Term
| What are the body landmarks for the anterior and posterior hip on physical examination? |
|
Definition
Anterior = ASIS, iliac crest, iliac tubercle and greater trochanter.
Posterior = greater trochanter and ischial tuberosity. |
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are part of the hip flexor group? |
|
Definition
Iliopsoas m.
Sartorius m.
Rectus femoris m. |
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are part of the hip adductor group? |
|
Definition
Gracilis m.
Pectineus m.
Adductor longus m.
Adductor brevis m.
Adductor magnus m. |
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are part of the hip abductor group? |
|
Definition
Gluteus medius m.
Gluteus minimus m. |
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are part of the hip extensor group? |
|
Definition
Gluteus maximus m.
Hamstring muscles (Bisceps femoris m., Semitendinous m., Semimembranous m.) |
|
|
Term
| What are the Thomas and Ober tests? What does a positive test mean? |
|
Definition
Thomas test – lay supine and flex the non-problematic leg, the opposite leg that is laying flat should stay flat. If the knee bends on the leg that is supposed to stay flat then that is a positive Thomas test indicating ITB contracture of the side that was supposed to flat on the table.
Ober test – pt on side, affected side up, examiner abducts the leg as far as possible, flex knee to 90 degrees, examiner releases leg it should adduct; if it does not + ober test = iliotibial band (ITB) contracture |
|
|
Term
| What is an Ortolani click? What is the name of the harness used for those with a positive click? |
|
Definition
Ortolani click – congenital, flex thigh, abduct and externally rotate femoral head, + click means congenital dislocated hip on the side that clicked (must put in a sling after you relocate the hip)
A Pavlik harness is used in babies with an Ortolani click. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Trendelenburg test? What muscle is affected with a positive test? |
|
Definition
| stand on one foot, hips should be parallel to floor, weak gluteus medius m. = drop hip on opposite side (means that the glute med is affected on the side that you are standing on) |
|
|
Term
| How do you measure for a true leg length discrepancy? |
|
Definition
| Measure ASIS to medial malleolus (first make sure that the ASIS’s are transverse) |
|
|
Term
| How do you measure for an apparent leg length discrepancy? |
|
Definition
| measure umbilicus to medial malleolus (ASIS – oblique) |
|
|
Term
| :Painful inflammation of the pubic symphysis, commonly after a urologic procedure or childbirth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How will Osteitis Pubis be seen on plain films? Tx regimen? |
|
Definition
Possibly normal or possibly a widening of the pubic symphysis.
Tx = NSAIDs for 1-2 weeks and PRN for up to 6 weeks, pelvic rest for 1-2 weeks and PT after 2 weeks of rest. |
|
|
Term
| What are some things that you need to watch for with a sacrococcygeal fracture? What is the treatment regimen? |
|
Definition
Need to watch for possible abscess (will need CT if there is a fracture).
Tx = Warm sitz bath, sit on a doughnut pillow, NSAIDs and avoidance of constipation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common presentation of DJD (Osteoarthritis) of the pelvis? What is the treatment if ASx? Symptomatic? |
|
Definition
It is usually asymptomatic and is an incidental finding on x-ray.
If asymptomatic then no treatment is necessary, if symptomatic then just give NSAIDs PRN. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the common complications of a fractured pelvis? |
|
Definition
Nerve damage
Femoral artery/vein damage
Male urethra damage
Internal organ damage |
|
|
Term
| What is a major concern of a fracture to the femoral neck? Treatment? |
|
Definition
Comp = avascular necrosis.
Tx = Open reduction with internal fixation (to preserve the femoral head). |
|
|
Term
| What is the mortality rate for the elderly with a femoral neck fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the hip typically carried in a patient with a hip fracture? |
|
Definition
| It is typically externally rotated. |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical S&S and onset for avascular necrosis of the femoral head due to fracture? What kind of manipulation will increase pain? What is the best test for diagnosing avascular necrosis of the femoral head? |
|
Definition
S&S/onset = Gradual onset of hip pain in 4-6 months, a slight limp, usually alcohol related, usually 20-40 years old and it has increased pain with internal rotation.
MRI is the best test for diagnosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of ITBS? What are the typical S&S? What is the diagnostic test for ITBS? Treatment regimen? |
|
Definition
Cause: inflammation & irritation of the distal portion of the iliotibial tendon by rubbing against the lateral femoral condyle, or the greater tuberosity; overuse injury - repetitive flexion and extension of the knee.
S&S = pain to lateral hip, increases with running and decreases with rest.
Diagnosis is made by MRI.
Tx = Rest, heat before stretching, ice after stretching, PT, NSAIDs, if no improvement after 6 weeks send to Ortho for injection and/or surgery. |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical S&S of Ischial Bursitis? What is the diagnostic study? Treatment? |
|
Definition
S&S = hip/buttock pain that is increased with sitting and there will tenderness over the ischial bursa.
Diagnosis is made by MRI.
Treatment = Rest, heat, NSAIDs and ortho consult for possible steroid injection. |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical S&S of Greater Trochanteric Bursitis? What is the diagnostic study? Treatment? |
|
Definition
S&S = Hip pain that is increased with walking or climbing stairs.
Diagnosis is made by MRI.
Tx = Rest, heat, NSAIDs and ortho consult for possible steroid injection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the average length of time that you would try NSAIDs in an inflammatory condition before you would consider sending to ortho for injection? |
|
Definition
| Typically 4-6 weeks of NSAID use without improvement. |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical S&S of Hip osteoarthritis? What is the treatment regimen? |
|
Definition
S&S = achey hip pain, groin pain that radiates to the medial knee and decreased hip ROM (flexion).
Tx = PT, NSAIDs, heat and ortho referral for possible steroid injection or hip replacement. |
|
|
Term
| What nerves and nerve roots make up the Sciatic nerve? S&S of Sciatica? Treatment? |
|
Definition
The tibial and common fibular nerve (L4-S3).
S&S = back/hip pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg.
Tx = NSAIDs, rest, PT consult and ortho referral for possible steroid injection and/or surgery. |
|
|
Term
| Describe where you find Dermatomes L1 through S1. |
|
Definition
L1 = AIIS to the inguinal ligament.
L2 = medial thigh.
L3 = anterior thigh.
L4 = medial shin and calf.
L5 = lateral calf.
S1 = posterior calf, lateral foot and 5th digit. |
|
|
Term
| What are the S&S of Compartment syndrome? What radiographs are helpful? What is the treatment? |
|
Definition
S&S = Hx of blunt trauma, pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pulselessness.
Radiographs are not helpful in diagnosis.
Tx = Emergency fasciotomy. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of hip dislocation? Describe the characteristic body position of someone with a posterior and anterior hip dislocation. What radiographic views should be taken for hip dislocations? Treatment? |
|
Definition
MC is posterior dislocation due to MVA usually.
Posterior = hip is in flexion, internal rotation and adduction.
Anterior = hip is in external rotation, abduction and mild flexion.
Views = AP, lateral, internal/external oblique.
Tx = ABCs and then send to ortho. |
|
|
Term
| What is the reasoning for ordering plain films, bone scans and MRIs for hamstrign strains? What is the treatment? |
|
Definition
Plain film = evaulate for ischial avulsion fracture.
Bone scan = evaluate for stress fractures.
MRI to evaulate the actual muscle.
Tx = RICE, NSAIDs and PT consult. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the typical characteristics of someone that is at risk for Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis. What are the S&S of those with Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis? How will this condition look on plain films? How will it look in the chronic stages of the disease? Tx? |
|
Definition
Typical = obesity, adolescence and hypothyroidism are risk factors.
S&S = pain in groin, medial thigh and knee with decreased internal rotation and an externally rotated antalgic Trendelenburg gait.
Plain film shows varus angulation of epiphysis – “ice cream falling off of its cone” and “Kline’s lines” – loss of intersection of ephiphysis by femoral neck. Chronic conditions appears as a “Pistol grip deformity”.
Tx = Send to Ortho. |
|
|
Term
| What is Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease? S&S? What radiographs should be considered? Tx? |
|
Definition
It is an idiopathic hip disorder caused by avascular necrosis of the femoral head common in 4-8 year old males.
S&S = limp, Trendelenburg gait, leg length discrepancy, atrophy of the thigh, calf and buttock and possible pain.
Radiographs = AP, lateral and frog view with possible MRI for soft tissue.
Tx = send to ortho for abduction cast to contain the femoral head. |
|
|
Term
| What is trendelenburg's gait? |
|
Definition
| Gait caused by a weak hip adductors (glute med) where the weak side will cause a sag of the unaffected side when the weak side is in the stance phase of walking. |
|
|
Term
| What are the muscles of the Quadriceps group? Main action? |
|
Definition
Rectus femoris m.
Vastus lateralis m.
Vastus medialis m.
Vastus intermedius m.
Main action is knee extension. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the connections and action of the ACL, PCL, MCL and LCL. |
|
Definition
The anterior vs posterior relates to where they attach on the Tibia, so ACL attaches posterior Femur to anterior Tibia and prevents anterior movement of the tibia. PCL attaches the anterior femur to the posterior Tibia and prevents posterior movement of the Tibia.
MCL attaches the medial femur to the medial tibia and prevents valgus force to the knee.
LCL connects the lateral femur to the lateral fibula preventing varus force to the knee. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of pain occurring in the medial or lateral knee? |
|
Definition
| Meniscus or collateral ligament tears or arthritis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of pain occurring behind the knee? |
|
Definition
| Baker's cyst or arthritis |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of pain occurring just over/under the patella? |
|
Definition
| Chondromalacia patella, patella tracking, bursitis or arthritis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of pain occurring just above the knee? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of pain occurring just below the knee? |
|
Definition
| Osgood-Schlatter's disease or patellar tendon damage |
|
|
Term
| Describe valgus and varus leg deformities. |
|
Definition
| Valgus deformity is "knocked knee" and Varus is "bowed leg". |
|
|
Term
| What muscles are knee flexors? |
|
Definition
| Semimembranosus, Semitendinosus, Biceps Femoris, Gracilis, Sartorius, Gastrocnemius and TFL (WTF??). |
|
|
Term
| Which muscles are the knee extensors? |
|
Definition
| Quadriceps and TFL (WTF??) |
|
|
Term
| Which nerve roots are tested with the patellar reflex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Q angle? What are the average Q angles for men and women? |
|
Definition
The Q-angle is formed from a line drawn from the ASIS to the center of the kneecap and another line from the center of the kneecap to the tibial tubercle. Look at the intersection of these lines and the most inferior quadrant made by the lines is used to measure the Q angle.
Average for men is 14 degrees and women is 17 degrees. |
|
|
Term
| Describe a Lachman's test. |
|
Definition
| Patient is supine with their knee flexed at 30 degrees. The femur is stabilized with one hand and the tibia is pulled anteriorly with the other. It tests the ACL for tears or injuries which will be seen as an increase in the forward motion of the tibia. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Anterior Drawer test. |
|
Definition
| The patient is supine and their foot is on the table with their knee flexed at 90 degrees. The patients foot is stabilized by the examiner by sitting on it and the examiner uses both hands to try and pull the tibia anteriorly. If there is anterior laxity that is indicative of a torn ACL. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Posterior Drawer test. |
|
Definition
| The patient is supine and their foot is on the table with their knee flexed at 90 degrees. The patients foot is stabilized by the examiner by sitting on it and the examiner uses both hands to try and push the tibia posteriorly. If there is posterior laxity that is indicative of a torn PCL. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the procedure of checking for joint line tenderness and what a positive result is indicative of. |
|
Definition
| Palpate medially and laterally over the joint line between femur and tibia with the knee flexed, if there is tenderness then there is a possible meniscus injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe a Valgus Stress Test. |
|
Definition
| Patient is supine on the table with their leg abducted, examiner applies force in the lateral direction to the ankle from the medial aspect and force in the medial direction to the knee from the lateral aspect. Increased laxity is indicative of an MCL injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe a Varus Stress Test. |
|
Definition
| Patient is supine on the table with their leg abducted, examiner applies force in the medial direction to the ankle from the lateral aspect and force in the lateral direction to the knee from the medial aspect. Increased laxity is indicative of an LCL injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe a lateral meniscus McMurray Test. |
|
Definition
| Patient lies supine with their knee completely flexed, the examiner then internally rotates the foot and tibia and then extends the leg/knee. A snap, click or pain is indicative of a lateral meniscus injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe a medial meniscus McMurray Test. |
|
Definition
| Patient lies supine with their knee completely flexed, the examiner then externally rotates the foot and tibia and then extends the leg/knee. A snap, click or pain is indicative of a medial meniscus injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe Apley's compression test. |
|
Definition
| The patient is laying in the prone position with their knee flexed to 90 degrees, the examiner then presses on the heel and then medially and laterally rotates the foot. Pain to the medial aspect of the knee is a possible medial meniscal injury and pain to the lateral aspect of the knee is a possible lateral meniscal injury. |
|
|
Term
| Describe Apley's distraction test. |
|
Definition
| The patient is laying in the prone position with their knee flexed at 90 degrees. The examiner stabilizes the femur with his knee and then pulls up on the foot and medially/laterally rotates the foot. Pain to the lateral aspect of the knee is indicative of an LCL injury and pain to the medial aspect of the knee is indicative of an MCL injury. |
|
|
Term
| What is a Patellar Apprehension test? |
|
Definition
| The patient lies flat and supine on the table with their quadriceps relaxed, the examiner tries to dislocate the patella laterally and if the patient has pain with attempt to dislocate the patella then they are more prone to patellar dislocations. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Minor Effusion test of the knee. |
|
Definition
| The patient is laying supine and the examiner pushes fluid from the suprapatellar pouch towards the foot, pressure over the lateral aspect will push the fluid medially and pressure over the medial aspect will push the fluid laterally if fluid is present. |
|
|
Term
| What muscles, reflexes and dermatones are supplied by S1? |
|
Definition
Muscle = Peroneus longus and brevis.
Reflex = Achilles tendon reflex.
Dermatone = lateral lower leg, plantar surface of foot, lateral malleolus and 5th digit. |
|
|
Term
| Are medial or lateral meniscal injuries more common? What are some common S&S with meniscal injuries? What positive tests will you have with meniscal injuries? What is the diagnostic imagine technique? Tx? |
|
Definition
Medial meniscal injuries are more common.
S&S = Usually due to a twisting injury, knee pain and knee popping, locking or giving out.
Will have a positive joint line tenderness, McMurray's test and Apley's Compression test.
Diagnosed by MRI.
Tx = Surgery, PT and no sports for 6 months. |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology and S&S of a meniscal cyst? What is the diagnostic radiographic technique? Tx? |
|
Definition
Etiology = caused by an extrusion of synovial fluid through a meniscal tear, resulting in the accumulation of fluid outside the joint capsule.
S&S = Hx of trauma, hemorrhage or chronic infection, usually in the lateral joint, most often in 20-40 year old males and the mass changes in size with knee flexion and extension.
Diagnosed by MRI.
Tx = Ortho consult |
|
|
Term
| How is Bursitis diagnosed? What is the treatment? |
|
Definition
Diagnosed by MRI.
Tx = Ice, compression, crutches, NSAIDs and ortho consult for aspiration and/or steroid injection. |
|
|
Term
| Where do you typically find popliteal cysts? Baker's cysts? |
|
Definition
Popliteal = posterior-lateral knee that is inferior to the knee crease.
Baker's = behind the knee. |
|
|
Term
| What bore needle is usually used for aspiration of a swollen bursa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the S&S of a femur shaft fracture? How much blood can be lost into the thigh?
Treatment? |
|
Definition
S&S = Hx of trauma, there will be an obvious deformity, and they will be unable to bear weight.
Up to 3 L of fluid can be lost into the thigh.
Tx = type and cross blood match bc they will need blood and send to ortho. |
|
|
Term
| What are the S&S of a Tibial plateau fracture? What imaging techniques are used? Treatment? |
|
Definition
S&S = Hx of trauma, swelling, possible deformity and inability to bear weight.
Radiographs = plain films and CT w/ scout view (A scout view is a preliminary image obtained prior to performing the major portion of a particular study).
Tx = Send to ortho |
|
|
Term
| Describe type I-V Salter-Harris fractures. |
|
Definition
Type I – Fx through epiphyseal plate.
Type II – Epiphyseal plate Fx w/ associated metaphyseal fragment.
Type III – Fx through epiphysis into articular surface (epiphyseal plate).
Type IV – Fx through distal metaphysis, epiphyseal plate & epiphysis.
Type V – crush or impaction of epiphyseal plate. |
|
|
Term
| What are the S&S of a patellar fracture? What film views to you want to order? What is the treatment? Patient education? |
|
Definition
S&S = Hx of trauma, acute knee pain, swelling and inability to extend knee.
Views = AP, lateral and sunrise views.
Tx = Send to ortho and PT.
Pt education = recovery can take up to 1 year. |
|
|
Term
| What are some risk factors for patellar dislocations? S&S? Radiographs? Tx? |
|
Definition
Risk factors = excessive Q angle, ligament laxity and Pes Planus (flat feet).
S&S = Patellar tenderness, possible effusion and a positive apprehension test.
Radiographs are not indicated.
Tx = PT and NSAIDs and if it does not improve then send to Ortho. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common causes of Tibiofemoral dislocations, Patellar fractures, Tibial plateau fractures, and Femoral shaft fractures? |
|
Definition
| Fall from heights or MVA. |
|
|
Term
| What are the S&S of Osgood-Schlatter's Disease? What radiographic procedures are indicated and why? Tx? |
|
Definition
S&S = pain and swelling in the anterior knee over the tibial tuberosity, commonly in an adolescent athlete.
Radiographs = plain films to rule out fracture and bone scan to rule out stress fractures.
Tx = RICE, NSAIDs and Ortho consult. |
|
|
Term
| What are the S&S of a Patellar Tendon rupture? What radiographs would you order? Tx? |
|
Definition
S&S = displacement of the patella, injury with acute pain, swelling and inability to extend their knee.
Order plain films to rule out avulsion fracture.
Tx = send to ortho for surgery. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for osteoarthritis of the knee? |
|
Definition
| PT consult for ROM, weight loss, NSAIDs and ortho consult if they need a knee replacement. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of Patellofemoral Syndrome? S&S? What imaging views are indicated? Tx? |
|
Definition
Cause = overuse or excessive Q angle.
S&S = anterior knee pain that is worse with climbing stairs or prolonged sitting, patellar tenderness and swelling and a positive apprehension test.
Views = AP and lateral (30 & 45 degree angles).
Tx = RICE, PT and NSAIDs. |
|
|
Term
| What is Chondromalacia? How is it usually diagnosed? Common S&S? |
|
Definition
It is softening and degeneration of the
cartilage underneath the patella. It is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding by an orthopedic after scope for another knee issue.
S&S = usually asymptomatic but they will have crepitus with flexion/extension. |
|
|
Term
| What are the connections of the anterior tibiofibular ligament? |
|
Definition
| Connects the distal end of the tibia to the fibula anteriorly. |
|
|
Term
| What are the connections of the posterior tibiofibular ligament? |
|
Definition
| connects distal end of the tibia to fibula posteriorly |
|
|
Term
| What are the connections of the anterior talofibular ligament? |
|
Definition
| connects the lateral malleolus with the talus anteriorly |
|
|
Term
| What are the connections of the posterior talofibular ligament? |
|
Definition
| It connects the lateral malleolus with the talus posteriorly. |
|
|
Term
| What are the connections with the calcaneofibular ligament? |
|
Definition
| It connects the lateral malleolus with calcaneus. |
|
|
Term
| Which ankle ligament common tears with inversion injuries? Which is most commonly injured? |
|
Definition
Most commonly torn = Calcaneofibular ligament.
Most commonly injured = anterior talofibular ligament. |
|
|
Term
| What are the connections of the deltoid ligament in the ankle? Which ligaments make up the deltoid ligament? |
|
Definition
It connects the medial malleolus with the talus, navicular and calcaneous.
Made of the anterior/posterior tibiotalar, tibionavicular and tibiocalcaneal ligaments. |
|
|
Term
| What muscles are being tested at the L4 neurologic level (name the action too)? Reflex? Describe the dermatone. |
|
Definition
Muscles = Tibialis anterior (dorsiflexion and inversion).
Reflex = Patellar reflex.
Dermatone = medial leg and medial malleolus. |
|
|
Term
| What muscles are being tested at the L5 neurologic level (name the action too)? Reflex? Describe the dermatone. |
|
Definition
Muscles = Extensor hallucis longus (dorsiflexion of great toe).
Reflex = None.
Dermatone = lateral leg, top of the foot and the great toe. |
|
|
Term
| What muscles are being tested at the S1 neurologic level (name the action too)? Reflex? Describe the dermatone. |
|
Definition
Muscles = Peroneus longus and brevis (eversion and plantar flexion).
Reflex = Achilles tendon reflex.
Dermatone = lateral leg, bottom of foot, lateral malleolus and the 5th digit. |
|
|
Term
Which muscles are the foot dorsiflexors?
What nerve are they all innervated by? |
|
Definition
Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus.
*All innervated by the deep peroneal nerve. |
|
|
Term
Which muscles are the foot plantarflexors?
What nerve are they innervated by? |
|
Definition
Peroneus longus/brevis, gastrocnemius, flexor hallucis longus and tibialis posterior.
*All are innervated by the tibial nerve except the peroneus longus and brevis are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Anterior Drawer Test for the ankle. |
|
Definition
| Patient is sitting with their legs dangling off the side of the table. The examiner stabilizes the anterior lower tibia with one hand and applies posterior force with that hand and grips the calcaneus with the other and applies anterior force. If there is anterior dislocation or a "clunk" then that is indicative of an anterior talofibular ligament injury. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The patient is sitting at the end of the table with one leg full extended. The examiner forcibly dorsiflexes the patients ankle. If there is calf pain then there is a possible DVT. |
|
|
Term
| Describe Thompson's Test. |
|
Definition
| Patient lies prone or kneels on a chair with feet hanging over the edge while relaxing. The examiner squeezes the calf muscle and there should be plantar flexion of the foot. If there is not then it is indicative of an Achilles tendon rupture. |
|
|
Term
| Which arch is lost with Pes Planus? What radiographic views should be taken? What are the treatments for congenital and adult Pes Planus? |
|
Definition
Longitudinal arch is lost.
Views = Standing lateral and standing AP.
Congenital Tx = PT or Ortho/Podiatry for surgery.
Adult Tx = PT, NSAIDs, and Ortho/Podiatry if ADLs are affected (No arch supports for adults). |
|
|
Term
| Describe the foot alignment and shoe type that someone should get with a normal arch, high arch and flat foot. |
|
Definition
Normal arch = neutral foot alignment and they should get a stability shoe.
High arch = supinator and they need a cushioned shoe.
Flat foot = pronator and they need a motion control shoe. |
|
|
Term
| What is Pes Cavus? What imaging views should be taken? Tx? |
|
Definition
It is abnormally high arches.
Views = Standing AP and lateral.
Tx = Send to Ortho or Podiatry for surgery. |
|
|
Term
| Describe grades 1-3 ankle sprains. Tx? |
|
Definition
1 = partial tear of anterior talofibular ligament.
2 = partial to complete tear of anterior talofibular ligament & partial tear calcaneofibular ligament.
3 = complete rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament & calcaneofibular ligament.
Tx = RICE for 1 week, ROM exercise, crutches, NSAIDs and PT if needed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the indication for an x-ray of an ankle sprain per Ottowa Rules? |
|
Definition
X-rays are only required if there is any bone tenderness:
The distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia
Tip of the medial malleolus
The distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the fibula
Tip of the lateral malleolus
Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for an ankle fracture/dislocation? |
|
Definition
| Send to ortho for cast or surgery. |
|
|
