Term
| What are the Borrelia vector-borne Infections? |
|
Definition
| Lyme disease, relapsing fever |
|
|
Term
| What are the Rickettsiae vector-borne Infections |
|
Definition
| Rocky mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the Arbovirus vector-borne infections? |
|
Definition
| Arbovirus Encephalitis (SLE and WNV) and viral hemorrhagic fevers (Dengue and Yellow) |
|
|
Term
| What are the protozoal vector-borne infections? |
|
Definition
| Malaria and Trypanosomiasis |
|
|
Term
| What are the Helminth vector-borne infections? |
|
Definition
| Filariasis and Schistomiasis |
|
|
Term
| Borrelia and Rickettsiae infections are _________ infections. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vectors inject the pathogens directly into the host during their meal except for which one? |
|
Definition
| The kissing bug- the pathogen is scratched/rubbed in by the human. |
|
|
Term
| How many legs do insect have and how many do ticks/mites (arthropods) have? |
|
Definition
| Six-legged insects, eight-legged ticks/mites |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and the main reservoir of Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)? |
|
Definition
Vector: hard (deer) tick Main Reservoir: mice |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of Lyme Disease? |
|
Definition
1. Rash (bullseye), flu-like 2. Increased hr; Bells palsy; meningitis;encephalitis 3. Lyme arthritis (syphilis-like problems) |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and the symptoms of relapsing fever? |
|
Definition
| Vector is soft tick, Symptoms are high fever, jaundice, macules, relapses, and rose-colored skin spots |
|
|
Term
| Why does relapsing fever occur? |
|
Definition
| Borrelia is capable of antigenic shifts- changing antigens on surface so the immune system responds again with fever. Each relapse is shorter and less severe. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and the symptoms of Rocky mountain spotted fever (Tickborne typhus-Rickettsia rickettsii)? |
|
Definition
| Vector is the hard (dog) tick, symptoms are fever, shock, headache, chills, macular rash (centripetal), loss of plasma, and fatal if misdiagnosed. |
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|
Term
| What is the vector and the symptoms of Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii)? |
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Definition
| Vector is human body louse, symptoms are fever, chills, macular rash, and meningoencephalitis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and the vertebrate reservoir of Arbovirus encephalitis (west nile, stl encephalitis- Flavivirus)? |
|
Definition
| Vector is mosquitos and vertebrate reservoir is birds. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Arbovirus encephalitis (west nile- Flavavirus)? |
|
Definition
| Chills, headache, fever. Mental confusion, coma, and neurological problems can occur if it progresses. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and symptoms of Viral hemorrhagic fever (yellow fever- Flavivirus)? |
|
Definition
| Vector is mosquitos, symptoms are fever, chills, headache, vomiting, nausea, and jaundice. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and the symptoms of Viral hemorrhagic fever (Dengue Fever- Flavivirus)? |
|
Definition
| Vector is mosquitos, symptoms are fever, body rash, muscle pain, and joint pain. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of malaria (plasmodium spp.- protozoan)? |
|
Definition
| Fever and headache in 2-3 day intervals. Benign symptoms (lethargy) to severe (destruction of RBCs, death) can occur. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector for Schistosomiasis (Fluke-Trematode)? |
|
Definition
| Snail- female lives in the groove of the male= continuous supply of eggs. Eggs lodge in tissue which leads to granulomas. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of Schistosomiasis? |
|
Definition
| 1 causes cystitis, 2 cause enteritis (affects urinary bladder or intestines). Adult worm can evade host immune system by coating with a layer that mimics host tissue. Like protozoans they can change their surface proteins and mimic host tissue. |
|
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Term
| What is the vector of Lymphatic filariasis (Roundworm-Nematode)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the bacterial STDs? |
|
Definition
| Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and pelvic inflammatory disease (?) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Genital warts (HPV), Genital herpes, hepatitis B, and HIV infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the Protozoal STDs? |
|
Definition
| Trichomoniasis, Pediculosis, and Scabies |
|
|
Term
| What is a fungal sexual problem? |
|
Definition
| Candidiasis (Candida albicans)= yeast infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 stages of Syphilis (Treponema pallidum bacteria)? |
|
Definition
| Primary (chancres), Secondary (rash, fever, lethargy, infectious stage), Latent (no symptoms, not infectious, dangerous congenitally), Tertiary (gummas) |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| It's an internal ulcer like an internal chancre. Can be found on internal organs and skin and involve the cardiovascular system and CNS during the tertiary stage of syphilis. |
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria causes gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae- Aerobic diplococcus Gram-negative. |
|
|
Term
| What can occur if gonorrhea goes undiagnosed or untreated? |
|
Definition
| It can cause sterility by prostatitis (inflammation of the prostate) or orchitis (inflammation of testes). |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes chlamydia? |
|
Definition
| Chlamydia trachomatis- aerobic bacillus, gram-negative |
|
|
Term
| What is the #1 cause of sterility as well as the #1 STD in America? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pelvic inflammatory disease affects the ovaries, cervix, uterus, oviducts, and possibly even GI organs around these. It's an extensive bacterial infection of female pelvic organs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the virus that causes Genital warts (Human papilloma virus/HPV)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does genital warts (HPV) cause? |
|
Definition
| Conylomata acuminata or painless growths that can lead to cervical cancer or cancer of the penis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of genital herpes (herpes simplex virus II)? |
|
Definition
| HSV I is oral but can be passed genitally. HSV II is genital but can be passed orally as well. Herpesviridae. |
|
|
Term
| What is the virus that causes Hepatitis B and what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Hepadnaviridae; transmitted through blood transfusions/needles. Asymptomatic to flu-like symptoms to enlarged liver (cancer). |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of HIV (Retroviridae)? |
|
Definition
| Human immunodeficiency virus binds to monocytes, macrophages, and helper T-cell CD4 receptors and disrupts immune system as well as endothelial cells. It is dangerous because it affects blood cells as well. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis)? |
|
Definition
| Vulvovaginitis- foul discharge and itchy for females. Males are more asymptomatic so there are more male carriers (unique to this STD). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Crabs or pubic lice- attach to pubic hair and feed on blood of host. Glue eggs to hair and cause papules (growths w/out liquid- not pimple). The enzymes in the saliva causes itchiness and it can spread to other places (eyelashes). |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Mites burrow into skin and make tunnels filled with feces and sheds saliva as it burrows. They are hard to get rid of and can live off the body for some time. |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of Candidiasis (Candida albicans- yeast infection)? |
|
Definition
| Sexual transmission, changes in diet, glycogen intake, antibiotics, and stress can exacerbate the condition. |
|
|
Term
| Why do females get more UTIs and what are they usually caused by? |
|
Definition
| Females have a shorter urethra, so its a shorter distance for infections to travel to the urinary bladder. Majority of UTIs are caused by E. Coli from improper wiping, sex, and hospital catheters impairing immune function. |
|
|
Term
| What is dysuria and pyuria? |
|
Definition
| Dysuria is difficult, painful and urgent urination. Pyruia is pus in the urine. |
|
|
Term
| What is nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)? |
|
Definition
| Any inflammation of the urethra NOT caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacterial STD pathogen). It's caused by E. coli, Chlamydia trachomatis, or Mycoplasma genitalium (aerobic bacillus with no cell wall). |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of nongonococcal urethritis? |
|
Definition
| urethral itching, clear, mucus-like discharge, and dysuria. |
|
|
Term
| What is cystitis and what is it caused by? |
|
Definition
| Cystitis is inflammation of the urinary bladder (mainly in females 8:1). It is caused by E. coli mostly but also Staphylococcus saprophyticus (facultative anaerobe, gram+ coccus). |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of cystitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 1/4 of untreated cystitis cases progress to _______. |
|
Definition
| Pyelonephritis (inflammation of the kidneys- one or both if infection is high enough). |
|
|
Term
| What are the main causes of pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
| E. coli is the main, but also Mycoplasma hominis (aerobic bacillus with no cell wall). |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
| Dysuria, fever, back pain, bacteruria, hematuria, and inflammation of the kidneys (obviously). |
|
|
Term
| What is glomerulonephritis and what is it caused by? |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus pyogens toxin- its inflammation of the Bowman's capsule and glomerulus. It is caused by untreated strep throat or pharyngitis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
| Proteinuria (affects bp), hematuria due to swollen glomeruli, and immune complexes containing streptococcal ag's. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Any agent that causes defects in a developing embryo (chemicals, viruses). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The initial, thickest breast milk the mother produces the first few days. provides nourishment, care, and initial antibodies. |
|
|
Term
| What are the routes of infection from mother to baby? |
|
Definition
| Congenital (maternal->placental->fetal infection), perinatal (maternal blood passes down infected birth canal), and postnatal (milk, blood, or saliva contact). |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of congenital CMV (Herpesviridae) infection? |
|
Definition
| microcephaly, retardation, anemia, abnormal skin, enlarged liver, enlarged spleen, and eye abnormalities ("pizza pie" retinopathy- invades endothelial cells in blood vessels of eyes). |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Congenital rubella (Togaviridae)? |
|
Definition
| Low birth weight, eye problems, heart lesions, diabetes mellitus, ear problems, and CV problems. |
|
|
Term
| What infection is most serious during the first trimester and is called the German measles in adults? |
|
Definition
| Congenital rubella- Togaviridae |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of congenital HIV (Retroviridae)? |
|
Definition
| 1/4 of infants born to mothers with HIV are born with the infection. Symptoms include thrush, developmental problems, enlarged liver, lymph nodes and spleen, and diarrhea. These symptoms mimic adult HIV. |
|
|
Term
| When is congenital syphilis most common and what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
| It is most common when the mother is in the latent stage because if she is in the primary or secondary stage it will cause a spontaneous abortion or stillborn. The symptoms include enlarged liver and spleen, abnormal bone, cartilage and teeth development. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two routes for congenital toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| Fecal cyst-> oral: changing a litter box and the cyst form is in the litter box and then you have oral contact with your fingers after touching the litter/cyst. The other route is Animal muscle cyst->oral route. This is eating mammals that have been infected with the protozoan. |
|
|
Term
| What is congenital toxoplasmosis caused by and what are the neonate problems involved? |
|
Definition
| It is caused by Toxoplasma gondii (protozoan). If exposed, antibodies usually develop easily (except congenitally or in immune-compromised adults). Neonate problems include retardation, hydrocephaly, enlarged liver and spleen, convulsions, jaundice, and stillborn. |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of infections acquired at birth? |
|
Definition
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae, chlamydia trachomatis, staphylococcus spp. (conjuctivitis), E.coli streptococcus spp (meningitis, septicemia), candida albicans (thrush), and staphylococcus aureus (scalded baby syndrome). |
|
|
Term
| What causes scalded baby syndrome? |
|
Definition
| High exposure to staphylococcus aureus during the birthing process can cause scalded baby syndrome- not permanent disfigurement. The high exposure can cause exfoliation of the outer epidermis of the skin. The outer epidermal portion of the skin falls off, exposing the baby to the environment more. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main routes of infection for CNS infections? |
|
Definition
| Nerves and blood vessels of the brain and spinal cord are main routes of infection. Blood-borne invasion happens across the blood-brain barrier and blood-cerebrospinal barrier. Bacteria don't invade; toxins do. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two Clostridium toxins? |
|
Definition
| Clostridium tetani (tetanus) and Clostridium botulinum (botulism). Both Clostridium toxin bacteria are anaerobic gram positive bacillus. |
|
|
Term
| How does someone get tetanus (clostridum tetani)? |
|
Definition
| Spores from soil or feces enter a wound. Produces a neurotoxin that is carried by the PNS axons. The neurotoxin blocks inhibitory spinal synapses which causes over-activity of motor neurons which means muscle rigidity including lockjaw. |
|
|
Term
| How does someone get botulism (Clostridium botulinum)? |
|
Definition
| Spores from canned food or soil are ingested and after digestion are absorbed into the blood. Toxins glock the release of ACh at PNS synapses (GI tract infection). |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between bacterial and viral meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Bacterial meningitis is more severe but less common than viral meningitis. Viral meningitis can be misdiagnosed as influenza, but can also be somewhat asymptomatic. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three main bacteria that cause bacterial meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Haemophilus meningitis (haemophilus influenza-anaerobic gram+ bacillus), Meningococcal meningitis (neisseria meningitidis- aerobic gram- diplococcus), Pneumococcal meningitis (streptococcus pneumoniae- facultative anaerobe gram + diplococcus). |
|
|
Term
| Which meningitis bacteria is carried asymptomatically by 20% of the population in the nasopharynx and occurs more in young adults living in close quarters? |
|
Definition
| Meningococcal meningitis- neisseria meningitidis (aerobic gram- diplococcus). |
|
|
Term
| What meningitis bacteria is found in throats in many americans (30-50% of cases) and is severe? |
|
Definition
| Pneumococcal meningitis- Streptococcus pneumoniae (facultative anaerobe, gram+ diplococcus). |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the causes of viral meningitis? |
|
Definition
| HIV, poliovirus, herpes simplex virus, and mumps. |
|
|
Term
| What is protozoal meningitis caused by? |
|
Definition
| it is caused by Naegleria fowleri- a free-living amoeba in stagnant fresh water. The protozoa/ amoeba is inhaled then invades the olfactory mucosa then meninges and is rapidly fatal. |
|
|
Term
| What is encephalitis and what are the two main types? |
|
Definition
| Encephalitis is severe inflammation of the brain that involves cerebral dysfunction, nausea, fever, and seizures. Usually its of viral origin, but sometimes is bacterial or protozoan. Occurs more in the summer or early fall (mosquitos). Is usually tick or mosquito borne but may also result form polio, mumps, rubella, measles, HIV, CMV, HSV, or rabies infections. Two types are Rabies encephalitis and Arboviral encephalitis. |
|
|
Term
| What is rabies encephalitis caused by? |
|
Definition
| The rabies virus (Rhabdoviridae) replicates at bite then ascends down axons to the CNS and spreads to PNS then to skin and salivary glands. Patient doesn't swallow saliva because the throat is painful due to skeletomuscular problems. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of rabies encephalitis? |
|
Definition
| Sore throat, fever, pain at wound, headache, muscle spasms, or even death. |
|
|
Term
| What is arboviral encephalitis caused by and what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Arboviral encephalitis is arthropod-borne (mosquito vector) that hosts primarily humans, birds, horses, and small mammals. Symptoms include chills, fever, headache, and possible coma or death. |
|
|
Term
| Define conjunctiva and conjunctivitis. |
|
Definition
| The conjunctiva lines the upper and lower eyelids. Conjuctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva (pinkeye). |
|
|
Term
| Define keratitis and blepharitis. |
|
Definition
| Keratitis is inflammation of the cornea. Blepharitis is infection of the lid margin. |
|
|
Term
| What is a stye and what is trachoma? |
|
Definition
| A stye is an infection of the eyelid glands of follicles. Trachoma is scarring of the cornea; the leading cause of blindness in the world. It's spread by hands, fomites, birth canal, or flies. Can be caused by long-term abrasion by scars or turned in eyelashes. Eyelid infections are usually due to Staphylococcus aureus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of bacterial conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
| Haemophilus influenza (most common), Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumonia. Neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia is Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydial/Inclusion conjunctivitis is Chlamydia trachomatis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms and the treatment for neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia (Neisseria gonorrhoeae)? |
|
Definition
| Acquired via birth canal, Symptoms include pus, ulceration of the cornea, and blindness. Treatment is antibiotics or silver nitrate. |
|
|
Term
| What bacterial infection is acquired via the birth canal and usually resolves itself but may lead to trachoma and blindness. |
|
Definition
| Chlamydial/inclusion conjunctivitis (Chlamydia trachomitis) may be passed onto the newborn and the mother may not be aware she even has it if she is asymptomatic. |
|
|
Term
| What is viral conjunctivitis caused by? |
|
Definition
| Usually caused by adenoviruses but can also be caused by measles, varicella-zoster, and herpes simplex virus. |
|
|
Term
| What causes protozoan conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
| Protozoan conjunctivitis and keratitis is caused by Acanthamoeba spp. The amoeba is found in fresh water, tap water, hot tubs, soil, and contact lens solution. |
|
|
Term
| Name the layers of the skin from most superficial to deeper. |
|
Definition
| Epidermis, dermis, subutaneous, muscle |
|
|
Term
| What is defined as a small, fluid-filled blister which is a microbial invasion of the epithelium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A hard, dry, and large NOT fluid-filled bump that can be found in clumps. Ex. warts. Microbe grows in the epithelium, which proliferates and microbe is shed with epithelial cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is a flat, red mark that is caused by local inflammation immune responses from infiltrating leukocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a more raised and red (marked) inflammation from invasion of neighboring tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an ulcer (in skin infections)? |
|
Definition
| The epithelium ruptures and the microbe is discharged. (HSV, VZV, yaws). |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of Staphylococcus aureus skin infections? |
|
Definition
| Folliculitis (acne, stye), boil (walled off), carbuncle (not walled off), Toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, and impetigo (also caused by Streptococcus pyogenes). |
|
|
Term
| What involves deep layers of skin, glands, and follicles, but is in a walled-off, contained area? |
|
Definition
| A BOIL is hard to treat because it can be found deeper in the skin, and pressure or popping the boil can break the wall and cause systemic infection. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of skin infection is hard, round, and not walled off? It also involves more than one follicle and deep tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause fever, rash, exfoliation of the skin on palms and soles, and is caused by exotoxins of Staphylococcus aureus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is tampon use affected by toxic shock syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Tampons absorb Staph aureus from the normal local flora in the vagina. The bacteria's natural response is to break down and release toxins which can lead to a systemic infection. |
|
|
Term
| What is impetigo caused by and what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Impetigo occurs when Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus enter the skin through an abrasion or insect bite. It can also be spread through contact. Impetigo causes vesicles (pustules) that become crusted and rupture. |
|
|
Term
| What is gangrene and what is it caused by? |
|
Definition
| Gangrene is death of soft tissue resulting from loss of blood supply, oxygen, etc. It is caused by Clostridium perfringens (anaerobic gram+ bacillus). |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of gangrene? |
|
Definition
| A wound causes the blood supply to be interrupted, which causes ischemia of the tissue. The wound then becomes anaerobic which causes necrosis (death of tissue), and thus gangrene. Clostridium perfringens toxins move along muscle bundles killing cells and causing necrosis of tissue. This bacteria is fairly common and found in soil. Substances released from dead or dying cells provide nutrients for bacterium and as they grow they ferment carbs in tissue, producing CO2 which causes tissues to swell. Bacterial enzymes degrade collagen. |
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|
Term
| What is Hansen's Disease caused by and what does it cause? |
|
Definition
| Hansen's disease or Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae (aerobic gram+ bacillus). It causes nerve damage, and you may not even know you have it because macrophages get rid of infection. There are neural and progressive forms. The PNS makes people unable to feel- so limbs get damaged and prone to infection (very dangerous). |
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|
Term
| What are fungi that colonize the hair, nails, and outer layer of the epidermis? They are also known as tinea or ringworm. |
|
Definition
| Dermatophytes. They degrade keratin present by secreting keratinase enzyme. |
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|
Term
| What is the name for ringworm of the scalp? Of the body? |
|
Definition
| Tinea capitis is ringworm of the scalp. Tinea corporis is ringworm of the body. |
|
|
Term
| What is the name for jock itch? For athlete's foot? |
|
Definition
| Jock itch is called tinea crusis. Athlete's foot is called tinea pedis. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the latent varicella-zoster virus (Shingles- Herpesviridae) found and what is it called if the virus reactivates? |
|
Definition
| The latent varicella-zoster virus is in the dorsal root ganglion near the spine. When the virus reactivates it is called shingles. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and the symptoms of Trichinosis (Trichinella spiralis- roundworm)? |
|
Definition
| Encysted larvae found in muscle of host. So ingestion of raw hamburger or pork is how it is acquired (vector). Symptoms include fever, GI upset, and edema around eyes. Typically not fatal unless infection is very high (very high number of larvae ingested). |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of the varicella-zoster virus (Shingles- Herpesviridae)? |
|
Definition
| 1) A cluster of small bumps turn into blisters as the virus starts to reactivate. 2) Reactivation and blisters fill with lymph fluid. 3)Crusting over. 4) Healing. 5) Postherpetic neuralgia can sometimes occur (nerve damage) which leads to pain without rash (difficult to manage). |
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|
Term
| How is Rubella (Togaviridae) acquired and what are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Rubella (German or 3-day measles)is acquired mainly through inhalation (airborne) of infected droplets. It may also be present on the skin, in urine, or in feces. The symptoms are milder than measles and may even go undetected. Incubation period is 2-3 weeks. Symptoms include red rash of small raised spots, fever, and complications are rare, but adult encephalitis can occur. |
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|
Term
| What is much more serious than rubella, and is the leading cause of vaccine-preventable disease today? |
|
Definition
| Rubeola (Measles- Paramyxoviridae) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three diseases from Paramyxoviridae? |
|
Definition
| MMR= mumps, measles, rubeola |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Rubeola? |
|
Definition
| Koplik's spots inside mouth (red patches with central white spot), body rash, cough, conjunctivitis, fever, and lymph node swelling. |
|
|
Term
| What is Mulluscum contagiosum? |
|
Definition
| Papules (Poxviridae) skin infection that affects approximately 1/6 of young (common). Most common in 1-10 yr olds and can affect any area of skin. Contagious by rubbing skin. Can be confused with warts, but warts are harder and solitary where these are not. Generally lasts 6 weeks- 5 months. |
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|
Term
| What are the 2 muscle infections? |
|
Definition
| Chagas' Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi- protozoan pathogen) and Trichonosis (Trichinella spiralis- roundworm). |
|
|
Term
| What is the bone infection? |
|
Definition
| Osteomyelitis (Staphylococcus aureus- may also be a mixed infection). |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector and symptoms of Chagas' Disease (American Trypanosomiasis)? |
|
Definition
| Vector is the kissing bug- it deposits pathogen onto skin while feeding and defacating. Typically bites soft areas of body that are exposed- causes allergic reaction so we scratch and make it systemic. Symptoms include Romana's sign (swollen eyelid), fever, tissue destruction via autoimmune response, and can cause severe CV/nerve problems at later stages (invades myofibrils of heart and CNS). |
|
|
Term
| What are some possible causes of Osteomyelitis (Staph aureus- possibly mixed infection)? |
|
Definition
| Incidence is 2/10,000. Types of trauma are the cause such as fracture, operation, UTI, tooth abscess (blood supply interrupted), boil, folliculitis, or staph infections if they become systemic. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector of relapsing fever (HA myalgia, lethargy, photophobia, and coughing)? |
|
Definition
| It can be soft ticks or louse-borne. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Animal diseases. (ex. already covered rabies, toxoplasmosis, and salmonellosis). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "Undulant Fever"- it is caused by Brucella spp- a gram negative, aerobic coccobacillus. It's a fever of unknown origin that comes and goes. We get it from unpasteurized milk or cheese. Also can get from direct contact w/ infected animal:farmer, vet, or abbatoir worker. |
|
|
Term
| What is called Rabbit fever, and how is it transmitted? |
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Definition
| Rabbit fever is tularemia- Francisella tularensis (gram-neg, aerobic, coccobacillus). Capsule inhibits phagocytosis which makes it very dangerous. It is an intracellular pathogen used in bioterrorism. Transmitted to humans via contact with rabbits (most commonly), muskrats, tick bites, deer flies, or undercooked meat. |
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Term
| How does tularemia become systemic? |
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Definition
| A papule becomes an ulcer at the site of infection, then lymph nodes swell and infection can become systemic via the lymphatic system. |
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Term
| What is Anthrax caused by? |
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Definition
| Bacillus anthracis- gram-positive facultative anaerobic bacillus. Macrophages take up endospores (bioterrorism threat). |
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Term
| What do the two exotoxins of Bacillus anthracis cause? |
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Definition
| 1. Edema, and 2. Lethal toxin (kills patient and macrophage that released it into the body). |
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Term
| What are the three forms of anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)? |
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Definition
| 1. Cutaneous- least serious, enters through cut turns into vesicle then ulcer. 90% of cases are cutaneous and typically does not become systemic. 2. Gastrointestinal- rare and is from ingesting the spores. 3. Inhalation/pulmonary- Woolsorter's disease. Most serious and very deadly. |
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Term
| What causes plague (black death)? |
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Definition
| Yersinia pestis (gram-negative bacillus facultative anaerobe). Virulent anti-phagocytic capsule. |
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Term
| What is the vector and the reservoirs of the plague? |
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Definition
| Vector is fleas, and reservoirs are rodents. |
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Term
| What's the difference between the pneumonic plague and the bubonic plague? |
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Definition
| The bubonic plague is from flea bites and has a mortality rate of 50-75% IU. Pneumonic plague is from inhalation of airborne droplets (Yersinia in lungs) and has a mortality of 100% IU. |
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Term
| Pandemic occurrences of plague have been directly responsible for more human deaths than any other infection except _____ and ______. |
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Definition
| Tuberculosis and malaria. |
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