Which of these concepts came from European police methods?

a.  foot patrol
b.  Sheriff
c.  County
d.  all of these

The “ward” was _______ patrol.

a.  nighttime
b.  daytime
c.  24 hour
d.  none of these

Texas became a free and independent Republic in _______.

a.  1935
b.  1836
c.  1824
d.  1823

The oldest form of Local Policing in Texas, is the…

a.  City Marshal
b.  Texas Ranger
c.  County Sheriff
d.  Constable

Texas Commission On Law Enforcement Officer Standards And Education was created in…

a.  1970
b.  1960
c.  1965
d.  1935

Who created the Texas Rangers?

a.  Sam Houston
b.  William Travis
c.  Stephen F. Austin
d.  Homer Garrison

Traditional police style is…

a.  reactive

b.  proactive

c.  interactive

d.  non-active

a.  reactive

The earliest form of professionalism, came from…

a.  military

b.  religious orders

c.  medical society

d.  law

b.  religious orders

“The Learned Professions are”;

a.  divinity, law, military

b.  divinity, law, medicine

c.  divinity, military, medicine

d.  medicine, military, law

b.  divinity, law, medicine

The prime beneficiary of a professional and ethical criminal justice system is the…

a.  public

b.  police

c.  department

d.  all the above

a.  public

In the study of ethics it is critical to understand that the _______ is as important at the act.

a.  consequence

b.  motive

c.  profit

d.  belief

b.  motive

“________ involves the expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices.”

a.  Subjectivity

b.  Prejudice

c.  Objectivity

d.  Profession

c.  Objectivity

Ethics are a _______ behavior.

a.  learned

b.  inherited

c.  basic

d.  systematic

a.  learned

Alcoholic beverage contains ________% alcohol.

a.  ½ of 1%

b.  1%

c.  more than ½ of 1%

d.  2% by volume

c.  more than ½ of 1%

Alcoholic beverage handled in violation of the Texas Alcoholic Beverage Code, is _________.

a.  illegal beverage

b.  prohibited beverage

c.  illicit beverage

d.  moonshine

c.  illicit beverage

Cocaine is a …

a.  stimulant

b. depressant

c.  narcotic

d. hallucinogenic

a.  stimulant

Heroin is a…

a.  stimulant

b. depressant

c.  narcotic

d. hallucinogenic

c.  narcotic

The only crime found in the Constitution, is ...

a.  brigandry

b.  piracy

c.  treason

d.  election fraud

Tennessee vs Garner supports the ______ amendment rights.

a.  4th

b.  8th

c.  6th

d.  1st

Miranda vs Arizona supports the _____ amendment rights.

a. 4th

b.  5th

c.  8th

d.  1th

Which amendment in known as the States' Rights Amendment?

a.  8th

b.  14th

c.  10th

d.  1st

 Which of the following is a peace officer required by law to arrest, even without a warrant?

a.  a public drunk 

b.  a person threatening to commit a law violation

c.  a person he has probable cause to believe is violating a protective order in his presence

d.  all the above

c.  a person he has probable cause to believe is violating a protective order in his presence

A search warrarnt shall not issue but upon ____________.

a.  reasonable suspicion

b.  proper cause

c.  probable cause

d.  proof beyond a reasonable doubt

c.  probable cause

“Probable Cause” to believe a crime has occurred, is occurring or will occur, is required for arrest.

a.  Aguilar v Texas

b.  Brown v Texas

c.  Mapp v Ohio

d.  Terry v Ohio

a.  Aguilar v Texas

Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine …

a.  Mapp v Ohio

b.  Wong Sun v U.S.

c.  Brown v Texas

d.  Aguilar v Texas

b.  Wong Sun v US

Exclusionary rule …

a.  Mapp v Ohio

b.  Terry v Ohio

c.  Aguilar v Texas

d.  Brown v Texas

a.  Mapp v Ohio

Exigent circumstances to search motor vehicle.

a.  Mapp v Ohio

b.  Carroll v U.S.

c. Wong Sun v U.S. 

d.  Aguilar v Texas

Stop & Frisk…

a.  Mapp v Ohio

b.  Brown v Texas

c.  Terry v Ohio

d.  Aguilar v Texas

c.  Terry v Ohio

Search incident to lawful arrest in time & place.

a.  Terry v Ohio

b.  Chimel v California

c.  Mapp v Ohio

d.  Carrol v US

b.  Chimel v California

If a peace officer fails or refuses to execute a legal process he can be fined $_____.

a.  10,000.00

b.  200.00

c.  500.00

d.  5,000.00

b.  200.00

The minimum jail time for 1^st offense DWI is…

a.  3 days

b.  48 hours

c.  72 hours

d.  24 hours

c.  72 hours

Minimum jail time for 2^nd offense DWI is…

a.  15 days

b.  30 days

c.  45 days

d.  60 hours

b.  30 days

Minimum jail time for 3^rd offense DWI is…

a.  2 years

b.  60 days

c.  180 days

d.  90 days

a.  2 years

Which of these could be the source of Seconday Victimization?

a.  the media

b.  the police

c.  victim compensation program

d.  all of the above

Victims of crime need... 

a.  to discuss their fellings

b.  to feel safe

c.  direction...an indication of what happens next

d.  all of the above

Victims of crime do Not need...

a.  help to recover

b.  sympathy

c.  empathy

d.  none of the above

"_____ means, under arrest by a peace officer, or under restraint by a public servant, pursuant to a court order".

a.  restraint

b.  custody

c. detention

d.  arrest

"_____ means, unauthorized departure from custody or failing to return to custody, following a temporary leave for a specific purpose or limited period, but does not include a violation of conditions of probation or parole"

a.  fleeing

b.  escape

c.  absent without leave

d.  none of these

"_____ means, force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use, is capable of casing, death or serious bodily injury".

a.  illegal force

b.  unlawful aggression

c.  deadly force

d.  excessive force

The threat of force is justified when the use of force is _____.

a.  less than deadly

b.  justified

c.  reasonable

d.  imminent

_____ is not justification, to use deadly force.

a.  verbal provocation

b.  when the actor consented to the exact force used

c.  to resist an unlawful arrest

d.  all the above

The Supreme Court case that deals with Deadly Force ...

a.  Kramer v Alabama

b.  Tennessee v Garner

c.  Terry v Ohio

d.  Aguilar v Texas

"An aggresive act committed by any person, which does not amount to assault, and is necessay to accomplish a legitimate objective", is...

a.  deadly force

b.  force

c.  assault by contact

d.  none of these

Necessary force is the _____ amount of lawful force, sufficient to achieve a legitimate police objective.

a.  maximum

b.  optimum

c.  minimum

d.  sufficient

An approved weapon is a weapon used by a peace officer in the performance of his duties and ...

a.  apporved by his agency

b.  he has received proper training in its use

c.  is not full-automatic

d.  all the above

e.  a and b

e.  a and b

A peace officer may Not use deadly force...

a.  to protect another person's life

b.  in self defense

c.  to prevent a suicide

e.  all the above ARE allowed

Which of these is not approved for police use of force?

a.  open hand

b.  chemical device

c.  baton, night-stick

d.  they're all acceptable

To use deadly force to stop an escaping felon, in a penal institution...

a.  warning must first be given (if feasible)

b.  felon must be a threat of serious physical harm to the officer or the public

c.  any convicted felon can be shot, trying to excape.

d.  a and b

Officer may use deadly force to prevent the imminent commission of ...

a.  aggravated kidnapping

b.  robbery

c.  aggravated robbery

d.  all the above

Officer may use deadly force to prevent the imminent commission of...

a.  arson

b.  burglary

c.  theft at night

d.  all the above

Officer may Not use deadly force to prevent a person from fleeing immediately after committing...

a.  burglary

b.  arson

c.  aggravated robbery

d.  theft at night

Officer may Not use deadly force to prevent the imminent commission of...

a.  kidnapping

b.  murder

c.  robbery

d.  all the above

Officer may use deadly force to prevent the imminent commission of but Not stop a person from fleeing after the commission of...

a.  arson

b.  theft at night

c.  burglary

d.  criminal mischief at night

e.  a and d

e.  a and d

"That force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing, death or serious bodily injury", defines...

a.  agravated assault

b.  force

c.  deadly force

d.  none of these

"The minimum amount of lawful aggression, sufficient to achieve a legitimate law enforcement objective", defines...

a.  reasonable and unnecessay force

b.  necessary and unreasonable force

c.  force

d.  reasonable and necessary force

_____ are synonyms for the verb, force.

a.  compel

b.  oblige

c.  coerce

d.  all the above

The police role in a physical arrest is essentilly ______.

a.  aggressive

b.  offensive

c.  custodial

d.  defensive

"_____ is that degree of influence the officer must exert over the violator, to take him into custody".

a.  control

b.  restraint

c.  apprehension

d.  none of these

"The objective of using control is to elicit _____ from the offender".

a.  respect

b.  cooperation

c.   pain

d.  none of these

Before using force the officer should consider...

a.  is the suspect armed

b.  what crime has he comitted

c.  is he resisting

d.  all the above

The proper use of force continuum is...

a.  verbal, open-hand, intermediate, deadly

b.  professional presence, verbal, weapon-less, weapon, deadly force

c.  professional presence, weapon-less, baton, chemical, deadly force

d.  presence, veral, weapon, deadly force

When the level of force is less thn the offenders' level of resistance, _______ results.

a.  excessive control

b.  ineffective control

c.  control

d.  none of these

When the level of force is unreasonably greater than the offenders level of resistance, ______ results.

a.  ineffective control

b.  control

c.  deadly force

d.  excessive control

Only the _____ amount of force, necessary to effect the arrest, should be used.

a.  proper

b.  maximum

c. minimum

d.  immediate

" ______ % of an officer's duties involve verbal skills".

a.  50

b.  35

c.  97

d.  100

A peace officers' use of force must be _____ & appropriate.

a.  objective

b.  selective

c.  subjective

d.  none of these

The _____ amendment to the U.S. Constitution, limits the level of force used in arrests and search.

a.  1st

b.  4th

c.  5th

d.  8th

Which of these statements is correct?

a.  the law does not address crime victim’s rights

b.  crime victims only have rights in violent crimes

c.  how a victim is treated throughout the criminal justice system could determine the outcome of the case

d.  crime victims lie when they say they can’t remember

c.  how a victim is treated throughout the criminal justice system could determine the outcome of the case

Victims of crime react to variables.  Which of these is not one of them…

a.  seriousness and nature of the crime

b.  cultural background of the victim

c.  beliefs of the victim

d.  marital status of the victim

Which areas of life are impacted by trauma?

a.  emotional, physical, cognitive, relationships and sexuality

b.  stability, disorientation, denial, shock and disbelief

c.  attitude, prejudice, judgment, caring, and helpfulness

d.  none of these

a.  emotional, physical, cognitive, relationships and sexuality

Which of these is not a physical response to trauma?

a.  anger

b.  fight or flight

c.  exhaustion

d. physical shock

a.  anger

The basic elements contained in a victim’s response to crime are…

a.  denial, outrage, acceptance, calm regression

b.  denial, outrage, violation, fear, acceptance

c.  denial, outrage, violation, fear, vulnerability

d.  none of these

c.  denial, outrage, violation, fear, vulnerability

“An event that is outside the range of usual human experience and that would be markedly distressing to anyone”, defines…

a.  anxiety

b.  traumatic stress

c.  trauma

d.  stressors

b.  traumatic stress

Signs of regression due to a traumatic event may include…

a.  signing nursery rhymes

b.  assuming a fetal position

c.  feeling very weak

d.  all the above

Long term stress or crisis reactions may be exacerbated by the actions of others, and when this occurs, the actions of the others are called…

a.  secondary stress

b.  secondary assault

c.  secondary trauma

d.  secondary crisis

b.  secondary assault

Which of these are phases of the victim’s reaction to crime?

a.  impact

b.  recoil

c.  reorganization

d.  all the above

d. all the above

Immediate victim, secondary victim and service providers are all part of the…

a.  domino effect

b.  ripple effect

c.  trickle-down theory

d.  none of these

b.  ripple effect

When interviewing a crime victim’s, you should…

a.  ignore personal bias

b.  be aware of personal bias

c.  be sensitive to the victim’s needs

d.  b and c

In a death notification, you should not…

a.  go in person

b.  be in uniform

c.  take a partner with you

d.  give all the explicit details even if it jeopardizes the case

Which of the following would you not do in a death notification?

a.  get all medical information about the survivor prior to notification

b.  be prepared for shock

c.  at least one officer be in uniform

d.  call the person on the phone but be polite and understanding

Death notification should be made to the survivors…

a.  as soon as possible

b.  as soon as the deceased has been identified

c.  as soon as the media has been notified

d.  as soon as the coroner authorizes it 

b.  as soon as the deceased has been identified

The actions of others that cause long-term stress for the victim are called ______ and the feelings of the victim are described as __________.

a.  secondary assault/ secondary injury

b.  secondary victimization/ secondary injury

c.  secondary violence/ secondary victimization

d.  none of these

a.  secondary assault/ secondary injury

All of the following are persistent symptoms of increased arousal in post-traumatic stress disorder except __________.

a.  difficulty falling or staying asleep

b.  difficulty concentrating

c.  irritability or outbursts of anger

d.  ambivalence towards danger

Physical arousal associated with “fight or flight” cannot be sustained; eventually it will result in ________.  

a.  shock

b.  denial

c.  resentment

d.  exhaustion

Which article of the C.C.P. mandates that law enforcement agencies shall ensure that crime victims are granted their rights?

a.  56.02

b.  56.32

c.  14.01

d.  18.16

a.  56.02

Law enforcement agencies are required by law to provide an officer to serve as ________ to consult with the prosecutor to ensure that crime victims are afforded their rights.

a.  victim assistance coordinator

b.  crime victim liaison

c.  victim rights advocate

d. none of these

b.  crime victim liaison

A person who is the victim of sexual assault, kidnapping or aggravated robbery or who has suffered bodily injury or death, as a result of the criminal conduct of another, defines;

a.  assailant

b.  defendant

c.  victim

d.  plaintiff

c.  victim

A close relative of a deceased victim includes…

a.  grand parent, uncle, aunt, cousin

b.  parent, adult brother/sister, or child

c.  foster parents, brother, sister, nephew, cousins

d.  all the above

b.  parent, adult brother/sister, or child

Under 56.07 the law enforcement agency is to advise crime victims of their rights when...

a.  within 10 working days

b.  within 10 days

c.  at the initial contact or the earliest possible time thereafter

d.  before 90 days has lapsed

c.  at the initial contact or the earliest possible time thereafter

Which of these is Not a victim’s right?

a.  right to police protection

b.  right to have the magistrate consider the victim’s safety when setting bail

c.  right to compensation under the crime victim’s compensation act

d.  they’re all rights of victims

According to 56.09 which of the following may not be part of the court file?

a.  address of the victim

b.  phone number of the victim

c.  name of victim’s employer

d.  date of birth of victim

b.  phone number of the victim

A pseudonym form may only be filled out by a victim of the offense of ________.

a.  murder

b.  sexual assault

c.  aggravated robbery

d.  violent crimes

b.  sexual assault

Victims of criminally injurious conduct are entitled to _________ under the crime victim’s compensation act.

a.  cash payments for money lost

b.  vocational and rehabilitative services

c.  counseling services

d.  any of these

Who administers the Crime Victims Compensation Act?

a.  District Attorney

b.  Attorney General

c.  Adjutant General

d.  County Attorney

b.  Attorney General

Reasonable force can be used to effect an arrest, when the officer has ______.

a.  probable cause

b.  reasonable suspicion

c.  mere suspicion

d.  cause

The prosecutor’s office shall appoint a ___________ to coordinate with the police agency and the victim.

a.  crime victim liaison

b.  victim assistance coordinator

c.  paralegal

d.  none of these

b.  victim assistance coordinator

To intentionally or knowingly disclose the name, address or phone number of a victim that has filed a pseudonym form on their case, to anyone not assisting in the investigation, prosecution or to any person other than the defendant or his attorney, is an offense of ______.

a.  Class C misdemeanor

b.  State Jail Felony

c.  3^rd Degree Felony

d.  Class A misdemeanor… 6 months in jail or $500.00 fine

a.  Class C misdemeanor

A juvenile being held prior to adjudication, will be held at a ________.

a.  juvenile processing office

b.  secure correctional facility

c.  secure detention facility

d.  juvenile detention facility

c.  secure detention facility

Which of the following has a responsibility to intervene to stop police officers engaging in use of excessive force in their presence?

a.  the Sergeant

b.  the Lieutenant

c.  senior ranking officer at the scene

d.  All personnel present, regardless of rank

Who does not have to intervene when officers are engaging in excessive force?

a.  supervisors

b.  police officers present, but not making the arrest

c.  citizens

d.  all must intervene

Which of these is not part of "weaponless" option?

a.  handgun

b.  wrist lock

c.  arm bar

d.  pressure point compliance

After adjudication, a juvenile will be taken to a __________.

a.  juvenile processing office

b.  secure correctional facility

c.  secure detention facility

d.  juvenile detention facility

b.  secure correctional facility

Which of these is in the Weapons option?

a.  ASP

b.  Stun gun

c.  Mace

d.  all the above

“A child may have been found to have engaged in delinquent conduct or conduct indicating a need for supervision, only after a _________ hearing”.

a.  certification

b.  adjudication

c.  detention

d.  status offender

b.  adjudication

The court case that deals with "Use of Force Concepts".

a.  Garrity v New Jersey

b.  Aguilar v Texas

c.  Terry v Ohio

d.  Brown v Texas

“When a juvenile court waives its original jurisdiction and transfers the case to the criminal court, this is called a ________ hearing”.

a.  certification

b.  adjudication

c.  disposition

a.  certification

If a child is truant 10 or more days in a 6 month period, this is ______.

a.  delinquent conduct

b.  conduct in need of supervision

c.  habitual violator

d.  not a code violation

b.  conduct in need of supervision

If a juvenile is convicted of a 2^nd offense DWI, this is…

a.  conduct in need of supervision

b.  delinquent conduct

c.  conduct in need of supervision

d.  habitual violator

b.  delinquent conduct

Which of these is not marijuana?

a.  stalk of the canabis sativa L plant

b.  oil and cake made from the seed & canabis sativa L plant

c.  resin extract from the canabis sativa L plant

d.  all the above

What force may be used to make an arrest?

a.  any force

b. all necessary force

c.  no greater force than necessary to effect the arrest

d.  whatever it takes

_____ begins where curtilage ends.

a.  open fields

b.  plain view

c.  yard

d.  public property

Open container only serves to enhance a DWI conviction on the _____ offense.

a.  1st

b.  2nd

c.  3rd

d.  3rd or subsequent

Which of the following does not enhance a DWI punishment?

a.  serious bodily injury

b.  bodily injury

c.  open container or alcoholic beverage

d.  prior convictions 10 years old

1st offense DWI is a _______.

a.  state jail felony

b.  class A misdemeanor

c.  class B misdemeanor

d.  3rd degree felony

Intoxication  manslaughter is a ______ felony.

a.  1st degree

b.  2nd degree

c. 3rd degree

d.  state jail

X enters a garage and takes cash from a motor vehicle in the garage, without consent.

a.  criminal trespass

b.  burglary

c.  burglary of a vehicle

d.  theft

b.  burglary

X took Y’s Corvette for a drive without the owner’s consent. X returned later with the car and was me by the irate owner and the police.

a.  theft of motor vehicle

b.  burglary of a vehicle

c.  unauthorized use of a vehicle

d.  unauthorized use of a motor vehicle

c.  unauthorized use of a vehicle

X took Y’s Camaro without his consent, with intent to sell it for cash. This is…

a.  unauthorized use of a vehicle

b.  theft

c.  burglary of a vehicle

d.  receiving of stolen property

b.  theft

X was arrested for theft and while being booked the jailer discovered a stolen credit card in his possession. X is guilty of…

a.  theft of credit

b.  possession of stolen credit card

c.  credit card abuse

d.  none of these

c.  credit card abuse

X enters a retail store with intent to steal clothing by hiding garments in a foil lined box he’s carrying. This will prevent the theft detection equipment from detecting the clothing as he leaves. He’s arrested as he exits the store and has 1 $10.00 item in the box. X is guilty of…

a.  theft under $20.00

b.  burglary

c.  robbery

d.  possession of a shielding device

Crime of violence is any criminal act that results in ______ to a victim.

a.  bodily injury

b.  serious bodily injury

c.  personal injury

d.  harm

c.  personal injury

An inquest of a deceased person need not be held if…

a.  he dies in jail

b.  dies an unnatural death

c.  dies while attended by a physician and cause of death is known.

d.  commits suicide

c.  dies while attended by a physician and cause of death is known.

Who may execute a Capias?

a.  Sheriff or his Deputy

b.  Constable & Sheriff

c.  Any peace officer

d.  Any authorized person

c.  Any peace officer

If a peace officer has a search warrant for stolen cattle, he can only look…

a.  in the suspect’s  barn

b.  in the suspect’s clothing

c.  in the suspect’s desk drawers

d.  in the suspect’s glove box

a.  in the suspect’s  barn

Which era began "distancing the police from the citizens"?

a.  1900-1940's

b.  1950-1970's

c.  1980-today

d.  prior to 1900

In which era did the police become "controlled by radio"?

a.  1900-1940's

b.  1950-1970's

c.  1980-today

d.  1990-today

The ______ used "proactive" police concepts in the traditional police department.

a.  patrol division

b.  detective division

c.  narcotics division and crime prevention units

d.  communications division

The correct whistle signal to Stop traffic is…

a.  one short blast

b.  two long blasts

c.  three short blasts

d.  one long blast

The correct whistle signal for GO is…

a.  one short blast

b.  two short blasts

c.  two long blasts

d.  three short blasts

b.  two short blasts

The correct whistle signal to warn, indicate trun or slow is…

a.  one long blast

b.  three short blasts

c.  two short blasts

d.  two long blasts

b.  three short blasts

Protects from unreasonable searches and seizures.

a.  4^th amendment

b.  8^th amendment

c.  6^th amendment

d.  1^st amendment

a.  4^th amendment

Protects from double jeopardy.

a.  4^th amendment

b.  8^th amendment

c.  6^th amendment

d.  5^st amendment

X threatens Y with imminent bodily injury.

a.  assault

b.  aggravated assault

c.  terroristic threat

d.  no offense

a.  assault

X threatens Y with imminent serious bodily injury.

a.  assault

b.  aggravated assault

c.  terroristic threat

d.  no offense

c.  terroristic threat

X intentionally caused the penetration of the female sex organ of a child. X is a male over 3 years older than the child.

a.  aggravated sexual assault

b.  sexual assault

c.  indecency with a child

d.  deviate sexual intercourse

b.  sexual assault

X engaged in sexual contact with a child under 17, not his spouse. X is more than 3 years older and of the opposite sex.

a.  sexual assault

b.  aggravated sexual assault

c.  indecency with a child

d.  deviate sexual intercourse

c.  indecency with a child

X intentionally causes the penetration of the sexual organ of a 13 year old child with her consent. X is more than 3 years older and of the opposite sex.

a.  sexual assault

b.  aggravated sexual assault

c.  indecency with a child

d.  deviate sexual intercourse

b.  aggravated sexual assault

The primary difference between “Interference with child custody” and “Enticing a child” is…

a.  the actor’s intent

b.  culpability

c.  violation of a court order

d.  age of the child

c.  violation of a court order

X sets a trash fire in his own yard to burn leaves. He leaves it unattended and goes back in the house for a nap. The fire spreads to his neighbor’s fence and burns it down. X is guilty of…

a.  arson

b.  reckless damage

c.  criminal mischief

d.  no offense

b.  reckless damage

X intentionally destroys his neighbor’s fence, without the neighbor’s consent. X is guilty of…

a.  criminal mischief

b.  reckless damage

c.  graffiti

d.  arson

a.  criminal mischief

X intentionally spray paints offensive symbols on his neighbor’s fence without his consent. This is…

a.  criminal mischief

b.  reckless damage

c.  graffiti

d.  a civil matter

c.  graffiti

The difference between Robbery & Theft is…

a.  amount of property stolen

b.  the use of force

c.  culpability

d.  intent

b.  the use of force

X in attempting to take the purse from a 65 year old woman, knocked her down causing bodily injury and then ran off with her purse. This is…

a.  theft

b.  assault

c.  robbery

d.  aggravated robbery

X removed the gas cap on his neighbor’s car and placed a garden hose in the tank to remove the gas without the owner’s consent. This is…

a.  theft of gas

b.  burglary of a vehicle

c.  burglary of a motor vehicle

d.  criminal mischief only

b.  burglary of a vehicle

X enters Y’s home, without his consent, with the intent to steal something but was chased off by the family dog before he could commit a theft. This is…

a.  criminal trespass

b.  burglary

c.  attempted burglary

d.  attempted theft only

b.  burglary

Burglary of a habitation is…

a.  a state jail felony

b.  a 3^rd degree felony

c.  a 2^nd degree felony

d.  a 1^st degree felony

c.  a 2^nd degree felony

Felony possession of Marijuana requires…

a.  4 ounces

b. 2 ounces or more

c.  any amount

d.  over 4 ounces

Felony delivery of marijuana requires…

a.  over 4 ounces

b.  over 1 ounce

c.  over ¼ ounce

d.  any usable amount, packaged for sale

c.  over ¼ ounce

When destroying a dangerous drug a Peace Officer must act in the presence of _______.

a.  2 witnesses

b.  1 witness

c.  a narcotics aent

d.  an agent of the state board of pharmacy

b.  1 witness

Which of these is Not a “method of drug abuse”?

a.  injection

b.  inhalation

c.  ingestion

d.  inflection

Which of the following may not be seized without a warrant?

a.  illicit beverages

b.  vehicle used to transport beverages

c.  equipment used to manufacture illicit beverages

d.  may seize all the above without a warrant

b.  vehicle used to transport beverages

It is unlawful to consume an alcoholic beverage on a public street, alley or sidewalk within _______ feet of a public school.

a.  500

b.  1000

c.  100

d.  50

b.  1000

In Texas a package liquor store may not operate before ________ or after ________.

a.  9am / 10pm

b.  noon / 6pm

c.  10am / 9pm

d.  9:30am / 10:30pm

c.  10am / 9pm

Operator moving around a rotary traffic island __________.

a.  shall drive to the left

b.  shall drive to the right

c.  may proceed straight, turn left or right

d.  may proceed right or left

b.  shall drive to the right

Operator passing another vehicle shall return to his own lane before an approaching vehicle is within.

a.  100 feet

b.  50 feet

c.  200 feet

d.  500 feet

c.  200 feet

No vehicle shall be driven left of center of roadway within ____ feet of a bridge, viaduct or tunnel.

a.  50

b.  500

c.  1000

d.  100

A signal of intent to turn, shall be given continuously for the past _____ traveled prior to the turn.

a.  100 feet

b.  50 feet

c.  200 feet

d.  500 feet

a.  100 feet

Tail lights on a motor vehicle _______.

a.  may be any color between red to amber

b.  shall be red

c.  shall be amber

d.  may be any color between red to yellow

b.  shall be red

Rear turn signal lamps on a motor vehicle ________.

a.  may be any color between red to amber

b.  shall be red

c.  shall be amber

d.  may be any color between red to yellow

a.  may be any color between red to amber

Window sun screening device is illegal if it has a reflectance of ________.

a.  25% or less

b.  more than 25%

c.  25% or more

d.  33% or more

b.  more than 25%

“Injury to any part of the human body that requires treatment”, is _______.

a.  bodily injury

b.  personal injury

c.  serious bodily injury

d.  harm

b.  personal injury

Break lights shall emit a _______ light.

a.  red

b.  red or amber

c.  red, amber or yellow

d.  amber only

b.  red or amber

Prima facie speed limit in an Urban District is _______.

a.  35

b.  45

c.  30

d.  whatever the posted speed limit is

c.  30

The fastest a motorist may drive on a highway in Texas is _______.

a.  the posted speed limit

b.  70 day time or 65 night

c.  whatever speed is reasonable and prudent

d.  whatever speed is reasonable and proper at the time

c.  whatever speed is reasonable and prudent

When parking on a two-way roadway, the right hand wheels of the vehicle shall be within _____ of the right hand curb.

a.  18 feet

b.  18 inches

c.  8 inches

d.  2 feet

b.  18 inches

Which of these window sun screening colors is not illegal?

a.  brown

b.  red

c.  amber

d.  blue

a.  brown

Prima facie speed limit on a public beach is ___ mph.

a.  30

b.  25

c.  15

d.  35

c.  15

Prima facie speed limit in an Alley is ____.

a.  15 mph

b.  25 mph

c.  30 mph

d.  35 mph

a.  15 mph

The shoulder of a highway was designed for ______.

a.  parking

b.  passing on the right

c.  changing flat tires

d.  b or c

a.  parking

4 way hazard lamps shall be visible ________.

a.  500 feet in daylight

b.  1000 feet at night

c.  200 feet at all times

d.  50 feet at all times

a.  500 feet in daylight

A person may not operate an open bed truck with a child under the age of ___ in the open bed.

a.  12

b.  17

c.  18

d.  21

c.  18

It is illegal to park within ____ feet of a fire hydrant.

a.  15

b.  50

c.  100

d.  75

a.  15

Operator of a vehicle shall stop at a railroad grad crossing when an approaching train sounds its whistle within _____ of the crossing.

a.  1 mile

b.  1500 feet

c.  1000 feet

d.  500 feet

b.  1500 feet

A roadway assigned a number by the State of U.S. is a (an) _________.

a.  freeway

b.  interstate highway

c.  arterial street

d.  highway

c.  arterial street

“A vehicle not designed or used primarily to transport persons or property and only incidentally operated on a highway”, defines…

a.  towable recreation vehicle

b.  special mobile equipment

c.  implement of husbandry

d.  electric bicycle

b.  special mobile equipment

“A motor vehicle designed to accommodate 10 or fewer passengers”, defines…

a.  truck

b.  buss

c.  passenger car

d.  light truck

c.  passenger car

“A motor vehicle designed primarily to transport property”, defines…

a.  truck

b.  buss

c.  passenger car

d.  motorcycle

a.  truck

You must dim your headlights before an approaching vehicle is within ____ feet.

a.  300

b.  500

c.  200

d. 100

b.  500

A “no passing zone” prohibits ________.

a.  passing another vehicle in that zone

b.  passing anything in that zone

c.  driving left of center of the roadway or of the pavement striping in that zone

d.  passing on the right within the zone

c.  driving left of center of the roadway or of the pavement striping in that zone

Which of these Traffic Control Devices does not require a driver to yield?

a.  stop sign

b.  yield sign

c.  flashing red signal

d.  flashing yellow signal

Window sunscreening device is illegal if the light transmission is _____.

a. 33% or more

b.  more than 25%

c.  less than 25%

d.  less than 35%

Which tactics are used to ensure good interpersonal communication?

a.  posturing

b.  gesturing

c.  listening

d.  all the above

d.  all the above

Temporarily suspending judgment so you can hear what is being said, is…

a.  listening

b.  positioning

c.  posturing

d.  none of these

a.  listening

In an arrest where use of force is necessary, the officer may use ______ behavior.

a.  assertive

b.  aggressive

c.  passive

d.  reinforcing

b.  aggressive

Which of these is not necessary in a police report?

a.  verify an offense occurred

b.  I.D. the victim, suspect, witnesses

c.  I.D. place, date and time, of offense

d.  All are required

Arrangement of data in a police report in the order of occurrence, is called _____ order.

a.  chronological

b.  categorical

c.  hypothetical

d.  none of these

a.  chronological

Which of these is not a type of police report?

a.  Arrest report

b.  Incident report

c.  Offense report

d.  Supplemental report

e.  They’re all types of reports

________ are brief notations concerning specific events and circumstances that are made while fresh in the officer’s mind.

a.  pocket file

b.  offense report

c.  field notes

d.  answer not listed 

c.  field notes

When interviewing witnesses at the scene, you should...

a.  not be concerned with obtaining suspect description

b.  arrest them and place them in the patrol car

c.  allow the witnesses to corroborate their stories with each other

d.  allow witnesses to tell their own story, the ask pertinent questions

A(n) ________ is the questioning of a person who is believed to possess knowledge that is of official interest to the investigation.

a.  interview

b.  interrogation

c.  inquisition

d.  none of these

a.  interview

Miranda warning requires the subject be advised of his/her right to…

a.  have counsel appointed if they cannot afford counsel

b.  remain silent

c.  terminate the interview at any time

d.  all are correct

The most effective technique for an officer to recall past events is to…

a.  commit everything to memory

b.  jot everything down on slips of paper

c.  use an individualized shorthand

d.  answer not listed

Note taking serves what purpose?

a.  provides background information to interrogate a suspect

b.  assists the officer to prepare a better report

c.  aids in recollection of events more accurately and completely

d.  all are correct

The extent of notes taken for any one incident will be determined by the individual officer and …

a.  the officer’s supervisor

b.  the officer’s partner

c.  the particular assignment

d.  the prosecutor

c.  the particular assignment

The majority of notes will result from …

a.  suspects

b.  interviews

c.  supervisors

d.  opinion statements

b.  interviews

Notes aid in…

a.  accurate testimony

b.  investigation

c.  interrogation

d.  all the above

The best type of field note book is the…

a.  loose leaf in binder

b.  spiral

c.  scrap book

d.  none of these

b.  spiral

In taking notes if a mistake is made the officer should…

a.  use “white out” and erase the error

b.  ink over the mistake so it is not legible then correct it adjacent to the error

c.  draw a line through the error, so it’s still legible, then correct the error next to it or above it

d.  either a or b

c.  draw a line through the error, so it’s still legible, then correct the error next to it or above it

Which of the below should not be in the field note book.

a.  personal notes or memos not pertaining to investigation

b.  opinion comments related to  the investigation

c.  doodles or drawings made in margins

d.  all the above

“A police officer or a citizen requesting an emergency response from public safety personnel to an emergency event involving, but not limited to, a life threatening occurrence or accident, criminal activity or breach of the peace”, defines…

a.  emergency

b.  emergency event

c.  emergency communication

d.  emergency request

c.  emergency communication

FCC rule 90, states “assigned frequencies can only be used for”…

a.  permissible purposes

b.  in a permissible manner

c.  by persons with authority to operate such equipment

d.  all the above

Which of these is prohibited communication?

a.  false, fraudulent distress signals

b.  obscene, indecent and profane language

c.  using unassigned call signal

d.  all the above

Officer should not transmit when…

a.  advised to stand by

b.  during a declared emergency to in-progress call

c.  traffic is superfluous and no bearing on unit availability

d.  all the above

In “ten-codes”, 10-_____ means, “Help me, quick”.

a.  9

b.  18

c.  30

d.  33

In “ten-codes”, 10-_____ means, “Registration check on license plate”.

a.  22

b.  29

c.  27

d.  28

In “ten-codes”, 10-_____ means, “Drivers License search”.

a.  28

b.  27

c.  29

d.  30

b.  27

SCF would be pronounced “__________” on the radio.

a.  Sierra Charley Foxtrot

b.  Samuel Clip-Clop Foxx

c.  Sam Charles Fred

d.  Sam Charles Frank

Which of these is important in police radio transmission?

a.  enunciation

b.  phonetic alphabet

c.  rate and volume of speech

d.  all the above

Community Policing addresses the causes and reduces the fear of ________.

a.  crime

b.  vigilantism

c.  social disorder

d.  both a and c

Which of the following is not a typical reason for errors in reasoning?

a.  fails to observe and use all relevant facts

b.  fails to approach the problem systematically

c.  fails to jump to conclusions

d.  fails to spell out relations fully

c.  fails to jump to conclusions

In the SARA model the first A stands for _______.

a.  analysis

b.  assessment

c.  assemble facts