Term
| 1. 4 characteristics regarding bacteria |
|
Definition
| 1) PROKARYOTIC CELLS WITH UNORGANIZED DNA, 2) SINGLE-CELLED MICROSCOPIC ORGANISMS, 3) GENERALLY MUCH SMALLER THAN EUKARYOTIC CELLS, 4) VERY COMPLEX DESPITE THEIR SMALL SIZE |
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Term
| 2. _____ bacteria shape consists of spheres. |
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Definition
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Term
| 3. _____ bacteria shape consists of rods. |
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Definition
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Term
| 4. _____ bacteria shape consists of curved rods (common shaped). |
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Definition
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Term
| 5. _____ bacteria are spiral. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 6. _____ are strains of bacteria that consists of cocci that occur in clusters. |
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Definition
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Term
| 7. _____ are strains of bacteria that consists of coccus in tetrads due to irregular alteration of two planes of division. |
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Definition
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Term
| 8. _____ is a bacteria that is a common soil inhabitant, as well as good. It can form endospores that can germinate during improper storage of food. |
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Definition
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Term
| 9. _____ are spores that are resistant to heat. |
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Definition
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Term
| 10. _____ bacteria grow in the gut and produce a toxin causing severe dirrahoeal diseases. |
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Definition
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Term
| 11. _____ is an example of a spirochete that causes syphilis. |
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Definition
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Term
| 12. This person discovered a staining procedure that divided bacteria into two large groups. |
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Definition
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Term
| 13. In gram positive bacteria, the _____ is very thick. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 14. Gram negative bacteria contain _____ and _____ that gram positive layer does not. |
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Definition
| OUTER LAYER, PERIPLASMIC SPACE |
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Term
| 15. In gram staining, the crystal violet stain is trapped in the peptidoglycan layer of _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 16. Gram positive bacteria stain _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 17. This is the counterstain used to stain gram negative bacteria. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 18. Gram negative bacteria stain _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 19. 3 characteristics of gram positive bacteria. |
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Definition
| 1) THICK PEPTIDOGLYCAN LAYER, 2) CONTAIN TELCHOIC ACIDS, 3) NO LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDES |
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Term
| 20. 3 characteristics of gram negative bacteria. |
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Definition
| 1) THIN PEPTIDOGLYCAN LAYER, 2) NO TELCHOIC ACIDS, 3) CONTAIN AN OUTER LAYER OF LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDES |
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Term
| 21. _____ is the most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria. |
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Definition
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Term
| 22. _____ and _____ are the major genus of acid-fast bacteria. |
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Definition
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Term
| 23. Mycobacterium have a high concentration of_____ in their cell walls. |
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Definition
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Term
| 24. _____ is a physical property of some bacteria referring to their resistance to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. |
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Definition
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Term
| 25. Acid fast bacteria will dye _____, while non-acid fast bacteria will dye. |
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Definition
| REDDISH PINK, BLUE. REDDISH PINK, BLUE |
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Term
| 26. 4 steps in how to acid-fast stain. |
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Definition
| 1) A SAMPLE OF CELLS IS MIXED WITH A DROP OF WATER ON AND THE SLIDE IS HEAT FIXED, 2) SLIDE IS DYED WITH CARBOL FUSCHIN AND ALLOWED TO SIT FOR 15 MIN, 3) SLIDE IS DECOLORIZED WITH ACID ALCOHOL, 4) SLIDE IS COUNTERSTAINED WITH METHYLENE BLUE |
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Term
| 27. _____ is the cause of tuberculosis. |
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Definition
| MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS |
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Term
| 28. _____ is the cause f leprosy. |
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Definition
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Term
| 29. A few bacteria have a very _____ that makes them acid-fast. |
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Definition
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Term
| 30. _____ are structures formed in adverse environmental conditions such as drying, toxic chemicals, pH, and temperature change. It has a thick specialized wall with low water content of enclosed resting cells. |
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Definition
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Term
| 31. Endospores are formed in response to adverse conditions by _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 32. These 2 strains of bacteria have the largest outer capsule. |
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Definition
| STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE, KLEBISELLA |
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Term
| 33. These are 2 genus of spore formers that are medically and economically important. |
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Definition
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Term
| 34. _____ causes tetanus. |
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Definition
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Term
| 35. _____ causes gas gangrene. |
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Definition
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Term
| 36. _____ causes botulism. |
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Definition
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Term
| 37. _____ causes anthrax. |
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Definition
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Term
| 38. _____ causes food poisoning. |
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Definition
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Term
| 39. _____ is the growing cell/developmental stage of bacteria. |
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Definition
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Term
| 40. _____ is the process of forming an endospore within a vegetative cell. |
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Definition
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Term
| 41. _____ is a resting period of bacteria, when there is slowed metabolism. It may last for years. |
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Definition
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Term
| 42. _____ is a process which reverse the endospore stage back to the vegetative state. |
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Definition
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Term
| 43. _____ is the gelatinous layer covering the entire bacterium. |
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Definition
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Term
| 44. 4 importance’s of the capsule. |
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Definition
| 44. 1) IT IS A DETERMINANT OF VIRULENCE OF MANY BACTERIA, 2) SPECIFIC IDENTIFICATION OF AN ORGAISM, 3) CAPSULAR POLYSACCHARIDES ARE USED AS THE ANTIGENS IN CERTAIN VACCINES, 4) ADHERANCE OF BACTERIA TO HUMAN TISSUES |
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Term
| 45. _____ are long, whiplike appendages that move the bacteria toward nutrients and other attractants. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 46. _____ is the process of bacteria moving toward nutrients and other attractants. |
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Definition
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Term
| 47. 2 medical importance’s of flagella. |
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Definition
| 1) SOME SPECIES OF MOTILE BACTERIA SUCH AS E. COLI AND PROTEUS SPECIES ARE COMMON CAUSES OF UTI’S, 2) SOME SPECIES LIKE SALMONELLA ARE IDENTIFIED BY THE USE OF SPECIFIC ANTIBODIES AGAINST FLAGELLAR PROTEINS |
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Term
| 48. _____ is an example of a microorganism with a polar flaggelation. |
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Definition
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Term
| 49. Flagella attached at one end are _____, and flagella attached to both ends are _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 50. _____ is when flagella is attached at many sites around a cell periphery. |
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Definition
| PERITRICHOUS FLAGELLATION |
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Term
| 51. This is an example of a organism with a peritrichous flagellation. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 52. _____ is having two flagella, one at either end of a cell. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 53. _____ is having two or more flagella at a polar attachment point. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 54. _____ are hair like filaments that extend from the cell surface, they are shorter and straighter than flagella and are composed of subunits of protein. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 55. Pili (fimbriae) are found mainly on _____ organisms. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 56. Pili mediate the attachment of bacteria to _____ on the _____. |
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Definition
| SPECIFIC RECEPTORS; HUMAN CELL SURFACE |
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Term
| 57. Bacteria reproduce by _____, in which one parent divides to form two progeny cells. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 58. 4 stages of the bacterial growth cycle. |
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Definition
| 1) LAG PHASE, 2) LOG PHASE, 3) STATIONARY PHASE, 4) DEATH PHASE |
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|
Term
| 59. _____ phase of the bacterial growth cycle is when vigorous metabolic activity occurs, but cells do not divide. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 60. _____ phase of the bacterial growth cycle is when rapid cell division occurs. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 61. _____ phase of the bacterial growth cycle is when the growth slows and ceases entirely due to nutrient depletion and toxic produce accumulation. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 62. _____ phase of the bacterial growth cycle is marked by a decline in the number of viable bacteria. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 63. _____ is circular DNA present inside a bacterium. |
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Definition
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Term
| 64. Plasmids carry genes that important for these 4 functions. |
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Definition
| 1) ANTIBIOTIC RESISTANCE, 2) EXOTOXINS INCLUDING SEVERAL ENTEROTOXIS, 3) RESISTANCE TO HEAVY METALS LIKE MERCURY, 4) RESISTANCE TO UV LIGHT |
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|
Term
| 65. 3 mechanisms of bacterial gene transfer. |
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Definition
| . 1) CONJUGATION , 2) TRANSDUCTION, 3) TRANSFORMATION |
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Term
| 66. _____ is a mechanism of bacterial gene transfer when the bacteria transfer genes from one cell to another by means of cell to cell contact. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 67. _____ is a mechanism of bacterial gene transfer when there is a transfer of genes from one cell to another via a phage vector without cell to cell contact. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____ refers to the transfer of genes from one cell to another by means of naked DNA. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 69. _____ have an absolute requirement for oxygen. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 70. _____ can survive in the absence as well as the presence of oxygen. |
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Definition
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Term
| 71. _____ are killed by traces of oxygen. |
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Definition
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Term
| 72. _____ are spherical gram positive cocci arranged in irregular grapelike clusters. |
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Definition
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Term
| 73. All staphylococci produce _____, where streptococci do not. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 74. 3 species of staphylococci that are human pathogens. |
|
Definition
| . 1) STAPH AUREUS, 2) STAPH EPIDERMIDIS, 3) STAPH SAPROPHYTICUS |
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|
Term
| 75. The typical lesion of a staphylococcus aureus infection is an _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 76. 3 important toxins and enzymes produces by S. aureus. |
|
Definition
| 1) ENTEROTOXIN, 2) TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME TOXIN, 3)EXFOLIATIN |
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|
Term
| 77. _____ is a staph aureus toxin that causes vomiting and nonbloody diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 78. _____ is a staph aureus toxin that causes toxic shock, especially in tampon using menstruating women, or in individuals with wound infections. |
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Definition
| TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME TOXIN |
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|
Term
| 79. _____ is a staph aureus toxin that causes scalded skin syndrome in young children. |
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Definition
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Term
| 80. Is staph aureus gram positive or gram negative? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 81. Staph aureus is sometimes termed a _____, because of its ability to become resistant to several antibiotics. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 82. _____ stands for methicillin resistant staph aureus. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 83. _____ is a part of normal flora that can cause infections of intravenous catheters and prosthetic implants. Infections from this bacteria are almost always hospital acquired. |
|
Definition
| STAPHLYOCOCCUS EPIDERMIDIS |
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|
Term
| 84. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a major cause of _____ in neonates and of _____ in patients with renal failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 85. _____ is the second cause of UTI’s in young women. Most women who get UTI’s with this infection have had sexual intercourse within the previous 24 hours. |
|
Definition
| STAPHYLOCOCCUS SAPROPHYTICUS |
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|
Term
| 86. What is the best prevention for staphylococcus saprophyticus. |
|
Definition
| URINATE AFTER INTERCOURSE |
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Term
| 87. _____ is the only coagulase positive form of staphylococcus. |
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Definition
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Term
| 88. _____ are spherical gram positive catalase negative cocci arranged in chains or pairs. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 89. One of the most important characteristics for identification of streptococci is the type of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90. _____ streptococci form a green zone around their colonies as a result of _____. |
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Definition
| ALPHA-HEMOLYTIC; INCOMPLETE LYSIS OF RBC’S IN AGAR |
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Term
| 91. _____ streptococci form a clear zone around their colonies because of _____. |
|
Definition
| BETA-HEMOLYTIC; COMPLETE LYSIS OF RBC’S |
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Term
| 92. _____ are streptococci that are non-hemolytic. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 93. This is an example of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 94. Streptococcus pyogens can cause these 4 diseases. |
|
Definition
| 1) PHARYNGITIS, 2) CELLULITIS, 3) RHEUMATIC FEVER, 4) ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS |
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|
Term
| 95. _____ is an example of a group B streptococci that normally occur in the gut and vagina. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 96. Streptococcus aglactiae cause _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| NEONATAL MENINGITIS, SEPTICEMIA |
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|
Term
| 97. How is strep agalactiae transmitted? |
|
Definition
| BABIES REQUIRE ORGANISM FROM MOTHER AT BIRTH, OR BY CONTACT BETWEEN BABIES IN NURSEY AFTER BIRTH |
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Term
| 98. _____ and _____ are used to treat strep agalatiae. |
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Definition
| PENICILLIN AND GENTAMYCIN |
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Term
| 99. _____ is the most common cause of pneumonia, and the leading cause of death in the elderly and those with impaired resistance. |
|
Definition
| 99. STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE |
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|
Term
| 100. Streptococcus pneumoniae is carried in the _____ of many healthy individuals, and a prior viral infection may predispose the person to a secondary infection of S. pneumoniae. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 101. _____ are part of the normal flora in the human pharynx. |
|
Definition
| 101. STREPTOCOCCUS VIRIDANS |
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Term
| 102. Streptococcus viridans are relative avirulent, but some can cause _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
| DENTAL CARIES; SUBACUTE BACTRIAL ENDOCARDITIS |
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Term
| 103. _____ are gram negative cocci that resemble paired kidney beans. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 104. 2 geni of Neisseria that are human pathogens. |
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Definition
| 1) N. MENINGITIDIS, 2) N. GONORRHOEA |
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Term
| 105. Neisseria gonorrhea causes _____, which is the 2nd most common notifiable STD in the USA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 106. 4 diseases caused by Neisseria Gonorrheae. |
|
Definition
| 1) NEONATAL CONJUNCTIVITES, 2) PID, 3) INFERTILITY, 4) SEPTIC ARTHRITIS |
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Term
| 107. _____ is one of the most frequent causes of meningitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 108. Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 109. 4 medically important genera of gram positive rods. |
|
Definition
| 1) BACILLUS, 2) CLOSTRIDIUM, 3) LYSTERIA, 4) CORYNEBACTERIUM |
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|
Term
| 110. _____ and _____ are gram positive rods that form spores. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 111. Members of the genus Bacillus are _____, whereas those of the genus Clostridium are _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 112. _____ was the first bacterium shown to be the causative agent of an infectious disease by Koch in 1877. |
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Definition
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Term
| 113. _____ causes anthrax, which is common in animals but rare in humans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 114. What is the mode of transmission of bacillus anthracis? |
|
Definition
| SPORES LIVE IN SOIL FOR YEARS |
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|
Term
| 115. The portals of entry of bacillus anthracis into humans is through the _____, _____, and _____. |
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Definition
| SKIN, MUCUS MEMBRANES, RESPIRATORY TRACT |
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Term
| 116. The typical lesion of bacillus anthracis is a painless ulcer with a black eschar called a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 117. Untreated cases of bacillus anthracis progresses to _____ and _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 118. _____ is a life threatening pneumonia caused by the inhalation of bacillus anthracis spores. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 119. _____ can occur if contaminated meat containing bacillus anthracis is ingested. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 120. _____ is the most effective treatment of bacillus anthracis. |
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Definition
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Term
| 121. _____ are diseases that under natural conditions are communicable from animals to humans. |
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Definition
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Term
| 122. 6 examples of zoonotic diseases. |
|
Definition
| ANTHRAX, BRUCELLOSIS, PSITTACOSIS, RABIES, TUBERCULOSIS, TAULAREMIA |
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|
Term
| 123. 4 early symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax. |
|
Definition
| 1) NAUSEA, 2) LOSS OF APPETITE, 3) VOMITING, 4) FEVER |
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|
Term
| 124. 3 later symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax. |
|
Definition
| 1) ABDOMINAL PAIN, 2) VOMITING OF BLOOD, 3) SEVERE DIARRHEA |
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Term
| 125. If one inhales anthrax, it causes _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 126. _____ is an example of a gram positive rod that causes food poisoning. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 127. What is the transmission of bacillus cereus. |
|
Definition
| SPORES ON GRAINS OF RICE THAT HAVE BEEN KEPT WARM FOR HOURS ENTER THE GI TRACT |
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|
Term
| 128. 2 syndromes associated with Bacillus cereus. |
|
Definition
| 1) ONE HAS A SHORT INCUBATION PERIOD (4 HOURS) AND CONSISTS PRIMARILY OF NAUSEA AND VOMITING, 2) ANOTHER HAS A LONG INCUBATION PERIOD (18 HOURS) AND CAUSES WATERY DIARRHEA |
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|
Term
| 129. 4 medically important clostridium species. |
|
Definition
| 1) ONE HAS A SHORT INCUBATION PERIOD (4 HOURS) AND CONSISTS PRIMARILY OF NAUSEA AND VOMITING, 2) ANOTHER HAS A LONG INCUBATION PERIOD (18 HOURS) AND CAUSES WATERY DIARRHEA |
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|
Term
| 130. All clostridium are _____, _____ gram positive rods. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 131. _____ causes tetanus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 132. What is the mode of transmission of clostridium tetani? |
|
Definition
| SPORES ENTER THROUGH INFECTED WOUNDS AND THEY GERMINATE IN THE NECROTIC TISSUE AND POOR BLOOD SUPPLY IN THE WOUND. |
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Term
| 133. If one is infected with tetanus, they will have these 5 symptoms. |
|
Definition
| 1) VIOLENT MUSCLE SPASMS, 2) LOCK JAW, 3) RISUS SARDONICUS, 4) EXAGGERATED REFLEXES, 5) HIGH MORTALITY RATE |
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|
Term
| 134. _____ is a grimaced look caused by clostridium tetani. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 135. The prevention of clostridium tetani is through a _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 136. _____ causes botulism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 137. Clostridium botulinim eventually causes _____. |
|
Definition
| FLACCID DESCENDING PARALYSIS |
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|
Term
| 138. 4 clinical findings associated with clostridium botulinum. |
|
Definition
| 1) DESCENDING PARALYSIS, 2) DIPLIPIA, 3) DYSPHAGIA, 4) RESPIRATORY MUSCLE FAILURE |
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|
Term
| 139. 4 steps in how clostridium botulinum causes descending paralysis. |
|
Definition
| 1) TOXIN ENTERS THROUGH GI TRACT, 2) ABSORBED AND CARRIED BY THE BLOOD STREAM, 3) ATTACHES TO THE PRESYNAPTIC TERMINALS OF CHOLINERGIC NERVES, 4) BLOCKS NEUROTRANSMITTERS RELEASE |
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Term
| 140. The mortality rate of type a botulism is _____, while other forms of botulism’s death rate is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 141. _____ is responsible for causing gas gangrene and food poisoning. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 142. _____ is the treatment of gas gangrene. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 143. _____ indicates the presence of gas in the tissues in a clostridium perfringens infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 144. _____ causes antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 145. Clostridium dificile is carried in the GI tract of _____% of the general population and up to _____% of hospitalized patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 146. _____ is the most common nosocomial cause of diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 147. Clostridium difficile is transmitted by the _____ route. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 148. _____ causes diptheriae, which is a rare disease in the USA. |
|
Definition
| CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPHTHERIAE |
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|
Term
| 149. _____ causes the psudomembrane in the posterior pharynx to enlarge and obstruct the airway. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 150. _____ are the only natural host of C. diphtheria, and they transmit the bacterium to each other by airborne droplets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 151. What is h clinical finding of corynebacterium diptheriae. |
|
Definition
| THICK, GRAY, ADHERENT MEMBRANE OVER THE TONSILS AND THROAT |
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|
Term
| 152. _____ causes meningitis and sepsis in newborns and immunosuppressed adults. It also causes outbreaks of febrile gastroentertitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 153. What is the mode of transmission of listeria monocytogens? |
|
Definition
| ORGANISMS COLONIZE THE GI TRACT AND FEMALE GENITAL TRACTS |
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|
Term
| 154. Infections of listeria monocytogens can pass through the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 155. 4 clinical findings associated with listeria monocytogens. |
|
Definition
| . 1) CAN CAUSE ABORTION, 2) PREMATURE DELIVERY, 3) SEPSIS FOLLOWING DELIVERY, 4) NEWBORNS CAN HAVE ACUTE MENINGITS 1-2 WEEKS LATER |
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|
Term
| 156. 3 neonatal causes of meningitis. |
|
Definition
| 1) GROUP B STREPTOCOCCUS, 2) E. COLI, 3) LISTERIA |
|
|
Term
| 157. _____ is a gram negative bacteria that is found normally in the gut of man and animals. It way colonize the lower end of the urethra and vagina. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 158. E. coli spreads by _____, _____, or _____. |
|
Definition
| . FECAL-ORAL ROUTE; CONTAMINATED FOOD, MAY BE ENDOGENOUS |
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|
Term
| 159. E. coli is the most common cause of these 4 conditions. |
|
Definition
| 1) UTI, 2) GRAM NEGATIVE ROD SEPSIS, 3) NEUNATAL MENINGITIS, 4) TRAVELERS DIARRHEA |
|
|
Term
| 160. _____ is one of the most common causes of bacterial enterocolitis in the USA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 161. Salmonella can cause these 3 diseases. |
|
Definition
| 1) ENTEROCOLITIS, 2) TYPHOID FEVER, 3) SEPSIS |
|
|
Term
| 162. The transmission of salmonella is through the _____ route. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 163. _____ are obligatory anaerobic gram negative rods. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 164. Members of the genus bacteroids are the predominant anaerobes found in the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 165. _____ are the most common cause of serious infections by anaerobic organisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 166. _____ is the antibiotic of choice used to treat bacteroids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 167. _____ is the bacteria that causes cholera. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 168. The transmission of vibrio cholera is through the _____ route. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 169. Prevention of cholera is achieved by public health measures that ensure _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
| CLEAN WATER, GOOD FOOD HYGEINE |
|
|
Term
| 170. _____ is having bloody dysentery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 171. _____ is the gram negative bacteria that causes enterocolitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 172. The transmission of shigella is through the _____ route. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 173. The main treatment of shigellosis is _____ and _____ replacement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 174. _____ is a gram negative rod that is responsible for causing diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 175. The transmission of campylobacter jejuni is through contaminated _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 176. _____ is a gram negative rod that causes gastritis, duodenal ulcers, and is associated with gastric carcinoma. |
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Definition
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Term
| 177. Infections of helicobacter pylori occur in _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 178. What is the treatment of helicobacter pylori? |
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Definition
| PROTON PUMP INHIBITORS AND ANTIBIOTICS |
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Term
| 179. _____ causes necrotizing lobar pneumonia in individuals comprised by alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic pulmonary disease. |
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Definition
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Term
| 180. _____ is a gram negative rod that most often affects immunocompromised patients. It usually causes a variety of diseases and over 80% of people who are affected die. |
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Definition
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Term
| 181. _____ produces infection in wounds and burns giving rise to a blue/green pus. |
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Definition
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Term
| 182. _____ is a gram negative rod that causes pneumonia in adults, primarily those with chronic obstructive lung disease. It also causes upper respiratory tract infections and sepsis in children. |
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Definition
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Term
| 183. _____ is a gram negative rod that causes atypical pneumonia both in the community and hospitalized immunocompromised patients. |
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Definition
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Term
| 184. Legionella is transmitted through an _____, acquired by the inhalation of contaminated water from showers, air conditioning systems, and cooling towers. |
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Definition
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Term
| 185. _____ is the treatment for legionella. |
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Definition
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Term
| 186. _____ is a gram negative rod that causes whooping cough through airborne spread. |
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Definition
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Term
| 187. _____is a zoonotic infection that causes an acute onset of redness, pain, and swelling. |
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Definition
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Term
| 188. The term bubonic refers to _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 189. _____ is a zoonotic bacteria that causes the plague. |
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Definition
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Term
| 190. _____ are the vector that spreads Yersinia pestis. |
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Definition
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Term
| 191. _____ is the drug of choice in treating the plague. |
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Definition
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Term
| 192. _____ is a zoonotic infection that causes brucellosis (undulant fever) |
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Definition
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Term
| 193. Prevention of Brucella depends on eliminating the disease from domestic animals by _____ and _____. |
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Definition
| VACCINATION; PASTEURIZATION OF MILK |
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Term
| 194. _____ is a zoonotic disease that causes tularemia (glandular fever) |
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Definition
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Term
| 195. Francisella tularensis is transmitted through the bite of infected _____ and through _____. |
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Definition
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