Term
| What are the characteristics of a Gram + beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
1) Similar substrate specificity
2) Active against penicillin
3) Inducible
4) Produced in large quantities
5) excreted into the external environment
6)Plasmid oriented |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of a Gram - beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
1) Different substrate specificity (spectrum)
2)Active against penicillin and cephalosporins
3) Consititutive or Inducible
4) Produced in small quantities
5) Excreted into Periplasmic space
6) Plasmid/Chromosomal Oriented |
|
|
Term
| Which is better to have a low inducer or high inducer when considered beta-lactamases? |
|
Definition
High inducer for the inducible beta-lactamase will be seen right away and can be taken care of.
Low inducers have the patient originally get better then crash as the beta lactamase is produced. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 sensitivity tests? |
|
Definition
1) Disk Diffusion- Kirby Bauer (place many disks on agar and look for zones of inhibition)
2) MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration) Determination
3) E-test (combo of MIC and Disk) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 limitations of Sensitivity Tests? |
|
Definition
1) Site of infection-abscess or foreign body
2) Host infections- protein binding and immune response
3) Pharmokinetics- metabolism and elimination for antibiotic concentration decreases over time
4) Post antibiotic effect
5) Sensitivity end points- test every 24hrs dose patient ever 6hrs
6) Inoculum- how much bacteria is present |
|
|
Term
What are the 6 Methods of Antibiotics?
What antibiotics fit under each? |
|
Definition
1) Folate Metabolism- sulfanomides
2) Cell Wall- penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomysin, monobactam
3) Protein Synthesis- tetracycline, aminoglycosides, erthromycin, chlorophenicol
4) Cell membrane- polymyxin B amphoterium B(very toxic)
5) DNA Replication (DNA gyrase)- quinolones
6) RNA Polymerase- rifampin |
|
|
Term
| What are 7 types of antibiotic resistance? |
|
Definition
1) Altered transpeptidase
2) Altered RNA polymerase
3) Altered DNA Gryase
4) increased efflux and decrased uptake
5) Altered porin structure
6) beta-lactamase
7) cephalosporinase |
|
|
Term
What are the four stages of Bacterial Growth?
Where are antibiotics working the most? |
|
Definition
1) Lag Phase- no growth
2) Exponential phase- rapid growth (bacteria start to release toxin and antibiotics are most active)
3) Stationary- cell division = cell death due to toxins
4) Death- eventually all bacteria die to toxin |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 major types (with subcategories) of types of Bacterial growth? ie oxygen etc |
|
Definition
1) Aerobes- need 02
a)Strict aerobes- any 02 kills them
b) microaerophillic- grow with lil 02, but love c02
2) anaerobes- die in 02
a)Strict anaerobes- any 02 kills them
b)Aerotolerant- can survive in a lil 02
3) Facultative- can grow both aerobically and anaerobically (most pathogens) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 Steps to DNA replication? |
|
Definition
1) Initiation
2) Elongation
3) Proofread Product
4) Termination |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 ways that Bacteria transfer DNA?
Which is the most common? |
|
Definition
1) Transformation- bacteria dies/lysis. DNA fragments are taken up by another
2)Transduction- virus infects bacteria and picks up some bacterial DNA. When it infects another bacteria it transfers the DNA to it
3) Conjugation- bacterial sex pili used to transfer whole chromosome or plasmids (most common, see transposons-jumping genes) |
|
|
Term
| Describe a Gram + cell Wall |
|
Definition
1) Structural proteins on outtermost part
2) Thick peptidoglycan
3)Cytoplasmic membrane that contains transport proteins
4) Not very complex |
|
|
Term
| Describe a Gram - Cell Wall |
|
Definition
1) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
a)O antigen
b)Core
c)Lipid A
2) Thin peptidoglycan layer
3)Periplasmic space- holds antibiotics to develop resistance
4) Cell membrane containing porins |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Steps to a Gram Stain |
|
Definition
1) Heat fix bacteria to slide
2) Flood with crystal violet which dyes all bacteria blue, then wash off
3) Flood with Grams Iodine which forms complex molecule in bacteria, wash off
4) Decolorize with alcohol or acetone- breaks up molecule in gram -
5) Add saffrennin- dyes gram - red |
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram stain of Group A Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Group A Strep transfered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of Group A Strep? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule
2) Hyaluronidase-eats tissue to cause necrotic
3) Streptolysin O/S- betahemolytic
4) Erthyrogenic toxin- rash
5) Streptokinase- dissolves clots
6) Streptodornase- dissolves clots
3) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 10 diseases caused by Group A Strep? |
|
Definition
1) Pharyngitis-most common bacterial cause
2) Fulminate pneumonia
3) Pyoderma- red hot skin
4) Erysipelas- skin peels off
5) impetigo- boils
6) Necrotizing Faciitis- flesh eating bacteria
7) Toxic Shock Syndrome
8) Scarlet Fever- rash
9) Rheumatic Fever- endocarditis due to heart valve damage
10) Acute glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
| How is Group A Strep diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1) Throat Culture
2) A Disk (Basitracin) on blood agar |
|
|
Term
| How is Group A Strep treated? |
|
Definition
1) Penicillin up to 9 days after diagnosis
2) Amputation/filet of necrotized tissue |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram and shape of Group B Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Virulence Factors for Group B Strep? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule
2) Hyaluronidase |
|
|
Term
Which types of Strep are betahemolytic?
Which ones are alphahemoltyic? |
|
Definition
Betahemolytic
1)Group A
2)Group B
3)Group C,G,F
Alpha-hemolytic
1)Strep. pneumonia
2)Viridans Srep |
|
|
Term
| How is Group B Strep transmitted? |
|
Definition
Vertical Transmission (Birth canal)
Treat women at 38weeks to prevent transfer to baby |
|
|
Term
| What 5 diseases are caused by Group B Strep? |
|
Definition
1) Neonatal sepsis/meningitis
2) Postpartum sepsis/meningitis
3) Sepsis
4) Osteomyelitis
5) Wound Infections |
|
|
Term
| How is Group B Strep Treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Group B Strep Diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram and shape of Group C,G,F Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 6 diseases are caused by Group C,G,F Strep |
|
Definition
1)Cellulitis
2)Endocarditis
3)Sinusitis
4)Abscess
5)Bacteremia
6)Pharyngitis |
|
|
Term
| How is Group C,G,F Strep treated? |
|
Definition
1) Amoxicillin
2) Penicillin |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain and shape of Strep. pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of strep. pneumonia? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule
2) Hyaluronidase |
|
|
Term
| How is Strep pneumonia transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 diseases caused by strep. pneumonia? |
|
Definition
1)Lobar Pneumonia
2)Meningitis
3)Sinusitis
4)Otitis Media
5)Mastoiditis
6)PErtonitis
7)Bacteremia |
|
|
Term
| What two groups are at risk for strep. pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease parallels strep. pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the vaccine for strep. pneumonia work? Who is it for? |
|
Definition
1)develops antibodies against the polysaccharides but doesnt cover all (19A)
2)for those over 60 |
|
|
Term
| How is Strep pneumonia diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| P Disk(Optochin) on blood agar |
|
|
Term
| How is Strep pneumonia treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram and shape of Viridans Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of Viridans Strep? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule
2) Hyaluronidase |
|
|
Term
| What 3 diseases does Viridans Strep cause? |
|
Definition
1)Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
2) Dental Carries
3) Abscess |
|
|
Term
| What is one specific type of Viridans Strep? What does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| Strep bovis indicates GI Cancer |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Viridans Strep? |
|
Definition
1) Aminoglycosides
2) Penicillin |
|
|
Term
| What two specific bacteria indicate GI cancer? |
|
Definition
1) Strep bovis
2) Clostridia septicum |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram and shape of Genus Enterococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 5 diseases are caused by Genus enterococcus? |
|
Definition
1) Vancomysin resistant enterococcus (VRE)
2) UTI
3) Wound Infections
4) Abscesses
5) Bacteremia |
|
|
Term
| How is genus enterococcus treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of an enteric? |
|
Definition
| gram - rod that is part of the normal bowel flora |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 bacteria that can cause meningitis? |
|
Definition
1) Group B Strep
2) Strep. pneumonia
3) Nisseria Meningiditis
4) Haemophilus influenzae |
|
|
Term
| What are the two bacteria that can grow on a Jembec plate? |
|
Definition
1) Nisseria Gonorrhea
2) Moraxella Catarrhalis |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of Staph. Aureus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of MRSA and how are they transmitted? |
|
Definition
1) Hospital acquired- hands to hands
2) Community Acquired- skin to skin |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 virulence Factors of Staph. Aureus? |
|
Definition
1) Enterotoxin (diarrhea, gastroenteritis, food poisoning)
2) Cytolytic (betahemolytic)
3) Toxic Shock syndrome Toxin
4) Exfoliative Toxin (scalded skin syndrome)
5) Protein A
6) Hyaluronidase
7) Lipase |
|
|
Term
| What are the _ diseases caused by Staph Aureus? |
|
Definition
1) Boils
2) Impetigo
3) carbuncles (pus filled lumps)
4) faruncles (severe carbuncles)
5) Food poisoning
6) Scalded skin syndrome
7) Toxic Shock Syndrome
8) Pneumonia
9) Bacteremia
7) Osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 symptoms of toxic shock syndrome? |
|
Definition
1) high fever
2) hypotension
3) diarrhea
4) mental confusion
5) renal failure
6)scaling/desquamation of palms and soles |
|
|
Term
| How is staph aureus diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1) Blood agar
2) Chocolate Agar
3) Selective Plates-oxacillin plate
4) NAATs
5) Catalase +
6) Coagulase +
7) betahemolytic |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 treatments for staph aureus? |
|
Definition
1) Oxacillin
2) Vancomysin
3) Cefazolin
4) Rifampin |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of staph saprophyticus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases does staph saprophyticus cause? |
|
Definition
| UTI in women of child bearing age |
|
|
Term
| How is staph saprophyticus treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you differentiate between staph aureus and staph saprophyticus |
|
Definition
staph aerus is coagulase +
staph saprophyticus is coagulase - |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of Nisseria gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
| Gram - dipplococci intracellular |
|
|
Term
| What other bacterial infection often occurs with GC? |
|
Definition
Chlamydia (50% chance)
Increased susceptibility to get HIV |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 characteristics of Cervicitis in GC? |
|
Definition
1) Abnormal mucopurulent vaginal discharge
2) easy cervical bleeding
3)intermenstrual bleeding
4) dysuria (painful urination)
5) lower abdominal pain
6) dyspareunia (painful sex) |
|
|
Term
What are the 6 diseases caused by GC in women?
What percentage show no symptoms? |
|
Definition
1) cervicitis
2) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
3) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome (PID in abs)
4) Bartholinitis
5) Vulvovagintis
6) Proctitis
50% asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
What are the 5 diseases caused by GC in men?
What percentage show no symptoms? |
|
Definition
1) urethritis (mucopurulent dischange)
2) Dysuria
3) Epididymitis
4) Prostatitis
5) PRoctitis
10% asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 infections by GC not directly associated with women or men? |
|
Definition
1)oropharyngeal
2) opthalmia neonatorium (baby eye infection)
3) Disseminated gonococcal infection (in blood) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 ways you can diagnose GC? |
|
Definition
1) Urethral swab/vaginal swab
2) Chocolate agar based plates
3) Jembec plate
4) DNA probe
5) NAATs
6) Gram stain showing intracellular |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1) Quinolones which have increased resistance
2) Cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of nisseria menigiditis? |
|
Definition
| gram - diplococci not intracellular |
|
|
Term
| How is nisseria minigiditis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 virulence factors of nisseria menigiditis? |
|
Definition
1) capsule
2) pili
3) ALOT of lipid A |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 diseases caused by nisseria meningiditis? |
|
Definition
1) meningococcemia (in blood)
2) meningitis
3) Pharyngitis
4) Sinusitis
5) Primary pneumonia
6) DIC |
|
|
Term
| When diagnosing a spinal tap for nisseria meningiditis, what are the two conditions you look for? |
|
Definition
1) lots of organisms with no WBCs
2) no organisms with lots of WBCs |
|
|
Term
| How is nisseria meningiditis treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of moraxella catarrhalis? |
|
Definition
| gram - cocci in pairs (not intracellular) |
|
|
Term
What four diseases are caused by moraxella catarrhalis?
What must exist for them to occur? |
|
Definition
1) bronchitis
2) sinusitis
3) otitis Media
4) pneumonia
COPD or other pre-existing condition |
|
|
Term
| How is moraxella catarrhalis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of Haemophilus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by haemophilus egyptius? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by haemophilus aphrophilius? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by haemophilus pareinfluenzae?> |
|
Definition
| upper respiratory infection |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by haemophilus duereyi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is haemophilus influenzae transmitted? |
|
Definition
| person to person via aersol |
|
|
Term
| What are the four diseases caused by haemophilus influenzae? |
|
Definition
1) meningitis (HIBHIV vaccine stops most)
2) Cellulitis
3) otitis media
4) Respiratory infection |
|
|
Term
| How is haemophilus influenzae diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1) Grows on chocolate agar
2) satelites around staph on a blood agar |
|
|
Term
| Why does haemophilus influenzae require chocolate agar plates and not blood? |
|
Definition
| haemophilus influenzae needs broke down cell parts to work |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for haemophilus influenzae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of bordetella pertusis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of whooping cough? |
|
Definition
1) catarrhal- runny nose
2) paroxysmal- whooping cough/cyanosis
3) convalescent- get better or die |
|
|
Term
| How is bordatella pertusis transmitted? |
|
Definition
| person to person via upper respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| Who are the two groups at risk for bordatella pertusis? |
|
Definition
1) infants before all 3 vaccinations
2) children 8-11 |
|
|
Term
| What is the virulence factor of bordatella pertusis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 diagnosis for bordatella pertusis? |
|
Definition
1) REgan-Lowe plate with charcoal to absorb toxin (grows as mercury droplets)
2) Flourescent staining
3) PCR |
|
|
Term
| What is the best sample for bordatella pertusis? |
|
Definition
| nasopharyngeal swab transported in tube with charcoal |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of shigella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of shigella and where are they found? |
|
Definition
Shigella dysenteriae- 3rd world
Shigella flexneri-USA |
|
|
Term
Does shigella have a high or low infecting dose?
Does shigella incubate for long or short time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is shigella transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the virulence factor of shigella? |
|
Definition
| Shigella toxin that binds to ribosome to stop protein synthesis |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 symptoms of shigella? |
|
Definition
1) diarrhea
2) Gastroenteritis
3) Nausea
4) Vomiting
5) Cramps |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for shigella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of salmonella |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does salmonella have a high or low infecting dose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two virulence factors of salmonella? |
|
Definition
1) cytotoxins
2) enterotoxins |
|
|
Term
| What is one specific type of salmonella and what does it cause |
|
Definition
| Salmonella typhi- thypoid fever |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 symptoms of salmonella? |
|
Definition
1) Gastroenteritis
2) Fever
3) diarrhea
4) loss of appetite |
|
|
Term
| How is salmonella treated?> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain for Yersinia Entercolitica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of yersina entercolitica? |
|
Definition
1) enterotoxin
2) betalactamase |
|
|
Term
| What are sources of yersina entercolitica?> |
|
Definition
| cattle, pig, deer, birds, unchlorinated water |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 symptoms of yersina entercolitica? |
|
Definition
1) actue entercolitis
2) Actue gastroenteritis
3) acute mesenteric lymphadenititis
4) Mimics appendicitis
5)diarrhea
6) fever |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes symptoms that mimic appendicitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What plate is used to diagnose yersina entercolitica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of yersina entercolitica? |
|
Definition
1) usually clears on own
2) aminoglycosides
3) quinolones |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of Helicobacter pylori |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 diseases are caused by helicobacter pylori? |
|
Definition
1)stomach ulcers
2) dyspepsia
3) gastritis |
|
|
Term
| How is heliobacter pylori diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1) Culture of antrad biopsy
2) CLO test (red=+, green=-) testing for urease which makes stomach acid not harmful to bacteria
3) silver stain
4) serology
5) antigen test on stool |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of helicobacter pylori? |
|
Definition
| Triple Therapy with protein pump inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of campylobacter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is very specific about campylobacter's growth needs |
|
Definition
1) microaerophillic
2) grows at elevated temp 42C |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of campylobacter? |
|
Definition
| kenneled/house pets, undercooked poultry |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 symptoms of Campylobacter? |
|
Definition
1) diarrhea
2) abdominal cramps
3) Fever
4) Vomiting |
|
|
Term
| What is used to treat campylobacter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is important to note about patients taking erythromycin? |
|
Definition
| it causes stomach upset so many people stop using it prematurely |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram for pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does pyoveradin do? which bacteria produces it? |
|
Definition
1) turns wounds green
2) psuedomonas aeruginosa |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 virulence factors of psuedomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule
2) Pili
3) Lipid A
4) Exotoxin A
5) Elastase
6) Cytotoxin |
|
|
Term
| What are teh 5 Resistance factors of psuedomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
1) beta-lactamase
2) decreased permeability
3) altered transpeptidase
4) enzymatic hydrolysis
5) Altered DNA Gyrase |
|
|
Term
| What preexisting condition has a 100% rate of having psuedomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 diseases caused by psuedomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
1) UTI
2) Infections of wounds, burns, ulcers
3) external otitis
4) Septicemia
5) Eye infections
6) Lung infections
7) hot tub folliculitis |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria grows clear on a MacConkey agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for psuedomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of mycobacteria leprae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of mycobacteria leprae? |
|
Definition
1) Cell wall Waxes
2) Cord Factor |
|
|
Term
| How is mycobacteria leprae diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1) cant be cultured
2) based on symptoms |
|
|
Term
| What general disease is caused by mycobacteria leprae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two symptom (diseases) classes of mycobacteria leprae? |
|
Definition
1) Lepromatous- disfigures face, ears, etc, invades PNS for sensory loss
2) Tuberculoid- acts like TB |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of mycobacteria tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many cases of mycobacteria tuberculosis are dormant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 virulence factors of mycobacteria tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
1) Cell wall waxes
2) cord factor |
|
|
Term
| How is mycobacteria tuberculosis trasmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where to mycobacteria tuberculosis develop in the body> |
|
Definition
| inside macrophages in the lungs |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of mycobacteria tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
1) Hilar and mediastinal lymph node swelling
2) granulomas in lungs
3) long history of weight loss, night sweats, coughing, malase |
|
|
Term
| What group of people are most likely to carry mycobacteria tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
| Foreign born people who sometimes have the vaccine giving them a positive skin test |
|
|
Term
| What diagnostic tests are used for mycobacteria tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
1) skin test
2) Culture of sputum
3) Acid Fast Stain
4) Quantification on gold |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for mycobacteria tuberculosis?
What is one side effect to look for? |
|
Definition
Directly observed therapy- 3 drug combo for 9 months to a year watching the patient take it
2) potential liver damage |
|
|
Term
| What does MOTT Stand for? |
|
Definition
| Mycobacteria Other Than TB |
|
|
Term
| What MOTT is very common among Aids patients? |
|
Definition
| Mycobacteria avium-intracellular (MAC,MAI) |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Mycobacteria avium-intracellular? |
|
Definition
| Looks like TB, pneumonia, bacteremia, lessions in bone marrow, spleen, and liver |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of mycobacteria avium-intracellular? |
|
Definition
| 4-5 drugs, never cured only contained |
|
|
Term
| What MOTT causes cervical lymphadentis? |
|
Definition
| Mycobacteria scrofulaceum |
|
|
Term
| WHat MOTT is found in fish tanks and causes wound infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram of Yersina Pestis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 virulence factors of Yersinia Pestis? |
|
Definition
1) pesticin- kills other organisms
2) Fibrinolysin- lyses fibrin clots
3) coagulase
4) Capsule
5) Lipid A |
|
|
Term
What is the source of Yersinia pestis?
What is the reservoir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two disases caused by yersinia Pestis?
How are they transfered?
What is their fatality risk? |
|
Definition
1) Bubonic plage
a) isolated in humans
b) transfered flea to human
c) not that fatal
2) Pneumonic Plague
a) bubonic that spread to lungs
b) highly infectious person to person
c) fatal |
|
|
Term
| What plate does yersina pestis grow on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram for Brucella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 5 characteristics of Brucella? |
|
Definition
1) microaerophillic
2) grows on blood agar in 2-4 days
3) Biochemicaly inert
4) Highly infectious
5) Grows intracellularly |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of Brucella |
|
Definition
| cattle, dog, pigs, goats, unpasteurized milk |
|
|
Term
| Who is at greater risk for Brucella infections? |
|
Definition
1) Vets
2) abaitors (slaughterhouse workers) |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 symptoms of Brucella? |
|
Definition
1) Conjunctivitis
2) Enlarged lymph nodes
3) osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| What 3 drugs can be used to treat Brucella? |
|
Definition
1) Aminoglycosides
2) Gentamicin
3) Tetracycline |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of Francisella tularensis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 5 characteristics of Francisella tularensis? |
|
Definition
1) Nonencapsulated
2) Stains bipolar (red, clear, blue)
3) requires special media to grow
4) grows in 1-4 days
5) biochemically inert |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by francisella tularensis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 ways that francisella tularensis is transmitted? |
|
Definition
1) Anthropod bites
2) Contact with infected tissues/blood (hunters)
3) Ingestion
4) Inhalation (run over bunny cutting grass) |
|
|
Term
What is the source for Francisella tularensis?
What is the reservoir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 diagnostic tests for francisella tularensis? |
|
Definition
1) Serology- most used
2) Culture of lymph nodes
3) Tissue IFA |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 drugs used to treat Francisella tularensis? |
|
Definition
1) Streptomycin
2) Chlorophenicol
3) Genatmicin
4) Tetracycline |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of Pasteurella multicida |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 2 characteristics of Pasteurella multicida? |
|
Definition
1) Capsulated
2) unique cell wall |
|
|
Term
| What are the sources of pasteurella multicida? |
|
Definition
| scratches from cats, swine, dogs, rats |
|
|
Term
| What type of infections does pasteurella multicida cause |
|
Definition
1) wound infections
2) chronic skin ulcers
3) Osteomyelitis |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for pasteurella multicida?
Why is it unique? |
|
Definition
1) Penicillin
2)due to the unique cell wall, it is the only gram - that can be treated with penicillin |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of Bartonella henselae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 5 diseases can be caused by Bartonella henselae? |
|
Definition
1) Cat Scratch Fever
2) Bacillary Angiomatosis
3) Relapsing Fever w/ bacteremia
4) Peliosis hepatis
5) Endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| What are teh sources for Bartonella henselae? |
|
Definition
| scratches from cats or contact with cat feces |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of cat scratch fever 3-10 days after scratch?
after 2 weeks? |
|
Definition
1) primary pustule at inoculation site
2) a)regional lymphadenopathy
b) Low grade fever
c) Headache/muscle ache
d) Cutaneous rash |
|
|
Term
| What are two tests used to diagnose Bartonella henselae (Cat Scratch Fever)? |
|
Definition
1) Clinical (tender nodes that develop over 3-4 weeks)
2) Histopathology (silver stain on lymph biopsy) |
|
|
Term
| Why are skin tests no longer used for Bartonella henselae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are serological tests no longer used for Bartonella henselae? |
|
Definition
| many people have the antibodies but not the infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Bartonella henselae?> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain for Treponema Pallidum? |
|
Definition
| gram - spiral "Spirochete" |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Treponema Pallidum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of Treponema Pallidum? |
|
Definition
1) Primary
2) Secondary
3) Latent
4) Tertiary |
|
|
Term
| What is the RPR and FTA of Treponema Pallidum during the secondary stage? |
|
Definition
| RPR=99%(peak before decrease) FTA=100% |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to diagnosis syphilis during the primary or secondary stage? |
|
Definition
| during the latent stage RPR decreases till undetectable... Asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of tertiary syphilis? |
|
Definition
| Gummas, CNS infections (dementia) |
|
|
Term
| What are the tests for syphilis? |
|
Definition
1) VDRL- only done in reference labs for tertiary syphilis
2) Rapid Plasma Region (RPR)- agglutination test with dilutions
3) FTA-ABS- looks for syphilis antibodies (once positive always positive)
4) Immunofluorensce- for primary syphilis(scrap ulcer for organisms) |
|
|
Term
| Why can RPR for syphilis be a false negative? |
|
Definition
| nonspecific can be positive for viral infections (VZV, Hepatitis, EBV) autoimmune (rheumatoid arthritis, lupus), and pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is Chlamydia impossible to gram stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 stages of the Chlamydia life cycle? |
|
Definition
1) infectious elementary bodies infect a macrophage
2) Multiply in macrophage
3) Lyse macrophage to release many elementary bodies
4) repeat |
|
|
Term
| What STD occurs often with Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 7 symptoms of chlamydia in males? |
|
Definition
1)mucopurulent discharge
2) Dysuira
3) Conjunctivitis
4) Urethritis
5) Postatitis
6) Reiters syndrome
7) Epididymitis |
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms of chlamydia in females? |
|
Definition
1) mucopurlent dischange
2) edamatous (swollen with fluid) cervical ectopy with erthemia (red and painful)
3) conjunctivitis
4) urethritis
5) cervicitis
6) proctitis
7) PID
8) endometritis
9)Salpinitis
10) Perihepatitis
11) Reiters syndome
12) Infertility
13) Ectopic pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| what tests are used for Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
1) sample of dischange
2) Culture (100% accurate used for sexual abuse cases only)
3) NAAT |
|
|
Term
| Why is screening for Chlamydia important? |
|
Definition
can decrease incidence of PID by 50% and help prevent its spread to others
also it is usually asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of e.coli? |
|
Definition
1) Enterotoxigenic
2) Enteroinvasive
3) Enterohemorrhagic (E.col0157h7
4) Enterophathogenic |
|
|
Term
| What test can be used to find ecoli0157h7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for e.coli? |
|
Definition
cephalosporins
aminoglycosides |
|
|
Term
| What is the scientific name for an anaerobic infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 clues you have an anaerobic infection? |
|
Definition
1) Foul odor
2) gas in tissue
3) Tissue necrosis
4) Black discoloration
5) unique morphology
6) gram + stain, but no agar growth |
|
|
Term
| What causes many OBGYN anaerobic infections |
|
Definition
| IUD, bacteria adhere to it |
|
|
Term
| What group is most likely to suffer from an anaerobic thoracic infection? |
|
Definition
| alcoholics that aspirate saliva leading to lung infections |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 virulence factors of anaerobic infections? |
|
Definition
1) Necrotizing enzymes- cause gas gange green
2) Phospholipase
3) Hemolysin- lyses RBCs
4) Protease
5) Hyaluronidase
6) Enterotoxins- gastroenteritis
7) Spore Formation |
|
|
Term
| What are the two best samples for anaerobic infections? |
|
Definition
1) aspirates
2) Tissue samples |
|
|
Term
How do you transport anaerobic organisms?
where do they grow? |
|
Definition
1) in syringe
2) anaerobic enviroment machine |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain for Clostrida? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does Clostridia perfringes cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does Clostridia botulinum cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does Clostridia septicum cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does Clostridia tetani cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two parts of a Clostrida difficle bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are sources of Clostrida difficle? |
|
Definition
| Human feces, hospitals, soil and water |
|
|
Term
| What are the virulence factors of clostridia difficle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does clostridia difficle infect? |
|
Definition
antibiotics kill all normal flora so clostrida difficle can florish.
4-10 after starting antibiotics
up to two weeks after stoping them. |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of toxin A produced by the vegetative part of clostridia difficle? |
|
Definition
| causes cells to lyse and unable to control water movements to cause intense diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| How is clostridia difficle transmitted? |
|
Definition
fecal oral
aerosols by spores |
|
|
Term
| What are psuedomembranes, what bacteria causes them? |
|
Definition
1) membranes that obliterate the bowel to inhibit function
2) clostridia difficle |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 symptoms of clostrida difficle? |
|
Definition
1) abdominal pain
2) watery diarrhea
3) Ileus- blocked bowel
4) WBCs in stool |
|
|
Term
| What are the two best ways to diagnose clostrida difficle? |
|
Definition
1) Immunoassay looking for toxin a and b only 70% right
PCR |
|
|
Term
| Who is at risk for clostrida difficle? |
|
Definition
| elderly have a high mortality, and anyone in a longterm care facility or hospital. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of clostrida difficle? |
|
Definition
1) community onset
2) community associated
3) hospital onset
4) long term care onset |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of clostrida difficle? |
|
Definition
1) Stop antibiotics
2) Anti-C difficle drugs- metronidazole(never vancomysin for it can lead to VRE)
3)Fecal transplant |
|
|
Term
| What is the shape of clostridia difficle in a gram stain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain of legionella pneumophilia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is legionella pneumophila aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of legionella pneumophilia? |
|
Definition
| contaiminated water in AC for large bldgs |
|
|
Term
| Who is at risk for a legionella pneumophilia infection? |
|
Definition
1) Vets
2) Those with impaired respiratory defense (smokers, alcoholics, elderly) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 diseases caused by legionella pneumophilia? |
|
Definition
1) Multilobar pneumonia
2) Extensive X ray findings (looks obliterated
3) Nonproductive cough (no sputum)
4) No pathogen seen in culture/no gram stain
5) No response to tradtition therapy
6)Extrapulomary findings (kidney/liver failure) |
|
|
Term
| What is test for legionella pneumophilia? |
|
Definition
| 1) Urinary antigen test (grows like ground glass) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for legionella pneumophilia? |
|
Definition
| erythromycin because it can get into the macrophages were it is |
|
|
Term
| What are the four classes of fungi? |
|
Definition
1) Zygomacetes
2) Ascomycetes
3) Basidiomycetes
4) Deuteromycetes |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics separate 1) zygomycetes, and 2) Dueteromycetes from the other fungi |
|
Definition
1) as aseptate
2) are imperfect fungi "no sexual reproduction" |
|
|
Term
What are the types ways of which poisonous mushrooms onset their syptoms?
Which is worse and why? |
|
Definition
1) Rapid onset, delayed onset
2) delayed is worst because you cant easily ID what caused it |
|
|
Term
| What fungi is penicillin derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 types of fungi (how they cause disease)? |
|
Definition
1) Allergic-allergies
2) Mycotoxicosis- ingest toxin
3) Superficial- remain on skin
4) Subcutaneous- skin and lymph
5) Systemic- invasive everywhere |
|
|
Term
State the area of infection for the following Tineas.
1)capitis
2) corpotis
3) barbae
4) unguium
5) cruris
6) pedis |
|
Definition
1) scalp
2) body
3) beard
4) unguium
5) groin
6) foot |
|
|
Term
| What is the food source for dermatophytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two symptoms of a generic dermatophyte infection? |
|
Definition
1) itching
2) inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What are two clinical methods for dermatophyte infections? |
|
Definition
1) KOH test looking for fungal elements
2) removal of infected nail |
|
|
Term
| What diseases does Trichophytan rubrum cause? |
|
Definition
1) Athletes foot (tinea pedis)
2) Nail infections
3) rare endothrix and exothrix hair infections |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Trichophytan rubrum? |
|
Definition
1) Itch
2) White chalky flaky skin |
|
|
Term
| What color does trichophytan rubrum grow on media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Trichophytan tonsurans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of trichophytan tonsurans? |
|
Definition
1) inflammation
2) white powdery looking scalp |
|
|
Term
| What are the sources of trichophytan tonsurans? |
|
Definition
1) comb
2) contact with infected person |
|
|
Term
| What color does trichophytan tonsurans grow on media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two trichophytan are anthropophilic? |
|
Definition
| trichophytan rubrum and tonsurans |
|
|
Term
| What trichophytan is zoophilic? |
|
Definition
| trichophytan mentagrophytes |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of trichophytan mentagrophytes? |
|
Definition
1) inflammation
2) lesions on scalp
3) kerions (pus lesions 2ndary to bacteria infections) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by micosporum canis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color does micosporum canis grow on media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungi are dimorphic? |
|
Definition
1) sporotrichosis
2) Histoplasmosis
3) Blastomycosis
4) Cryptococcis |
|
|
Term
| What fungi is a subcutaneous mycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
| sporothrix schenkii from soil an rose thorns |
|
|
Term
| Cigar bodies are formed by what fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two treatments for sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mycosis are oppertunistic infections (fungi)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is histoplasmosis located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| soil, forest floor, saves |
|
|
Term
| Where is blastomycosis located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of blastomycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungi forms spherules in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 8 stages of viral infection/replication? |
|
Definition
1) adsorption- adhere to cell
2) penetration
3) uncoated- capsid removed
4) transcription
5) translation
6) processing
7)replication
8) assembly |
|
|
Term
| Compare envelope and nonenvelope viruses |
|
Definition
envelope- bud from host cell and dont survive well in enviroment
nonenvelope- lyse host cell, live well in enviroment |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 layers of a virus? |
|
Definition
1) protein/carb group projections
2) capsid- protein coat around DNA/RNA
3) DNA/RNA |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 viruses that cause Encephalitis? |
|
Definition
1) California encephalitis
2) St. Louis encephalitis
3) Western Equire encephalitis
4) Herpes
5) Mumps
6) Enterovirus |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of aspergillosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungus causes a fungus ball to develop?? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to what fungal infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does zygomycosis start then finish |
|
Definition
| nose (inhalation)->eye->brain |
|
|
Term
| When is zygomycosis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What infection does candidosis cause? |
|
Definition
| Thrush- white patch on tongue |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of people most likely to get thrush? |
|
Definition
1) those on antibiotics
2) Aids (early sign) |
|
|
Term
| Where does candidosis desseminate to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of cryptococcosis |
|
Definition
| inhalation of spores from bird poop |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 viruses associated with gastroenteritis? |
|
Definition
1) rotavirus
2) Hepatitis A
3) Adenovirus
4) Calcivirus
5) norwalk virus
6) norovirus
7) sapovirus |
|
|
Term
| Is rotavirus a DNA or RNA virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the transmission method for rotavirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 sypmtoms of winter vomiting disease (rotavirus) |
|
Definition
1) vomit
2) diarrhea
3) green stool from bile
4) dehydration->hospital |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for rotavirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A? |
|
Definition
| 30 days with symptoms on and off |
|
|
Term
| What are the infection stages for Hepatitis A? |
|
Definition
1) shed in stool
2) increase in symptoms
3) spike in liver enzymes
4) increase and decrease of IgM and anti-HAV |
|
|
Term
| How is Hepatitis A diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| increased liver enzymes and IgM Test |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 highest sources of the Hepatitis A virus in the body? |
|
Definition
1) feces
2) serum
3) saliva |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 transmission methods for Hepatitis A? |
|
Definition
1) personal contact- sex
2) contaminated food/water
3) Blood exposure- IVs and transfusions |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 problems with the Hep A vaccine? |
|
Definition
1) greatly varies in efficacy
2) doesnt always protect you
3) wears off |
|
|
Term
| Who gets the Hep A vaccine? |
|
Definition
| travelers, gay men, drug users |
|
|
Term
| What hepatitis causes liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the high sources, medium sources, and low sources in the body for Hep B? |
|
Definition
High- blood, serum, wound exudates
Medium- semen, vaginal fluid, saliva (STD)
Low- urine, feces, sweat, tears, breast milk |
|
|
Term
| WHat are the 3 ways Hepatitis B is transmitted? |
|
Definition
1) Sexual
2) Parenteral (needles)
3) Perinatal (birth Canal) |
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period for Hepatitis B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the vaccine for Hep B very important |
|
Definition
| 15-25% die prematurely due to chronic infection |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference in the serological stages of Acute vs chronic Hep B? |
|
Definition
| in acute the HBsAG increases then decreases, while in chronic it remains high |
|
|
Term
| Which Hepatitis causes the most deaths and is related to liver cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of virus is Repsiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases does RSV cause in young children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Type A flu? |
|
Definition
fever and body ache for 3-5days
cough and lack of energy - 2 weeks |
|
|
Term
| What are the two transmission methods for Typa A flu? |
|
Definition
1) person to person via cough
2) fomites |
|
|
Term
| What do the H and N in a flu name stand for and how many options are there |
|
Definition
h- hemaggultinites 15
n- neuraminadase 9 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| small changes over time in H and N causeing new strands to replace the older ones- need for annual vaccine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Abrupt changes and reassortment in H and N creating a novel pandemic flu.
ex) swine, spanish, asian, hong kong flu |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 animals involved in antigenic drift mixing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| physicans who look for flu-like symptoms and send samples to state to keep track of what flus are circulating |
|
|
Term
| What does a typical flu vaccine contain? |
|
Definition
| 1 A, 1B, and 1 novel strain |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 viruses that fall under Herpes Virus? |
|
Definition
1) Herpes complex I and II
2) Varicella Zoster
3) Cytomegalovirus
4) Epstein Barr Virus |
|
|
Term
| What 6 diseases are caused by Herpes Simplex> |
|
Definition
1) gingiovostomatitis- seen first
2) keratoconjunctivitis
3) herpetic whitlow - dentists
4) adult necrotizing encephalitis
5) neonatal encephalitis
6) herpes genitalis- STD |
|
|
Term
| Where does the herpes virus reside in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose herpes?> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 diseases caused by Varicella Zoster? |
|
Definition
1) chicken pox
2) pneumonitis in immunosuppressed
3) shingles |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical look of chicken pox> |
|
Definition
| dew drops on a rose petal |
|
|
Term
| Why do all health care providers need to get a varicella zosters vaccine? |
|
Definition
| causes pneumonitis in immunosuppressed |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 stages of replication for varicella zoster? |
|
Definition
1) attachment to host cell
2) entry into host cell
3) uncoating
4) replication of parts
5) assembly of virus
6) escape from host cell |
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Term
| What two diseases are caused by entameba histolytica? |
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Definition
1) acute colitis- abdominal pain, cramps, diarrhea with blood
2) fulminate amebic colitis- bloody diarrhea, liver abscesses |
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Term
| What does the stool of a person with entameba histolytica look like? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How is entameba histolytica transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of entameba histolytica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two major groups of parasites? |
|
Definition
1) Protozoan- single celled
2) Helminths- multicelled |
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|
Term
| What major parasite group does entameba histolytica fall under? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What major parasite group does giardia fall under? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does giardia cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of beaver fever? |
|
Definition
1) acute giardiosis
nausea and GI discomfort
2) chronic reccurent diarrhea- headache, myalgia, and weight loss for up to two years |
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Term
| What is the stool like for a giardia infection? |
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Definition
| explosive, foul smelling, frothy diarrhea for 3-4 days |
|
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Term
| Why is giardia poop frothy? |
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Definition
| organism inhibits absorption of lipids |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of giardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common way to test for parasites that are protozoan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parasite has no cyst stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 5=4 diseases does trichomonas cause? |
|
Definition
1) vaginitis
2) cystitis
3) urethritis- STd
4) burning/itchy discharge |
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|
Term
| What parasite can be seen in urine occasionally? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two hosts needed for a Cestode parasite? |
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Definition
1) Intermediate host (cow)- parasite develops into larva
2) Definitive host (person)- larva develop into adult parasite |
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Term
| What are the 7 stages of a cestode life cycle? |
|
Definition
1) adult worm in instintes of D host
2) eggs are passed in poop of D host
3) eggs are eaten by I host
4) Larva develop in tissues of I host
5) D host eats flesh of I host
6) scolex (head of worm) attaches to D host intestines
7) adult worm grows, repeat cycle |
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Term
| What is the science name for tape worm? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of tapeworm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parasite is hermaphroditic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parasites require male and females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a tape worm have that helps it attach to the intestinal wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you remove a tape worm infection? |
|
Definition
| remove head from intestinal wall |
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|
Term
| The parasite ascaris falls under what major group of parasites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the parasite ascaris look like? |
|
Definition
| white earth worm minus the bandaid |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of the parasite ascaris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the 5 stages of the life cycle of ascaris? |
|
Definition
1) unembryonated eggs in soil mature for 2 to 3 weeks
2) ingest eggs, larva hatch in the duodenum and leave via the bloodstream to liver->heart->lungs
3) larva break out of capillaries into alveolar space
4) larva go into trachea where they are swallowed?
5)relocate to the intestines to repeat cycle |
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Term
| What major group of parasites does pinworm fall under? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which parasite is bigger? ascaris or pinworm? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What parasite causes white itchy patches due to it crawling just under the skin? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What kind of toxin does a brown recluse spider release? |
|
Definition
| cytotoxin leading to necrotic ulcer |
|
|
Term
| What kind of toxin does a black widow spider release? |
|
Definition
| neurotoxin leading to cramps |
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