Shared Flashcard Set

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Micro Test 1
Steve's Questions
206
Health Care
Professional
12/09/2011

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Cards

Term
1. _____ is the study of microorganisms, including protozoans, fungi, bacteria, and viruses.
Definition
MICROBIOLOGY
Term
2. _____ was the first person to see microorganisms.
Definition
ANTON VAN LEEUWENHOEK
Term
3. What year did Leeuwenhoek first discover the “little animals” we now call microbes?
Definition
1676
Term
4. This person may legitimately be regarded as the founding father of modern microbiology, and he was the one who described the causes of disease.
Definition
LOUIS PASTEUR
Term
5. Louis Pasteur developed a sterilization procedure called _____.
Definition
PASTEURIZATION
Term
6. Louis Pasteur is famous for discovering the _____ and _____ vaccinations.
Definition
ANTHRAX AND RABIES
Term
7. 3 things that Robert Koch is famous for.
Definition
7. 1) ISOLATED ANTHRAX BACILLUS, 2) DISCOVERED MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS, 3) DISCOVERED VIBRIO CHOLERA
Term
8. _____ states that there are separate diseases, and each disease is caused by a particular microorganism.
Definition
GERM THEORY
Term
9. This person is known as the father of epidemiology.
Definition
JOHN SNOW
Term
10. _____ is used to establish a casual relationship between a microorganism and a disease, and is important for differentiating infection and infectious disease.
Definition
KOCH’S POSTULATES
Term
11. 4 steps in Koch’s postulates.
Definition
1) ISOLATE THE SUSPECTED AGENT FROM A DISEASE VICTIM, 2) GROW THE ORGANISM IN A PURE CULTURE, 3) INFECT A HEALTHY HOST AND SHOW THAT THE ORGANISM INHERITS THE SAME DISEASE, 4) ISOLATE THE SAME ORGANISM FROM THE NEW VICTIM
Term
12. With his knowledge of infectious agents, Koch went on to develop _____.
Definition
. PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES
Term
13. This person was a Hungarian obstetrician and gynecologist, and he advocated washing hands before touching a patients decreased the incidence of childbed fever dramatically.
Definition
IGNAZ SEMMELWEIS
Term
14. This is a condition of childbed fever that is a streptococcal infection inside the uterus, killing the mother within 6 weeks.
Definition
PUERPERAL SEPSIS
Term
15. This person was a British army surgeon then a country doctor who invented the small pox vaccine.
Definition
EDWARD JENNER
Term
16. In 1796, Edward Jenner discovered that an inoculation with _____ gave a person immunity to smallpox.
Definition
COWPOX
Term
17. This person was a British surgeon who adopted aseptic surgery and decreased the post-surgical death.
Definition
JOSEPH LISTER
Term
18. This person was a Scottish surgeon who discovered penicillin.
Definition
ALEXANDER FLEMING
Term
19. This person discovered the antibiotic streptomycin.
Definition
WAKSMAN
Term
20. What is the first specific agent effective in the treatment of tuberculosis.
Definition
STREPTOMYCIN
Term
21. This person invented the petri-dish which is a shallow glass or plastic cylindrical disc that biologists use to culture.
Definition
JULIUS RICHARD PETRI
Term
22. This person is a German medical doctor who invented a cure for syphilis. The antibiotic acted like a “magic bullet” selectively killing the villain and sparing the victim.
Definition
PAUL ERLICH
Term
23. _____ is the cure for syphilis discovered by Erlich.
Definition
SALVARSAN OR COMPOUND 606
Term
24. Paul Erlich is also famous for discovering several _____ for bacterial study.
Definition
DYES
Term
25. What causes puerperal sepsis?
Definition
A STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTION
Term
26. The very first virus was discovered by _____, who was a Russian botanist.
Definition
. DMITRI IVANOSKY
Term
27. Ivanosky discovered the first virus while studying _____. He found that the agent causing the disease was small enough to pass through ceramic filters that are small enough to trap bacteria.
Definition
MOSAIC TOBACCO DISEASE
Term
28. This person was an American biologist and physician best known for the research and development of a polio vaccine.
Definition
JONAS EDWARD SALK
Term
29. _____ is the vaccine used by Salk to kill the polio virus.
Definition
SALK VACCINE
Term
30. How was the Salk vaccine administered?
Definition
GIVEN IN 2 INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS SPACED ONE MONTH APART, AND REQUIRES BOOSTERS EVERY 5 YEARS
Term
31. True or false: the Salk vaccine is safe for those with compromised/weakened immune systems.
Definition
TRUE
Term
32. This person created the oral polio vaccine.
Definition
ALBERT SABIN
Term
33. The oral polio vaccine provides both _____ and _____ immunity.
Definition
INTESTINAL AND BODILY
Term
34. How is the Sabin oral vaccine administered.
Definition
GIVEN IN 3 DOSES IN THE FIRST 2 YEARS OF LIFE, AND A BOOSTER IS GIVEN WHEN THE CHILD STARTS SCHOOL
Term
35. 4 advantages of the Sabin oral vaccine.
Definition
1) EASE OF ADMINISTRATION, 2) NO SHOTS, 3) GIVES BOTH INTESTINAL AND BODILY IMMUNITY, 4) PRODUCES LIFE LONG IMMUNITY WITHOUT THE NEED FOR BOOSTERS
Term
36. The last case of polio was eradicated in _____.
Definition
1979
Term
37. These are the 5 classifications of microorganisms.
Definition
1) BACTERIA, 2) VIRUSES, 3) FUNGI, 4) PROTOZOA, 5) HELMINTHS
Term
38. 3 characteristics regarding prokaryotes.
Definition
1) NO DISTINCT NUCLEUS, 2) DNA IS IN THE FORM OF A SINGLE CIRCULAR CHROMOSOME, 3) ADDITIONAL DNA IS CARRIED IN PLASMIDS
Term
39. 3 characteristics of eukaryotes.
Definition
1) HAVE A DISTINCT NUCLEUS, 2) DNA IS CARRIED ON SEVERAL CHROMOSOMES WITHIN THE NUCLEUS, 3) THE CYTOPLASM IS RICH IN MEMBRANE BOUND ORGANELLES SUCH AS MITOCHONDRIA AND ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM
Term
40. _____ are bacteria, fungi, and protozoa that live on or within the bodies of animals and plants, and do not cause disease in healthy individuals.
Definition
NORMAL FLORA
Term
41. In the normal person, _____, such as _____, _____, and _____ are free of normal flora.
Definition
INTERNAL ORGANS, BLOOD, BRAIN, AND MUSCLE
Term
42. This is an example of one of the most prominent normal flora in the body.
Definition
LACTIC ACID BACTERIA
Term
43. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) ferments carbohydrates into organic acids which inhibit these 5 microbes from infecting our body.
Definition
LISTERIA, CLOSTRIDIUM, E. COLI
Term
44. _____ is an infection that is caused by staying in a hospital, and it usually occurs within 48 hours or more after a hospital admission.
Definition
NASOCOMIAL INFECTION
Term
45. _____ describes an illness caused by medical treatments such as radiation, medication, or surgery.
Definition
INTROGENIC DISEASE
Term
46. _____ is a poison, specifically a protein or conjugated protein produced by some higher plants, certain animals, and pathogenic bacteria that is highly poisonous for other living organisms.
Definition
INTROGENIC DISEASE
Term
47. This is an example of a toxin.
Definition
CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM
Term
48. _____ is an insect or other organism capable of transmitting germs or other agents of disease.
Definition
VECTOR
Term
49. This is an example of a vector illness.
Definition
MALARIA
Term
50. These are 3 vector illnesses spread by mosquitos.
Definition
1) MALARIA, 2) FILARIA, 3) YELLOW FEVER
Term
51. _____ is defined as 2 or more organisms living together. It is common that one of the organisms live in or on the other.
Definition
SYMBIOSIS
Term
52. 3 types of symbiosis.
Definition
1) COMENSALISM, 2) MUTALISM, 3) PARASITISM
Term
53. This type of symbiosis is when only one of the organisms benefits, and the host is not affected either positively or negatively.
Definition
COMMENSALISM
Term
54. This type of symbiosis is when both organisms benefit from the association.
Definition
MUTUALISM
Term
55. This type of symbiosis is when one benefits, but the host is potentially harmed.
Definition
PARASITISM
Term
56. 2 examples of prion- associated diseases.
Definition
1) CRUETZFELDT-JACOBS DISEASE, 2) MAD COW DISEASE
Term
57. Which organ in the body is most susceptible for a prion attack?
Definition
THE BRAIN
Term
58. This is an example of a prion disease that is causes by ritual cannibalism of deceased relatives.
Definition
KURU
Term
59. 4 modes of prion transmission.
Definition
1) KURU, 2) CONTAMINATED HGH, 3) GRAFTS, 4) CONTAMINATED EQUIPMENT
Term
60. This is the hypothesis for prion infections.
Definition
ACCUMULATED ABNORMAL PROTEINS KILL NEURONS OF THE BRAIN, AND THE PRIONS THEN SPREAD TO ADJACENT NEURONS
Term
61. What are the 2 components of a virus?
Definition
1) RNA or DNA, 2) CAPSID
Term
62. _____ is an infection agent that is minimally constructed of RNA or DNA and a capsid.
Definition
VIRUS
Term
63. Many viruses have additional structural features called an _____ which is composed of a protein containing lipid bilayer.
Definition
ENVELOPE
Term
64. Viral infection may cause _____ or be _____ or _____.
Definition
CELL LYSIS, PERSISTENT, LATENT
Term
65. A virus can exist in the host cell _____, or be incorporated into the _____.
Definition
CYTOPLASM, GENOME
Term
66. This type of virus exists in the host cell cytoplasm.
Definition
HERPES VIRUS
Term
67. This type of virus can be incorporated into the host genome.
Definition
RETROVIRUS
Term
68. This type of virus is able to hide within the T cells.
Definition
HIV
Term
69. Some viruses can transform the host cell into a _____ or _____ cell.
Definition
TUMOR OR CANCER CELL
Term
70. _____ arises from incorporation of host oncogenes into the viral genome during viral replication.
Definition
VIRAL ONCOGENE
Term
71. Viruses that can only infect bacteria are called _____, and those that can only infect fungi are called.
Definition
BACTERIOPHAGES, MYCOPHAGES
Term
72. 2 living characteristics of viruses.
Definition
1) THEY REPRODUCE, 2) THEY CAN MUTATE
Term
73. 3 non living characteristics of viruses.
Definition
1) THEY ARE ACELLULAR, 2) THEY CARRY OUT NO METABOLISM ON THEIR OWN AND MUST REPLICATE WITHIN THE HOST CELL, 3) THEY POSSESS DNA OR RNA, BUT NEVER BOTH
Term
74. An intact infection virus particle is called a _____.
Definition
VIRION
Term
75. The single protein subunits that form a viral capsid is called _____.
Definition
CAPSOMERES
Term
76. Enveloped viruses get their envelopes from _____ by _____.
Definition
HOST CELL MEMBRANES, BUDDING
Term
77. 3 criteria used to define a virus.
Definition
1) CONTAIN DNA OR RNA, BUT NEVER BOTH, 2) TOTALLY DEPENDENT ON THE HOST CELL FOR REPLICATION, 3) VIRAL COMPONENTS MUST ASSEMBLE INTO COMPLETE VIRUSES TO GO FROM ONE HOST CELL TO ANOTHER
Term
78. This is a complete virus able to go from one host cell to another.
Definition
VIRION
Term
79. 5 steps in the cycle of reproduction of a virus.
Definition
1) ATTACHMENT, 2) PENETRATION, 3) REPLICATION, 4) ASSEMBLY, 5) RELEASE
Term
80. This stage of viral reproduction is when the virus attaches to the host cell.
Definition
ATTACHMENT
Term
81. This stage of viral replication is when the viral nucleic acid enters the cell.
Definition
PENETRATION
Term
82. This stage of viral replication is when genetic information contained in the viral nucleic acid directs the production of viral proteins and nucleic acids.
Definition
REPLICATION
Term
83. This stage of viral reproduction is when the viral proteins and nucleic acids are assembled into virions.
Definition
ASSEMBLY
Term
84. This stage of viral replication is when the newly formed virions are released either by lysis or budding.
Definition
RELEASE
Term
85. These 4 viruses can spread through the placenta and infect a developing baby.
Definition
HIV, HERPES, CYTOMEGALOVIRUS, HEPATITIS
Term
86. True or false: viruses can be grown in synthetic culture media?
Definition
FALSE
Term
87. How are animal viruses normally grown.
Definition
IN ANIMALS, EMBRYO, OR IN CELL CULTURES
Term
88. 6 routes by which viruses enter the body.
Definition
1) ORAL TRANSMISSION, 2) DIRECT SKIN CONTACT, 3) TRANS-PLACENTAL, 4) DROPLET TRANSMISSION, 5) DIRECT INOCULATION, 6) SEXUAL TRANSMISSION
Term
89. What virus causes smallpox?
Definition
VARIOLA VIRUS
Term
90. What year was smallpox eradicated?
Definition
1978
Term
91. To this day, _____ is the only human infectious disease to have been completely eradicated from nature.
Definition
SMALLPOX
Term
92. What country was the last case of smallpox found.
Definition
SOMALIA
Term
93. This disease is causes by Epstein Barr virus.
Definition
BURKITT’S LYMPHOMA
Term
94. These 2 diseases are caused by HPV.
Definition
BENIGN WARTS AND CERVICAL CARCINOMA
Term
95. This disease is caused by Human T cell Leukemia virus.
Definition
LEUKEMIA
Term
96. This disease is caused by the Hepatitis B or C virus.
Definition
LIVER CARCINOMA
Term
97. These 2 strains of HPV cause cervical carcinoma.
Definition
16 AND 18
Term
98. This is the vaccine used to prevent HPV causing cervical carcinoma.
Definition
GARDASIL
Term
99. These 2 strains of HPV cause genital warts.
Definition
6 AND 11
Term
100. This virus is responsible for causing chicken pox.
Definition
VARICELLA-ZOSTER VIRUS
Term
101. _____ is an example of a DNA virus that causes simultaneous infections of 2 bodily systems at the same time.
Definition
ADENOVIRUS
Term
102. Adenoviruses can cause infections in these 4 places.
Definition
1) OCULAR INFECTIONS, 2) RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS, 3) GI INFECTIONS, 4) UTI’S
Term
103. This is a condition caused by the Adenovirus that is an infection of the cornea.
Definition
KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS
Term
104. This is a bladder infection caused by the Adenovirus.
Definition
CYSTITIS
Term
105. 5 different types of herpes virus that can infect humans.
Definition
1) HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS TYPE 1 AND 2, 2) VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS, 3) EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS, 4) CYTOMEGALO VIRUS, 5) HUAN HERPES VIRUS 6 AND 8
Term
106. Is the Herpes Virus a DNA or RNA virus?
Definition
DNA
Term
107. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma.
Definition
HUMAN HERPES VIRUS 8
Term
108. This virus is responsible for causing roseola infantum.
Definition
HUMAN HERPES VIRUS 6
Term
109. This virus is responsible for causing cold sores on the lips.
Definition
HERPES SIMPLEX TYPE 1
Term
110. Herpes Simplex type 1 is a latent virus that hides in the _____, causing cold-sores.
Definition
TRIGEMINAL GANGLION
Term
111. This is a dangerous Herpes Simplex type 1 infection of adolescents that affects the whole mouth.
Definition
HERPES SIMPLEX GINGIOMYELITIS
Term
112. This is a condition caused by the Herpes Zoster virus that spreads pustule blisters across a dermatome, and causes extreme pain.
Definition
SHINGLES
Term
113. What is the mode of transmission of Hepatitis A and E?
Definition
FECAL/ORAL
Term
114. What is the mode of transmission of Hepatitis B, C, and D?
Definition
BLOOD TO BLOOD CONTACT
Term
115. Which form of Hepatitis is the only DNA strained virus?
Definition
HEPATITIS B
Term
116. These 3 strains of Hepatitis are envelope viruses.
Definition
B, C, D
Term
117. Without _____, Hepatitis D cannot affect a person.
Definition
HEPATITIS B
Term
118. Hepatitis D is found most commonly in _____.
Definition
IV DRUG USERS
Term
119. _____ is an infectious virus that causes a case fatality rate of babies in 20% of pregnant women.
Definition
HEPATITIS E
Term
120. This is the most common medical condition associated with Epstein Barr Virus.
Definition
INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS
Term
121. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by these 4 things.
Definition
1) EXTREME FATIGUE, 2) TONSILITIS, 3) TENDER LYMPH NODES IN THE NECK, 4) HIGH FEVER
Term
122. _____ is the most common childhood malignancy in equatorial Africa, and it is characteristically located in the jaw.
Definition
BURKITT’S LYMPHOMA
Term
123. _____ is inflammation of the parotid gland.
Definition
PAROTITIS
Term
124. Mumps is a contagious disease caused by the virus _____.
Definition
PARAMYXOVIRUS
Term
125. How are mumps transmitted?
Definition
THROUGH AIRBORNE DROPLETS FROM THE COUGHS AND SNEEZES OF INFECTED PEOPLE
Term
126. 6 complications of having mumps.
Definition
126. 1) ORCHITIS, 2) MENINGITIS/ENCEPHALITIS, 3) PANCREATITIS, 4) DEAFNESS, 4) PAROTITIS, 5) OOPHORITIS, 6) SPONTANEOUS ABORTION
Term
127. _____ is having swollen, painful testicles.
Definition
ORCHITIS
Term
128. This is inflammation of the ovaries.
Definition
OOPHORITIS
Term
129. The measles virus is an example of a _____ virus.
Definition
RNA
Term
130. Paramyxoviruses can cause these 3 diseases.
Definition
1) MEASLES, 2) MUMPS, 3) RUBEOLA
Term
131. How many deaths are there per year due to the measles virus?
Definition
1 MILLION
Term
132. _____ are unique to a measles infection, and they consist of tiny white dots on a reddish bump inside the mouth.
Definition
KOPLIK’S SPOTS
Term
133. This is a measles complication that consists of a severe progressive demyelinating neurological illness.
Definition
SUB-ACUTE SCLEROSING PAN ENCEPHALITIS (SSPE)
Term
134. This is an example of a single stranded RNA virus that is enveloped.
Definition
RUBELLA
Term
135. When rubella is contracted by a pregnant woman, it can cause _____ which is a resulting rubella virus in a developing fetus.
Definition
CONGENITAL RUBELLA SYNDROME
Term
136. A woman contracting rubella infection in the _____ has a 15-50% chance of having a severely affected child.
Definition
FIRST TRIMESTER
Term
137. The risk for CRS becomes negligible when maternal infection occurs after the _____ week of pregnancy.
Definition
20TH
Term
138. Congenital rubella syndrome may cause these 6 things.
Definition
1) SPONTANEOUS ABORTION, 2) STILLBIRTH, 3) BLINDNESS, 4) DEAFNESS, 5) HEART DAMAGE, 6) MENTAL RETARDATION
Term
139. Yellow fever is a _____ transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected mosquito.
Definition
FLAVIVIRUS
Term
140. This is the classification of the yellow fever virus.
Definition
GROUP IV RNA VIRUS
Term
141. Yellow fever causes _____, which gives yellow fever its name.
Definition
JAUNDICE
Term
142. _____ is a viral zoonotic neuroinvasive disease that causes encephalitis in mammals.
Definition
RABIES
Term
143. The rabies virus is a _____virus.
Definition
LYSSA VIRUS
Term
144. Rabies produces _____ in the infected neurons of the brain.
Definition
NEGRI BODIES
Term
145. Is the rabies virus RNA or DNA?
Definition
RNA
Term
146. If one is infected with rabies, how much time can pass between onset and onset of symptoms?
Definition
3 WEEKS – 3 MONTHS
Term
147. This phase of the rabies virus consists of a fever, vomiting, and a loss of appetite. Also the infected person with have a headache, pain at the site of the bite, copious salivation, and weeping.
Definition
PRODOMAL PHASE
Term
148. This phase of the rabies virus may cause paralysis, spasms in the throat, and hydrophobia.
Definition
THE NEUROLOGICAL PHASE
Term
149. Once visible symptoms of the rabies virus have developed, the mortality rate is almost _____.
Definition
100%
Term
150. The WHO estimates that between _____ and _____ people die each year as a result of being bit by a rabid animal.
Definition
40,000-70,000
Term
151. The common cold virus is caused by a _____.
Definition
RHINOVIRUS
Term
152. Is the rhinovirus an RNA or DNA virus?
Definition
RNA
Term
153. How many different stereotypes of rhinovirus are there?
Definition
100
Term
154. This type of common cold virus is responsible for causing 10-30% of all acute respiratory infections in humans.
Definition
CORONAVIRUSES
Term
155. Infants and young children most at risk for severe RSV infection include these 5 stereotypes.
Definition
1) THOSE WITH A HISTORY OF PREMATURITY, 2) YOUNGER THAN 6 WEEKS, 3) THOSE WITH CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE, 4) THOSE WITH CHRONIC LUNG CONDITIONS, 5) THOSE WHO SUFFER FROM AN IMMUNODEFICIENCY
Term
156. What is the genus of the respiratory syncytial virus?
Definition
PNEUMOVIRUS
Term
157. The CDC considered _____ to be the most common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia among infants and children under 2 years of age.
Definition
RSV
Term
158. The influenza virus is a _____ virus of the family _____.
Definition
RNA, ORTHOMYXOCIRIDAE
Term
159. _____ is due to mutation in the virus RNA. This allows sporadic outbreaks, and limited epidemics.
Definition
ANTIGENIC DRIFT
Term
160. This is due to reassortment in the virus RNA. This allows little immunity to be present, and an epidemic/pandemic is seen.
Definition
ANTIGENC SHIFT
Term
161. This is the most common and most dangerous strain of the flu virus.
Definition
INFLUENZA A
Term
162. Antigenic shifts occur in the _____ virus.
Definition
INFLUENZA A
Term
163. Why do we not have influenza B pandemics?
Definition
THERE IS ONLY HUMAN RESIVOIRS AND NO ANIMAL RESIVOIRS
Term
164. Primary influenza virus can cause _____.
Definition
PNEUMONIA
Term
165. _____ is a condition that seems to follow certain viral infections such as influenza, especially if they are in the young and if they have been treated with aspirin.
Definition
REYE’S SYNDROME
Term
166. _____ are second to RS as the common cause of lower respiratory tract disease in young children.
Definition
HPIV’S
Term
167. The most distinctive clinical feature of HPIV-1 AND HPIV-2 is _____.
Definition
CROUP
Term
168. _____ is breathing difficulty accompanied by a barking cough. It is caused by swelling around the vocal cords, and is common in infants and children, and can have a variety of causes.
Definition
CROUP
Term
169. _____ is the most common type of croup.
Definition
VIRAL CROUP
Term
170. 75% of the time croup is caused by _____.
Definition
PARAINFLUENZA VIRUSES
Term
171. Poliovirus is an example of a _____.
Definition
ENTEROVIRUS (RNA)
Term
172. How many different stereotypes of the poliovirus are there?
Definition
3
Term
173. The poliovirus is rapidly activated by these 4 things.
Definition
1) HEAT, 2) FORMALDEHYDE, 3) CHLORINE, 4) UV LIGHT
Term
174. The _____ virus causes polio.
Definition
POLIOMYELITIS
Term
175. The entry of the polio virus is through the _____.
Definition
MOUTH
Term
176. The poliovirus eventually affects and destroys the _____.
Definition
CNS
Term
177. _____ is the most common cause of severe diarrhea among children.
Definition
ROTA VIRUS
Term
178. Is rotavirus RNA or DNA?
Definition
RNA
Term
179. The incubation period for the rotavirus disease is approximately _____.
Definition
2 DAYS
Term
180. _____ of coxsackie viruses tend to infect the skin, and mucous membranes causing herpangina, acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, and hand-foot-and mouth disease.
Definition
GROUP A
Term
181. _____ of coxsackie viruses tend to infect the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver causing pleurodynia, myocarditis, pericarditis, and hepatitis.
Definition
GROUP B
Term
182. _____ is caused by coxsackie virus A, and causes a vascular rash in the oral cavity and on the pharynx, along with high fever, sore throat, malaise, and often dysphagia.
Definition
HERPANGINA
Term
183. _____ is a common viral illness of infants and children. It is spread from person to person by direct contact with the infectious virus.
Definition
HAND, FOOT, AND MOUTH DISEASE
Term
184. Hand foot and mouth disease is caused by an _____.
Definition
ENTEROVIRUS
Term
185. These are 4 tumor producing viruses.
Definition
1) HEPATITIS B AND C, 2) EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS, 3) HHV TYPE 8, 4) HPV
Term
186. _____ is the amount of new cases occurring in a given population at any time.
Definition
PREVELANCE RATE
Term
187. How does one calculate the incidence rate?
Definition
INCEDENCE RATE = NUMBER OF NEW CASES OF A DISEASE WITHIN A POPULATION / NUMBE OF PERSONS EXPOSED TO THE RISK OF DEVELOPING THE DISEASE X 1000
Term
188. Incedence rate is expressed per _____.
Definition
1000
Term
189. Maternal morality rate is expressed per _____.
Definition
100,000
Term
190. What is the equation used to find the perinatal mortality rate?
Definition
NUMBER OF PERINATAL DEATHS / TOTAL NUMBER OF LIVE BIRTHS X 1000
Term
191. _____ is a slice through a population at a given point in time that determines who has the disease, and who has not.
Definition
PREVALENCE
Term
192. This determines the amount of people who have new cases.
Definition
INCIDENCE
Term
193. _____ refers to an aggregate of cases in a given area over a particular period of time, without regard to whether the number of cases is greater than expected.
Definition
CLUSTER
Term
194. _____ is a disease or pathogen present in a given population or geographic region at all times.
Definition
ENDEMIC
Term
195. _____ is an endemic in most of the children in a population, with the adults in the same population being less often affected.
Definition
HOLOENDEMIC
Term
196. _____ is a disease occurring suddenly in numbers far exceeding those attributable to endemic diseases.
Definition
EPIDEMIC
Term
197. _____ is a widespread epidemic, distributed through a region, country, continent, or globally.
Definition
PANDEMIC
Term
198. _____ is a rapidly spreading and widely diffused disease affecting large numbers of animals in a given region.
Definition
EPIZOOTIC
Term
199. The _____ level of prevention seeks to prevent new cases of a disease from developing in the population.
Definition
PRIMARY
Term
200. _____ level of prevention is a process of classifying people as to whether they are likely to have a disease, seeking to reduce the number of existing cases.
Definition
SCREENING
Term
201. _____level of prevention is a retard or block on the progression of a condition. It seeks to limit the disability resulting from disease and improve function.
Definition
TERTIARY
Term
202. This type of epidemic is when everyone is exposed at the same time.
Definition
COMMON SOURCE
Term
203. This type of epidemic is when the exposure to the source occurs at once.
Definition
POINT SOURCE
Term
204. This type of epidemic is when the exposure to the source occurs over a period of time.
Definition
INTERMITTENT SOURCE
Term
205. This source of disease spreads gradually from person to person.
Definition
PROPAGATED
Term
206. This source of disease is a common source + person to person spread.
Definition
MIXED
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