missense mutation in the mitochondrial DNA. |
|
|
Term
| most mitochondrial disorders result from ______ |
|
Definition
| mutations in the mitochondrial DNA. |
|
|
Term
| why is mtDNA more susceptable to genetic mutations? |
|
Definition
| It does not have access to DNA repair systems found in nuclear DNA. 10X the mutation rate for DNA in mtDNA. |
|
|
Term
| why does the mitochondria affect the nervous system? give an example of a nervous system disease caused by mitochondrial dysfunction. |
|
Definition
| Mitochondrial mutations accumulate in cells that are in our body for long periods of time. Neurons are one of these cells. Parkinson's disease is associated with a degradation of mitochondrial function. |
|
|
Term
| T/F mitochondrial function probably declines with age. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what experiment showed that mitochondrial mutations may cause aging? |
|
Definition
| One mouse that harbors a genetic alteration that allow its mitochondria to accumulate mutations at a rate of 3-8x the rate of normal mice. After 9 months it showed signs of premature aging in relation to its counterpart. |
|
|
Term
| what evidence is there that mtDNA dysfunction may lead to aging in humans? |
|
Definition
| PCR of young mtDNA shows little variation. PCR of old mtDNA shows a high amount of variation and rearrangements indicating DNA mutation. |
|
|
Term
| if a mitochondria has a lot of cristae, what can you conclude? |
|
Definition
| That it has an increased ability to make ATP due to the increased surface area of the inner membrane. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Mitochondria of the heart and skeletal muscles have three times less cristae as the liver cells. |
|
Definition
| False, skeletal and heart muscles have 3 times more mitochondria than the liver cells. |
|
|
Term
| where does the citric acid or Krebs cycle take place? |
|
Definition
| In the inner mitochondrial membrane space. |
|
|
Term
| what are the basic properties of cells. (9) |
|
Definition
They: 1. have a genetic program 2. are organized 3. can reproduce themselves 4. can acquire and use energy 5. can carry out metabolism 6. engage in mechanical activities 7. respond to the world around them 8. self regulate. 9. have evolved to take on more and more specialized functions as necessary |
|
|
Term
| do bacteria have a nucleus? |
|
Definition
| No they just have a nucleoid region. |
|
|
Term
| What is the bacterial cell wall made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 4 organelles are common to eukaryotes and prokaryote? |
|
Definition
Nucleus Endoplasmic Reticulum Ribosomes Vacuoles |
|
|
Term
| how are prokaryotes and eukaryotes similar other than some shared organelles? |
|
Definition
-plasma membrane is of similar construction -genetic information is encoded in DNA using identical genetic code -similar mechanisms for the transcription and translation of genetic material, similar ribosomes. -same metabolic pathways (TCA and glycolysis) -similar apparatus for the conservation of chemical energy as ATP (in plasma membrane of prokaryotes, mitochondria in eukaryotes) -similar mechanisms of photosynthesis -similar mechanisms for synthesizing and inserting membrane proteins. -proteasomes are of similar construction. |
|
|
Term
| where in the cell are fatty acids hydrolyzed to acetyl-CoA by beta oxidation enzymes? |
|
Definition
| in the peroxisomes (or gylcoxisome in seedlings). |
|
|
Term
| what is an endosome and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| The early endosome is a conglomeration of endosomes formed by phagocytosis. The early endosome can either be recycled or can become a late endosome which may become a lysosome. |
|
|
Term
| which protein will coat vesicles in a polyhedral lattice so molecules can safely be transported throughout and between cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which protein is important in identifying specific cellular cargo to be engulfed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what protein pinches of the endosome being formed from the membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| do prokaryotic cells have complex flagella and cilia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F prokaryotes have no cellular membrane |
|
Definition
| True they only have a nucleoid region. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Prokaryotes have a cytoskeletal system with microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can prokaryotes ingest materials by phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has a larger genome prokaryotes or eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Bacterial DNA is usually circular. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 3 layers are on the outside of prokaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
| Plasma membrane, cell wall, capsule. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Eukaryotic DNA is circular. |
|
Definition
| False, Eukaryotic DNA is linear. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| DNA and histone proteins wrapped up to form chromatin fibers. |
|
|
Term
| what are two organelles that plant cells have that animal cells do not have? |
|
Definition
| vacuoles and chloroplasts. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Bacteria can exchange genetic material with eachother |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it called when a small piece of DNA is passed from one bacteria to another? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do bacteria move through their environment? |
|
Definition
| using flagella - thin protein filaments. |
|
|
Term
| Are bacterial and eukaryotic flagella the same thing? |
|
Definition
| No eukaryotic flagella are much more complex. |
|
|
Term
| what are the two types of prokaryotes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which lineage is probably more closely related to eukaryotes: Archea or Bacteria? why do scientist think this? |
|
Definition
| Archea. They code for homologous histone proteins and also have similar ribosomes. |
|
|
Term
| How did they think the prokaryote became the eukaryote before the endosymbiont theory was postulated by Lynn Margulis? |
|
Definition
| They thought the prokaryotic cell got gradually more complex. |
|
|
Term
| how did Carl Woese give evidence for the endosymbiont theory? |
|
Definition
| He compared nucleotide sequences of RNA molecules from the ribosomes of different organisms. He found that the 16S sequence from the chloroplasts of a Euglena was more similar to the 16S sequence from cyanobacteria and eukaryotes. |
|
|
Term
| who figured out the tree of life showing archea closer to eukaryotes than bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an example of a unicellular eukaryote? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stem cells show two essential properties, what are they? |
|
Definition
1) stem cells can self renew 2) stem cells can produce multiple different cells. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of stem cells? What term describes each of these? |
|
Definition
Adult stem cells - pluripotent - can give rise to many cell types but not all.
Embryonic stem cells - totipotent - can give rise to all cell types. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Both RBC's and WBC's originated with the same type of stem cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do embryonic stem cells probably stop being totipotent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F the inner cell mass of the 64 cell stage is totipotent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is therapeutic cloning? |
|
Definition
| You take a somatic cell from the patient then fuse it with an enucleated oocyte, let it develop into a blastocyct then culture it into the tissue the patient needs and transplant. |
|
|
Term
| What are obligate intracellular parasites? |
|
Definition
| Viruses that can only replicate inside a host's cell. |
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Term
| what kind of virus causes colds, AIDS, smallpox, influenza, measels, ebola, and hanta? |
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Definition
| Obligate intracellular parasites |
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Term
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Definition
A disease could be attributed to a particular organism if: -the microorganism could always be found in individuals with the disease - the microorganism from the host could be grown in a pure culture - a sample of the culture can produce the disease if injected into a new healthy host - the microorganism can be reisolated/recovered from the diseased animal and grown in pure form again. |
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Term
| what can Koch's postulate not be applied to? |
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Definition
| Viral diseases. They can not grow in a culture. |
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Term
| Can viruses be seen with a light microscope? |
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Definition
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Term
| How did Dmitri Iwanowski discover viruses? |
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Definition
| He took the sap from a tobacco plant infected with tobacco mosaic virus and infect another plant with it even if the sap showed no signs of bacteria under light microscope. He filtered the sap through pores smaller than the smallest known bacterium and concluded that there must be an even smaller pathogen - viruses. |
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Term
| what did walter reed do and how did he do it? |
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Definition
| Walter reed studied yellow fever in 1900 during the spanish american war. He used mice to find that mosquitoes are likely causing yellow fever. |
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Term
| Who was Freidrich Loeffler? |
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Definition
| A researcher who did experiments similar to Dmitri Iwanowsky to find out that an infectious viron was causing hoof and mouth disease in cattle. He proved that the virus could affect animals as well as plants. |
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Term
| What did Frederick Twort discover? |
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Definition
| Viruses that infected bacteria - Bacteriophages. |
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Term
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Definition
| Pioneered the development of the electron microscope in the 1930's |
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Term
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Definition
| Pioneered the growth of viruses in chicken eggs - this is how many of our vaccines are generated today. |
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Term
| Genetic material in bacteria is surrounded by a protein coat called the ______ |
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Definition
|
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Term
| T/F Viruses only have single stranded DNA |
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Definition
| False, they can have double stranded or single stranded DNA or RNA. |
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Term
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Definition
| a hexagonal shaped floating virus with receptors on it's edges. |
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Term
| The nucleic acid + the capsid is called... |
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Definition
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Term
| What two shapes can a virus be? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what two ways can a virus leave the host cell? |
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Definition
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Term
| What happens in the lytic cycle? |
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Definition
| The virus inserts it's DNA, the phage DNA circulates then hijacks cellular machinery to synthesize and assemble new viruses then the cell is lysed and the virons are released. |
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Term
| What happens in the lysogenic cycle? |
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Definition
| The viral DNA is injected, it circulates then inserts itself into the cell genome and become a prophage. The cell then replicates transmitting the prophage to daughter cells. |
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Term
| if a virus incorporates its DNA into the host cell it is a ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| what is an example of a provirus that goes through the lysogenic cycle? |
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Definition
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Term
| What three things can proviruses do? |
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Definition
1. they can behave normally until it is exposed to a stimulus like UV light. 2. They can bud off new progeny (HIV does this) 3. They can become malignant and unable to control their growth. (Tumor viruses) |
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Term
| why do some viruses that leave by exocytosis have the ability to be encytosed by other cells? |
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Definition
| Because they have that cells glycoproteins (proteins with oligosaccharides) that function in cell to cell recognition. |
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Term
| does the HIV virus bud or lyse? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what are the infected cells in the influenza virus? |
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Definition
| The epithelium of the respiratory tract. |
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Term
| What is the difference betweenn influenza A, B, and C? |
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Definition
Influenza C infects pigs, humans, and dogs and only causes very mild infections. Influenza B is the standard seasonal flu and is mostly found in humans. Can cause localized outbreaks - epidemics
Influenza A is usually found in non humans such as ducks, chickens and horses but can occasionally infect humans. When it does it can lead to epidemics and even pandemics because it is not expected. |
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Term
| T/F influenza caries its genome as ssRNA. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how many RNA sequences does influenza A and B have? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what two coat proteins cause influenza to have the ability to infect again after you get a vaccination? |
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Definition
HA and NA HA = hemaglutinin NA = Neuraminidase |
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Term
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Definition
| The antibodies that block a virus attack the hemaglutanin or neuroaminidase but the ssRNA in the influenza virus mutates very quickly so the NA or HA will eventually be unrecognizable to the host cell. This will cause antigenic drift. |
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Term
| what is antigenic shift? explain how antigenic shift can be caused by subunit mixing. |
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Definition
| Antigenic shift is the emergence of an influenza type that didn't usually infect humans. Subunit mixing is a mixing of two different strains of the flu in an intermediate host. |
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Term
| antigenic shift is what causes ________. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how do we know anything about viruses? |
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Definition
| We used fluorescent tags to watch viruses under a microscope. |
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Term
| We must get a seasonal flu shot thanks to _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| Pandemics occur because of __________. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| True - used in research and can kill some harmful insects and bacteria. |
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Term
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Definition
| the use of viruses to inject and incorporate certain genes into the host cell that are beneficial. |
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Term
| T/F the plasma membrane can be observed with a light microscope. |
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Definition
| F - only 5-10nm thick must be observed with an electron microscope. |
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Term
| what are the 7 things that plasma membranes do. |
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Definition
1. compartmentalize 2. Scaffolding - a framework for the cell. 3. Selectively permeable barrier 4. Transporting solutes 5. responds to external stimuli 6. intercellular interaction 7. energy transduction - chemical energy to ATP |
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Term
| the plasma membrane is composed of: |
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Definition
| Lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins. |
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Term
| How did Gorter and Grendel figure out that there must be a lipid bilayer in cells in 1925? |
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Definition
| They used RBC lipids and water and a movable barrier to compress the lipids. They calculated that the surface area was only 2:1 with respect to red blood cells so there must be another layer. |
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Term
| What did Davson and Danielli propose in 1935? |
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Definition
| That there are proteins in the plasma membrane. |
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Term
| Who proposed the fluid-mosiac model of the cell membrane in 1972? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what organelles have double membranes? |
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Definition
1) nucleus 2) mitochondria 3) chloroplast |
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Term
| Phospholipids contain a hydrophobic carbohydrate tail and a hydrophyllic phosphate head. This makes them ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three main types of lipids? |
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Definition
1) phosphoglycerides 2) Sphingolipids 3) Cholesterol |
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Term
| What is the backbone of the phosphoglyceride? |
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Definition
| A glycerol backbone esterfied to the fatty acid. |
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Term
| what is the term for the water soluble part of a phosphoglyceride? |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F of the two phosphoglyceride fatty acid chains - one is usually sauturated while the other is unsaturated. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Spingosine is attached to the fatty acid by its amino group. All is connected to a phosphate and a head group. |
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Term
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Definition
| A sphingolipid with a carbohydrate attached to its hydroxyl group. |
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Term
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Definition
| A glycolipid that is a sphingolipid with a simple sugar carbohydrate attached to its OH group. |
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Term
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Definition
| A glycolipid that is a sphingolipid with a cluster of sugars attached to the OH group. |
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Term
| Mice that lack the enzyme that adds the galactose to the ceramide sphingolipid have severe tremors and eventually become paralyzed. Why is this? |
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Definition
| The Nervous system is rich in glycolipids. They are especially rich in the myelin sheath which is probably why the mouse is having out of control tremors then degradation of the nervous system. |
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Term
| T/F in certain animal cells cholesterol makes up about 50% of the plasma membrane |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F cholesterol is found in most plant and bacterial cells. |
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Definition
| False most plant cells have none and no bacterial cells have cholesterol. |
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Term
| why does cholesterol interfere with the fluidity of the membrane? |
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Definition
| Because the rigid ring structures interfere with the movement of the phospholipids. |
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Term
| why aren't there square animal cells? |
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Definition
| Because that would expose the hydrophobic lipid tails to the extracellular matrix. |
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Term
| do the tails of all phospholipids orient parallel? |
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Definition
| No some phospholipids have V shaped tails which allows for a bending of the plasma membrane. |
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Term
| T/F membranes are inflexible |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how do you make a liposome? |
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Definition
| put a small amount of phospholipids into an aqueous solution. |
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Term
| what are the possible functions of cilia or flagella? |
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Definition
| Cilia can increase the surface area and allow for greater absorption. Cilia can beat to move fluids through. Flagella can allow for locomotion. |
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Term
| How are liposomes used for research? |
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Definition
| They can insert membrane proteins, deliver drugs or DNA molecules into the body. |
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Term
| What does PEG do the the liposome? |
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Definition
| Polyethylene glycol is a hydrophilic polymer that protects the liposome from immune cell. The earliest attempts to use liposomes for research failed because the immune system targeted and destroyed them. PEG makes the liposome a stealthy liposome. |
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Term
| T/F membranes are covalently attached to lipids called glycolipids or proteins called glycoproteins. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is it called when a oligosaccharide (glucose, galactose) is attached to a protein? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what does the attachment of an oligosaccharide to a protein do? |
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Definition
| helps the cell to interact with the environment. |
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Term
| ________ make up the antigens that determine which blood blood type you have |
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Definition
|
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Term
| all humans have the enzymes for synthesizing ______ antigen (blood). |
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Definition
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Term
| those with type A blood have ______ antigen which adds a _______ to the O antigen. |
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Definition
glycosyltransferase
N-acetylgalactosamine |
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Term
| What are the three classes of proteins? |
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Definition
1) integral proteins 2) Peripheral proteins 3) lipid anchored proteins |
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Term
| What two ways can a peripheral membrane protein attach to the plasma membrane? |
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Definition
1) associate with the membrane by noncovalent bonds 2) associate the the proteins |
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Term
| T/F lipid anchored proteins are covalently bonded to the lipids |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what functions can an integral membrane protein have? |
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Definition
-receptors -transport channels -enzymes -agents that transfer e- |
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Term
| T/F Membrane transport proteins are amphipathic. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how did they prove that there were integral proteins? |
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Definition
| They used freeze fracturing. They froze a cell then fractured it to separate the two layers. They found that on one side there was a protein and on the other side a hole. |
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Term
| If you want to isolate a membrane protein from the membrane should you use a ionic or nonionic detergent? |
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Definition
| Nonionic detergent because the ionic detergent will denature the protein. |
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Term
| how can you solubilize a peripheral membrane protein? |
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Definition
| Use concentrated salt solution. |
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Term
| how can you solubilize a GPI-anchored protein? |
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Definition
| You must use an enzyme called phospholipase which cleaves the inositol containing phospholipids. |
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Term
| what is a GPI-anchored protein? |
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Definition
| A protein attached to the plasma membrane by an oligosaccharide attached to a phosphatidylinositol. |
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Term
| T/F Long fatty acid tails will make the plasma membrane more fluid |
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Definition
| False. Short tails increase fluidity of the plasma membrane |
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Term
| T/F Unsaturated Fatty acids make the membrane more fluid. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| T/F the membrane will be more fluid if you heat up its environment |
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Definition
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Term
| The glycolipids are on the side of the membrane facing the _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| How do macrophages know that a cell must be dissolved during apoptosis? |
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Definition
| The phosphatidylserines on the cytosol side of the plasma membrane will switch over to the extracellular side which indicated to the macrophages that the cell should be digested. |
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Term
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Definition
| Potential areas of concentrated sphingolipids and cholesterol. |
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Term
| what might the lipid rafts do? |
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Definition
| They might function in microdomains that could participate in signaling. |
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Term
| what is it called when a lipid moves from the ECM monolayer to the cytosolic monolayer? |
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Definition
| Transverse diffusion (flip-flop) |
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Term
| What is it called when a lipid moves laterally within its leaflet? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how did they find that proteins could move without being restricted by the plasma membrane? |
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Definition
| They took a human cell and a mouse cell and labeled the mouse proteins with a green fluorescent tag, and the human proteins with a red fluorescent tag. They then used a virus to make the two cells fuse then saw that the two colors were mixed in the resulting cell. |
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Term
| in what 4 kinds of mobility could a protein have in the cell? |
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Definition
- can move freely and randomly - immobilized - can move in a directed manner - free movement but is restricted |
|
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Term
| what is passive transport? |
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Definition
| Movement of ions with their concentration gradient. requires no energy. Requires no proteins. |
|
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Term
| what is active transport? |
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Definition
| uses energy and proteins to move substances across their concentration gradient |
|
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Term
| what is facilitated diffusion? |
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Definition
| substances are allowed to flow with their concentration gradient but a protein gate must be opened first. |
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Term
| What are the 3 types of lipids |
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Definition
| fatty acids, steroids, phospholipids |
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Term
| Carbohydrate + Protein is called... |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| metal group + protein is called... |
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Definition
|
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Term
| A protein + an organic group is called... |
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Definition
|
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