Which virus family is characterized by a single-stranded DNA genome?

Parvoviridae

Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome?

Reoviridae

Which viruses are susceptible to acyclovir? What is the mechanism of effect of the 

drug? 

alpha herpesviruses – HSV1, HSV2, VZV; inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and 

DNA chain terminator

Explain why acyclovir is selectively toxic to cells infected by alpha-herpesviruses!

These viruses encode their own thymidine kinase enzymes, which are needed for 

activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. Cellular thymidine kinase does not activate 

the drug. 

In which cells do Herpes simplex viruses establish latent infection?

Sensory ganglion cells (trigeminal or sacral ganglia)

What is the possible, late complication (years after acute infection) of the childhood 

chickenpox?

Herpes zoster (shingles)

What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by B19 parvovirus?

fetal death or hydrops fetalis

Which isotype of antigen-specific immunoglobulins in the newborn's blood indicates a 

congenital infection?

IgM 

What diseases do cytomegalovirus cause in congenital infections?

cytomegalic inclusion disease – spontaneous abortion, CNS damage (deafness, blindness, 

mental retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice 

What diseases do cytomegalovirus cause in immunocompetent persons? 

mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil-antibody negative)

Mention 2 diseases that cytomegalovirus can cause in immune compromised persons!

pneumonia, chorioretinitis, colitis

Which antiviral drug is active against cytomegalovirus infection?

Ganciklovir, (foscarnet, cidofovir) 

Describe the heterophil antibody test used in Epstein-Barr virus diagnostics!

Paul-Bunnel test – in mononucleosis caused by EBV, the serum of the patient 

agglutinates sheep red blood cells 

Which virus causes exanthema subitum (roseola infantum)?

HHV6 

Which virus causes erythema infectiosum? 

Human parvovirus B19

Reverse transcription is involved in the replication of which DNA virus? 

Hepadnaviridae – HBV

What is the mechanism of antigenic shift in influenza viruses?

reassortment of genome segments

Which antigens of the influenza virus are recognized by neutralizing antibodies?

Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase

Which virus(es) is(are) susceptible to amantadine? 

Influenza A virus

What is the possible late complication of measles infection (several years after the 

acute infection)?

SSPE – subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

What is the portal of entry of the viruses belonging to Paramyxoviridae?

Respiratory tract – aerosol infection 

Which age group is mostly affected by respiratory syncitial (RS) virus infection?

babies (6 week – 6 month old)

What are the possible complications of adulthood mumps virus infection? Specify at 

least 2 of them! 

Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis

What is the route of infection of rabies virus? How does rabies virus spread in the 

infected body? 

By the bite of a rabid animal, (rarely by infectious aerosol) 

spread of the virus in the host – along the axons 

What medication does a person need after exposure to rabies virus? 

Active immunization – human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus) 

and passive immunization – rabies immune globulin

What is the portal of entry of polioviruses? Which areas of the central nervous system 

are affected by poliovirus infection?

oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract 

damage in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord + brain stem

Which viruses belong to the Enterovirus genus?

Polioviruses, coxsackie A and B viruses, echoviruses, enteroviruses 68 - 71

Mention 4 diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses! 

febrile rashes, herpangina, myocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis, pleurodynia, hand- 

foot-and-mouth disease

What disease do rotaviruses cause? At which age?

gastroenteritis in young children

List the 3 antigens of hepatitis B virus against which antibodies may develop during or 

after the acute phase of infection?

HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAg 

Which hepatitis B-specific antibody is never present in chronic hepatitis?

Anti-Hbs 

What are the main modes of transmission of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection?

sexual contact; perinatally from mother to newborn; by blood or blood product

What are the 2 serological markers that are necessary and sufficient to prove acute 

hepatitis B virus infection?

HBsAg, Anti-HBc IgM 

Describe the active and passive prophylaxis against hepatitis B!

active immunization: recombinant HBsAg vaccine 

passive immunization: HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin) 

Which hepatitis viruses are acquired orally?

HAV, HEV

Which hepatitis viruses are acquired via parenteral routes?

HBV, HCV, HDV, (HGV)

Mention 4 diseases that can be caused by adenoviruses! 

pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, acut respiratory disease, bronchitis, 

atypical pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, gastrointestinal infection

Mention 2 human prion diseases!

Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal 

familial insomnia

What are the serious complications of HSV infection in newborns?

disseminated infections, encephalitis, skin, eye, mouth infection 

Mention 3 DNA virus families containing no envelope!

Parvoviridae, Papovaviridae, Adenoviridae

Mention 3 DNA virus families containing envelope!

Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Poxviridae 

Mention 3 RNA virus families containing no envelope! 

Picornaviriade, Caliciviridae, Reoviridae

Mention 3 RNA virus families containing envelope!

Orthomyxoviridae, Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, etc.

What is the portal of entry of mumps virus?

Upper respiratory tract

Mention at least two viruses capable of causing pneumonia. 

RSV, influenza virus A and B, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, coronavirus (SARS), 

metapneumovirus,

What is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?

Measles virus

What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the combined vaccine against measles, 

German measles and mumps? 

live attenuated viruses

What is the nature of antigen in the rabies vaccine for human use?

killed virus

Which viral variants are included in the human influenza vaccine?

The vaccine contains 2 influenza A strains (H3N2, H1N1) and 1 influenza B strain. 

What is the nature of antigen in the vaccine against hepatitis B?

Subunit vaccine, containing HBsAg

What is(are) the nature(s) of antigens in the vaccines against poliovirus?

IPV: inactivated polio vaccine: killed viruses (types 1, 2 and 3) 

OPV: oral polio vaccine: live attenuated viruses (types 1, 2 and 3)

What is the causative agent of PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy)?

JC virus (Polyomaviridae)

Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic shift?

influenza A

Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic drift?

Influenza A and B

What is the nature of the immune response in diseases caused by prions?

There is no immune response, as prions are self proteins. 

Mention at least 3 diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses (HSV1, HSV2)!

oropharyngeal herpes (gingivostomatitis, herpes labialis), keratoconjunctivitis, 

encephalitis, herpes genitalis

What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by rubella virus? Specify at 

least 3 of them!

Congenital malformations involving the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septum 

defects), the eyes (cataract, glaucoma) and the brain (deafness, mental reardation).

Which ifluenza A subtypes cause most human infections currently?

H1N1, H3N2

Which are the two most important targets of antiretroviral chemotherapy?

HIV reverse transcriptase and protease

Mention 3 nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!

azidothymidine (zidovudine), dideoxyinozine (didanosine), dideoxycytidine 

(zalcitabine), stavudine, lamivudine, abacavir

Mention 2 non nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of 

AIDS!

nevirapine, delavirdine, efavirenz 

Mention 2 protease inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!

indinavir, saquinavir, ritonavir, nelfinavir, amprenavir

What is the principle of the „highly active antiretroviral therapy” (HAART) currently used 

in the treatment of AIDS!

Combination of two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (such as zidovudine 

and lamivudine) and a protease inhibitor (such as indinavir). Or combination of two 

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (such as zidovudine and lamivudine) and 

a nonnucleosid reverse transcriptase inhibitor (such as efavirenz). 

2 NRTI + PI/NNRTI

What are the criteria to classify a virus as robovirus? Write an example, too! 

Robovirus: rodent reservoir (rodent-borne)  

Arenaviridae – Lassa, Junin, Machupo, LCM virus; Bunyaviridae – Hantaan virus, 

Puumala virus, Sin Nombre virus; Filoviridae – Marburg, Ebola virus 

What are the criteria to classify a virus as arbovirus? Write an example, too!

Arbovirus: arthropode vector (arthropode-borne);  

Flaviviridae – yellow fever, Dengue-fever; Bunyaviridae – Rift-valley fever, Crimean- 

Congo hemorrhagic fever; etc. 

Which hepatitis virus infections increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma? 

HBV, HCV, HDV

Which virus can cause haemorrhagic fever with hepatitis and nephritis?

yellow fever virus

Describe the 2 different epidemiological cycles of yellow fever!

Jungle yellow fever: reservoir: monkeys; vector: Haemagogus mosquitos; humans: 

accidental hosts 

Urban yellow fever: reservoirs: humans; vectors : Aedes aegypti mosquitos

How can we prevent tick borne encephalitis?

Active immunization: killed virus vaccine, passive: specific immune globulin

Which viruses can cause human tumors? Mention at least 4!

HPV, EBV, HHV-8, HBV, HCV, HTLV

Mention 3 opportunistic infections characteristic for AIDS!

Viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, HCMV, EBV, HHV-8, HPV 

Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii, Pneumocystis carinii 

Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, atypical Mycobacteria, Salmonella septicaemia 

Fungi: Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans 

Describe the principals of the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection!

Demonstration of antiviral antibodies. 

Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA 

Verification: Western-blot assay

Mention three sexually transmittable viral infections!

HPV, HSV-1, HSV-2, HIV, HBV, HCV, molluscum contagiosum

Mention two viruses capable of getting through the placenta.

Rubella virus, HCMV, parvovirus B19, HIV, HTLV-1 

Mention 2 viral infections whose preventive strategy involves passive immunization! 

 Rabies, tick-borne encephalitis, HBV, VZV, measles 

List three viruses capable of causing (meningo)encephalitis!

Rabies, HSV, VZV, tick-borne encephalitis, Japanese B encephalitis, eastern and 

western equine encepahalitis, mumps, poliovirus, coxsackie virus, echovirus

What is the nature(s) of antigen in the vaccine against yellow fever?

Live attenuated virus (17D strain)

What disease does Epstein-Barr virus cause? What are the Epstein-Barr virus 

associated tumors?

Mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil positive) 

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas 

Mention 3 types of human cancers caused by EBV?

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas

What type of human cancer is caused most frequently by HHV8?

Kaposi’s sarcoma

What types of human cancers are caused by high-risk HPV types?

genital cancers, most importantly cervical cancer