Term
| Which bacterial identification method relies upon antibodies to identify bacterium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the point of a phage typing test? |
|
Definition
| To determine which phages (bacterial viruses) a bacteria is susceptible to |
|
|
Term
| What is the principle behind a G+C base composition bacterial identification method? |
|
Definition
| Overall % of G and C content compared to A and T content in DNA |
|
|
Term
True or False:
PCR is one method used to identify bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
rRNA sequencing is NOT a method used to identify bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Spirochetes are associated with the use of axial filaments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is considered a spirochete:
Neisseria, treponema, Pseudomonas, H. pylori |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 spirochetes discussed during lecture? |
|
Definition
| treponema, borrelia, leptospira |
|
|
Term
| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of Campylobacter jejuni. |
|
Definition
| Gram negative curved/spiral rod |
|
|
Term
| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of Helicobacter pylori. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-positive faculative anaerobe cocci. |
|
Definition
False
P. aeruginosa is a gram negative aerobe rod |
|
|
Term
| Where is pseudomonas aeruginosa likely to be found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with an innate antibiotic resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of all Neisseria species. |
|
Definition
| Gram negative diplococcus |
|
|
Term
| What environment does an Enterobacteriaceae thrive in? What is its gram reaction and morphology? |
|
Definition
Faculative anaerobe
Gram negative rod |
|
|
Term
| E. coli, salmonella, and shigella are all part of which bacterial family? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which group of bacteria is associated with fermenting glucose and various other carbohydrates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Vibrio cholerae is a faculative anaerobic gram-negative rod |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two requirements for culturing haemophilus? |
|
Definition
Must have blood in the culture medium
Requires hemin |
|
|
Term
| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of haemophilus. What environment does it thrive in? |
|
Definition
Gram negative rod
Faculative anaerobe |
|
|
Term
| What environment do bacteroides species thrive in and what is their gram reaction and morphology? |
|
Definition
| Anaerobic gram-negative rods |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 likely locations one would find Bacteroides species? |
|
Definition
| Oral cavity, genital tract, respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Bacteroides species are known for producing spores. |
|
Definition
False
They are nonspore-forming |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is associated with causing periodontitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the motility of bacteroides species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does one acquire Rickettsia? |
|
Definition
| arthropod vector (louse, tick, mosquito) |
|
|
Term
| What two groups of bacteria are known as "obligate intracellular gram-negative coccobacillus?" |
|
Definition
| Rickettsia and Chlamydia trachomatis |
|
|
Term
| What are two common diseases associated with Rickettsia bacterial infections? |
|
Definition
| Typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with blindness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Walking pneumonia (primary atypical pneumonia) is caused by what bacterial species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is significant about the cell walls of Mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| They DONT have cell walls |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is associated with causing wound infections, toxic shock syndrome, and food poisoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Strep throat is caused by which specific species of Streptococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major pathogenic species of the Staphylococcus family? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Bacillus anthracis? What disease is associated with this species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Bacillus anthracis can survive extreme conditions |
|
Definition
True
Since it is endospore forming |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Bacillus anthracis thrives in an anerobic environment |
|
Definition
False
B. anthracis is an aerobic species |
|
|
Term
| What two diseases are associated with Clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
| food poisoning and gas gangrene |
|
|
Term
| Clostridium species thrive in what environment? Describe their gram reaction and morphology. |
|
Definition
Anaerobic
Gram-positive rods |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? |
|
Definition
gram positive rod
Pleomorphic morphology (irregular) |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Listeria monocytogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are endospore forming bacteria. |
|
Definition
False
Nonspore-forming gram positive rods |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria is likely to cause stillbirth in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of person is likely to acquire Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which genus of bacteria is associated with leprosy and tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is significant about the cell walls of Mycobacterium species? |
|
Definition
| Mycolic acid in cell walls |
|
|
Term
| What the the gram reaction and morphology of all Mycobacterium species? |
|
Definition
| Trick question, Mycobacterium do not stain via gram staining because their cell walls contain mycolic acid. Thus, they stain via acid fast staining. However, their morphology is rod-shaped |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Bacillus anthracis? What disease is associated with this species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Bacillus anthracis can survive extreme conditions |
|
Definition
True
Since it is endospore forming |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Bacillus anthracis thrives in an anerobic environment |
|
Definition
False
B. anthracis is an aerobic species |
|
|
Term
| What two diseases are associated with Clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
| food poisoning and gas gangrene |
|
|
Term
| Clostridium species thrive in what environment? Describe their gram reaction and morphology. |
|
Definition
Anaerobic
Gram-positive rods |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? |
|
Definition
gram positive rod
Pleomorphic morphology (irregular) |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Listeria monocytogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are endospore forming bacteria. |
|
Definition
False
Nonspore-forming gram positive rods |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria is likely to cause stillbirth in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of person is likely to acquire Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which genus of bacteria is associated with leprosy and tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is significant about the cell walls of Mycobacterium species? |
|
Definition
| Mycolic acid in cell walls |
|
|
Term
| What the the gram reaction and morphology of all Mycobacterium species? |
|
Definition
| Trick question, Mycobacterium do not stain via gram staining because their cell walls contain mycolic acid. Thus, they stain via acid fast staining. However, their morphology is rod-shaped |
|
|
Term
| Whats the function of vegetative mycelium and aerial mycelium? |
|
Definition
vegetative - nutrients
aerial - reproduction |
|
|
Term
| What does the term coenocytic mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to fungal filaments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the term thallus mean? |
|
Definition
| fungal body of a filamentous fungi |
|
|
Term
What makes this statement false:
Yeasts are filamentous multicellular fungi which have a spherical morphology and reproduce via binary fission. |
|
Definition
| Yeasts are NONFILAMENTOUS UNICELLULAR fungi which have spherical morphology and reproduce via BUDDING |
|
|
Term
| Describe a dimorphic fungi. |
|
Definition
Fungi which exhibits two forms of growth at different temperatures
37 deg C = grows as a yeast
25 deg C = grows as a filament |
|
|
Term
True or False
Asexual reproducing fungi do not exhibit genetic diversity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three structures are associated with asexually reproducing fungi? |
|
Definition
Sporangiospore (in a sac)
Sporangium (sac containing spores)
Conidia (spores not enclosed in sac) |
|
|
Term
| What pH do fungi need to be near for survival? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Molds are aerobic fungi while yeasts are faculative anaerobes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is false:
Fungi grow in a low sugar or salt environment and require high amounts of moisture to survive
Fungi require less nitrogen to survive than many other species
Fungi metabolize complex carbohydrates
Fungi grow in a pH relatively near 5.0 |
|
Definition
Fungi grow in a low sugar or salt environment and require high amounts of moisture to survive
Typically, fungi grow in high surgar or salt environements and do not need very much moisture. This is why they require less nitrogen than many other species |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 categories of fungal infections (based off of degree of tissue involvement and mode of entry into body) |
|
Definition
Systemic
Subcutaneous
Cutaneous
Superficial
Opportunistic |
|
|
Term
| This type of fungi causes systemic mycoses? How does it enter the body? |
|
Definition
Saprophytic fungi living in the soil
They enter the body via inhalation of endospores |
|
|
Term
| What are the two systemic mycoses discussed during lecture? |
|
Definition
Histoplasmosis
Coccidioidomycosis |
|
|
Term
| A subcutaneous mycoses is one that is ______________________. It is caused by __________ fungi which lives in _______________. Its route of transmission is ________________ |
|
Definition
| A subcutaneous mycoses is one that is BENEATH THE SKIN. It is caused by SAPROPHYTIC fungi which lives in SOIL/VEGETATION. Its route of transmission is DIRECT IMPLANTATION OF SPORES IN PUNCTURE OR WOUND. |
|
|
Term
| What type of mycoses is Sporothrix schenckii associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dermatophytes cause _____________ mycoses. They secrete ___________. The route of transmission for this mycoses is _________________________. |
|
Definition
| Dermatophytes cause CUTANEOUS mycoses. The secrete KERATINASE. Their route of transmission is DIRECT CONTACT WITH INFECTED HUMAN |
|
|
Term
| Trichophyton, epidermophyton, and microsporum are associated with this type of mycoses. |
|
Definition
| Cutaneous mycoses (dermatomycoses) |
|
|
Term
True or False:
In a normal habitat, opportunistic mycoses are highly pathogenic. |
|
Definition
False:
Opportunistic mycoses only become pathogenic in a host who is immunocompromised. |
|
|
Term
| Mucormycosis, aspergillosis, and candidiasis all fall under which category of mycoses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two fungi are considered to cause Mucormycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Apicomplexans are also known as ...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flagellates, one of the medically important protozoa, are also known as ...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amoebae, one of the medically important protozoa, are also known as...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This species of amoebae is known to cause amebic dystentery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Trichomonas vaginalis falls under which category of protozoan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Giardia lamblia falls under which category of protozoans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where would a hemoflagellate be found in the human body and how does it become transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Found in the blood or lymph fluids and it is transmitted by bites or feces of blood-feeding insects |
|
|
Term
| African sleeping sickness is caused by what genus and species of protozoan? This protozoan falls under which category? |
|
Definition
| Caused by Trypanosoma brucei which falls under Hemoflagellates |
|
|
Term
True or False:
African sleeping sickness is associated with the tsetse fly. |
|
Definition
True
The tsetse fly is an arthropod vector for Trypanosoma brucei |
|
|
Term
| Chagas' disease is caused by which protozoan? It is transferred to a human via which arthropod vector? |
|
Definition
| Caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and is transmitted by the kissing bug or reduviid bug |
|
|
Term
| Trypanosoma cruzi falls under which category of protozoan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plasmodium species fall under which category of protozoan? These species are the causative agent for which major disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Plasmodium species definitve host is in the mosquito |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a mosquito containing malaria bites you it injects what into the human body? |
|
Definition
| Injects a sporozoite (sexual stage) |
|
|
Term
| What does the term dioecious refer to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
Monoecious is synonymous with hermaphrodidic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Trematodes/flukes fall under which phyla of helminth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An acetabulum is also known as a...? |
|
Definition
| Ventral sucker of a trematode |
|
|
Term
| What is the intermediate hose for a trematode? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does a trematode obtain its food? |
|
Definition
| From absorption through a cuticle |
|
|
Term
| A schistosome is also known as a ...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respectively, the scolex and proglottids are also known as? |
|
Definition
| Holdfast organ and segments on a cestode |
|
|
Term
| The infective stage of a nematode is ...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two helminth species discussed in lecture have their infective stage as larvae? |
|
Definition
| Necator americanus (hookworm) and Trichinella spiralis |
|
|
Term
| Trichinella spiralis is transmitted to humans by...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a virion? What is it made of? Is there any special structure? |
|
Definition
| Complete, fully-developed viral particle composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by protein coat |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| By taking over the host cells machinery (obligate intracellular parasite) |
|
|
Term
| How does a capsid differ from a capsomere? |
|
Definition
Capsid - protein coat
Capsomere - protein subunits that make up capsid |
|
|
Term
| Between naked viruses and enveloped viruses, which is more resistant to killing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the typical morphology of an enveloped virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of a complex virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the term icosahedron refer to? |
|
Definition
| A virus displaying 20 triangular faces and 12 corners |
|
|
Term
In reference to viral taxonomy what do the follow suffixs' mean?
-virus
-viridae
-ales |
|
Definition
-virus - genus names
-viridae - family names
-ales - order names |
|
|
Term
| What is the viral cytopathic effect? |
|
Definition
| Observation of cell deterioration on a culture virus |
|
|
Term
| Adenoviridae is associated with what pathological condition? Is this a DNA or RNA virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Herpesviridae is associated with cold sores and what other pathological condition? Is this a DNA or RNA virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Poxviridae is associated with what pathological conditions?
Is this a DNA or RNA virus? |
|
Definition
small pox and cow pox
DNA virus |
|
|
Term
True or FAlse
Papovaviridae and Hepadnaviridae are what RNA viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or FAlse:
A reoviridae is a negative sense ssRNA virus. |
|
Definition
False
reoviridae is a double stranded rna virus |
|
|
Term
What -viridae is responsible for rabies? influenza? Measles?
These -viridae all fall under the same type of virus (DNA/RNA) which type are they? |
|
Definition
Rabies = Rhabdovirus
Influenza = Orthomyxoviridae
Paramyxoviridae = Measles
All fall under negative sense ssRNA viruses |
|
|
Term
| What are the two positive sense ssRNA viruses and what conditions are associated with each? |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae - common cold, polio
Togaviridae - rubella, arthropod-borne viruses |
|
|
Term
| Togaviridae causes what two pathological conditions? |
|
Definition
| Rubella, arthropod-borne viruses |
|
|
Term
| Picornaviridae is responsible for what two pathological conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
Retroviridae is composed of 2 copies of positive sense ssRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a provirus? What type of -viridae is it associated with? |
|
Definition
Provirus - viral dna integrated into host cells chromosome
Associated with retroviridae |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Reverse transcriptase works by forming DNA from RNA and then degrading to original viral RNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Viral adsorption is the process of...? |
|
Definition
| Attaching to the receptor site |
|
|
Term
| Viral penetration is the process of...? |
|
Definition
| Endocytosis or fusion of the virus into the host cell |
|
|
Term
| Viral uncoating is the process of...? |
|
Definition
| Releasing of nucleic acid |
|
|
Term
| Viral biosynthesis accomplishes two things, what are they? |
|
Definition
Replication of nucleic acid
Production of capsid proteins |
|
|
Term
| Describe the steps involved for biosynthesis of DNA viruses? |
|
Definition
transciption/translation of early genes
DNA replication
transciption/translation of late genes (capsid proteins) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the steps involved for biosynthesis of RNA viruses? (for + sense rna) |
|
Definition
| Positive RNA acts as mRNA and codes for/makes RNA polymerase. Then a - sense copy is made (used as a template for replication) or translation may occur directly |
|
|
Term
| Describe the steps involved for biosynthesis of RNA viruses? (for - antisense RNA) |
|
Definition
| - antisense RNA carries RNA polymerase and makes a + strand to be used as a template for replication. The formed + strand may also complex with mRNA to translate enzymes and capsid proteins |
|
|
Term
| Viral assembly (maturation) refers to the process of...? |
|
Definition
| assembling viral nucleic acid and capsids into virions |
|
|
Term
| What are two ways that a virus is "released"? |
|
Definition
Budding (seen in enveloped viruses)
Lysis |
|
|
Term
| What are the three dna oncogenic viruses discussed in lecture and what type of cancer can they cause? |
|
Definition
HPV - cervical cancer
EBV - burkitt's lymphoma
HBV - liver cancer |
|
|
Term
| What are the two RNA oncogenic viruses discussed in lecture and what type of cancer can they cause? |
|
Definition
HTLV-1 and HTLV-2
Causes T cell leukemia and lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| Shingles is caused by what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False:
The infectious agent for a prion is purely protein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the value for amount of normal flora in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is microbial antagonism? |
|
Definition
| normal flora inhibits overgrowth by pathogens |
|
|
Term
| Is alpha-hemolytic strep inhibiting beta-hemolytic strep considered microbial antagonism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| E. coli operates under commensalism or mutalism? |
|
Definition
| Mutalism because e. coli synthesizes vitamin K and B while the gut contents are used to e. coli growth |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Mycobacterium leprae and treponema pallidum are culturable bacteria. |
|
Definition
False
They are unculturable according to Koch |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between signs and symptoms? |
|
Definition
Signs - objective changes in body functions
Symptoms - subjective changes in body function |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Incidence is the number of new cases contracted withing a set population during specified period of time
Prevalence: total number of people infected within populations at any time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bacteremia : transient bacteria in blood
septicemia: growth/multiplication of bacateria in blood |
|
|
Term
| What type of infection (primary, secondary, subclinical) is HIV and West Nile Virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Period of recovery after an infection |
|
|
Term
| What does the term prodromal refer to? |
|
Definition
| Early, mild, non-speficic symptoms |
|
|
Term
| What is the reservoir for cholera? Tetanus? |
|
Definition
Cholera - water
tetanus - soil |
|
|
Term
| Tinea capitis is an infection transmitted how? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This bacteria is responsible for causing septic shock. It is a nosocomial infection. What does this term mean? |
|
Definition
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Nosocomial - hospital acquired infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the causitive agent for nosocomial UTI's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrooptic instruments are a way to transmit a disease from...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The term selective toxicity refers to...? |
|
Definition
| Killing microorganism without harming the host |
|
|
Term
| Isoniazid is an antimicrobial which targets what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to an overgrowth of the normal flora? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does penicillin act as an antimicrobial? |
|
Definition
| By inhibiting cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Augmentin contains penicillin and clavulanic acid, what is the purpose of the clavulanic acid? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits B-lactamase from cleaving the B-lactam ring |
|
|
Term
| How does a cephalosporin act as an antimicrobial? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
True or False:
Vancomycin is used against gram negative organisms |
|
Definition
False
Only effective against gram positive |
|
|
Term
| How is vancomycin an antimicrobial? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
| Isoiazid acts as an antimicrobial by...? |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis |
|
|
Term
| How do aminoglycosides act as antimicrobials? |
|
Definition
| inhibit protein synthesis by preventing tRNA from binding to 30s ribosomes |
|
|
Term
| What two antibiotics are considered aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
| streptomycin and gentamicin |
|
|
Term
| Tetracyclines act as antimicrobials by...? |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting protein synthesis by preventing tRNA from binding to 30S ribosomes |
|
|
Term
| How do tetracyclines differ from aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic
Aminoglycosides are bacteriocidal |
|
|
Term
| Chloramphenicol acts as an antimicrobial by...? Bacteriocidal or static? |
|
Definition
Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S subunit of ribosome
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
| A macrolide (antimicrobial) is an alternative to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin are all part of what group of antimicrobials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do macrolides act as antimicrobials? |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosome subunit |
|
|
Term
| What type of antimicrobial works by injuring the plasma membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Rifampin act as an antimicrobial? |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting synthesis of mRNA |
|
|
Term
| The antibiotic most likely to be used against pseudomonas infections is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do quinolones act as antimicrobials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antibiotics ending in _________ are part of the group quinolones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of antibiotic works by blocking folic acid synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TMP-SMZ is an antibiotic of what category? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| amphotericin B works by...? |
|
Definition
| binding to ergosterol in fungal plasma membranes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| interfering with sterol synthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| interfering with sterol synthesis (different than triazoles) |
|
|
Term
| Griseofulvin, a class of anti-fungals, works by...? |
|
Definition
| inhibiting fungal reproduction by blocking microtubule assembly and interfering with mitosis |
|
|
Term
| Herpesvirus infections are treated with what types of antivirals? |
|
Definition
Those ending in -ovir
ancyclovir, valacyclovir, etc |
|
|
Term
| The antiviral drug category, amantadine, works by...? |
|
Definition
| preventing penetration of cell by virus |
|
|
Term
| The antiviral drug, zanamivir or oseltamivir, works by...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The HIV drug zidovudine and didanosine work by...? |
|
Definition
| blocking activity of reverse transcriptase of HIV |
|
|
Term
| The HIV drug indinavir and saquinavir work by...? |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting HIV protease activity |
|
|
Term
| The HIV drug Enfuvirtide works by...? |
|
Definition
| Inhibiting fusion of HIV to its receptor on host cell |
|
|
Term
| A parenteral route of infection is one where the pathogen enters from...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram reaction of an organism which produces an exotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most lethal type of substance known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Diphtheria toxin is dangerous because it inhibits what human process? |
|
Definition
| protein synthesis of eukaryotic cells |
|
|
Term
| Diphtheria toxin has two polypeptides, A and B. What does each do? |
|
Definition
A - active portion of toxin
B - binding portion |
|
|
Term
| Endotoxins are cause by what type of gram bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does an endotoxin get into the system? |
|
Definition
| Gram negative bacteria die and the cell walls undergo lysis, thus releasing the endotoxin into the blood stream |
|
|
Term
What is the portal of exit for the following
TB
HSV-1
Polio
Food-borne illness
STD
HIV
Hepatitis
Malaria |
|
Definition
HSV-1 - mouth
TB - mouth and nose
Polio - feces
Food-borne illness - feces
STDs - gonadal secretions
HIV - gonadal secretions, blood
Hepatitis - blood
Malaria - blood (only by vector) |
|
|
