Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| natural barrier in digestive system |
|
Definition
| ph change - stomach is pH2, intestine is pH8 |
|
|
Term
| main branch of digestive system |
|
Definition
| esophagus, stomach, small and large intestine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bottom part of stomach where it joins small intestine |
|
|
Term
| accessory organs in digestive system |
|
Definition
| aid in digestion - teeth, salivary glands, tongue, parotid gland, liver, pancreas, gall bladder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| biofilm from strep mutans - produces glycocalyx in presence of sucrose, acid fermentation of sucrose lowers oral pH - once pH drops below 5.5 - causes cavity |
|
|
Term
| ___ light could possibly prevent dental caries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| gastric ulcers are caused by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is Helicobacter pylori named that? |
|
Definition
| helicobacter - spiral shaped :: pylori - in pylorus of stomach |
|
|
Term
| 2 ways H. pylori survives pH |
|
Definition
| lives in mucus layer of stomach, where pH is higher :: produces enzyme called urease, the reaction of which yields ammonia (makes it's own buffer to make basic environment) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used to detect helicobacter pylori in stomach |
|
|
Term
| How does H. pylori make you sick? |
|
Definition
| just by being in you, it induces inflammatory response that ruins the mucosa and allows stomach acids to produce an ulcer |
|
|
Term
| In addition to the inflammatory response, how does H. pylori hurt you? |
|
Definition
| Kag A (sp?) toxin - cytotoxin damages cell |
|
|
Term
| in addition to Kag A, another toxin ____ causes damage via h. pylori. How does this work? |
|
Definition
| Vac A - increases urea production by your cells so that h. pylori can produce even more urease (urease won't work unless urea is present) |
|
|
Term
| About 80% of humans have h. pylori in their body, so why don't we all get ulcers? |
|
Definition
| because the strain of h. pylori that you have doesn't produce both toxins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do you need to ingest so many cholera bacteria to make you sick? |
|
Definition
| because its very sensitive to the pH of the stomach |
|
|
Term
| cholera toxin is very similar to ___ toxin. why? |
|
Definition
| pertussis - AB5 toxin that binds to epithelial cells, A part ADP-ribosylates a regulatory protein |
|
|
Term
| ADP-ribosylation of a regulatory protein in Cholera causes diarrhea... why? |
|
Definition
| causes steric hinderance (bc ADP-ribosylated protein is so bulky). results in excess CAMP secretion into the gut = excess water = diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| if you need a lot of cholera organisms to make you sick, why do you only need a few drops of cholera-infested water to make you sick? |
|
Definition
| the organisms are very dense in water |
|
|
Term
| How does death occur from cholera? |
|
Definition
| dehydration due to lots of diarrhea.. >20 liters (5 gallons) of "ricewater stool" a day. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drink oral rehydration salts - reduces death from 50% of cases to <1%. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it better to drink rehydration salts than to IV them? |
|
Definition
| because by drinking them your intestines absorb the salts much better |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| contaminated water - from places where rivers meet ocean (estuaries) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| copepods = plankton :: cholera can form biofilms on plankton. usually not a problem unless someone ingests wayyy too much. once one person does and gets sick, they excrete enough cholera to infect a water source and make everyone sick. |
|
|
Term
| How can cholera be prevented? |
|
Definition
| filtering water through a cloth - filters out copepods, which carry the cholera |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent cholera (personally when visiting somewhere where cholera is prevalent)? |
|
Definition
| brush teeth with bottled water, no drinks with ice, avoid antacid use bc these raise pH and reduce the infectious dose) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cramps, diarrhea with blood |
|
|
Term
| dysentery is spread via the ___ route |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 main organisms that spread dysentery |
|
Definition
| shigella, e. coli, salmonella, campylobacter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| low infectious dose (500 cells), produces AB5 toxin, taken up via M cells, spreads intracellular via actin rockets |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| O157H7 - causes hemolytic-uremic syndrome .. dysentery?? |
|
|
Term
| Campylobacter is endemic in what part of the US, why? |
|
Definition
| midwest - in almost all chickens |
|
|
Term
| ___ can cause Guillain-Barre Syndrome, how? |
|
Definition
| campylobacter - via immune mimicry by late sequelae |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| M cells or directly via epithelial cells :: if through M cells - enters macrophages |
|
|
Term
| When does salmonella cause diarrhea (enteritis)? |
|
Definition
| When its taken up into M cells and killed by macrophages, because this elicits an immune response that causes diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the main way to get salmonella |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If salmonella survives macrophages, what happens? |
|
Definition
| is disseminated in blood, causing septicemia called Typhoid fever. |
|
|
Term
| If you get over Typhoid Fever (don't die from it), what can happen? |
|
Definition
| it can colonize the gallbladder and be shed for years (Typhoid Mary) |
|
|
Term
| Salmonella can cause two very different diseases, ___ and ___, which are caused by either being killed or not being killed (respectively) by macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a viral infection of the parotid salivary glad |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) |
|
|
Term
| Mumps is caused by what kind of virus, which is like what other diseases? |
|
Definition
| paramyxovirus -- rubeloa and RSV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Long-term effects of mumps |
|
Definition
| enters blood stream, spreads to other glands and maybe meninges, causes tissue swelling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1/4 males - orchitis (inflammation of testes, can lead to sterility).. 1/20 females get ovarian swelling... pregnant women can miscarry |
|
|
Term
| there was a big outbreak of ___ at the U of Iowa in 2006 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How was the mumps outbreak at UofI stopped? |
|
Definition
| students w/ mumps quarantined... mass vaccination by MMR |
|
|
Term
| #1 cause of pediatric diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rotavirus infects the ___ epithelial cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is rotavirus serious? |
|
Definition
| massive diarrhea, can lead to death by dehydration |
|
|
Term
| At-risk population for rotavirus |
|
Definition
| kids - esp in daycare centers |
|
|
Term
| rotavirus is spread by the ___ route |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at-risk population for norovirus |
|
Definition
| densely packed areas of people (cruise ships, dorms) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| diarrhea, nausea, vomitting |
|
|
Term
| common carrier of norovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Jaundice/liver inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hep _ and _ are foodborne (infectious) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| serum hep are _, _, and _ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serum hepatitis is spread by ____ and detected by ____. |
|
Definition
| bodily fluids (sex, needles, toothbrushes) :: detected by serum antibody test |
|
|
Term
| Foodborne hepatitis is detected by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is more serious, serum or foodborne hepatitis? |
|
Definition
| serum - causes long term problems like liver damage, cirrhosis, cancer |
|
|
Term
| HepB uses ___ to replicate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A-B (one vaccine), none for C |
|
|
Term
| protozoal diarrhea disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| trophozoite (looks like 2 eyes) |
|
|
Term
| ___ causes an explosive, foul smelling diarrhea and gas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| clear, fast running, mountain streams |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| filter/boil/chlorinate all drinking water on camping trips |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bladder infections occurs when there is >___ bacterial/mL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you get sick with crypto? |
|
Definition
| ignest oocysts from contaminated water, which release trophozoites that invade intestinal lining |
|
|
Term
| ___ is caused by a apicomplexan protozoan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| there was a huge outbreak of ___ in milwaukee in 1993 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| amoebic dysentery is caused by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| symptoms of amoebic dysentery |
|
Definition
| chronic (12 yrs +) mild diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| Where is amoebic dysenteria most common? |
|
Definition
| poor/crowded settings :: male homosexuals |
|
|
Term
| Life cycle/infection of amebiasis (amoebic dysentery) |
|
Definition
| entire life cycle in human intestine :: ingest cyst, trophozoite burrows into intestine, troph develops into cyst in colon -- causes irritation and diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| amebiasis is more of a problem in immunocompromised people because? |
|
Definition
| when troph burrows into intestinal wall, it burrows all the way through it and into the bloodstream, causing live and tissue abscesses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| problem with accurately diagnosing UTIs |
|
Definition
| getting a clean sample -- "clean catch" midstream |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cloudy, sometimes pink urine :: painful urination, maybe back pain |
|
|
Term
| back pain in a UTI may signal a more serious condition called? |
|
Definition
| pyelonephritis (kidney infection) |
|
|
Term
| 90% of UTIs are caused by |
|
Definition
| E. coli (type P) via specific pilus attachment to the bladder wall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nosocomial (esp catheters via pseudomonas and enterococcus), first intercourse (honeymoon cystitis), diaphragm use (restricts urethra) |
|
|
Term
| Why are UTIs so much more common in men than women? |
|
Definition
| because anus is too close to urethra in women |
|
|
Term
| __ are the most common kind of infection in the US |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 most common STIs in the US and their approx incidence? |
|
Definition
| Gonorrhea (340,000), Chlamydia (800,000), Trich (5 million), HPV (40 million), Herpes (appx 1/3 people - 45 million) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| gonorrhea symptoms in males |
|
Definition
| 40% asymptomatic, urethritis (painful urination, pus from urethra) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is gonorrhea more serious in women? |
|
Definition
| 60% are asymptomatic but some women can get, cervicitis, salpingitis leading to PID, which can lead to fallopian tube scarring and sterility |
|
|
Term
| About __% of women become sterile after one bout of gonorrhea and about __% after three bouts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| infection of fallopian tube |
|
|
Term
| neonatal presentation of gonorrhea |
|
Definition
| conjunctivitis from infected birth canal |
|
|
Term
| about ___% of people who have sex with an infected parter get infect. About __% get it with just one encounter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| males: gram stain of urethral drip (gonorrhea is gram neg diplococci) .. Females: culture of cervical or vaginal swab (look for PMNLs) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the main cause of bacterial meningitis in teens and 20s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 differences between neisseria meningitidis and neisseria gonorrhea |
|
Definition
| meningitidis has sialic acid capsule (self-antigen), gonorrhea doesn't :: meningiditis spread by resp droplets, gonorrhea by sex :: meningitidis is disseminated in t eh blood and can cross blood-brain barrier to csf |
|
|
Term
| symptoms of bacterial meningitis |
|
Definition
| severe headache, disorientation, stiff neck, vomitting, purple rash, blotchy hemorrhages, can die in <18 hours if not treated |
|
|
Term
| bacterial meningitis diagnosis |
|
Definition
| spinal tap shows PMNLs and diplococci in csf |
|
|
Term
| Treatment/prevention of meningitis |
|
Definition
| vaccine for college freshmen, rifampin in outbreak settings (IU 2005) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chlamydia (>40M cases/yr in US) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Males: urethritis (drip, not always pus), epidiymitis, prostatitis, self-limiting
... Females: urethriis, cervicitis, salpingitis, PID, fallopian tube scarring, ectopic pregnancies |
|
|
Term
| probability of acquisition of chlamydia by sex wtih infected partner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| presentation of chlamydia in 3rd world countries |
|
Definition
| trachoma (500M cases worldwide) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enters cell, prevents phagolysosome fusion, ATP parasite, cell death/cytokine production = inflammation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| azithromycin in a single dose (NOT a cell wall inhibitor) ... or cipro or cephalosporin for gonorrhea (always treat as if both are present) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1. chancre (hard, painless ulcer) goes away in a few weeks ... 2. rash (months later) mucus patches in mouth, spots on body (palms and soles of feet), goes away in 3-12 months ... 3. tertiary (20 years after infection) - immune reaction w/ no bacteria present. gumma (hypersensitivity in fleshy tissue), bone loss, insanity/delusions |
|
|
Term
| fetal presentation of syphilis |
|
Definition
| 50% stillbirths, 50% congenital syph (deaph, blind, retardation, bone abnormalities) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| single dose of penicillin, surveillance |
|
|
Term
| treponema pallidum causes what sti? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| genital herpes is caused by what type of herpes virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| itching, burning, sharp pain |
|
|
Term
| How can herpes increase HIV transmission? |
|
Definition
| blisters and ulcers rupture and allow easy entry of HIV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| often fatal due to lack of immunity - moms who are herpes + need C-section or lots of acyclovir |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| latent form in sensory neuron ganglia, reactivated on average 4x/yr, no vaccine and no cure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acyclovir (reduces symptoms, doesn't cure) |
|
|
Term
| >___ types of HPV, 30 of which are STDS and 2-4 cause cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __% of HPV is asymptomatic, the remaining percent causes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what makes some kinds of HPV cause cancer? |
|
Definition
| all HPV can replicate in the nucleus, but only cancer-causing ones can integrate their DNA into the host |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| flagellate that causes STD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is unusual about trich in terms of protozoa |
|
Definition
| no cyst form, only troph form |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| in liquids, not just sex, also wet towels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| men: none, women: itching vaginitis, red inner thighs, frothy green/yellow discharge from cervix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| causes 3-fold increase in HIV transmission |
|
|
Term
| There are about how many people worldwide with AIDS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does AIDS compare to TB and malaria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do we care about AIDS if it's not one of the top 10 killers? |
|
Definition
| Is 100% fatal - has huge effect on lifespan in countries with high prevalence (Botswana life expectancy went from 62 yrs to 37 yrs) |
|
|
Term
| Why is HIV a lousy pathogen? |
|
Definition
| low transmission rates, high fatality (not balanced) |
|
|
Term
| If HIV is such a poor pathogen, how does it spread so rapidly? |
|
Definition
| homosexuals have SO many partners that it is more likely to spread |
|
|
Term
| AiDS transmission is lower under what conditions and higher in what conditions |
|
Definition
| lower if male is circumcized, higher with co-morbidity |
|
|
Term
| HIV is what kind of virus? |
|
Definition
| retrovirus in the lentivirus group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
HIV-1: M group (10 related organisms called clades in this group that allow us to trace where the virus comes from), N and O groups
HIV-2: almost entirely in africa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gag: matric and capsid proteins .. pol: RTase, protease, and integrase .. env: surface glycoproteins gp120 and gp41 |
|
|
Term
| How are the HIV genes processed? |
|
Definition
| same promoter has several reading frames to read genes and create multiple proteins. from the same promoter, one reading frame will just read gag to make a gag protein and another reading frame will read gag+pol to make a gag+pol protein. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the mode of processing of the HIV virus important? |
|
Definition
| if you can inhibit the protease, you can inhibit the virus from making proteins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Th, occassionally macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Course of infection of HIV (cellular) |
|
Definition
| enters the host via infected macrophages from a donor, the macrophages shed the HIV which can then infect Th cells (the preferred host) in lymph nodes via membrane fusion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gp120 binds to CD4 and CCR5 (coreceptor) on Th cell, gp41 carries out membrane fusion.. once in the cell, the virus uncoats and RTase goes to work |
|
|
Term
| people with a mutation of ___ called ____ cannot get AIDS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| new drug that inhibits CCR5, may help prevent AIDS |
|
|
Term
| How might HIV get into epithelial and brain cells? |
|
Definition
| virus can use other receptors than CD4 such as Claudin7 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| RTase makes a RNA/DNA hybrid to make dsDNA which is circularized and enters the nucleus. integrase then inserts the HIV DNA into the host chromosome as a provirus. HIV DNA is immediately transcribed. |
|
|
Term
| Why is HIV a slow virus, not a latent virus... even though you don't notice the effects of it for a while? |
|
Definition
| The process of inserting into host DNA takes a long time due to the reverse transcription, but once the virus makes it into the host DNA, it is immediately transcribed. So, the symptoms are latent, but the infection is not. |
|
|
Term
| How does the body keep AIDS in check? |
|
Definition
| cellular immune system - NK and Tc cells kill infected Th cells, however this results in a steady decline in the number of Th cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lysis, cellular immunity, complement, syncytia, induced apoptosis |
|
|
Term
| Major reason AIDS is fatal |
|
Definition
| Th cells decline to the point that we can't fight off disease - die from secondary infections |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| initial infection is asymptomatic in 40% of cases, other 60% have mild infection 1-6 weeks after infection called Acute Retroviral Syndrome (ARS) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| initial AIDS symptoms - muscle aches, enlarged lymph nodes, rash, malaise -- often mistaken for mono -- lots of virus present at this time. |
|
|
Term
| How is the blood supply screened for AIDS? |
|
Definition
| Direct ELISA - can detect HIV very early in infection - not used for human screening because it often produces a false positive |
|
|
Term
| By __ months post-infection, most people will test positive for AIDS using the Indirect ELISA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Human-screening test for AIDS |
|
Definition
| indirect ELISA - detects antibodies against HIV - takes a few months before you produce antibodies to produce + result ... if indirect ELISA is pos, do secondary Western Blot with pt. serum as primary antibodies - if patient has antibodies that bind to several HIV proteins in this test, the patient is HIV pos |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used to diagnose/prognose AIDS - <200/mL not infected, 1000/mL - AIDS will develop in about 10 years, >100,000/mL AIDS will develope in 2-3 years |
|
|
Term
| Most people with HIV have a viral titer of ___-____ |
|
Definition
| 10,000-100,000 -- they'll get AIDS in 2-10 years |
|
|
Term
| Terminal decline ensues in AIDS when Th titer is? |
|
Definition
| <200/mL - viral titer increases, Tc cells also drop off and secondary infections cannot be fought off |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HHV-8 latent virus in blood vessel cells induced by HIV-1to cause blood vessel tumor. used to be #1 AIDS killer, isn't anymore. Purple rash. |
|
|
Term
| atypical fungus that is common in animals and children. a resp infection that kills alveoli. its effect on AIDS? |
|
Definition
| pneumocystis jiroveci -- often kills AIDS pts. early |
|
|
Term
| protozoan (sporozoan) that is obtained by inhaling cat feces. sporozoans hatch and encyst tissues. |
|
Definition
| Toxoplasma gondii - secondary AIDS infection, also bad in pregnant women |
|
|
Term
| How is a fetus like an AIDS patient? Why is toxoplasma a concern for them? |
|
Definition
| has no T cells - if mom gets toxoplasma, the baby will not be able to fight off infection |
|
|
Term
| herpes virus that most people get as kids. reactivates in immunocompromised (AIDS) and damages cells in the CNS (blindness) and liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common terminal disease in AIDS and how it's different than in non-immunocompromised people |
|
Definition
| TB - usually caused by weaker strains of TB that wouldn't otherwise infect us (M. kansasii, M. avium, M. intracellulare) all mycobacteria |
|
|
Term
| 2 critical Th cell titers in AIDS |
|
Definition
| <200 - secondary infections ensue, <50 - just give prophylactic antibiotics (anti-TB drugs) (they will die of TB) |
|
|
Term
| AIDS treatment is effective/not effective |
|
Definition
| highly effective (if you have the money) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AIDS treatment - highly active anti-retroviral therapy - combo of 3 drugs - 2 are RT inhibitors (either an RT analog or non-nucleoside) and 1 is a protease inhibitor that inhibits processing of the polyprotein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| non-nucleoside analog drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HAART dramatically lowers viral titer but the provirus is still there. what does this mean? |
|
Definition
| if you stop taking the drug, the virus will begin replicating again |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| two NRTIs (nucleoside analog) and one NNRTI (non-nucleoside analog) in one pill, once a day |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HIV develops resistant to drugs because RNA is not proofread, low therapeutic index, high cost |
|
|
Term
| Why can you never stop taking ATRIPLA? |
|
Definition
| if you stop taking it, the HIV will become resistant to it and you can never take ATRIPLA again |
|
|
Term
| problems with the HIV vaccine |
|
Definition
| humans are only host, so hard to test ... initial ARS controlled by TC cells so most killed vaccines elicit B cells response, thus we would need a vaccine that stimulates T cells by live attenuated HIV vaccines would be too risky |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the preferred host for recombinant HIV vaccine trials |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why did the malaria eradication programs in the 1950s fail? |
|
Definition
| mosquitos developed resistance to DDT |
|
|
Term
| causes most serious malaria symptoms - can effect brain, causing ____. |
|
Definition
| p. falciparum, cerebral malaria |
|
|
Term
| both __ and __ make a latent form of malaria. describe this infection. |
|
Definition
| p. vivax and p. ovale - allows development up to several months after infection - can recur after many years |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the most common cause of malaria in travelers returning to the US |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ causes the mildest form of malaria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| stages of malaria life cycle |
|
Definition
| sporozoite transfers from mosquitos to humans :: merozoite transfers from liver to RBC where it forms ring forms and trophozoites :: shizogony can transfer trophs back to merozoites back to the liver from RBC |
|
|
Term
| 3 stages of malaria in RBC |
|
Definition
| merozoite --> ring form --> trophozoite --> schizont --> merozoite |
|
|
Term
| ____ form of malaria can lyse RBCs to produce acute symptoms |
|
Definition
| schizont-derived (secondary) merozoites |
|
|
Term
| How does malaria spread from person to person? |
|
Definition
| gametocytes in RBC are picked up by mosquito, go through part of life cycle in mosquito, and are then injected into another person as sporozoites |
|
|
Term
| stages of life cycle of malaria in mosquito |
|
Definition
| gametocytes enter gut and emerge from RBCs --> gametes --> fertilization --> zygote into gut wall --> oocyst --> oocyst bursts and releases sprozoites which can then be injected into a person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| after several weeks: fever, headache, join pain .. then classic 3-phase symptoms repeating every day or two: chills and shivering, high fever, drenching sweat |
|
|
Term
| long term dangers of malaria |
|
Definition
| liver damage, spleen rupture, anemia from RBC destruction |
|
|
Term
| malaria treatment (quinine) |
|
Definition
| quinine derivatives - chloroquine and mefloquine against forms that inhabit RBCs :: primoquine and tafenoquine against all stages |
|
|
Term
| quinine malaria treatment vs. artemisinin |
|
Definition
| artemisinin has wider range of effectiveness (works at any stage of infection) but is more costly and malaria already has built up some resistance to it |
|
|
Term
| most promising attempt at a malaria vaccine |
|
Definition
| RTS,S -- sporozoite surface protein conjugated to a HepB vaccine and an adjuvant -- currently in stage 3 trials |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___autotrophs use the sun for energy and ___autotrophs use oxidation for energy |
|
Definition
| photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are heterotrophs that specialize in decomposition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| adding H or e- is ___, adding O is ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how is the producer-consumer-decomposer chain connected? |
|
Definition
| producers are autotrophs, consumers eat producers, decomposers eat consumers and release monomers like CO2 that producers need to start the chain over |
|
|
Term
| saprophytes are producers/consumers/decomposers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ecosystems where nutrients are scarce |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| oligotrohpic bodies of water are ___ ecosystems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 places where low-nutrient environments exist |
|
Definition
| oligotrophic bodies of water, water reservoirs (hospitals, food prep areas, water bottles), aerosol misters (vaporizers, nebulizers) |
|
|
Term
| How do bacteria grow in low-nutrient environments? |
|
Definition
| must be able to concentrate nutrients -- often by biofilms on edges of containers (edge-effect biofilms) |
|
|
Term
| 3 properties of edge-effect biofilms |
|
Definition
| substantial growth and still look clear, very slow growth rate, highly evolved transporters (ABC-ATPase transporters) concentrate nutrients |
|
|
Term
| 2 ways to compete with other microorganisms |
|
Definition
| bacteriocins (kill the competition) and quoromones (talk to the competition) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| produced by microbes in a dense culture. can kill other microbes, even of the same species |
|
|
Term
| in competitive environments, the bacterias' goal is to? |
|
Definition
| achieve the highest growth rate |
|
|
Term
| ___ use quorum sensing to communicate with other molecules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| regulate gene transcription, biofilm formation, and virulence factors by "talking" to the other microbes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| produced to block quoromones and inhibit other bacterial species from talking to each other |
|
|
Term
| the biggest key to survival in a Rapidly flowing water ecosystems |
|
Definition
| adhesion - to avoid being washed out |
|
|
Term
| in flowing water environments, ___ are preferred because there is so much rapid oxygenation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 ways bacteria use to adhere in flowing water environments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ could be considered a "superbiofilm" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most bacteria in soil exist in ____. Why? |
|
Definition
| microcolonies - because there are so many different environments in soil (anaerobic and aerobic, feast or famine) |
|
|
Term
| Key to growing in soil environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are great at growing in soil because of their diverse metabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in a ___ environment, one bacteria gives way to another |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does succession work? |
|
Definition
| the produce of one organism (for instance, acid) eventually kills it. another organism that was present in low numbers starts to grow then, etc. |
|
|
Term
| Classic cases of succession |
|
Definition
| vaginal flora throughout life, fermentation in dairy products, commercial antibiotic production |
|
|
Term
| Succession is usually related to __ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Succession in dairy products |
|
Definition
| milk pH about 7, Lactococcus lactis colonizes and lowers pH to 4 and dies off, Lactobacillus starts to grow as pH lowers and produces degredative enzymes that attract yeasts and molds, the yeasts and molds produce basic fermentation which kills them off eventually and allows putrefying bacteria to spoil the milk |
|
|
Term
| Carbon cycle can be divided into two completely separate branches: __ and __. Both of which do what? |
|
Definition
| aerobic and anaerobic .. both take CO2 and turn it into organic carbon (reduction) |
|
|
Term
| chemical reduction requires/releases energy, which comes from? |
|
Definition
| requires - comes from photosynthesis |
|
|
Term
| In the carbon cycle, autotrophic bacteria and plants produce ____ from CO2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the carbon cycle, hetertrophs do what? |
|
Definition
| oxidize the reduced carbon back to CO2 |
|
|
Term
| cyclic photsynthesis is done to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| anaerobic and aerobic ways to oxidize reduced carbon to CO2 in the carbon cycle |
|
Definition
| fermentation, respiration (ETC) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| uses alternate electron acceptors besides O2 |
|
|
Term
| C1 metabolism uses what kind of carbon sources? |
|
Definition
| 1-C carbon sources (methane, etc) |
|
|
Term
| 2 basic processes involving C1 metabolism |
|
Definition
| reduction (making methane from CO2) - anaerobic process carried out by methanogens :: oxidation (making CO2 from methane) - aerobic process called by methylotrophy (any 1C methyl group) |
|
|
Term
| ____ reduces atmospheric N2 to NH4+, and is done by ___ only. |
|
Definition
| nitrogen fixation, bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Dissimilative nitrogen fixation |
|
Definition
| chemical ammonia is major product (what we normally think of as N fixation)_ |
|
|
Term
| Assimilative nitrogen fixation |
|
Definition
| reduced nitrogen is incorporated (assimilated) into biomass (often in amino and nucleic acids) |
|
|
Term
| if an organism is growing on amino acid, it has to deaminate amino acids to NH3 -- that is called ___. |
|
Definition
| ammonification (also deamination) |
|
|
Term
| ___ oxidizes NH4+ to NO2- (Nitrite) and NO3- (nitrate) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ reduces NO3- back to N2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ depletes the nitrate in the soil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do you want to avoid nitrification in the soil? |
|
Definition
| nitrate gets leached out of the soil by rain (bad for farmers because it keeps fertilizer from working), and because of nitrite toxicity |
|
|
Term
| In symbiosis, in what form do bacteria fix nitrogen, and in what form do the bacteria 'feed' the plants? |
|
Definition
| bacteria fix nitrogen mostly assimilitively to incorporate it into their DNA but also some dissimilitively ... feed plants via the aspartate-glutamate cycle: glutamate is transported into bacterium, metabolized into aspartate, which is transported out. glutamate also aminated to glutamine, and aminates aspartate to asparagine. glutamate is the product of this reaction and is then given back to the bacteria to start the cycle over. |
|
|
Term
| important part of aspartate-glutamate cycle |
|
Definition
| glutamate goes into bacteria -- aspartate, glutamine, or asparagine goes out of bacteria and into plant -- whatever is transported into the plant is converted back to glutamate and reenters the bacteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| very dense infections of bacteria (usually Rhizobium) in plants -- appear as nodules |
|
|
Term
| why are bacteroid root nodules pink? |
|
Definition
| they produce leghemoglobin, which binds up O2 |
|
|
Term
| 2 types of non-rhizobium nodules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 main molecules in the sulfur cycle |
|
Definition
| sulfate, sulfur, and sulfide |
|
|
Term
| sulfur assimilation is mostly from ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ can serve as an electron acceptor for sulfur-reducing bacteria and turn it into ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sulfate bacteria produce a corrosive black precipitate on ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| some bacteria such as ___ use sulfur/sulfide as an electron donor |
|
Definition
| green and purple photosynthetic bacteria |
|
|
Term
| green/purple sulfur bacteria carry out ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| H2S or S used as electron donor by photosynthetic sulfur bacteria and oxidizes to S or SO4 (sulfate), which is then incorporated into plants and bacteria. The sulfate can also then be used as an electron acceptor to reduce H2S by sulfate reducing bacteria |
|
|
Term
| ex of self sustaining environment |
|
Definition
| hydrothermal vent communities in deep oceans .. vents produce lots of H2S (black smokers) which can react with CO2 to form organic carbon which decomposes and is used as a nutrient source for bacteria who use it to make more CO2. other bacteria (sulfate-reducing bacteria) use sulfate as an electron acceptor for ETC, the energy for which came from the decomposing organic carbon. All happens in anaerobic environment. |
|
|
Term
| main benefit for plants in a fungal-plant association (mycorrhizae) |
|
Definition
| increases root area for plants for nutrient and water absorption because the fungi has so many fuzzy hairs all over it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungi coat the inside plant cells - lots of plants can do it, not many fungi can |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fungi wrap around the outside of plant root cells - most common in fungi, not very common in plants
Ex: truffles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungal-algal or fungal-bacterial associations |
|
|
Term
| ___ are usually the first organisms to colonize an environment because they're very "hearty" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungal filaments act like roots to anchor the algae or bacteria to a surface, and the algae or bacteria produces photosynthetic materials for the fungus |
|
|
Term
| Why are lichens important? |
|
Definition
| break rocks up into soil over time |
|
|
Term
| 2 functions of a municipal wastewater treatment plant |
|
Definition
| elimination of human pathogens and reduction in organic load by measuring BOD |
|
|
Term
| process by which microbes can be used to decontaminate contaminated soils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| organically-contaminated soils require ___ treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| biochemical oxygen demand |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| measure dissolved oxygen levels in water sample, then allow bacteria to grow for a while and measure again -- if no nutrients are available, bacteria won't grow and won't use up oxygen -- so if there is a lower O2 level after time elapses, then you know there are enough nutrients for bacteria to grow ::: difference between first and second O2 level reading is the BOD |
|
|
Term
| BOD is actually related to the amount of ___ in the water, not the amount of oxygen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| higher BOD = more/less nutrients in water = bad/good |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if BOD is too high? |
|
Definition
| allows bacteria to grow and produce nitrate, phosphate, ammonia, and uses up O2 --> causes putrification of lakes and ponds (algae and cyanobacteria grow on surface of water body) |
|
|
Term
| Modern sewage treatment plants have 3 stages: |
|
Definition
| physical, microbial, chemical |
|
|
Term
| The first stage of wastewater treatment is ___. What is involved in this stage? |
|
Definition
| physical - settling tank where solid fecal matter can settle out and then sludge is removed via anaerobic digester and is used as fertilizer. Effluent (flow) from primary treatment passed to secondary treatment. |
|
|
Term
| Secondary treatment in wastewater is ____. Which is... |
|
Definition
| microbial (aerobic degredation) - bacteria degrade organic nutrients and reduce BOD -- always involves aeration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| aerobic bacteria growing in environment wtih lots of nutrients want to stick to each other - forming tiny biofilms with each other and creating flocs |
|
|
Term
| the sludge formed by flocs is aerobic/anaerobic and is called ___. |
|
Definition
| aerobic, activated sludge |
|
|
Term
| why is activated sludge called activated? |
|
Definition
| lots of degredation going on in it |
|
|
Term
| activated sludge breaks down polymers into their monomers, so the major end-products of the activated sludge are: |
|
Definition
| CO2, NH4+, and PO4 (these basically replace BOD) |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the activated sludge once it's done? |
|
Definition
| allowed to settle and put in with the sludge from the primary stage in an anaerobic digester |
|
|
Term
| What's the difference between aerobic and anaerobic digestion in wastewater treatment? |
|
Definition
| aerobic - trying to remove nutrients from wastewater using efficient catabolic pathways :: anaerobic - trying to produce methane, which can be burned and used as fuel |
|
|
Term
| anaerobic digestion to produce methane |
|
Definition
| polymers --> monomers --> fermentation (acetate or H2 + CO2) --> methane via methanogens |
|
|
Term
| what step is the most important in sewage treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secondary treatment can also be done where? |
|
Definition
| in an artificial wetland (pond instead of tank) -- activated sludge can be trickled through soil where the bacteria can break down the sludge and produce methane (although the methane can't be collected) and the clean water eventually ends up in a river |
|
|
Term
| Effluent from secondary process goes into a tertiary step, which is ___. What happens? |
|
Definition
| chemical treatment - chlorinate, ozonate, or UV-irradiate to kill pathogens ... then precipitate the phosphate salts by adding calcium (which can be shoveled out and doesn't end up in the rivers) |
|
|
Term
| How do you test groundwater to make sure it's not contaminated? |
|
Definition
| fecal-indicator bacteria -- bacteria commonly found in intestinal tract but not in soil (must be there in large numbers) |
|
|
Term
| 2 fecal-contaminant indicators |
|
Definition
| total coliforms and e. cloi (indiana now tests for e. coli) |
|
|
Term
| How do fecal contaminant tests work? |
|
Definition
| presumptive test - involves filtering water then plating filter on EMB agar because coliforms appear on EMB as shiny-green :: then do confirmatory test that involves fermentation - take sample from each shiny-green colony on EMB and put it in durham tube ... if gas bubble forms in durham tube, then coliforms are present |
|
|
Term
| How many coliforms/100mL water are allowed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if you get some contamination in ground water? |
|
Definition
| take some of contaminated water, pump it to surface, mix it with nutrients, and inject it back in (upstream) ... this supports bacterial growth of bacteria that can degrade the contaminants (creates an enrichment culture) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| creating an environment that supports the good bacteria in the soil that will degrade the contaminants in ground water |
|
|
Term
| principle of microbial infallibility |
|
Definition
| breaking down any organic compound will create energy, bacteria want energy and bacteria have evolve in the presence of these organic compounds, so presumably there is a bacteria out there that can break down each of these organic compounds to get energy |
|
|
Term
| exceptions to microbial infallibility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hydrophobic molecules get concentrated in lipid of organisms, so the concentration of these molecules increases wtih each increasing level of the food chain |
|
|
Term
| why are recalcitrant molecules a problem? |
|
Definition
| bacteria can't degrade the lipid-soluble molecules, so they just build up |
|
|
Term
| Why are highly-branched carbon chains recalcitrant to degredation? |
|
Definition
| because they can't be dissolved by beta-oxidation |
|
|
Term
| ___ molecules are very recalcitrant because they can't be broken down easily |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Another problem with biodegredation occurs not only when the chemical being broken down in recalcitran but when? |
|
Definition
| when the environment doesn't have enough nutrients for the bacteria doing the breaking down to grow |
|
|
Term
| one way to combat environment-limiting biodegredation |
|
Definition
| add nutrients back into environment, usually phosphate |
|
|
Term
| 1st application of bioremediation |
|
Definition
| after exxon-valdez oil spill -- ammonia and phosphate added back to soil to allow oil-degrading bacteria to grow |
|
|
Term
| Third possibility to cause failure of biodegredation (other than recalcitrant microbes and lack of nutrients in soil) and how to combat this |
|
Definition
| bacteria in soil hasn't evolved a mechanism for breaking down a certain contaminant -- xenobiotics - molecules that are not part of the normal network of metabolic pathways (alkanes, aromatics, etc) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| something about breaking biodegredation and breaking down molecules that cant otherwise be broken down |
|
|
Term
| acquiring genetic info for new metabolic pathways is done by? |
|
Definition
| horizontal gene transfer (conjugation) -- happens in very dense environments (like biofilms) |
|
|
Term
| HGT by bacteriophages less-dense environments like the ocean is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| third mechanism of HGT (other than transduction and conjugation) |
|
Definition
| transformation - bacteria lyse and release genetic info -- another bacterium comes along and picks up that info |
|
|
Term
| water activity (aw) is a measure of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are the main cause of food spoilage in foods wtih low aw |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 methods used to reduce water activity and preserve foods |
|
Definition
| salting, drying (smoking), brine preservation (pickling) |
|
|
Term
| 4 food properties that can be altered to prevent spoilage |
|
Definition
| pH, infection barriers, temp, and oxygenation |
|
|
Term
| lowering pH below __ can prevent food spoilage and eliminate the need for pressure canning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| raising the pH by preserving food with ___ can help, but may cause the unwanted effect of ____. |
|
Definition
| lye -- saponification (turns it into soap) |
|
|
Term
| 3 infection barriers on food |
|
Definition
| eggshells, rinds, lysozyme and other natural antimicrobials |
|
|
Term
| why does freezing food preserve it but not sanitize it? |
|
Definition
| keeps bacteria from growing, but does not kill that which is already there |
|
|
Term
| the prefix "psychro" means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 psychrophilic organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| something must be heated to ___ to kill spores |
|
Definition
| 121C (so cooking food can't kill spores) |
|
|
Term
| Oxygenation to preserve food |
|
Definition
| mix aerobes and anaerobes -- aerobes use up O2 and create anaerobic pockets (however botulism can still live in the anaerobic pockets) |
|
|
Term
| pseudomonas' wide range of metabolic activity is good for ___ but bad for ___ |
|
Definition
| bioremediation, food spoilage |
|
|
Term
| Erwinia creates ___ in what food. |
|
Definition
| softrot in veggies (via T3SS) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a bacteria that turns wine to vinegar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is responsible for initial milk spoilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is responsible for final milk spoilage |
|
Definition
| lactic acid bacteria (lactococcus, lactobacillus, Leuconostoc) |
|
|
Term
| 3 bacterial toxins that can cause food poisoning |
|
Definition
| staph aureus (in creamy things like mayo and cream fillings), bacillus cereus (cooked and reheated rice and pasta), clostridium botulinum (improperly canned foods and meats in anaerobic environments) |
|
|
Term
| bacillus cereus creates two toxins: |
|
Definition
| one is heat-labile and causes diarrhea, one is heat-stable and causes vomitting |
|
|
Term
| the staph aureus toxin is heat labile/stable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| clostridium toxin is heat labile/stable |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a fungus on grains that produces aflatoxin and produces a green, filamentous mold |
|
Definition
| aspergillus (asparagus is green, filaments) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a common bread mold and creates a fluffy white mold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a common fruit mold and creates a grey mold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a common cheese mold and creates a green mold w/ white outline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a foodborne pathogen found in eggs and poultry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a foodborne pathogen found in poultry and hot dogs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a foodborne pathogen found in hot dogs and soft cheeses... can result in? |
|
Definition
| listeria -- meningitis and stillbirths |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a foodborne pathogen found in meats and lettuce via chemotaxis to the stomata |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a foodborne pathogen found in sushi and seafood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| L. cremoris and L. lactis ferment milk sugar (lactose) to produce acid until the proteins coagulate (curd) --> curd is cooked and cut and whey is drained off --> curd is salted and pressed and allowed to age --> secondary organisms added for flavor |
|
|
Term
| lactic acid fermentation reaction |
|
Definition
| pyruvate --> lactate (while NADH is reduced to NAD+) |
|
|
Term
| how is milk spoilage controlled during the process of yogurt making? |
|
Definition
| grown at 45C - prevent bacteria from growing and preserves yogurt |
|
|
Term
| 2 bacteria in yogurt making |
|
Definition
| S. thermophilus and L. bulgaricus |
|
|
Term
| sometimes L. acidophilus is added to yogurt.. why? |
|
Definition
| as a pro-biotic to enhance native flora |
|
|
Term
| Process of pickling veggies |
|
Definition
| add veggies to salt bring and let lactic acid bacteria grow which lowers the pH of the veggies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| combine sausage with sugar (to ferment), salt and nitrite (to inhibit pathogens). Add lactic acid bacteria as starter culture and allow to ferment for a few days. Smoke and dry to kill the lactic acid bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| When is halophilic bacteria used in fermentation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gran to sugar to alcohol via yeast :: grain is malted and mashed to release the sugar --> the mashed liquid called wort is drained and hops are added for flavor --> wort is fermented and yeast is allowed to settle or is filtered |
|
|
Term
| top yeasts vs bottom yeasts in beer |
|
Definition
| top yeasts (S. cerevisiae) make ales, porters, and stouts :: bottom yeasts (s. pastorianus) are at cooler temps and make lagers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| natural sugars are fermented to alcohol :: frust is crushed to produce must --> SO2 is added to inhibit bacterial growth --> flavors added by other bacteria and by aging process |
|
|
Term
| difference between red, white, and rose wines |
|
Definition
| red wines: ferment whole must and filter afterward :: white wines: ferment filtered must :: rose wines: ferment whole must and filter shortly after fermentation begins |
|
|
Term
| diff between dry and sweet wins |
|
Definition
| dry wines are alowed to ferment completely and have 13% alcohol content :: sweet wines stop fermentation before all sugar has been converted to alcohol (or add sugar back at the end) and are 9-11% alcohol |
|
|
Term
| vinegar generator uses what kind of bacteria to oxidize the alocohol aerobically? |
|
Definition
| acetobacter and gluconobacter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| allows alcohol fermentation of sugar to alcohol and Co2 -- makes bread rise :: why gluten-free bread doesn't rise |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a fungus added to soybeans to make soy sauce, then ___ bacterial is added and allowed to ferment for a year |
|
Definition
| asepergillus, halotolerant |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the multi-species community in the rumen allow ruminants to extract energy from cellulose or starch? |
|
Definition
| fibrobacter and ruminococcus break down cellulose (grass) and ruminobacter and succinomonas break down starch (grain) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| animals with several stomachs |
|
|
Term
| cellulose contains ___ bonds, which can't be broken down unless the organism produces cellulase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| starch produces ____ bonds, which are broken down by amylase. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the danger of rapidly switching a ruminant's food source from grass to grain? |
|
Definition
| sudden availability of starch allows rapid proliferation of strep bovis, which causes rumenal acidosis and may cause death |
|
|
Term
| why are modern cows susceptible to mastitis? how do you check for it? |
|
Definition
| because they're bred for such large udders that touch the ground or their legs and get bacteria in them -- foremilk to check for mastitis. |
|
|
Term
| Why does hog manure smell so bad? |
|
Definition
| it has lots of ammonia in it |
|
|
Term
| 3 bad effects of ammonia in hog manure |
|
Definition
| offensive odor and corrosive runoff and algal blooms |
|
|
Term
| How can the odor of hog manure be reduced? |
|
Definition
| add nitrifying and denitrifying bacteria -- nitrifying turns NH3 to NO3- ... denitrifying turns NO3- to N2 gas which can be released ::: all happens in pellets (aerobic nitrification on outside, anaerobic denitrification on inside) |
|
|
Term
| pseudomonas syringae causes ___ on plants via their ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do agrobacterium infections cause plant galls? |
|
Definition
| Tiplasmid ...increased auxin |
|
|
Term
| ___ causes stunt diseases in plants and is injected into the phloem by leafhoppers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 diseases associated wtih plant xylems. what bacteria? |
|
Definition
| ascomycetes - fusarium rot, wilt and verticillium wilt |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __ causes plant "rusts" and "smuts" |
|
Definition
| basidiomycetes(mushroom-type fungi) |
|
|
Term
| Why do oomyces infections occur primarily in soggy soil? |
|
Definition
| have a flagellated zoospore that is used to move around in water |
|
|
Term
| why isn't oomycetes a true fungus? |
|
Definition
| it has a chitin cell wall instead of cellulose |
|
|
Term
| 2 diseases caused by oomycetes |
|
Definition
| phytopthora (irish potato famine, root rot) and pythium (rot, damping off disease) |
|
|
Term
| how do plants become infected with viral infections and how do the viruses spread once in the plant? |
|
Definition
| wounds via insects and then are spread cell to cell via plasmodesma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| stunt viruses, mosaic viruses, and wilt viruses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bacillus thuringiensis produces protein crystal during sporulation process that is an insecticide, when BT is grown in corn (or other plants), it's like a built-in insecticide |
|
|
Term
| 3 ways other than BT to bacterially prevent insects in plants |
|
Definition
| production of antibiotics/antifungals by bacillus cereus .. bacterial siderophores lower free iron to prevent bacterial growth .. some bacteria can be nematode pathogens |
|
|
Term
| 2 diseases caused by nematodes in plants and how they're treated |
|
Definition
| turf root knot, potato cyst -- by pasteuria penetrans (parasitizes parasites) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Plant growth-promoting rhizobacteria -- added to soil to colonize plant roots and prevent wilts, rusts, and insects |
|
|
Term
| how do PGPR bacteria work/ |
|
Definition
| chemotaxis (tropism) to plant flavonoids, quorum sensing, ability to attach to roots and form biofilms, bacteriocin secretion |
|
|
Term
| 3 bacteria involved in PGPR |
|
Definition
| pseudomonas fluoresecnes (VICTUS), P. Putida, Trichoderma harzianum (BioTrek) |
|
|
Term
| How can phosphorus be used to enhance plant growth? |
|
Definition
| bacteria convert P from animal waste and soil runoff into PO4, which can be used to enhance plant growth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| auxin, gibberelic acid, and ethylene |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| azosporillium, azotobacter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| P. syringae, xanthomonas, agrobacterium |
|
|
Term
| Auxin stimulates plant group via ___ production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| gibberelic acid (GA) is responsible for what (specifically) in plant growth and by what bacteria/ |
|
Definition
| root hair proliferation, rhizobium, azosprillium, basillus, acetobacter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when Fusarium produces GA and causes rice stem to grow too long and break off |
|
|
Term
| the phytohormone ethylene is involve in what aspect (specifically) of plant growth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can ACC deaminase be incorporated to enhance plant root growth? |
|
Definition
| ethylene is synthesized from ACC, bacteria that produce ACC deaminase can inactivate ACC and reduce ehtylene syntheisis, which allows roots to grow longer |
|
|
Term
| 3 bacteria that produce ACC deaminase |
|
Definition
| pseudomonads, methylobacterium nd alcaligenes |
|
|
Term
| ___ and the ___ microarray chip could be used to make personalized medicine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CYP450 chip is used to diagnose patient biotype for ____ gene, which has to do with bloodpressure medicine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How could microarrays be used to diagnose infectious disease? |
|
Definition
| isolate DNA from patient and combine wtih disease DNA, amplify DNA by PCR using primer from bacterial 16S rRNA, label wtih fluorescent trag, hybridize to microarray of 16S rDNA with spots representing unique DNA for many different pathoens. The spot that fluoresces represents pathogen DNA in patient. |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a microarray mechanism used to diagnose infectious disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a unique feature of 16S rRNA that makes it good for Virochips |
|
Definition
| the same primer can be used to differentiate DNA from different pathogens |
|
|
Term
| ____ microarrays are essentially just ____ ELISA tests because surface antigens are spotted on array and antigens from serum looks for antibodies that the patient has |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| microarrays for cytokines |
|
Definition
| spot antibodies against human cytokines on an array, serum from control patient bound to blue fluorescnt anti-cytokine antibodeis, serum from test patient bound to green fluorescent antibodies .. both sera are hybridized simulatneously to an array |
|
|
Term
| purpose of cytokine arrays |
|
Definition
| decide what drugs suppress or induce different cytokines. either as compared to a control patient or compared to the test patient before they took the drug. |
|
|
Term
| purpose of bacterial genome studies |
|
Definition
| can obtain an entire bacterial genome sequence with 85% accuracy in a few hours |
|
|
Term
| bacterial genome studies can be considered ___, which is? |
|
Definition
| metagenomics - the identification of the genomes of lots of different organisms |
|
|
Term
| 3 examples of bacteria being sequenced by metagenomics |
|
Definition
| PGPR bacteria, potential cleanup organisms in contaminated soils, unknown organisms in the "hot deep biosphere" |
|
|
Term
| 4 reasons why metagenomics is done |
|
Definition
| ID bacteria, find bacterial products that can be used as antibiotics, find bacteria that can be used in bioremediation, ID genes involved in pathogenesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| live just below the crust of the earth - have never seen any sunlight... try to figure out how they survive because this might be how bacteria on other planets work |
|
|
Term
| bacterial ___ production is a major contributor to global warming gasses. This gas comes from? |
|
Definition
| methane :: decomposition and animal waste |
|
|
Term
| bacterial ___ can serve as a carbon sink. purpose? |
|
Definition
| carbon fixation (CO2 --> glucose) :: enhance carbon fixation in the ocean and used as bacterial "Scrubbers" for industrial CO2 waste |
|
|
Term
| How could bacteria enhance the natural ocean carbon cycle? |
|
Definition
| PGGM (photosynthetic growth-generating micronutrients) added to ocean to increase carbon fixation keep it in the deep oceans, where it's stable |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fertilize ocean w/ iron to increase photosynthetic growth -- allows CO2 sequestration in the ocean instead of being released to the atmosphere |
|
|
Term
| Problem with Woods' hole study |
|
Definition
| basically just creates photosynthetic biomass (either algae or bacterial), which will putrify oceans |
|
|
Term
| bacteria can make ____ as diesel fuel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| micro - from bacterial, bio - from other things (plants, veggies, etc) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is an alga that produces about 50% of its mass in oil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ could be used as biobutanol fuel |
|
Definition
| clostridium acetoputillicum |
|
|
Term
| ___ is currently the most used microbial ethanol production, why? |
|
Definition
| yeast :: survives 12-13% ethanol, requires sugar fermentation |
|
|
Term
| bad thing about using yeast for ehtanol production |
|
Definition
| requires grain sugars, which uses potential food |
|
|
Term
| why can't we use corn as the sole source of gasoline? |
|
Definition
| in order to have enough corn, we'd have to plant about 1/3 of the land in our country with corn |
|
|
Term
| cellulosic ethanol. problem? |
|
Definition
| made by bacteria fermenting grasses to sugar :: bacteria can only survive at about 6% ethanol |
|
|
Term
| Can we clone bacterial cellulases into yeast so they can break down cellulose? |
|
Definition
| so far, they've made yeasts that can ferment xylose and glucose, but not cellulose |
|
|
Term
| simultaneous sacchrification and fermentation (SSF) |
|
Definition
| making xylose to glucose and cellulose to xylose simultaneously in yeast .. can only be done in bacteria right now |
|
|
Term
| can we make bacteria more ehtanol tolerant? |
|
Definition
| right now: zymomonas can survive high ethanol but cant ferment pentose/cellulose, e. coli ferments pentoses but its killed by only 2% ethanol, and erwinia produces ceullulases by can't ferment... need to combine all 3 organisms to get SSF |
|
|
Term
| 3rd energy crop (besides corn and cellulose) |
|
Definition
| aquatic microbial oxygenic phototrophs - single-celled oxygenic phototrophs (z-scheme photosynthesis) that live in the ocean -- biomass type crops that can be grown in the ocean and can be turned into biodiesel -- very promising |
|
|
Term
| Microbial fuel cells use ___ to create a PMF |
|
Definition
| bacterial electron transport chains |
|
|
Term
| how do microbial fuel cells work? |
|
Definition
| "steal" electrons from the bacterial electron transport chain -- all we would have to do is provide an electron acceptor that is better than the next electron acceptor in the ETC (electron shuttles) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| proton exchange membrane - used to get energy from ETC in a microbial fuel cell |
|
|
Term
| problem with stealing E from ETC? |
|
Definition
| electron shuttles are not good for the environment - would probably cause more problems than it would solve |
|
|
Term
| Direct Microbial fuel cell |
|
Definition
| does not have an electron shuttle - bacteria forms biofilm or "nanowires" so that it can donate electrons directly to anode as the electron acceptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| algae, fungi, protozoa, viruses, viroids, prions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are infectious proteins (no nucleic acid) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ionic - involve electron sharing, hydrogen, and van der walls - hydrophobic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| high heat capacity, surrounds non-polars, dissolve polars, cohesion, solid less dense than liquid |
|
|
Term
| formation of polymers via loss of h20 |
|
Definition
| dehydration synthesis (condensation) |
|
|
Term
| taking small things and building them up into bigger things vs. taking big things and breaking them down |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids, lipids |
|
|
Term
| which is more tightly packed, cis or trans fatty acids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nomarski -- polarized light via wollaston prism, pseudo 3-d image |
|
|
Term
| ___ microscope is the electron version of a light microscope. uses cathode ray tube. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ allows us to see internal details of bacteria in 3-d. like a CAT scan for bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ stains use charged molecules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ stains are used for bacteria with waxy coats. red/blue is pos. |
|
Definition
| acid-fast, red is acid fast (pos) |
|
|
Term
| hypo/hyperosmotic environment causes cytoplasm to shrivel up, called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PMF is both a ___ and ___ difference |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| difference is PG structure in gram + and gram - (other than just thickness) |
|
Definition
| gram neg is direct crosslinking, gram pos uses glycine bridge (stronger) |
|
|
Term
| Why does penicillin only kill growing bacteria? |
|
Definition
| prevents PG crosslinking, which only happens in growing bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Another difference between gram + and gram - cell walls (besides PG) |
|
Definition
| Gram pos has telchoic acids, Gram neg has LPS |
|
|
Term
| Mycobacteria vs. mycoplasma |
|
Definition
| bacteria - waxy cell wall, plasma - no cell wall |
|
|
Term
| ___ transport (aka facillitated diffusion) transports via ____ energy. ___ transport transports via PMF. |
|
Definition
| passive, gradient, active |
|
|
Term
| in the ____, proteins use energy from gradient of one ion (usually H+) to move another ion or uncharged solute against its gradient |
|
Definition
| Major Facilitator Superfamily (MFS) |
|
|
Term
| ____ports affect charge and concentration. Why? ___ports affect only concentration. Why? |
|
Definition
| symports - because we use proton gradient and pump 2 pos charges in. antiports - because one pos charge is pumped in and one is pumped out. |
|
|
Term
| ____ transporters use ATP in addition to a signal from a periplasmic binding protein to open a transport channel and import a solute. Is reversible/irreversible. |
|
Definition
| ATP binding cassette (ABC) -- irreversible |
|
|
Term
| the ____ system uses a phosphate "relay" to transport glucose. why is this evolutionarily advantageous? |
|
Definition
| phosphotransferase (PTS) - doesn't need ATP and allows for extensive transport of glucose w/o building up a gradient |
|
|
Term
| ___ can also be called syringe secretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diff between glycocalyces and slime layers |
|
Definition
| glycocalyx is capsule - closely associated wtih cell, well organized :: slime layers are stringy and not well organized |
|
|
Term
| What is the evolutionary advantage that flagella have and T3SS don't? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 types of storage granules and their purpose |
|
Definition
| carbon, phosphate (volutin), and sulfur -- purpose is to keep the molecules contain so plasma doesnt become hypertonic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do endospores stay alive for millions of years? |
|
Definition
| inactive DNA in core that is very protected -- since it's inactive it never dies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used to find out oxygen requirement (fluid thioglycollate medium) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nucleic acids, amino acids, vitamins, monosaccharides, and fatty acids |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you grow an obligate intracellular parasite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| specially designed mediums that allow one organism to grow better than others.. used to isolate a specific species from a mixed sample |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Where does energy come from? (chemo or phototrophs) :: where does carbon come from? (hetero or autotrophs) :: where do electrons come from? (organotrophs or lithotrophs) |
|
|
Term
| organotrophs and lithotrophs |
|
Definition
| organo - get electrons from reduced organic compounds :: litho - get electrons from reduce INorganic compounds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| in a mixed culture, get nutrients from the metabolites of other cells that have lysed -- why death phase can take so long |
|
|
Term
| batch vs continuous cultures |
|
Definition
| batch - in flask, growth stops when nutrients are used up, wastes build up, or cells become too crowded to get O2 :: continuous - in chemostat, nutrients added slowly, wastes filtered out - can control growth rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| petroff-hauser chamber, coulter counters - count all cells dead and alive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dilution and plating, filter plating, most probable number -- count only living cells |
|
|
Term
| to ___ means to reduce the number of microbes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| to ___ means to kill most pathogens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| to __ means to reduce the number of pathogens to a "safe" level, whereas to ___ means to reduce the number of all organisms to a "safe" level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1 unit of decimal reduction time means to kill __% of the organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| critical, semi-critical, non-critical instruments |
|
Definition
| critical - direct contact with internal body tissues, semi - contact w/ mucus membranes (endoscopes), non - external contact only |
|
|
Term
| ___ pasteurization also sterilizes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| high, intermediate, and low-level disinfectant |
|
Definition
| high - everything dead but spores, intermediate - everything dead but spores and a few viruses, low - everything dead but spores, viruses, and mycobacteria (house hold cleaners) |
|
|
Term
| ___ damage lipid membranes and denature proteins. ___ crosslink and rigidify proteins. ___ make membranes leaky. ____ are gaseous sterilants. |
|
Definition
| alcohols, aldehydes, biguanides, ethylene oxide |
|
|
Term
| how would you sterilize a pacemaker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| central metabolism of bacteria involves what 3 processes |
|
Definition
| glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and TCA cycle |
|
|
Term
| oxidative decarboxylation |
|
Definition
| use to release CO2 and electrons from pyruvate |
|
|
Term
| TCA cycle oxidizes __ to produce ___. |
|
Definition
| acetyl-CoA -- CO2, ATP, electrons |
|
|
Term
| in the ETC, electrons are donated from more pos/neg electron potential to more pos/neg electron potential |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| eukaryotic ETC occurs in the ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bacterial/mitochondrial ETC is more complex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| z-scheme -- happens at varying energy levels, non-cyclic, happens in cyanobacteria, has 2 photosystems |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| excited chlorophylls -- P680 and P700 are used in z-scheme photosynthesis, and can donate electrons to ferredoxin :: P840 is used in green surfur photosynthesis and can also donate to ferredoxin :: P870 is used in purple sulfur photosynthesis and has to donate to Ubiquinone becuase it is too low energy to donate to ferredoxin |
|
|
Term
| what is unusual about green and purple nonsulfur bacteria |
|
Definition
| can live in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions |
|
|
Term
| ___ bacteria is used in biomining |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| super resistant bacteria, can live inside nuclear reactor |
|
|
Term
| unusual life cycle of caulobacter |
|
Definition
| uses flagella to stick to a surface and then a new bacteria grows out of its head |
|
|
Term
| ___ are a plant pathogen that produces a gall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are extreme organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA/RNA polymerase needs a template |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA/RNA polymerase does proofreading |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA replication is __ and __. what does that mean? |
|
Definition
| semiconservative (one strand of new DNA, one strand of old) and bidirectional (opens on both sides of bubble) |
|
|
Term
| DNA ___ relieves the train of torsion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA ___ opens up DNA at each replication fork |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA/RNA polymerase needs a primer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| transcription begins at ___ sequence, which is where the the RNA polymerase ___ binds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| promotor starts at ___ and goes to ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the promotor doesn't necessarily bind to the template strand, but the strand being read __ to __ is always the template |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| introns - spliced out, exons - expressed, used to make up proteins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amino acid addition, Polypeptide (protein), and Exit :: APE |
|
|
Term
| where does prokaryotic translation start? |
|
Definition
| 1st AUG after the shine-dalgarno sequence (GGAGG) |
|
|
Term
| Where does Eukaryotic translation start? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gene that scans DNA and loks for mutations |
|
|
Term
| prokaryotic genes are arranged in ___. each with it's own ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are genes turned on or off? protein regulators |
|
Definition
| repressors bind downstream of promotor (negative control - blocks RNA synthesis)... Activators bind upstream of a promotor (pos control - makes more RNA) |
|
|
Term
| How to turn genes on and off: environmental signals |
|
Definition
| induction - absence of a signal (gene is off) :: repression - absence of a signal, gene is on |
|
|
Term
| in ___ gene transcription, mrna is synthesized constantly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in ___ gene transcription, mrna is not usually produced but can be turned on by certain conditions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in ___ gene transcription, mrna is usually produced but can be turned off by certain conditions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ cut DNA at specific sequences |
|
Definition
| restriction endonucleases |
|
|
Term
| ___ puts cut ends back together to make recombinant DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ separates DNA fragments based on size |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ recognize speicific sequences of ssDNA. importance? |
|
Definition
| probes - can be used as primers to start replication anywhere you want. |
|
|
Term
| ___ allow easy detection of transcription from a promoter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ uses probes to find DNA fragments in electrophoretic gel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ uses special primers to amplify a special piece of DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is like making a library except only a specific gene is inserted into the new host |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ allows you to compare the amount of mRNA produced from each gene under different conditions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fleas, ticks, mites, lice |
|
|
Term
| __ viruses don't have matrix proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| stages of viral infection |
|
Definition
| attachment of viral protein spikes to glycoprotein receptors on host membrane, entry by membrane fusion or endocytosis, transit to site of replication, uncoating, replication of nucleic acid and transcription/translation, maturation, relase |
|
|
Term
| ___ viruses can undergo genetic reassortment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chemokines, interferon, interleukin, tumor necrosis factor |
|
|
Term
| how do phagocytes recognize pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| purpose of each in complement: C3b, C3a, C5a, C5b-9 |
|
Definition
| C3a - diapedesis, C5a - chemokines, C5b-9 - MAC, C3b - opsonization |
|
|
Term
| 4 ways bacteria "fight back" |
|
Definition
| antioxidants to counteract oxidative burst of phagocytes, oxidants to kill phagocytes, capsules to hide PMPs, leukocidins to kill WBCs |
|
|
Term
| what happens to bacteria that aren't killed by phagocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MHC _ is found on all cells and presents from ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MHC _ is found on APCs only and presents from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you produce antibodies to recognize all the different antigens? |
|
Definition
| somatic recombination by VDJ joining |
|
|
Term
| T cell receptors vs B cell receptors |
|
Definition
| BCR - antibodies, 2 arms .. TCR - 1 arm |
|
|
Term
| T_ cells bind to MHC1 and T_ cells bind to MCHII |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ vaccines usually contain an adjuvant. Purpose? |
|
Definition
| inactivated -- to enhance B7 production by dendritic cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type _ HS is a cytoxicity via ADCC and hapten |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type _ HS is antigen/antibody complexes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type _ HS is cell mediated and is delayed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4 types of autoimmune disease |
|
Definition
| myasthenia gravis, type 1 diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| SCID, agammaglobulinemia, DiGeorge syndrome, selective IgA deficiency |
|
|
Term
| __ is new cases, __ is total cases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do you make sure injected fluids are sterile? |
|
Definition
| LAL assay with the horseshoe crab |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AB, cellulolytic (hemolysins and phospholipases), tissue damaging (exfoliative and hyaluronidase), superantigen (activates Th cells even if no antigen is present) |
|
|
Term
| #1 antibacterial and what it does |
|
Definition
| Beta lactams (prevents PG crosslinking in cell wall synthesis) |
|
|
Term
| #2 most common antibiotics and what it does |
|
Definition
| Macrolides (zithromax) inhibits protein synthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| antibiotic effectiveness tests |
|
Definition
| KB (zone of inhibition), MIC, E (combines MIC and KB |
|
|
Term
| ___ are how bacteria get antibiotic resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| strep throat is caused by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ causes a classic lesion called a furuncle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 skin infections caused by strep |
|
Definition
| erysipelas, necrotizing faciitis, impetigo |
|
|
Term
| ___ infections of the skin are opportunistic and cause a greenish color |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| tetanus intoxication caused by? |
|
Definition
| AB toxin that inhibits neuroinhibitors |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the infectious agent in animal bites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ causes cat scratch disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 types of fungal skin infections |
|
Definition
| candida albicans (diaper rash, thrush), dermatophytes (tinea, athletes foot), sporotrichosis (from plant thorns) |
|
|
Term
| late sequelae of strep throat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is caused by an AB toxin and it affects the heart and kidneys and forms a pseudomembrane in the throat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Diphtheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis |
|
|
Term
| 2 bacteria responsible for ALL EENT infections? |
|
Definition
| haemophilus influenzae and strep pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| 50% of common colds are caused by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| diff between rhinovirus and adenovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why can't you treat walking pneumonia w/ B lactams? |
|
Definition
| walking pneumonia is caused by mycoplasma pneumoniae which has no cell wall |
|
|
Term
| infectious agent of pertussis |
|
Definition
| AB5 toxin that binds to epithelial cells and ADP-ribosylates an inhibitor of CAMP sythesis = too much fluid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| amantadine and oseltamavir (tamaflu) |
|
|
Term
| #1 cuse of LRT infection in infants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __ caused by inhaling dust from infected rodents -- causes very rapid pneumonia and hypovolemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a mold that grows in dry soil in the south and develops spherules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is passed through bird and bat droppings and is common in the midwest. virus looks like? |
|
Definition
| histoplasmosis, captain's wheel |
|
|
Term
| childhood illness diagnosed by a rash, fever, coughing, coryza, and conjunctivitis is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a tuberculosis granuloma reactivates, it may become disseminated to the liver as ___ tuberculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a non-encysted protozoan that causes a vaginal infection with frothy discharge belongs to the genus ___ |
|
Definition
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