Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Z Medicine
Medicine Shelf Review
317
Medical
Graduate
09/11/2012

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What condition can cause a soft S1? What medications/conditions can lead to temporary episode of this condition?
Definition
  • first degree heart block
  • inferior wall infarction, rheumatic fever, digitalis poisoning
Term
What is sinoatrial node dysfunction?
Definition
aka sick sinus syndrome; it is a collection of pathologic findings that include sinus arrest, sinus exit block, and sinus bradycardia. Approximately 50% of patients also have SVT (most often a flutter or a fib). The tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome is charactertized by rapid ventricular conduction during episodes of a fib, but resting bradycardia in between. Symptomatic SA node dysfxn is an indication for pacemaker placement, even if brady is the result of drug thx.
Term
If the patient is unable to tolerate an ACE inhibitor due to angioedema what is a good alternative?
Definition

A combination of Hydralazine & Nitroglycerin.

This is in the setting of congestive heart failure.

Term
Which calcium channel blocker would you use to treat HTN not adequately controlled by β-blockers and ACE inhibitors in a patient with heart failure?
Definition
Amlodipine and felodipine are the only CCB w/ demonstrated neutral effects on mortality in patients w/ heart failure. Nifedipine has been shown to increase the risk of heart failure decompensation and hospitalization.
Term
What is platypnea? orthodeoxia? What disease is it associated with?
Definition

Platypnea is dyspnea worse while sitting upright.

Orthodeoxia is a fall in partial pressure of O2 while in an upright position. This is indicative of V/Q mismatch. These findings are associated with hepatopulmonary syndrome. Liver disease (cirrhosis→portal HTN→ascites). Clubbing, cyanosis, and hypoxemia are characteristics of hepatopulmonary syndrome. The hypoxemia results from pulmonary vascular dilatation→intrapulmonary shunting→V/Q mismatch.

Term
What are the classic manifestations of aortic stenosis?
Definition

Angina, syncope, and heart failure

narrow pulse pressure, diminished carotid upstroke, sustained apical impulse, late-peaking systolic ejection murmur radiating to carotids, and S4 are characteristic findings of severe aortic stenosis.

Atrial fibrillation can be associated with rapid and severe clinical deterioration due to the more rapid rate and loss of atrial contribution to left ventricular filling.

p. 34

Term
What lung problem are associated with systemic sclerosis?
Definition

Pulmonary HTN and Interstitial Lung Disease.

These present differently!

PHTN - loud P2, fixed split S2, pulmonic flow murmur, tricuspid regurgitation.

ILD - restrictive lung disease with <80% lung volume, inspiratory crackles.

Term
How does one get a chylothorax? Describe the characteristic of the effusion.
Definition
Chylothorax is the drainage of lymphatic fluid into the pleural space, and is due to disruption or blockage of the thoracic duct or any of the tributaries. Malignancy is the most common cause, but is also associated with pulmonary TB, sarcoidosis, lymphangioleiomyomatosis, and radiation fibrosis. The fluid is usually milky, but can be serous or serosanguinous in malnourished patients with low fat intake. TG is usually > 100, if < 50 it is probably not chylothorax.
Term
Lymphocyte predominant pleural effusion. What is it?
Definition

TB is the most common cause of lymphocyte predominant exudate, typically as high as 90-95% lymphos.

Pleural bx to dx.

p. 267

Term
In the case of asthma exacerbation with normal to slightly elevated PaCO2, what do you do? How is respiratory failure determined?
Definition

Patients with asthma exacerbation present initially with hypocapnea, but as fatigue sets in CO2 starts to increase. Normal to slightly elevated CO2 is indicative of impending respiratory failure (pulseOx < 95%, PO2 < 75 mmHg, RR > 30, HR > 120)

p. 267

Term
In the event of severe COPD exacerbation, which medications are recommended?
Definition

In addition to oral or IV corticosteroids, short-acting bronchodilators (albuterol or ipratroprium), and supplemental oxygen, abx are recommended. To cover the common organisms (H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, M. catarrhalis) 3rd gen cephalosporin + macrolide or monothx with a fluoroquinolone.

In terms of O2 thx, noninvasive positive pressure ventilation should also be considered (RR > 25, pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45). If, however, respiratory arrest is impending intubation should be considered.

p. 269

Term
Which medications are recommended for the tx of severe COPD? What course of action is available if the patient is symptomatic despite medical thx?
Definition

Inhaled 1) long-acting β-agonist paired with an acetylcholine inhibitor + 2) step-up thx to inhaled corticosteroids (fluticasone) + O2.

If the patient is still symptomatic consider pulmonary rehabilitation, which consists of patient education, exercise training, psychosocial support, nutritional support, and evaluation for O2 thx.

p. 270, Step-Up p. 73

Term
A patient comes in complaining of snoring, morning HA, nasal congestion, falling asleep once while driving. O2 sat is 90% on RA, BMI is 34, cardiopulmonary exam is normal. What is on the differential?
Definition

Obstructive Sleep Apnea and Obesity-Hypoventilation Syndrome.

Both present with similar symptoms and one can accompany the other.

Dx of OSA requires polysomnography as clinical suspicion and physical exam findings are neither sensitive nor specific.

Patients w/ untreated OSA have a greater likelihood of developing systemic HTN.

p. 272

Term
What is drug induced lung toxicity? What are the symptoms?
Definition

Drug-induced lung toxicity is a hypersensitivity reaction and is associated with the usage of amiodarone. Symptoms include fatigue, low-grade fever, cough, dyspnea, and peripheral eosinophilia. Onset is usually 1 month after initiating a drug and progresses slowly.

p.275

Term
In which type of patient is metformin contraindicated?
Definition

renal insufficiency

metformin is cleared renally

Term
What is the criteria for dx diabetes mellitus type 2? impaired fasting glucose?
Definition

fasting blood glucose > 126

random plasma glucose > 200 and symptoms of hyperglycemia

2-hour oral glucose tolerance test > 200

A1C > 6.5% 

IFG - fasting glucose 100 - 125, or impaired glucose tolerance when plasma glucose is 140-199 after 2 hours.

Term
How do you dx DKA?
Definition
  1. blood glucose level
  2. anion gap metabolic acidosis (arterial pH < 7.3, thus an abg is required)
  3. serum CO2 level < 15
  4. + serum or urine ketones
Term
A patient presents with DKA or HHS, what is the first therapeutic measure that needs to be performed?
Definition

IV fluids!!!

administration of insulin first can drive glucose back into the cell and theoretically pull water back with it, further depleting intravascular volume.

Term
What are the 5 cardiovascular risk factors? CHD equivalents?
Definition
  1. Smoking
  2. HTN
  3. Age ≥ 45 men, ≥ 55 women
  4. ↓ HDL (< 40 mg/dl)
  5. FHx of CAD

in patients with zero or one risk factor the target LDL-cholesterol level is < 160 mg/dl, lifestyle modification > 160, drug thx > 190; ≥ 2 risk factors, lifestyle ≥ 130, drug > 130 w/ 10 year risk 10-20% or ≥ 160 w/ 10 year risk < 10%).


  1. DM
  2. symptomatic CAD
  3. peripheral artery disease
  4. AAA

goal is cholesterol < 100, lifestyle modifications if ≥ 100, initiate drug thx if ≥ 130.

 

UW3823

 

Term
What are fibrates used to manage?
Definition
Triglycerides
Term
What conditions elevate Thyroid Binding Globulin levels?
Definition
  1. pregnancy (↑ estrogen)
  2. liver disease
  3. oral contraceptive use
  4. aspirin

Remember ↑ TBG = ↑ total T4

Term

What condition can cause an anion gap & an osmolar gap?

In what condition will you find an anion gap with a normal osmolar gap?

Definition

Ingestion of ethanol, ethylene glycol, or methanol.

 alcoholic ketoacidosis, DKA, or lactic acidosis

 Remember, only ethylene glycol is associated with acute kidney injury and calcium oxalate crystals (rectangular, envelope-shape) in the urine.

Term

What are the symptoms of hypophosphatemia?

In which situations do you need to be wary of hypophosphatemia?

Definition

confusion, rhabdomyolysis, hemolytic anemia, and severe muscle weakness that can lead to respiratory failure. 

chronic alcoholics who have poor oral intake can present with normal phosphate levels; however, severe hypophosphatemia develops in 12-24 hours of admission because of administration of glucose which stimulates insulin release, forcing phosphate to shift into cells.

Term
What is parathyroid hormone related peptide (PTHrP)?
Definition
  • Produced by neoplastic cells, and shares N-terminus sequence homology with PTH.
  • primarily sereted by squamous cell carcinomas - lung, esophagus, head & neck, but also renal & bladder cancer, ovarian & endometrial cancer, and breast cancer.
  • The diagnosis of humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy can be dx'ed w/o measuring PTHrP, but by detecting hypercalcemia with decreased PTH with a compatible malignancy.
  • FYI - bone metastases → hypercalcemia via release of cytokines → ↑ osteoclast activity → bone resorption.

UW3101

Term
When you see hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia what should you think of?
Definition
Adrenal Insufficiency
Term
What electrolyte imbalances can hydrochlorothiazide cause?
Definition

Hyponatremia - N&V, HA (hyponatremic encephalopathy); worsening brain swelling causes ↓ mental status and seizures.

Hypercalcemia

Term
How is laxative abuse dx'ed?
Definition

Hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis

urine potassium is < 20 meq/L is suggestive of extrarenal K+ loss. GI disorder is the most commone extrarenal cause of K+ loss. Diarrhea → fecal K+ loss + normal anion gap acidosis due to ↑ HCO3- GI loss. 

Be on the lookout for underweight adolescents.

Term
How does Cinacalcet work?
Definition

Cinacalcet binds to the parathyroid calcium-binding receptor, leading to decreased release of PTH.

This thx is only indicated for refractory secondary hyperparathyroidism of CKD (↓ serum calcium and ↑ PTH) or tertiary hyperparathyroidism (↑ serium calcium and ↑ serum PTH).

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a state of excessive secretion of PTH after a long period of secondary hyperparathyroidism and resulting hypercalcemia. It reflects development of autonomous (unregulated) parathyroid function following a period of persistent parathyroid stimulation.

Term
What is CHADS2?
Definition

It is a rating system used to determine the need for anticoagulation for patients with atrial fibrillation. 

Each letter, with the exception of Stroke, is assigned a value of 1 point. Stroke is valued at 2 points. Any score > 2 requires anticoagulative thx. 

CHF, HTN, Age > 75, DM, Stroke/TIA

Term
What happens to the ECG when a patient is taking digoxin?
Definition

Digoxin is given to patients with A. fib in an attempt to control the ventricular rate. However, it interupts the interpretation of the ECG during an acute coronary syndrome (non-specific ECG changes). Next step is to perform an echocardiogram looking for:

ventricular wall hypokinesis (indicating infarcted tissued).

Other conditions where an echo is preferred when diagnosing acute ischemia include:

  1. LBBB
  2. LVH
  3. Pacemaker
  4.  non-specific ECG changes
  5. young females
Term
What is a likelihood ratio?
Definition

LRs can be used to apporximate the probability of a disease AFTER a test is performed.

Must memorize LR  of 2, 5, 10 is equal to 15%, 30%, 45%. 

For example, if a pretest probability of X disease is 50% with a  positive LR of 13.3, add 45% to 50% to get a posttest probability of 95%. 

+LR = sensitivity/(false positive rate) 

False positive rate = 1-Specificity

Term
What is the recommendation for AAA screening?
Definition

One-time screening for aortic abdominal aneurysm for men between the ages of 65 and 75 who have ever smoked.

If the test is normal there is no need for further screenings; death from AAA rupture in this patient population is rare. 

Term
What is the screening recommendation for osteoporosis?
Definition
  • Women aged 65 and older should be screened routinely. 60 and  older if women are at increased risk for osteoporotic fractures.
  • Risk Factors: ↑ age, thin body habitus, smokingalcohol, corticosteroid, menopause, malnutrition, FHx, asian, and caucasian.

UW4122

Term
What is the recommendation for Herpes Zoster vaccination?
Definition

Vaccination is indicated in all patients aged 60 years and older without contraindications (not immunocompromised), regardless of history of prior varicella infection. 

This is a live vaccine.

Immunization should be avoided if an immunocompromised person is living in the household.

Term
What is the recommendation for colorectal cancer screening?
Definition

Starting at the age of 50 the options are:

  1. Colonoscopy every 10 years
  2. Flexsigmoidoscopy every 5 years + high sensitivity fecal occult blood test every 3 years. Some groups recommend FOBT annually.
  3. Double contrast barium enema every 5 years
  4. Annual FOBT, at home sampling of 2-3 consecutive specimens, if patient is willing to follow up with a colonoscopy after an abnormal finding.

If patient has a 1st degree relative with CC screening is initiated at age 40 or 10 years earlier than age of dx. Then colonoscopy is repeated every 3-5 years. p.243

 

If the patient has a hx of IBD, annual (or every 2 years) colonoscopies are recommended 8 years after onset of disease. Random bx are performed in four-quadrant fashion throughout the entire colon. Colectomy is recommended if dysplasia is identified.

Term

What is situational syncope?

What are the prodromal symptoms?

Definition

A neurocardiogenic (vasovagal) reflex mediated in response to a particular stimulus, typically coughing, micturition, or defecation. Also, pain, stress, sight of medical needles.

Sx: nausea, lightheadedness, pallor, and diaphoresis. Brief myoclonic jerking after syncope is not unusual.

Dx: Upright tilt table testing.

Term
A patient faints, but has no indications for orthostatic hypotension (medication induced, neurogenic, non-neurogenic), seizures (postictal confusion, tongue biting, incontinence), or situational syncope. What is the diagnosis?
Definition
Ventricular tachycardia, most commonly seen in patients with advanced systolic heart failure and underlying ischemic heart disease. It is the most feared cause of syncope as it has a tendency to recur and cause sudden cardiac death. Myocardial scarring from an MI can serve as the reentrant focus for ventricular arrhythmias.
Term

After death of a loved one, what is the normal period of bereavement?

When should pharmacologic intervention be initiated?

Definition

Most negative symptoms peak before 6 months.

Patients who have symptoms of major depression for at least 2 consecutive weeks 8 or more weeks after their loved one's death are candidates for pharmacologic thx.

Major depression in the setting of bereavement cannot be dx unless sx persist for > 2 months.

Term

Your patient, known to use cocaine, is agitated and throwing himself against cars in a parking lot. On the way to the hospital the patient experiences generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

He is agitated, diaphoretic, and voicing paranoid thoughts,.

What medication should be administered?

Definition

Lorazepam (benzodiazepines is the tx of choice)

This patient is experiencing sympathetic syndrome. 

Drug induced seizures do not respond well to phenytoin; benzo's are the drug of choice. Haloperidol can actually lower the seizure threshold.

Term
What are the steps to treat spinal stenosis?
Definition
  1. NSAIDs - first line medication tx
  2. PT
  3. if symptoms progress despite conservative thx after 3 months - 2 years, surgery is indicated.

failure = progressive neurological deficits and severe pain

Term

What are some of the symptoms of vertebral osteomyelitis?

How is it dx?

Definition
  1. Neck or back pain that gradually worsens over weeks to months.
  2. fever is present in only 50%
  3. leukocytosis is typically ABSENT
  4. ESR is ↑ > 100mm/h
  5. Tenderness to palpation over involved portion of spine.

Potential sources of infection are: skin (IV drug abuse), UTI, lung infxn, endocarditis.

 

Blood cultures should be obtained (+ in up to 75%)

MRI preferred imaging modality

Term
Which symptoms makes up the triad suggestive of spinal cord compression?
Definition
  1. back pain
  2. muscle weakness
  3. loss of bowel or bladder control
Term
What are the 3 most common causes of a chronic cough?
Definition
  1. post-nasal drip syndrome (chronic sinusitis-rhinitis); aka upper airway cough syndrome (UACS); tx empirically  w/ antihistamine/decongestant
  2. asthma (if presents with only a cough = cough variant asthma); tx w/ inhaled albuterol
  3. GERD
IF the patient fails to respond to empiric thx of the 3 most common causes, consider nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis (requires bronchial bx for dx)

BUT, first rule out smoking, ACE inhibitors, and normal CXR

Term
What happens to lung function and the rate of decline in patients that quit smoking?
Definition
Lung function improves and the rate of decline in lung function decreases to 31ml/year, a normal value, from 63 ml/year. 
Term
When suggesting non-nicotine pharmacologic thx for smoking cessation, which medications should be offered?
Definition
  1. varenicline (Chantex); most effective; nausea is common
  2. buproprion (risk of seizure; 0.1%)
  3. nortriptyline

combination of varenicline and nicotine replacement thx is not recommended (↑ risk of N&V, HA, dizziness)

Term
When should surgery be considered in obese patients?
Definition

BMI > 35 in patients with serious obesity-related comorbidities (HTN, DM, dyslipidemia, CAD, sleep apnea)

or 

BMI > 40 w/o comorbidities in whom attempts at weight loss, including drug thx, were unsuccessful.

Term
How do you medically treat menorrhagia?
Definition

menorrhagia = heavy menstrual bleeding

medroxyprogesterone acetate, a progestational agent, will stabilize the endometrium and stop uterine blood flow. alternatively, a monophasis oral contraceptive can be used.

if the patient is orthostatic or dizzy from blood loss, IV estrogen is effective in stopping the bleeding entirely (70% of cases); however, ↑ risk of PE and venous thrombosis. 

p 126

Term
How does the progestin withdrawal test work?
Definition

It is used to dx secondary amenorrhea (prolonged oral contraceptive use). 

Medroxyprogesterone acetate is administered and if enough estrogen is circulating bleeding should commence 2-7 days after finishing progestin indicating that the patient's amenorrhea is due to anovulation. No bleeding is indicative of a) low serum estradiol, b) hypothalamic-pituitary axis dysfunction or c) a problem with the uterine outflow tract.

p. 127

Term

What is HYPOgonadotropic hypogonadism?

HYPERgonadotropic hypogonadism?

Definition

both result in amenorrhea 

HYPO - ↓ FSH & ↓ estrogen (usually due to prolactinoma)

HYPER - primary ovarian failure (Turner's, autoimmune, chemo/radiothx) 

In amenorrhea, the first thing to rule out is pregnancy!!!

p. 128

Term
How is cellulitis distinguished from venous stasis dermatitis?
Definition

Cellulitis, a clinical dx, presents w/ a well-demarcated area of warmth, swelling, tenderness, and erythema, that may be accompanied by lymphatic streaking and/or fever & chills. 

Venous stasis dermatitis - bilateral involvement, absence of fever or leukocytosis, hyperpigmentation due to hemosiderin deposition, and minimal pain. It is due to venous HTN, edema, chronic inflammation, and microangiopathy.

p. 129

Term
What is erythema multiforme?
Definition

A mucocutaeous reaction characterized by targetoid lesions. The majority of recurrent cases of EM have been associated with infections, the most common being HSV-1/2. It may also be idiopathic or drug related. 

FYI - erythema migrans is associated with Lyme disease (no mucosal involvement).

Term
When faced with a patient complaining of urinary incontinence, what should be on your differential?
Definition

DIAPERS 

Drugs, Infetion, Atrophic vaginitis, Psychological (depression, delirium, dementia), Endocrine (hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia), Restricted mobility, Stool impaction.

UTI is a very common cause of urinary incontinence  in the elderly.

Term
What is the best way to screen for hearing loss?
Definition

Whispered-voice test (examiner stands 2 feet behind patient, occludes one ear canal while simultaneously rubbing external auditory meatus, and whispers 3 numbers or letters). Using a battery powered handheld audioscope is an acceptable alternative. 

Weber & Rinne test and Screening Hearing Handicap Inventory tests do not perform as well.

Term
What is the ideal medication for treating  urge urinary incontinence?
Definition

Oxybutynin - an anticholinergic agent.

During micturition the parasympathetic nerves → detrussor muscle contraction & internal sphincter relaxation.

Tolterodine is an alternative agent in the same drug class (anticholinergic).

Term
What is the best way to dx nephrolithiasis?
Definition
non-contrast helical abdominal CT
Term
What are the acute peritoneal signs?
Definition
  1. abdominal pain (acute abdomen < 24 hours duration)
  2. abdominal guarding (tensing of the abdominal muscles to guard against irritation of the inflamed peritoneum/organ)
  3. rebound tenderness (pain when inflamed peritoneum snaps back into place)

 

Term
What 3 things can an abdominal X-ray show?
Definition
  1. Free air under the diaphragm (perforated viscus)
  2. Air-fluid levels (bowel obstruction)
Term
What is the classic presentation of a ruptured AAA?
Definition
  1. severe sudden abdominal and back pain
  2. loss of consciousness
  3. local containment can prevent immediate death
  4. anemia
  5. leukocytosis

p. 74

Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for irritable bowel syndrome?
Definition
  1. pain relieved with defecation
  2. onset associated with change in stool frequency
  3. onset associated with change in stool consistency
Term
What is the best way to dx diverticulitis?
Definition

Contrast enhanced CT. 

Colonoscopy and Barium enema ↑ the risk of bowel perforation.

Term

What is radiation proctitis?

What are the symptoms?

Definition

Radiation to the pelvic region (for colon cancer) results in direct mucosal injury of the rectum within 6 weeks of radiation thx. Usually resolves soon after discontinuation of thx. Chronic radiation proctitis on the other hand, occurs months to years after thx, and is associated with a worse prognosis.

sx - diarrhea and tenesmus (constant urge to defecate)

dx - flexible sigmoidoscopy

Term
Tx Salmonella gastroenteritis
Definition

The infection is self-limited, so no tx is necessary. 

tx is only recommended for (1) immunocompetent patients < 2 y/o or > 50 y/o to avoid ↑ complications in these age groups, (2) immunocompetent pt w/ severe illness requiring hospitalization, (3) immunocompetent patients w/ known or suspected atherosclerotic plaques or endovascular or bone prostheses b/c of seeding of salmonellae to these areas during a bloodstream infxn, (4) immunocompromised pt.

Term
Oral contraceptive use can cause cholestasis. What  lab abnormalities will you find?
Definition

↑ Direct (conjugated) bilirubin

↑Alkaline phosphatase

Term
Acute cholangitis is a clinical dx. What are the symptoms?
Definition

Charcot's Triad: fever, pain, jaundice

p. 79

Term
What are the common causes of pancreatitis?
Definition

G - gall stones (if pancreatitis is 2º stones, and patient was asymptomatic with stones up until -itis, cholecystectomy should be performed to prevent recurrence of pancreatitis; UW2933)

E - ethanol

T - trauma

S - steroids

M - mumps

A - autoimmune

S - scorpion sting

H - hypercalcemia/hyperlipidemia (TG > 1000 mg/dL)

E - ercp

D - drugs

Term
Your patient is d/c after being treated for acute pancreatitis. 5 days after she experieces mid-epigastric pain that radiates to the back, N & V. CT scan shows diffusely edematous pancreas with multiple perpancreatic fluid collections and no evidence of pancreatic necrosis. What do you do?
Definition

Enteral nutrition with nasojejunal feeding (you don't want to stimulate the pancreas) 

for necrotic pancreas (non enhancing w/ contrast CT) use imipenem. If necrotic pancreas is infected → debride.

Term
When is esophageal monitoring used?
Definition
When GERD is suspected and the patient has not responded to empiric thx.
Term
How is erosive or severe esophagitis best treated?
Definition
PPI
Term
How is Helicobacter pylori treated?
Definition

Triple thx - PPI, amoxicillin, clarithromycin

failure of triple thx - PPI, metronidazole, tetracycline

Term
What are the two most common causes of peptic ulcer disease?
Definition

NSAIDs and H. pylori, which account for more than 90% of the cases.

NSAIDs are also associated with dyspepsia (indigestion/upset stomach)

p. 82

Term
What steps need to be taken in a patient with upper GI bleeding (hypotensive)?
Definition
  1. restore intravascular volume (fluids, packed RBCs, FFP if needed)
  2. esophagogastroduodenoscopy
  3. PPI
  4. octreotide reduces portal blood flow via splanchnic vasoconstriction (portal HTN & hepatorenal syndrome, but effect on overall survival is unknown); tx active bleeding.
  5. ateriography is EGD has failed; can embolize
  6.  non-selective β-blockers are used to prevent variceal bleeding.

p. 84, UW2921

Term
Anal skin tags
Definition
 Chronic anal fissures are associated with external anal skin tags.
Term
How do you screen for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Definition

#1 abominal ultrasound

#2 follow up with alpha-fetoprotein (> 500 ng/ml) 

bx is not required if both 1 & 2 are present.

Liver CT is not used because ↑ radiation; screening is performed frequently in patients with Hep B or C, cirrhosis.

p. 85

Term

Anti-smooth muscle Ab

Anti-mitochondrial Ab

Anti-endomysial Ab

Definition

Autoimmune Hepatitis 

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis  (associated with xanthomas & xanthelasma: soft yellow plaques that appear on medial aspects of eyelids; ↑ IgM; tx PBC w/ ursodeoxycholic acid)

Celiac Disease

Term
Describe the spectrum of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
Definition
NAFLD encompasses a spectrum of fat accumulation, inflammation, and fibrosis of the liver. NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis) is a subcategory of NAFLD, and is defined as the presence of inflammation occurring in about 20% of obese patients of which 2-3% will develop cirrhosis. NASH is most commonly seen in patients with underlying consequences of obesity, including insulin resistance, HTN, and hyperlipidemia (metabolic syndrome).
Term
What is the end result of sclerosing cholangitis?
Definition

Primarily occurs during the 4th and 5th decade of life, and affects men > women. It is characterized by progressive bile duct inflammation and destruction, and ultimately, fibrosis of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts, leading to CIRRHOSIS.

 

associated with Ulcerative Colitis

 

p. 88

Term

How is SAAG calculated?

SAAG > 1.1 g/dl?

SAAG < 1.1 g/dl?

Definition

Serum Albumin - Ascites Albumin = Gradient

> 1.1 = portal HTN (cirrhosis, constrictive pericarditis, right-sided heart failure, Budd-Chiari syndrome).

< 1.1 = infection, inflammation, low serum oncotic pressure (nephrotic syndrome, TB, malignancy).

 

p. 88

Term
What skin condition is commonly associated with Crohn disease? Ulcerative colitis?
Definition

Erythema Nodosum - small exquisitely tender nodules on the anterior tibial surface; more easily palpated than visualized. Eruption is often preceded by a prodrome of fever, malaise, and arthralgia.

Pyoderma Gangrenosum - begin as tender papules, pustules, or vesicles that spontaneously ulcerate and progress to painful ulcers with a purulent base.

 

p. 89

Term
What is the first-line therapy for mild to moderate UC?
Definition

Mesalamine or another 5-aminosalycylate agent. Mechanism of action is unknown, but it is postulated that prostaglandin/leukotriene synthesis is minimized in the colon.

Infliximab can be used in patients with severe disease or those that are unresponsive to corticosteroid thx; not an appropriate first-line thx. 

p. 90

Term
What is microscopic colitis?
Definition

Chronic watery diarrhea without bleeding.

2 types: collagenous (50's) and lymphocytic colitis (60's); women > men, cause unknown.

Colonoscopy is grossly normal, bx several locations to dx.

Collagenous - increased amounts of collagen beneath mucosa. Lymphocytic - increased number of lymphocytes. 

p. 90

Term
What is the ferritin cutoff for dx iron deficiency anemia in a patient with an inflammatory condition (eg RA)?
Definition

Normal ferritin levels are 15-200 ng/ml

In patients with inflammatory states serum ferritin < 100-120 ng/ml may reflect iron deficiency.

Inflammatory cytokines can raise ferritin levels by as much as threefold.

p. 147

Term
What is the hallmark feature of peripheral blood smears in patients with a G6PD related exacerbation?
Definition

Heinz bodies (accumulation of oxidized hemoglobin)

Bite cells 

precipitated by drugs, infection, or DKA

p. 148

Term
Which hematologic conditions are associated with target cells?
Definition
  1. Thalassemia
  2. Hemoglobin C
  3. Asplenia
  4. Liver Disease
  5. Sickle Cell Disease
Term
What markers are used to distinguish vitamin B12 deficiency from folate deficiency?
Definition

Vitamin B12- ↑ methylmalonic acid & ↑ homocysteine

Folate - ↑ homocysteine only 

These elevations occur before vitamin B12 levels become reduced.

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is also involved in metabolism of homocysteine. Vitamine B6 deficiency → ↑ Homocysteine → hypercoaguability → DVT

p. 149, UW4384

Term
What are the common causes of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Definition
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Drugs
  3. Lymphoproliferative disorders
  4. Collagen vascular diseases
  5. Malignancies (eg CLL, MGUS, Waldenstrom, Myeloma)

In addition to a positive direct Coombs test, spherocytes can be identified on peripheral blood smears.

p. 150

Term
What lab findings support von Willebrand disease?
Definition
  1. increased bleeding time
  2. borderline elevated activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT); due to diminished levels of factor VIII.
  3. low factor VIII level (vWF carries factor VIII)

von Willebrand disease is autosomal dominant

p. 151

Term

What is the best way to screen for a bleeding disorder?

How does one differentiate between a platelet disorder and a coagulopathy?

Definition

Clinical history

Platelet disorder is associated with immediate bleeding after injury, and usually involves mucous membranes and skin, and presents with petechiae.

Coagulation-related bleeding may be delayed in onset, deep tissue bruises (ecchymoses). May produce hemarthroses in patients with congenital bleeding disorders.

p.152

Term
What is acute chest syndrome?
Definition

It is due to repeated episodes of pulmonary infarctions (occurs in sickled cell disease).

Presentation is similar to pneumonia (chest pain, respiratory distress, pulmonary infiltrates, and hypoxia) 

These patients should be managed with EXCHANGE transfusion to minimize percentage of abnormal RBCs.

p. 153, p. 334 (Step Up)

Also, if sickle patient experiences an ischemic stroke manage with EXCHANGE transfusion, not thrombolytics! Symptoms are 2° to sludging of sickle cell as opposed to a true thrombus.

Term

What is pseudothrombocytopenia?

Gestational thrombocytopenia?

Definition

Platelets agglutinate and are not recognized by automated cell counter. 

Occurs late in gestation and in 5% of pregnancy, platelet count ranges from 70,000 - 150,000, cause is unknown.

Term
What is the diagnosis for a patient with multiple miscarriages, increased aPTT & PT (not corrected with a mixing study)?
Definition

Lupus inhibitor & antiphospholipid syndrome (+VDRL), which leads to a hypercoagulable state. There is a strong correlation b/w these antibodies and pregnancy loss.

Tx with ASA and low molecular weight heparin; cannot use warfarin during pregnancy!

p. 157, UW2256

Term
What features are commonly associated with Multiple Myeloma?
Definition
  1. ↓ anion gap (↑ cationic light-chain)
  2. anemia
  3. proteinuria
  4. hypercalcemia
  5. renal failure (AKI is initial presentation in as many as one half of patients with MM)
  6. osteopenia
  7. leukopenia
  8. infection with encapsulated bacteria

Classic Tetrad: CRAB (calcium, renal impairment, anemia, bone). Except in MM, hypercalcemia in presence of AKI is relatively unusual b/c hyperphosphatemia and ↓ renal 1-α hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol both act to predispose to hypocalcemia.

p.157, UW4466

Term
What is the difference between multiple myeloma and monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS)?
Definition
  1. ↓ serum monoclonal protein (< 3.0 g/dl)
  2. < 10% plasma cells in bone marrow
  3. absence of lytic bone lesions
  4. absence of anemia
  5. no hypercalcemia
  6. no renal insufficiency

no specific tx is required, just close follow-up

p. 158

Term
What are the characteristic features of CLL?
Definition
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia - MATURE-appearing lymphocytes in blood, BM, or lymphatic tissue. Occurs after age of 40 years, oftentimes incidentally. Long periods of stability or very slow progression of disease may occur over years.
Term
When do you see Auer rods?
Definition
  • Most frequently in AML
  • age of onset: 60 yrs
  • M3 type is responseive to all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA), a vitamin A derivative.
  • DIC is a common presentation.

FA-Step1 p. 393

Term
If a breast mass is identified as benign via mammography (BI-RADS 1 thru 3), what is the next step?
Definition

ultrasound of mass to determine if it is cystic or solid. If cystic aspirate the fluid and send for cytology if bloody or recurrent (f/u in 4-6 weeks to see if cyst recurs). A solid mass requires FNA, core needle bx, or excision. If BI-RADS 4 or 5, malignancy is much more likely and FNA or bx is most appropriate.

p.241

Term
A 1.5 cm area of microcalcification is found on mammography w/o any associated mass. Bx revealed grade 2, ER/PR negative, HER2 negative infiltrating ductal carcinoma. What is the recommended course of thx?
Definition

Lumpectomy (breast conserving), sentinel node bx, radiation

(no radiation→high risk for local recurrence)

Survival rate for women undergoing breast conserving thx is equivalent to mastectomy, but better cosmetic outcomes and ↓ morbidity.

p.242

Term
What is the current recommendation for early stage lung cancer screening?
Definition

Do Not Screen

  • no method has been shown to reduce death from lung cancer
  • ↑ false positive rate only leads to unnecessary anxiety and invasive testing
  • Also no screening for pancreatic cancer, bladder cancer.

p.245

Term
A small lung nodule is identified on CT in a woman with no risk factors. What is the recommended next step?
Definition

No further follow up if nodule is < 4 mm.

CT screening have shown that 25-50% of patients have one or more pulmonary nodules detected.

Term
Lung mass with hilar lymphadenopathy is identified on imaging. The patient also has a palpable supraclavicular lymph node. How is this patient further evaluated?
Definition

Tissue diagnosis is critical; biopsy the peripheral lymph node. This establishes both a diagnosis and a stage.

biopsy of the lung mass or hilar lymph nodes would establish the dx, but not the stage, and would not determine the resectability.

p. 245

Term
When is a prostate biopsy performed?
Definition

PSA > 4.0 ng/ml, even if the patient is asymptomatic

also any rise > 0.75 ng/ml per year should be evaluated.

p. 246

The benefits of PSA/DRE screening are still under debate; therefore, a frank discussion regarding benefits/risks is in order prior to screening.

There is also no benefit in screening men > 75 years of age.

Term
How is asymptomatic metastatic prostate cancer managed?
Definition

Androgen deprivation therapy; prostate cancer is a hormone responsive tumor

  • Leuprolide, a GnRH analog that inhibits gonadotropin secretion through suppression of testicular and ovarian steroidogenesis.
  • Castration

p. 247

Term
What is the screening interval for cervical cancer in low-risk women?
Definition

Up until the age of 30 annual pap smears are recommended. Women at low-risk and > 30 can be screened every 3 years.

In women that are sexually active w/ multiple partners, have a hx of abnormal pap smears, or recently dx with a sexually transmitted disease, annual screens are still recommended.

p. 248

Term
What are the symptoms of lateral epicondylitis?
Definition

aka Tennis elbow

  • pain w/ wrist extension or hand gripping
  • point tenderness
  • elbow ROM → no limitations → no pain/inflammation
tx - ice, NSAIDs, local steroid injection, forearm brace, isometric exercise to strengthen forearm.

p.288

Term
Which hand joints are commonly affected in rheumatoid arthritis? osteoarthritis?
Definition

RA - proximal interphalangeal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint

OA - proximal IP joint, distal IP joint

Term
A patient presents with unilateral hip pain worsened by going up and down stairs. The pain is localized to the lateral aspect of the hip. On physical exam moving of hip through rotation, flexion, and extension does not elicit pain, but abduction reproduces pain minimally. What is the dx?
Definition

Trochanteric bursitis

tx - corticosteroid injection

Note: In patients with actual hip joint pathology, the pain will be localized to the groin and have painful, restricted range of motion.

p.289

Term
The patient presents with knee pain worsened by climbing stairs, and kneeling. Physical exam: knee semi-flexed, palpation along medial semimembranous (hamstring) edge of thigh elicits pain when fingers meet tibia. What is dx?
Definition

Anserine bursitis; dx rests on finding focal tenderness on upper, inner tibia, about 5 cm distal to medial articular line of knee.

often mistaken for osteoarthritis, b/c many patients have concomitant OA.

tx - corticosteroid injection

Term
A patient complaining of shoulder pain (trapezius and upper scapula) has a normal shoulder exam (full ROM w/o pain or alteration of character of pain). What study is ordered?
Definition

CXR - searching for an underlying intrathoracic process (apical lung tumor, effusion, pneumothorax). 

This presentation is classic for referred shoulder pain.

p. 290

Term
What is polymyalgia rheumatica?
Definition

This is not a myositis! (does not cause muscle weakness)

  • pain/stiffness in shoulders & hips (does not affect small joints)
  • fever, malaise, weight loss
  • occurs in patients > 50, associated with giant cell
  • ↑ ESR, normal CK

tx - low-dose prednisone (sometimes methotrexate is added when multiple attempts at tapering are unsuccessful). Unlike giant cell where high-dose prednisone is used to prevent loss of vision.

FA p. 421, UW3317

Term
What abx should septic arthritis be treated with when initial culture results identify gram (+) cocci?
Definition

Septic arthritis is a medical emergency. Hematogenous spread is the most common mechanism of joint infection.

Staphylococcus is the most common gram (+) affecting native and prosthetic joints, and infxn with MRSA is becoming increasingly common.

tx w/ Vancomycin (even if culture is negative for gram staining); ceftriaxone when gonococcal arthritis is suspected. 

Patients w/ previous joint damage (e.g. RA) and treatment with steroids or immunosuppresants are particularly susceptible to joint infxn.

p.291

Term
What should be suspected in all patients that present with acute monoarthritis?
Definition

presumed to have Septic Arthritis until synovial fluid analysis via arthrocentesis excludes this condition. 

This should be suspected especially in a patient with RA that presents with a sudden single joint flare.

p.291

Term
What is the most common presentation of prosthetic joint infection?
Definition
  • pain
  • leukocytosis and fever are frequently absent
  • synovial fluid WBC 50,000 - 150,000
  • ↑ ESR
  • gold standard for dx is arthrocentesis
  • Staphylococcus aureus is most frequent cause

p. 292

Term
What conditions  are associated with ↑ ESR?
Definition
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Prosthetic Joint Infection
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Polymyalgia Rheumatica
  • Temporal Arteritis
Term
What is the first line therapy for acute gout?
Definition
  • NSAIDs
  • Corticosteroids and Colchicine are also options
  • Colchicine is most effective in patients with monoarticular involvement and when used within the first 24 hours of symptoms.
  • Allopurinol and febuxostat are xanthine oxidase inhibitors and are used in patients with recurrent attacks to minimize uric acid levels.

dx - needle shaped monosodium urate crystals engulfed by neutrophils.

p.292

Term
How should allopurinol be administered in treating recurrent gout?
Definition

Prophylactic colchicine, low-dose corticosteroids, or NSAIDs need to be administered at least 1 week prior to beginning of adjusting the dose of uric acid lowering thx to prevent disease flares associated with changes in uric acid levels.

Uric acid lowering thx should be considered in patients with recurrent attacks, uric acid tophi, or renal stones.

p.293

Term
Weakly (Positively) birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals?
Definition

Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate in Pseudogout

  • pseudogout attacks resemble acute gouty arthropathy
  • radiographic evidence: chondrocalcinosis is associated with this disease (calcification of articular cartilage); not tophi (associated with gout).

tx - NSAIDs, Colchicine, Corticosteroids

p.293, UW4582

Term
What are the common radiographic findings of osteoarthritis?
Definition
  • osteophytes
  • joint space narrowing
  • sclerosis
  • cyst formation

characterized by pain on activity, relief with rest, minimal swelling, absence of warmth.

p.294

Term
What is deQuervain tenosynovitis? How is it dx?
Definition

Inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons. Pain is present on palpation of th distal aspect of the radial styloid.

Finkelstein test - flexing thumb into palm, closing fingers over thumb, bending wrist in ulnar direction → pain.

Cause - chronic overuse of wrist.

p.295

Term
Movement of the thumb in a circular motion elicits pain. What is the dx?
Definition

This is a (+) grind test. Chronic pain at the base of the thumb is suggestive of osteoarthritis. Occurs b/c of repetitive use of wrist or thumb.

  • patients present with swelling/enlargement of carpometacarpal joint recognized as squaring or boxing at base of thumb.

p.294

Term
What is the best way to dx rheumatoid arthritis?
Definition

X-ray - erosions of cartilage and bone are cardinal featues of RA.

Rheumatoid factor is not specific for RA and frequently occurs in other autoimmune disorders and chronic infections, most notably active chronic hepatitis C.

p. 296

Term
What is the difference between Actinic Keratosis and Seborrheic Keratosis?
Definition

Actinic = Aggressive; can transform into squamous cell carcinoma, although risk of malignant transformation is low. Due to prolonged and repeated sun exposure. aka Solar Keratosis

Seborreheic: harmless growths with no malignant potential; appear as if they were "stuck" on.

Step-Up p. 420, 425

Term
How is pain managed in terminal patients?
Definition

For mild to moderate cancer-associated pain short-acting opioid is indicated when non-opioid drugs fail to control the pain. Once pain control is achieved long-acting opioid dosage can be calculated. Short-acting opioid can be used for break through pain. If short-acting is required more than 3 times daily, long-acting dosage must be adjusted. 

When adding a long-acting, to avoid over medicating, a starting dose of 30-50% of patient's average 24-hour dosage of narcotic is used. The dose of opioid for breakthrough pain is calculated as 10% of total daily opioid use.

p.251

Term
What is the most common presentation of parvovirus B19 in adults?
Definition

Acute rheumatoid factor positive oligo- or polyarthritis. Viral arthritis usually resolves in 3 weeks; does not cause joint destruction.

other features include rash (not slapped cheek rash seen in children), IgM-Ab against parvovirus B19.

p. 296

Term
When should treatment of rheumatoid arthritis with DMARDs be initiated? What agents are typically used?
Definition

Within 3 months of the onset of the condition; but basically as soon as the dx is established.

Methotrexate is often used as an initial DMARD; however, people CANNOT consume alcohol. Use hydroxychloroquine instead.

p.297

Term

HIV patients with a CD4 count < 200, and not taking antiretroviral thx commonly have psoriasis or other skin conditions including photodermatitis, prurigo nodularis, molluscum contagiosum, and drug reactions.

20-40% of people with psoriasis go on to develop psoriatic arthritis.

p.297

Definition
Term
What is enteropathic arthritis?
Definition

Patients with inflammatory bowel disease can develop aseptic arthritis. Enteropathic arthritis can manifest as axial arthritis, such as spondyloarthropathy. The cause is not bacterial seeding of joints.

p. 298

Term
What is the best diagnostic modality for ankylosing spondylitis?
Definition
  • MRI of sacroiliac joints; especially with gadolinium enhancement; plain X-ray can be used to dx AS.
  • Onset of AS usually occurs in teenage years or 20s and manifests as persistent pain and morning stiffness involving the lower back that are alleviated with activity. Tenderness of the pelvis can also be found.
  • Anterior Uveitis is the most prominent extraarticular finding.
  • Enthesitis (inflammation/pain at sites where tendons & ligaments attach to bone); prominent in AS, heel pain due to Achilles tendon tenderness.
  • fusion of costovertebral joints → chest wall motion restriction (↓ FEV, normal FEV/FVR, but ↑ FRC b/c of fixation  of chest wall in inspiratory position).

p. 298, UW3165, 4575

Term
How do you treat drug-induced lupus?
Definition

It can be caused by TNF-α inhibitors such as infliximab. Many patients that use TNF-α inhibitors develop auto-antibodies, including ANA, anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith; rarely, these people develop drug-induced lupus. 

tx - stop TNF-α inhibitors and start prednisone.

p. 299

Term
How is suspected lupus nephritis best treated?
Definition

High-dose corticosteroids is required to prevent irreversible renal damage.

p. 300

Term
How is delirium best prevented in the elderly? What medications should be avoided?
Definition
  • Access to hearing aids, glasses, and canes
  • Removal of unnecessary restraints
  • remove urinary catheters unless indicated (urinary retention, or monitoring fluid status in acutelly ill)
  • NO benzodiazepines or diphenhydramine, unless indicated (alcohol withdrawal or allergic rxn)

p. 222

Term
What are the 4 types of delirium?
Definition

Based on psychomotor:

  1. hypoactive
  2. hyperactive
  3. mixed delirium with hypo/hyperactivity
  4. delirium w/o Δ in psychomotor activity

patients w/ delirium have acute, fluctuating mental status Δ, with difficulty focusing or maintaining attention and disorganized thinking; it is an acute state of confusion.

p.222

Term
How is delirium in ICU treated?
Definition

Antipsychotic agent (Haloperidol) 

Diphenhydramine is a major risk factor for delirium.

Lorazepam is deliriogenic.

p. 223

Term
What are the clinical manifestations of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Definition

Due to Thiamine (Vit B1) deficiency. To tx administer thiamine.

Triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia.

+ loss of memory (permanent), confabulation, personality Δ = Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (associated with periventricular hemorrhage/necrosis of mamillary bodies).

p. 223, FA p. 95 

Term
When you see asterixis in an Alzheimer patient, what should you be thinking about?
Definition

Asterixis is a sign of toxic/metabolic encephalopathy and not dementia. In addition to asterixis, cognitive impairment + fluctuating lethargy, inattention, and hallucination. 

Look at medications as cause:

TCA (nortriptyline) - anitcholinergic

Lorazepam & Digoxin → cognitive impairment

p. 223

Term
What are the characteristic features of tension-type headaches?
Definition
  • dull, bilateral, or diffuse
  • described as pressure or squeezing
  • pain not worsened w/ movement and does not prohibit activity (lack of disabling pain)

p. 224

Term
How is a severe headache of sudden onset managed?
Definition

Patient must be evaluated for a catastrophic condition; maximal intensity of HA achieved within 60 seconds of onset (Thunderclap HA).

  • non-contrast CT scan of head, if negative →
  • Lumbar puncture (blood or xanthochromia, the yellowish coloration after heme degradation to bilirubin)
  • other causes of TCHA not r/o by above can be excluded by CT angiography (unruptured cerebral aneurysm, carotid or vertebral dissection, cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome).
  • Vasospasm → symptomatic ischemia/infarction is the major cause of M&M in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage; apperaing in 7 days after SAH. Prevent vasospasm with calcium channel blockers (UW).

p. 225

Term
Which medications are used to treat migraine prophylactically?
Definition
  • topiramate
  • valproic acid
  • amitriptyline
  • β-blocker (propanolol, metoprolol, timolol)
  • Petasites hybridus plant extract

p.225

Term
Which medications are best suited for the treatment of Alzheimer dementia?
Definition
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine).

then, as symptoms progress add

  • memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist) to treat moderate to advanced AD.

p. 227

Term
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Definition

Reaction to neuroleptic tranquilizers (D2-receptor antagonists) and some antipsychotic drugs, of which haloperidol is most common.

  • muscle rigidity
  • hyperthermia
  • cognitive Δ
  • autonomic instability (diaphoresis, sialorrhea)
  • seizures
  • arrhythmias
  • rhabdomyolysis

occurs within 2 weeks of initiating drug

p. 227

Term
What is essential tremor and how is it treated?
Definition

Essential tremor primarily occurs when a patient maintains a posture, such as when the hands are outstretched. Essential tremor also may be present during movement, particularly postural adjustments.

tx - propranolol (drug of choice), primidone, gabapentin, and topiramate

p. 228

Term
Which serotypes does the N. meningitidis vaccine protect against?
Definition

It does not protect against serogroup B meningitis.

protects against serogroup A, C, Y, and W-135.

p. 229

Term
How should suspected bacterial meningitis be treated?
Definition

Treat empirically with Vancomycin, amipicillin, and ceftriaxone. The most likely etiologic agents are S. pneumoniae, L. monocytogenes, N. Meinigitidis, and aerobic gram (-) bacilli.

Administration of adjunctive dexamethasone should be strongly considered in patients with acute bacterial meningitis.

p. 239

Term
What are the typical findings in patients with Interstitial Lung Disease?
Definition
  • Dyspnea
  • Bibasilar crackles
  • bibasilar infiltrates on CXR
  • restrictive PFT patterns
  • ↓ diffusion capacity

p.301

Term
What is the best medication for treating Raynaud's?
Definition

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (amlodipine) are used as first line treatment.

Other agents used are peripherally acting α-1 blockers, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, and endothelin receptor antagonists.

p.301

Term
How is fibyromyalgia dx?
Definition

Fibromyalgia is characterized by diffuse pain on both sides of the body, above & below the waist, as well as axial skeletal pain. It is a clinical dx.

American College of Rheumatology criteria requires pain in 11 of 18 specified potential tender points. However, some experts argue that these points are arbitrary and not essential in dx of fibromyalgia.

p. 302

Term
How is Polyarteritis Nodosa best dx?
Definition
  • Symptoms - fever, musculoskeletal symptoms, vasculitis involving nervous system, GI, heart, and nonglomerular vessels.
  • Sural nerve bx, and kidney angio to support dx.
  • After exclusion of other vasculitides and no appropriate tissue to bx → angiography of renal arteries will reveal classic findings (microaneurysms, beaded pattern). 
  • PAN commonly affects kidneys → HTN, kidney insufficiency, proteinuria, hematuria, renal vasculitis.
  • p-ANCA

p. 303

Term
c-ANCA
Definition

Wegener Granulomatosis

also presence of antiproteinase-3 Ab

Term
When Giant Cell Arteritis is supected, what is the best course of action?
Definition

Patient presents with HA, temporal artery tenderness, acute visual loss, fever, and mild anemia. ↑ risk of aortic aneurysm (follow w/ serial CXR; UW4460) 

  1. High dose corticosteroids (methylprednisolone)
  2. Bx after steroid thx is begun (it will not affect results); must bx within 2 weeks.

p.303

Term
How should HTN be managed in a patient suffering from an acute stroke?
Definition

If systolic < 220 or diastolic is < 120 antihypertensive medication should be withheld.

If aortic dissection, heart failure, or MI is not present, withhold medication.

p.231

Term
How is Guillain-Barre dx?
Definition

confirm w/ elctromyography

Guillain-Barre will present with distal parasthesias (altered sensation - tingling, burning, pin pricks, numbness) of the lower extremities followed by limb weakness and gait instability. Deep tendon reflexes are absent or reduced. Stocking-glove sensory loss and areflexia.

CSF analysis shows characteristic albuminocytologic dissociation (cell count normal, ↑ protein).

tx - IV immunoglobulin and plasma exchange

p.232

Term
What are the symtpoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Definition

Suspect RMSF in a patient with a nonspecific febrile illness within 3 weeks of POTENTIAL tick exposure and blanching erythematous macules located around the wrist and ankles.

tx with doxycycline

p.172

Term
What are the symptoms of Familial Mediterranean Fever?
Definition
  • most have onset of illness before 10, 95% before 20
  • short periods of fever (1-3 days); associated with serositis (inflammation of the serous tissue; pleura, pericardium, peritoneum).
  • fever is accompanied by elevated markers of inflammation such as leukocytosis, ESR.

p. 172

Term
What intervention has the most survival benefit in severe sepsis?
Definition
  • Aggressive Fluid Resuscitation with resolution of lactic acidosis within 6 hours.
  • Fluid resuscitation should target a central venous O2 saturation of at least 70%. CVP of 8-12 mmHg, and urine output of at least 0.5 ml/kg/h; which often translates to 5-6 L over 6 hours.
  • normal saline is the most common crystalloid; no survival benefit in administering colloid!!!

p. 174

Term
When should activated protein C be administered?
Definition
  • protein C is an anti-Coagulant
  • improve survival in patients with severe sepsis and multiple organ failure (no survival benefit in patients with single failing organ system); APACHE score > 25
  • when administered to patients with platelet count between 30,000 - 50,000 relative risk reduction in mortality of 30%.
  • platelet count < 30,000 is a contraindication

p. 174

Term
Describe the spectrum of Sepsis:
Definition
  1. SIRS (Temp < 36 or > 38; WBC < 4,000 or > 12,000 or > 10% band forms; HR > 90; RR > 20 or PaCO2 < 32) 
  2. Sepsis = SIRS + infection
  3. Severe Sepsis = Sepsis + organ dysfunction, hypoperfusion, or hypotension
  4. Septic Shock = hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation
  5. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)
p. 175
Term
What are the complications of untreated infection with Group A strep?
Definition
  1. peritonsillar abscess ("quinsy"); emergency ENT consult
  2. post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (can occur after throat or skin infections; presents with periorbital swelling, hematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, RBC casts, ↓ serum C3).
  3. rheumatic fever

p. 175

Term
What are the common bugs that cause otitis media in adults?
Definition

Similar to OM in children: Streptococcus pneumoniae (21-63%), Haemophilus influenzae (11-26%), Staphylococcus aureus (3-12%), Moraxella catarrhalis (3%)

Amoxicillin is the recommended abx of choice; if symptoms do not improve in 48-72 hrs switch to amoxicillin-clavulunate, cefuroxime, or ceftrixone. If allx to penicillin use macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin).

p. 176

Term
What is the Centor criteria?
Definition
Used to predict probability of infxn w/ Group A strep:
  1. fever
  2. tonsillar exudate
  3. tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  4. NO cough

if patient meets 2 of 4 criteria, use rapid streptococcal antigen testing to confirm.

Empiric abx tx is recommended in patients meeting all 4 criteria.

p. 176

Term
How is acute sinusitis treated?
Definition

Symptomatic management; no abx

Most cases are viral; only 0.5-2% are bacterial

Signs and symptoms are not reliable for dx purposes: unilateral facial pain, pain in teeth, pain on bending, purulent nasal discharge.

p. 177

Term
How is asymptomatic bacteriuria in a pregnant woman best treated?
Definition

ampicillin, amoxicillin, or nitrofurantoin

p. 177

 

 

Term
An asymptomatic woman is found to have bacteriuria w/ E. coli. She is 77 and has a hx of DM2, HTN, and hyperlipidemia. How should she be treated?
Definition

in asymptomatic women, bacteruria is defined as 2 consecutive voided specimens with isolation of same bacterial strain in quantitative counts of at least 105 cfu/ml.

 NO treatment in most non-pregnant women.

p. 178

Term
What abx is used to treat pyelonephritis?
Definition

nonpregnant, tx with fluoroquinolone

used to be trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, but ↑ resistance in E. coli and other gram (-) bacteria.

p.178

Term
What is cervicitis?
Definition

Cervicitis is the presence of mucopurulent discharge or endocervical bleeding easily induced by gentle passage of a cotton swab through the cervical os. Cervicitis is common induced by gonorrhea or chlamydia infection.

tx empirically with ceftriaxone + doxycycline or azithromycin.

p. 179

Term
What symptoms are associated with Disseminated Gonococcal Infection (DGI)? How is it best treated? What else should be done?
Definition
  • arthritis, tenosynovitis, sparse peripheral necrotic pustules (prodrome of migratory arhralgia before settling in one or several joints).
  • tx w/ parentreal ceftriaxone
  • empiric tx for chlamydia with doxycyline
  • test for syphilis & HIV

p. 180

Term
How is pelvic inflammatory disease best treated?
Definition
  • for an ambulatory patient → intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
  • PID is a multimicrobial infxn of endometrium, fallopian tube, and ovaries.
  • dx based on presence of abdominal discomfort, uterine or adnexal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, cervical or vaginal mucopurulent discharge.

p. 181

Term
How is pneumocystis jirovecii in an AIDS patient treated?
Definition
  • TMP-SMX + corticosteroids
  • consider dx in pt with CD4 count < 200 who presents with fever, dry cough, dyspnea.
  • corticosteroids is added in patients with evidence of hypoxia (PaO2 < 70 mmHg or alveolar-arterial gradient > 35 mmHg).

p. 181

Term
When an AIDS patients CD4 < 200, what medication should be started prophylactically? < 100? < 50?
Definition
  • TMP-SMX for Pneumocystic jirovecii
  • TMP-SMX for Toxoplasma; if toxoplasmosis develops use Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine to treat
  • Azithromycin for MAC

p. 181

Term
How does HIV present in the acute phase?
Definition
  • fever, sore throat, anorexia, muscle aches
  • small ulcers on tongue and buccal mucosa
  • cervial and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
  • faint rash on trunk and abdomen

p. 166, 182

Term

What is the best way to prevent ventilator associated pneumonia?

Prevent decubitus ulcers?

Definition

semi-erect position; prevents bacteria from stomach from reaching lungs.

Patient repositioning every 2 hours.

p. 184, UW3472

Term
What is the best method for preventing the spread of C. diff?
Definition

barrier protection & hand washing w/ soap and water

soap and water are not sporicidal, but helps to remove spores; alcohol-based products do not kill spores.

p. 184

Term
What infection control measures are recommended when dealing with N. meningitidis infxn?
Definition
  • droplet precaution
  • wear face mask when within 6-10 feet of patient
  • human nasopharynx is the only known reservoir

p. 184

Term
Which infections are spread via airborne?
Definition
  • TB
  • Measles
  • Varicella

patient must be placed in a private negative pressure room; masks worn by workers must have 95% filtering capacity.

p. 184

Term
What criteria are used when reading a PPD?
Definition
  • immunocompetent > 15 mm → positive
  • recent immigrant from high prevalence country, injection drug users,  residents or employees of high risk congregate settings (prison, nursing home, homelss shelter) > 10 mm → positive
  • immunosuppressed (HIV, corticosteroids, patients considering TNF-α inhibitor thx) > 5 mm
  • BCG vaccination should not influence interpretation of PPD reading ( > 15 mm → CXR & tx w/ isoniazid + pyridoxine B6

p. 185, 186, 187

Term
A patient has pneumonia, high fever, diarrhea, and hyponatremia. What is the most likely cause of infection? What is the best test for dx?
Definition
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • urinary antigen test (positive from day 1 and continues to be for weeks, 70-90% sensitivity, 99% specificity; therefore, negative test cannot exclude other species of legionella).

p. 188

Term
What is the best abx for the treatment of community aquired pneumonia? Which bugs are commonly encountered?
Definition

Monotherapy with macrolides (azithromycin or clarithromycin)

Streptococcus pneumoniaeMycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae

The macrolides also cover Haemophilus influenzae. Use of fluoroquinolones is not recommended for fear of building resistance.

If patient with CAP needs to be hospitalized use Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin or fluoroquinolone alone.

In hospital acquire pneumonia tx is tailored towards gram (-) rods: ceph w/ pseudo coverage - ceftazidine or cefepime; imipenen; zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam).

p. 189, Step-up 364-365

Term
What is the best abx for treating lung abscesses?
Definition

Ampicillin-sulbactam

Lung abscesses are polymicrobial infections caused by anaerobic bacteria that are normally present in the mouth; micro-aerophilic streptococci, viridans streptococci, and gram negative enteric pathogens.

p. 189

Term
A patient with a bicuspid aortic valve with a grade 2/6 midsystolic murmur is about to undergo a dental procedure. What prophylactic measures need to be taken to prevent bacterial endocarditis?
Definition

No prophylaxis

Prophylaxis is recommended in patients with:

  • Prosthetic cardiac valves
  • Hx of prior infective endocarditis
  • Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
  • Completely repaired congenital heart disease for 6 months following repair
  • Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects or abnormalities
  • Cardiac transplantation recipients with cardiac valvulopathy

p. 189

Term

When examining a diabetic patient with a draining foot ulcer and the probe used to evaluate the sinus tract contacts bone the bone must be biopsied!!!

Positive metal probe test has 90% positive predictive value for diagnosing osteomyelitis. If metal probe test is negative perform MRI.

Definition

Superficial cultures do not include the deep organisms responsible for the infection.

Failure to identify the causative deep-bone pathogen may lead to spread of the infection to adjacent bones or soft tissues and the need for extensive debridement or amputation.

p. 191

Term
When a patient presents with new-onset back pain and fever what must be suspected?
Definition
  • Vertebral osteomyelitis
  • Dx with MRI
  • Dx cause with blood cultures
  • If blood culture is negative, CT guided bx
  • Hematogenous osteomyelitis most often involves the intervertebral disk space and 2 adjacent vertebrae
  • In patients with hematogenous osteomyelitis leukocyte count is typically normal, but ↑ ESR
  • If MRI is contraindicated (metal prosthesis) gallium nuclear study is very sensitive and specific

p. 192

Term
When is aspirin therapy indicated?
Definition
  • Stable angina (ASA, β-blocker both reduces mortality); nitrates for pain
  • MI (ASA, β-blocker, ACE inhibitor)
  • Ischemic Stroke (prevention & tx: given within 24 hours, but only if thrombolytics have not been administered!); warfarin only given to prevent future ischemic events due to cardiogenic emboli (e.g. a fib).

 Step-Up p. (4, 10, 208)

 

 

Term
What is an NSTEMI?
Definition
  • Patients that present with ischemic chest pain but w/o diagnostic STE-segment elevation are catergorized as having unstable angina or NSTEMI. These 2 conditions are closely related and have similar pathophysiology and clinical presentations, but they differ in the severity of the myocardial ischemia.
  • In NSTEMI ischemia is severe and results in detectable release of biomarkers; EKG w/ ST-depression in V2-V6.
  • In unstable angina there is no detectable ↑ in biomarkers.
  • Tx - β-blockers (metoprolol) are first-line thx in unstable angina and NSTEMI. Add CCB (verapamil) w/ ongoing ischemia despite thx w/ β.

p. 17, 25

Term
When a patient presents with right ventricular MI, what is the best tx?
Definition
  • Infusion of fluid; these patients are preload dependent (↓ filling of left ventricle)
  • Volume expansion improves hemodynamic abnormalities of r. ventricular MI b/c gradient of pressure from r. atrium to l. atrium maintains filling of left ventricle
  • The classic triad: hypotension, clear lung fields, elevated CVP (JVD).
  • EKG: ST-elevation in inferior leads (II, III, aVF, and right-sided precordial lead V4R); occurs in more than 30% of cases of inferior wall MI.

p. 18, UW2156

Term
What tick-borne bug can cause 3rd degree atrioventricular heart block?
Definition

Borrelia burgdorferi → Lyme carditis

p. 19

Term
What medications are used to treat chronic stable angina?
Definition
  • Antianginal: β-blocker, calcium channel blocker, nitrates
  • Vascular protective: aspirin, ACE inhibitors, statins
  • β-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting HR of 55-60 and approx 75% of the HR that causes anginal symptoms

p. 21

Term
When deciding between exercise stress test and coronary angiography, what factors should be considered?
Definition
  • Exercise stress test in patients with intermediate probability of CAD with a normal baseline ECG and no features of unstable angina. If ECG is abnormal perform nuclear medicine stress test.
  • If dx of CAD is known, no benefit in performing an exercise stress test
  • Note: Medical thx is more beneficial than coronary angiography & revascularization
  • Angiography & revascularization if pt remains highly symptomatic despite optimal medical thx

p. 21, 24

Term
What is the timeframe for PCI?
Definition
  • Best if performed within 12 hours (the earlier the better); this applies to thrombolytics as well.
  • When deciding between PCI and thrombolytics, PCI is preferred provided that it can be done immediately or within 60 minutes if transferred to another hospital.

p. 18, 26

Term
How are premature ventricular contractions managed medically?
Definition
  • No treatment necessary (PVCs at rest in the setting of structurally normal heart appear to be associated with little to no increased heart risk of cardiovascular events, particularly in patients < 30.

p. 29

Term
How does long QT syndrome present?
Definition
  • syncope and cardiac arrest due to torsades de pointes
  • There are 2 forms congenital & acquired
  • Acquired: female sex, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, structural heart disease, previous QT-interval prolongation, hx of drug-induced arrhythmia.
  • Other causes of syncope and sudden cardiac death in young patients include hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia.

p. 31

Term
What is the purpose of determining B-type natriuretic peptide levels?
Definition
  • Differentiates between dyspnea caused by CHF and COPD.
  • BNP levels > 500 have a high likelyhood of having heart failure.

Step-Up p. 18; MK p. 32

Term
What medications are used to treat HTN?
Definition
  • Thiazide diuretics (salt-sensitive HTN; common initial drug of choice)
  • ACE inhibitors (first line thx for HTN in diabetics)
  • CCBs
  • Goal: BP < 140/90 or 135/85 in DM or renal insufficiency

Step-Up p. 432

Term
How is COPD best diagnosed?
Definition
  • clinical diagnosis
  • then confirmed & staged via spirometry; pretreat w/ bronchodilator to minimize variability
  • FEV1 < 80%, FEV1/FVC < 0.7 established dx of COPD
  • ↓ DLCO is due to emphysema (loss of lung tissue), not really associated with chronic bronchitis (blue bloater).

p. 262

Term
What pulmonary function test findings are associated with interstitial lung disease?
Definition
  • proportionate ↓ FEV1 & FVC
  • normal FEV1/FVC ratio
  • ↓ TLC
  • ↓DLCO

p. 262

Term
Since RV/TLC ratio is increased in both obstructive lung disorders & neuromuscular restrictive disorder, how does one diffentiate between the two?
Definition
  • In neuromuscular restrictive disorder FEV1/FVC is normal + low maximum respiratory pressures (inspiratory & expiratory).
  • monitor vital capacity to assess respiratory fxn; risk of ventilatory failure ↑ when VC < 15 ml/kg.
  • e.g. amyotropic lateral sclerosis, myasthenia gravis

p. 263, UW4271

Term
How is vocal cord dysfunction diagnosed?
Definition
  • VCD is associated with throat/neck discomfort, wheezing, stridor, and anxiety.
  • Difficult to distinguish from asthma; however, patients do not respond to asthma thx!
  • Dx with Laryngoscopy, which will show vocal cord adduction during inspiration.
  • or Flow Volume Loop → flattened inspiratory limb
  • thx: speech thx, relaxation techniques, tx anxiety

p. 265

Term
Most pleural effeusions resolve with treatment of underlying disease. However, certain situations require the placement of a chest tube. What are they?
Definition
  • presence of loculated pleural fluid or
  • pleural fluid pH < 7.2 or
  • pleural fluid with glucose < 60 or
  • LDH > 1000 or
  • + gram stain/culture or
  • presence of gross pus in pleural space

p. 266

Term
A pregnant mother with a hx of asthma treated with albuterol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids comes to you concerned about her drug regimen. What do you tell her?
Definition

Inhaled corticosteroids are safe and effective in pregnant patients with asthma.

p. 269

Term
A patient whom in the past had well controlled asthma on moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroids + as-needed inhaled albuterol, experiences worsening astham symptoms after an acute respiratory infection. What is the best course of management?
Definition

Tx with short course of oral corticosteroids.

If inaffective add long-acting β-agonist.

p. 268

Term
In patients with persistent asthma not adequately controlled with daily low- or moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroids, what medicaiton should be added?
Definition

This patient probably carries a rescue albuterol inhaler, and is using it regularly as her asthma symptoms worsen.

Long acting β-agonist should be added.

3rd line thx: theophylline or leukotriene modifying drug.

Note: long-acting anticholinergic drugs are beneficial in COPD patients, not asthma!

p. 269

Term
When is COPD treated with O2?
Definition
  • PaO2 < 55 or O2 Sat < 88% or Hct > 55% with or without hypercapnea
  • use of long-term (continuous) O2 thx  in patients with chronic respiratory failure improves survival (↓ mortality).
  • smoking cessation also ↓ mortality.

p. 270, UW3716

Term
How is cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (aka BOOP) differentiated from other interstitial lung diseases?
Definition
  • tempo of disease process: acute or subacute (symptom onset within 2 monts)
  • presentation so suggestive of an acute/subacute lower respiratory tract infection that patients have almost ALWAYS been treated with one or more courses of abx that have invariably failed.
  • respiratory symtoms with a dominant alveolar process & on CXR (opacification). COP opacities are bilat w/ varied distribution; tendency to "migrate" or involve different areas of lung on serial examinations.
  •  Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, on the other hand, tends to have an interstitial dominant pattern on imaging. Progresses slowly over months to years.

p.273

Term
What is the best way to dx scleroderma related diffuse parenchymal disease?
Definition
  • high resolution CT; reveals ground-glass and reticular line opacities, subpleural cysts, and honey-combing in patients with advanced disease.
  • clinical findings + HRCT establishes dx
  • If clinical context, temporal pattern of disease, and HRCT findings do not yield a dx → bx

p. 274

Term
What is the differential for a widened pulse-pressure?
Definition
  • Aortic insufficiency (regurgitation)
  • Arteriovenous fistula (pulmonary or CNS)
  • old age (↑ rigidity of arterial wall → ↓ compliance →↑ systolic BP, normal diastolic BP [isolated systolic HTN, ISH]); UW3994.
  • patent ductus arteriosus
  • trauma
  • iatrogenic (eg, femoral catheterization)
  • cancer

UW4459 

Term
What is shock liver and its hallmark findings?
Definition

Ischemic hepatic injury occurs in the setting of hypotension (e.g. septic shock, heart failure) and manifests as acute, massive ↑ in AST & ALT with milder associated ↑ in total bilirubin (e.g. 1.2) and alkaline phosphatase (e.g. 162). In patients that survive liver enzymes typically return to normal within a few weeks.

UW4648

Term
When is vaccination against hepatitis A and B recommended?
Definition

CDC recommends patients with liver disease (alcohol abuse, cirrhosis) be vaccinated against HAV, HBV, pneumococcal disease, and yearly influenza.

UW4476 

Term
When a young female presents with bilateral lightning-like pain on her face, what should be suspected?
Definition

MS associated bilateral trigeminal neuralgia.

CSF pressure, protein, and cell count are grossly normal; however oligoclonal bands will be present. Again, normal protein levels, but Ig are ↑.

UW3462

Term
What intervention significantly prolongs survival and QoL in COPD patients?
Definition

Supplemental O2 therapy

Indications for thx: PaO2≤55, SaO2≤88%, Hct>55%, or evidence of cor pulmonale.

UW3042

Term
How do β-blockers cause hyperkalemia?
Definition
β1-receptors are found on the macula densa, and blockade inhibits renin release → ↓ aldosterone, resulting in hyponatremia & hyperkalemia.
Term
What are the symptoms of pernicious anemia?
Definition
  1. Macrocytic anemia
  2. glossitis (shiny tongue)
  3. neurologic Δ's that include peripheral neuropathy
  4. Atrophic gastritis → ↑ risk for intestinal-type gastric cancer.

UW4356

Term
Why does febrile transfusion reaction occur?
Definition

Caused by Ab in the patient's plasma that react with donor's leukocytes.

Cell washing, which depletes leukocytes, reduces occurrences.

UW4160

Term

What are the causes of an exudative pleural effusion?

How is exudative pleural effusion defined?

Definition

Infection, malignancy, pulmonary embolism, autoimmune

Light Criteria (exudate if ≥ 1 of the following)

  • pleural fluid/serum protein > 0.5
  • pleural fluid/serum LDH > 0.6
  • pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 of upper limit of normal for serum LDH.
Exudative transfusion is via ↑ capillary permeability
pH < 7.2 and glucose < 50 are indications for tube thoracostomy  (likely empyema).

UW4613, 4073

Term
How do NSAIDs cause anemia?
Definition

NSAIDs → peptic ulcer → low grade chronic GI blood loss → Iron deficiency anemia

Fatigue, consider ANEMIA!!!

UW3936

Term
What is a serious complication of influenza pneumonia?
Definition

S. aureus pneumonia

UW4867

Term
How does dilated cardiomyopathy occur in a healthy person?
Definition
  • hx of recent upper respiratory infection
  • dilated cardiomypothy 2° to viral or idiopathic myocarditis
  • Coxsackievirus B (3.5-5% of infect patients)
  • parvovirus B19, HHV6, adenovirus, and enterovirus
  • cardiomyopathy via direct viral damage & inflammatory response (humoral or cell-mediated)

UW4061

Term
Which arrhythmia is most specific for digitalis toxicity?
Definition

Atrial tachycardia with AV block

very rare for ectopy (leads to tachycardia) and AV block to occur at the same time.

AV block due to digitalis induced ↑ vagal tone and ↓ conduction through AV node.

UW3096

Term

What is the traditional target BP?

In diabetes?

Definition
  • 140/190
  • In diabetes or chronic renal failure the goal is 130/80
this is to slow end-organ damage

UW3903

Term
What are vesicular breath sounds?
Definition
normal breath sounds
Term
How is influenza best treated?
Definition

Bed rest and simple analgesia (e.g. acetominophen)

Antiviral meds can reduce duration of flu by 2-3 days; however, is only effective if administered within 24-48 hours of onset of symptoms.

Amantadine/Rimantidine - only effective against influenza A

Zanamivir/Oseltamivir (neuraminidase inhibitor) - effective against both Influenza A/B.

UW4284

Term
What is the definition of Fulminant Hepatic Failure?
Definition
  • FHF is defined as hepatic encephalopathy that develops within 8 weeks of the onset of acute liver failure.
  • These patients must be placed on an emergent liver transplant list.
  • Also be on the lookout for transaminase levels that ↓ from very ↑ levels with a concomittant ↑ in lab values that assess liver functionality (PT, PTT, albumin, cholesterol, bilirubin).

UW2986, 2900

Term
How is nodulocystic acne of moderate-to-severe severity best treated?
Definition

Oral Isotretinoin

also give if patient has scars.

Topical retinoids - non-inflammatory comedones.

Mild inflammatory acne - topical benzyl peroxide or topical antibiotics, or a combination of the two.

Oral antibiotics - moderate-to-severe inflammatory acne.

UW4091

Term
When administering a contrast agent to a patient with renal insufficiency what precautions should be taken?
Definition

Cr > 1.5

  1. Use non-ionic contrast agent
  2. Adequate IV hydration
  3. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

UW4490

Term
When you detect alkaline urine in a patient with a UTI what organism should you suspect?
Definition

Proteus, which makes urease → alkaline urine

UW 3262

Term
What is hepatojugular reflex/reflux useful for?
Definition

To distinguish between heart and liver-disease related causes of lower extremity edema.

UW4133

Term
When trying to determine the cause of dysphagia, what studies are requireda and in what order?
Definition
The ddx for dysphagia is broad (motility disorder - problems for both solids & liquids; obstruction lesion - problem with solids progresses to liquids)
  1. Barium esophagram (broad overview and help better direst endoscopy)
  2. Endoscopy
  3. Motility study
Term
Hepatocytes that stain with PAS (periodic acid-Schiff) regent and resist digestion by diastase. What is the most likely dx?
Definition

α-1 antitypsin deficiency

unsecreted A1AT accumulate in hepatocytes and retain stain.

UW2919

Term
How does chronic mesenteric ischemia occur?
Definition

atherosclerosis of mesenteric arteries → abdominal angina

  • chronic & severe abdominal pain, worsening post-prandial pain
  • weight loss
  • food aversion

UW2149

Term
What is acute erosive gastritis?
Definition

Characterized by the development of severe hemorrhagic erosive lesions after the exposure of gastric mucosa to various injurious agents or after a substantial ↓ in blood flow.

Aspirin ↓ protective prostaglandin production.

Aspirin & alcohol cause direct mucosal injury → ↓ mucin & HCO3- and ↓ integrity of epithelium → penetration of acid/protease to lamina propria → additional injury to vasculature → hemorrhage.

UW3704 

Term
What precautions should a patient with nephrolithiasis take?
Definition
  • ↓ dietary protein and oxalate
  • ↓ Na+ intake
  • ↑ fluid intake
  • ↑ dietary Ca2+

protein → calcium stones

UW3895

Term
What is a panendoscopy? When is it used?
Definition

triple endoscopy (esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy)

Squamous cell carcinoma of the mucosa of the head & neck. Common in people with a significant history of etOH & tobacco use.

The first manifestation may be a palpable cervical lymph node.

UW2614

Term
Which medications cause hyperkalemia?
Definition
  1. non-selective β-blockers: interferes with β-2-mediated intracellular K+ uptake.
  2. ACE, ARB, K+ sparing diuretic
  3. Digitalis: inhibition of Na-K-ATPase pump.
  4. Cyclosporine: blocks aldosterone activity.
  5. Heparin: blocks aldosterone production.
  6. NSAIDs: ↓ renal perfusion resulting in ↓ K+ delivery to collecting tubules.
  7. Succinylcholine: causes extracellular leakage of K+ through acetylcholine receptors.
  8. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole: TMP blocks epithelial Na+ channels in collecting tubule, especially with ↑ doses (think HIV prophylaxis)

UW8331

Term
At what age do you screen for breast cancer? What age to you stop screening?
Definition

Mammograms should be performed every 2 years starting at the age of 50 in women at average risk for breast cancer. Routing mammography is not necessary beyond the age of 75.

UW3863

Term

What are the symptoms of hypercalcemia?

What is the treatment in an acute setting?

Definition

Symptoms are vague and non-specific: constipation, N & V, abdominal pain are common.

Symptoms occur when > 12 mEq/L

Tx: if symptomatic & Ca2+ 12-14 or Ca2+> 14, IV fluid resuscitation in acute setting → renal excretion of Ca2+ by ↓ reabsorption in proximal tubule.

UW2169

Term
What can trigger Premature Atrial Contractions?
Definition

Tobacco, Alcohol, Caffeine, and Stress

If asymptomatic avoid precipitants; symptomatic → treat with β-blocker.

UW2744

Term
What are the side effects of recombinant erythropoietin?
Definition
  • worsening Hypertension (30% of patients)
  • Headaches (15% of patients)
  • flu-like symptoms (5% of patients)
  • red cell aplasia (rare)

UW3978

Term
Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia
Definition
  • IgM spikes (multiple myeloma has IgG/A spikes)
  • hyperviscosity (rarely seen in MM)
  • hyperviscosity syndromes include retinal vein engorgement.

UW2597

Term
What is Meniere's Disease?
Definition

Disorder resulting from distension of endolymphatic compartment of inner ear.

  • episodes of vertigo that last 20 minutes - 24 hours.
  • low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss & tinnitus
  • vertigo with nausea & postural instability
  • nystagmus
  • triggers include: alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, ↑ salt foods.
  • medical thx: diuretics, antihistamines, anticholinergics

UW4376

Term
What is the pathophysiology of hepatic hydrothorax?
Definition

Cirrhosis → ascites → abdominal ascites fluid passes into pleural space via small defects in diaphragm; occurs most commonly on the right side.

tx option 1) therapeutic thoracentesis followed by salt restriction & diuretics, if effusion still develops 2) Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS).

Primary tx is ofcourse liver transplant.

UW2969

Term
What is Amaurosis Fugax?
Definition

Painless loss of vision from emboli (feels like a curtain coming over the eye); cholesterol particles (Hollenhorst bodies) may be seen in eye; a warning sign of impending stroke.

Most emboli occur from the carotid bifurcation;  duplex u/s to identify plaques.

UW3528

Term
What is similar  between Rotor syndrome and Dubin-Johnson syndrome? Different?
Definition
  • Both have ↑ conjugated bilirubinemia
  • In Dubin-Johnson syndrome a dark granular pigment is present in the hepatocytes.

UW2924

Term

When is winter's formula used?

What formula is used for metabolic alkalosis?

Definition

PaCO2= 1.5 x HCO3 + 8 is used for primary metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis

PaCO2 = 0.9 x HCO3 + 16 ± 2

UW2806

Term
What is the most common cause of death in patients with an acute MI?
Definition

Reentrant ventricular arrhytmia (V fib)

Acute ischemia creates heterogeneity of conduction in the myocardium. Areas of partial block of conduction are frequently formed that predispose patients to reentrant arrhythmia.

UW4093

Term
[image]
Definition

Pericardial Effusion

enlarged globular-appearing cardiac shadow; water bottle/canteen shape. Electrical Alternans on ECG.

Causes include viral, pericarditis, cancer, lupus, Dressler's, hypothyroidism, kidney failure (↑ urea nitrogen).

 

Term
What is vitiligo associated with?
Definition

Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition directed against melanocytes.

Sometimes associated with other autoimmune conditions, such as pernicious anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes, primary adrenal insufficiency, hypopituitarism, and alopecia areata.

UW4296

Term
What is the difference between dihydropyridine and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?
Definition

Dihydropyridine (amlodipine, nifedipine, felodipine) - used to reduced systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure. Vasodilation & hypotension can → reflex tachycardia. Although most ccb's are not used to tx angina b/c of tachy reflex, amlodipine, nicardipine, and nifedipine can be used to treat chronic stable angina as well as vasospactic angina. 

Non-dihydropyridine (verapamil) - relatively selective for myocardium and often used to treat angina.

Diltiazem, a benzothiazepine, lies between the 2 previous classes. By having both a cardiac depressant and vasodilatory fxn, it can ↓ arterial pressure without producing the same degree of cardiac reflex tachycardia.

Term
What are some common causes of HTN?
Definition
  1. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
  2. Oral contraceptives (d/c if HTN is a problem)

UW3914

Term
What most commonly causes cor pulmonale?
Definition

COPD

look for ↑ JVP, hepatomegaly, ascites, lower extremity edema, clear lungs.

pulmonary disease causes cor pulmonale; other causes include pneumoconiosis, pulmonary fibrosis, kyphoscoliosis, primary pulmonary HTN, repeated episodes of PE.

UW4297

Term
What side effects are associated with amiodarone?
Definition
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • hepatotoxicity
  • thyroid dysfunction (both hyper & hypo)
  • Monitor PFTs, LFTs, and thyroid function tests

UW4453

Term
What can cause elevation of the left main stem bronchus?
Definition

enlarged atrium

e.g. mitrial stenosis from rheumatic fever

UW3874

Term
What electrolyte abnormality can prolonged bedrest cause?
Definition
  • hypercalcemia secondary to bone resorption via osteoclastic activation; this can even occur in an teenager.
  • Bisphosphonates thx is helpful in reducing hypercalcemia and preventing osteopenia.

UW4309

Term
What is cauda equina syndrome?
Definition
  • saddle anesthesia
  • bowel and bladder dysfunction
  • low back pain
  • sciatica
  • lower extremity sensory and motor loss
  • reflex abnormalities

cauda equina consists of spinal nerve roots; damaged by trauma, lumbar disk disease, malignancy, abscesses.

UW4392

Term
What lab marker is a good indicator of dehydration?
Definition
  • BUN/creatinine ration
  • ↓ urine sodium not effective when using saluretics (HCTZ)

UW3958

Term

For how many days post-MI does troponin T stay ↑?

CK-MB?

Definition
  • Troponin T, a more sensitive marker for cardiac injury, takes up to 10 days to return to normal.
  • CK-MB returns to normal within 1-2 days.

UW2737

Term
What potential problems can arise from nephrotic syndrome?
Definition
  • abnormal lipid metabolism; ↑ LDL, ↓ HDL → predisposing to accelerated atherosclerosis.
  • hypercoagulable

UW2244

Term
When should type 4 renal tubular acidosis be suspected?
Definition

A diabetic patient with a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, persistent hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency.

UW2810

Term
What is the most common type of neuropathy found in diabetics?
Definition

Symmetrical distal polyneuropathy (stocking-glove pattern)

UW3795

Term
A smoker presents with Horner's syndrome, what must be suspected?
Definition

Lung cancer → CXR

UW2602

Term
How does pancytopenia in SLE occur?
Definition

Antibodies → autoimmune hemolysis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (aka immune-TP), neutropenia 2° to ab-mediated destruction of WBC.

This is a form of type II hypersensitivity.

UW4416

Term
[image]
Definition

PE with wedge shaped infarction. Sometimes accompanied by pleural effusion; recall PE can cause exudative & transudative effusions.

UW4690

Term
A patient is on total parenteral nutrition. What deficiency is the patient at risk for developing?
Definition
  • Zinc deficiency
  • Symptoms - alopecia, skin lesions, abnormal taste, impaired wound healing.

UW3790

Term
How does osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) of the femoral head typically occur?
Definition
  • Chronic corticosteroid use, also chronic excessive alcohol, and hemoglobinopathies (eg, sickle cell).
  • pt will complain of hip pain, but no local tenderness and normal ROM.
  • dx: MRI

UW4564, 4565, 4047

Term

Anticoagulation with heparin should be started immediately in any patient with a high likelihood of PE before diagnostic tests are done.

UW3717

Definition
Term
What malignancy is myasthenia gravis associated with?
Definition

Thymoma in 15% of patients; screen with chest CT.

extraocular muscle weakness → double vision, ptosis, jaw cramp with chewing, voice change (dysarthria) after talking, and dysphagia.

UW3891, 2667

Term
What is a problematic side effect of statins?
Definition
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • mild elevation of liver enzymes.
  • Check CPKs in patients on statins that present with myalgias.

UW3158

Term
Which cardiovascular risk factor is strongly associated with an increased risk of stroke?
Definition

HTN

Smoking and DM are risk factors for stroke as well, but not nearly as significant as HTN.

UW3879

Term
[image]
Definition

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

rupture of saccular aneurysm is the most frequent cause of non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Other causes include rupture of AV malformation and extension of primary intracerebral hemorrhage.

UW3622

Term
[image]
Definition

Porcelain Gallbladder

↑ risk of gallbladder carcinoma

UW3732

Term
What characteristic GI findings can be seen in patients that abuse laxatives?
Definition

dark brown discoloration of colon with lymph follicles shining through as pale patches (melanosis coli).

frequent, watery, nocturnal diarrhea.

UW3593

Term
What can β-blocker overdose cause?
Definition
  • AV block
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • wheezing
  • potential cardiogenic shock
  • atropine & IV fluids are first line thx
  • if above fails, GLUCAGON
UW2663
Term
[image]
Definition

Smudge cell in CLL; pathologist may report "leukocytes have undergone partial breakdown b/c of greater fragility."

Presence of thrombocytopenia is a poor prognostic factor.

Dx - flow cytometry helps to determind clonality of cells.

UW2888

Term
What is the earliest renal abnormality seen in diabetic nephropathy?
Definition

Glomerular hyperfiltration; it is also the pathophysiologic mechanism of glomerular injury. Thickening of glomerular basement membrane is the first change that can be quantitated → mesangial expansion → nodular sclerosis.

UW3986

Term
What is the best treatment for frostbite?
Definition

Rapid rewarming with warm water.

UW3876

Term
Clues for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Definition
  • Rapidly progressive dementia
  • Myoclonus (shocklike contractions of a muscle or muscle group).
  • EEG (sharp bi/triphasic & synchronous discharges)
  • Brain bx shows spongiform changes.
  • CSF normal

UW3374

Term
What can happen if UC progresses without remission?
Definition

Toxic Megacolon

This subgroup of patients do not respond to treatment and progress with an unremitting course and signs of systemic toxicity (fever & weight loss). When symptoms of acute colitis are assiciated with radiologic evidence of colonic dilatation, the syndrome is called toxic megacolon. Can progress rapidly and result in colonic perforation.

Tx: IV fluids, abx, bowel rest; IV corticosteroids are the drug of choice. Emergent surgery may be required if the colitis does not resolve.

UW3834

Term
Ogilvie Syndrome
Definition

Acute pseudoobstruction and dilation of the colon in the absence of any mechanical obstruction in severely ill patients.

Massive dilatation of cecum and right colon. Can occur after surgery (esp. after CABG & total joint replacement).

aka Acute megacolon to distinguish from toxic megacolon.

Wikipedia

Term
What causes amyloidosis?
Definition

Secondary (AA) Amyloidosis: chronic inflammatory disease (acute phase reactant, serum amyloid A) such as chronic infection, psoriasis, IBD, RA. AL amyloidosis = Multiple Myeloma.

AA is a systemic disease and the kidneys (proteinuria) and GI system are prominently affected. Liver → inhibit synthesis of coagulation factors resulting in ↑ bruisability. Heart → restrictive cardiomyopathy → bibasilar crackles.

If sarcoid is on differential (it can cause restrictive cardiomyopathy) it is more common in African-Americans and usually present in 20s-30s.

UW4585,2707

Term
What electolyte abnormality can occur with blood transfusion?
Definition

Hypocalcemia (parasthesias)

Prior to storage whole blood is generally mixed with solutions containing citrate anticoagulant, wich can chelate serum calcium. This is most likely after massive transfusion of more than one blood volume over 24 hours).

Whole Blood → Packed Blood

UW4402

Term
How does coccidiomycoses present?
Definition
  • fever, fatigue, dry cough, weight loss, pleuritic chest pain.
  • Cutaneous findings: erythema multiforme (targetoid, S-J/TEN/HSV) and erythema nodosum (Crohn).
  • Arthralgias
  • Histology - spherules filled with endospores; histoplasmosis → intracellular yeast within mØ.
  • tx: oral fluconazole and IV amphotericin B.

UW2998

Term
What does lead poisoning look like?
Definition
  • GI complaints (pain, constipation)
  • Poor concentration (fatigue)
  • Anemia
  • Peripheral neuropathy with high dose or chronic moderate dose.
  • Basophilic stippling of RBCs.
  • Renal disease
  • Tx: EDTA or succimer

UW4862

Term
Whar are the signs of Acute Right Heart Strain?
Definition

JVD & RBBB on ECG.

Likely secondary to Massive PE.

While dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain are common symptoms of moderate and severe PE, syncope (think hypotension) tends only to occure in massive PE. Right heart strain progresses rapidly to right ventricular dysfunction, ↓ flow to left side, ↓ CO, left heart pump failure → resultant bradycardia.

UW2145

Term
Describe the appearance of acanthosis nigricans
Definition

symmetrical, hyperpigemented, velvety plaques in the axilla, groin, and neck.

associated with DM (insulin resistance) in younger patients and GI malignancy in older individuals.

UW2753

Term
What is pica? When does it occur?
Definition

Pica refers to an appetite for nonnutritive substances such as ice, clay, dirt, and paper products.

It is a behavioral symptom sometimes present in iron deficiency.

UW4348

Term
What is a significant side effect of acyclovir?
Definition

crystalline nephropathy (nephrotoxicity) if adequate hydration is not also provided.

UW4414

Term
Transient ST elevation on ECG
Definition

Variant Angina (Prinzmetal's angina)

Tx - CCB or nitrates (diltiazem)

UW2722

Term
How is cryptococcus treated?
Definition

Amphotericin B plus flucytosine

UW3254

Term
What is the most common cause of death in dialysis patients?
Definition

Cardiovascular disease

UW4026

Term
What is hyposthenuria?
Definition

Found in patients with sickle cell disease, but also in sickle cell trait. Impairment of the kidney to concentrate urine. Urine has low specific gravity.

UW4436

Term
What are the symptoms of cerebellar hemorrhage?
Definition
  • ataxia
  • vomiting
  • occipital headache
  • gaze palsy
  • facial weakness
  • no hemiparesis

UW3726

Term
How does acute angle glaucoma present?
Definition
  • acute onset (minutes)
  • severe eye pain
  • blurred vision
  • N & V
  • red eye
  • steamy/hazy cornea
  • moderately dilated pupil that is non reactive to light (fixed pupil)

UW2851

Term
What are the presenting symptoms of a cluster headache?
Definition
  • acute, severe retroorbital pain that wakes a patient from sleep.
  • redness of ipsilateral eye, tearing, stuffed or runny nose.
  • ipsilateral Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis)

UW4253

Term
Drug Induced Pancreatitis
Definition
  1. Patient on diuretics - furosemide, thiazides
  2. Patient with IBD - sulfasalazine, 5-ASA
  3. Patient on immunosuppressives - azathioprine, L-asparaginase.
  4. Patients with a hx of seizures or bipolar disorder - valproic acid.
  5. AIDS - didanosine, pentamidine.
  6. Abx - metronidazole, tetracycline.

UW3833

Term
What are the symtoms of ASA intoxication?
Definition

triad of fever, tinnutus, and tachypnea

↓ pH, ↓ PaCO2, ↓ HCO3

 

UW2803

Term
What is an associated risk in dermatomyositis?
Definition

internal malignancy, commonly ovarian cancer

regular age appropriate cancer screening is essential in these patients.

UW3208

Term
What are some metabolic side effects of HCTZ?
Definition
  • hyperglycemia
  • ↑ LDL cholesterol
  • ↑ plasma triglycierides
  • also remember hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia.

UW4171

Term
What is febrile neutropenia?
Definition

Medical Emergency!!!

Absolute neutrophil count < 1500/μl; susceptibility to infection ↑ when ANC < 500/μl. Fever in neutropenic patient is defined as single T reading > 38.3 (100.9) or sustained > 38 (100.4) over one hour.

Tx is monotherapy with ceftazidine, imipenem, cefepime, or meropenem.

UW2992

Term
What can cause pulsus paradoxus?
Definition
  • cardiac tamponade, pericadial effusion
  • tension pneumothorax
  • severe asthma (severely ↑ intrathoracic pressures)

UW4771

Term
[image]
Definition

Simple Renal Cyst

Thin walls, no solid component, no enhancement

UW4181

Term
Pulmonary nodule (1.5 cm on CXR) in a young healthy patient from suburban Mississippi; non-smoker.
Definition

Histoplasmosis (asymptomatic pulmonary nodule)

Less than 5% of infected people develop symptomatic disease; COPD → chronic cavitary pulmonary histoplasmosis; Immunocompromised → disseminated histoplasmosis.

UW4114

Term
What is the danger of Hepatitis E?
Definition
  • high rate of progression to fulminant hepatitis in pregnant women.
  • no effective vaccine
  • transmitted via fecal-oral route

UW2915

 

Term
Causes of Bloodly Diarrhea
Definition
  • Bacterial (SECSY - Shig, EHEC, Campy, Salm, Yers)
  • CMV colitis
  • UC
  • Entamoeba histolytica
Term
What does normal wall motion on echocardiography mean?
Definition

During an episode of chest pain it means there is no ongoing coronary ischemia or infarction. A normal echo between episodes of chest pain does not rule out unstable angina b/c wall motion returns to normal between ischemic episodes.

p. 21

Term
When is mitral regurgitation secondary to papillary muscle rupture most common?
Definition

Inferior infarctions more common than anterior infarctions. Q-waves in II, III, aVF.

p. 25

Term
What is achalasia?
Definition

It is an esophageal motility disorder. The LES is unable to relax.

vs. peptic stricture, which progresses from Barrett's esophagus (symmetric, circumferential narrowing of esophagus.

UW4694

Term
Young black male presents with painless hematuria. Nothing else is wrong with him. What is it?
Definition

Always suspect sickle cell train in a young black male who presents with painless hematuria.

UW3967

Term
What is Pellagra?
Definition

Niacin deficiency sydrome - the 3 D's (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia; if untreated → 4th D, death).

Too much corn.

Rash presents in sun-exposed areas.

UW3087

Term
What is presbycusis?
Definition

Sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging (6th decade); high-frequency bilateral hearing loss. Patients often have a hard time hearing in noisy, crowded environments.

Otosclerosis is a chronic conductive hearing loss assoicated with bony overgrowth of stapes. Typically begins with low-frequency hearing loss and often found in middle-aged individuals.

UW2836

Term

Warfarin induced skin necrosis presents with pain, bullae formation and skin necrosis. Breasts, buttocks, thigns, and abdomen are commonly involved.

UW2772

Definition
Term
How does papilledema present?
Definition

Wtih transient loss of vision lasting a few seconds with changes in head position and can be confirmed with ophthalmologic examination. Caused by ↑ intracranial pressure, which has its own associated symptoms such as morning headache or changes in headache intensity with position. When pressure is ↑, the pressure is transmitted to the optic nerve sheath. The papilledema ↑ the normal blind spot size.

UW4900

Term
What are extrapyramidal symptoms?
Definition
  • Parkinsonism (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor)
  • akathisia
  • dystonia
  • tardive dyskinesia
  • result of antiΨ → benztropine (anticholinergic) or diphenhydramine.
  • EPS from metoclopromide → same tx as above
  • antiΨ induced akathesia → propranolol

UW4886, 4366

Term
What are the adverse effects of amniodarone?
Definition
  • pulmonary toxicity
  • thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypothyroid)
  • hepatotoxicity (↑ ALT/AST)
  • corneal deposits (vision not effected)
  • skin Δ (blue-gray discoloration, typically most prominent on face)

UW3769

Term
What is the classic triad of carcinoid syndrome?
Definition
  1. flushing (episodic)
  2. diarrhea
  3. wheezing
  4. also dyspnea, intermittent abdominal pain, heart palpitations, and hypotension.
  5. first-line tx: surgical resection
  6. if not possible tx with octreotide

UW2625

Term
What can an increased BUN/creatinine ratio tell you?
Definition
  • ratio > 20: prerenal azotemia or postrenal obstruction.
  • increased with GI bleeding (2° to Hb breakdown and reabsorption of urea).
  • steroid administraton

UW4303

Term
What is the classic triad of hereditary hemochromatosis? What are some other collection of sx that are suggestive of HH?
Definition
  • #1-cirrhosis, #2-DM, #3-skin pigmentation (bronze diabetes).
  • Pts may present initially with subtler clues: hypogonadism (testicular atrophy/↓ libido), arthropathy (eg, osteoarthritis), DM, and hepatomegaly.
  • Fe deposition in cardiac myocardium → dilated or restrictive cardiomyopathy; conduction defects may arise (eg, sick sinus syndrome).

UW4639

Term
What is the most common childhood cancer? How is it dx?
Definition
  • ALL
  • leukemia dx via bone marrow bx
  • peak age: 2-5 years
  • SSx: bone pain, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, pallor (from anemia), petechiae (from thrombocytopenia).
  • associated with down syndrome

UW3284

Term
What are the ssx of digoxin toxicity?
Definition
  • diarrhea, nausea, and fatigue
  • confusion
  • also visual symptoms: scotoma, blurry vision w/ Δs in color, or blindness.
  • pts chronically taking digoxin should have close, routine monitoring of digoxin levels.

UW4454

Term
Which diseases present with Bell's Palsy?
Definition
  • my Lovely bell Had An STD
  • Lyme, Herpes Simplex/Zoster, AIDS, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, DM
Term
What are the clinical manifestations of Lyme disease?
Definition
  • Early localized (days-1 month): Erythema Migrans
  • Fatigue, malaise, lethargy
  • mild HA and neck stiffness
  • myalgias and arthralgias

  • Early Disseminated (wks-mos)
  • Carditis (AV block, cardiomyopathy)
  • Neurologic (Bell's, meningitis, encephalitis)
  • Muscular (migratory arthralgias)
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Multiple Erythema Migrans
  • regional or generalized lymphadenopathy
    Late of Chronic (mos-yrs)
  • Arthritis
  • Neurologic (encephalomyelitis, peripheral neuropathy)

UW3261

Term
How do you differentiate Gilbert from Crigler-Najjar types I & II?
Definition
  • Gilbert: mildly ↓ UDP-glucuronyl transferase, bilirubin ↑ with fasting.
  • Crigler-Najjar type I: absent UDP-glucuronyl transferase, pts die w/in a few years; ↑ unconjugated bilirubin, jaundice, kernitcterus.
  • Crigler-Najjar type II is less severe; tx with phenobarbital or clofibrate to ↓ serum bilirubin levels (jump starts liver enzyme synthesis); phenobarbital will have no effect on type I.

UW2923

Term
Which conditions can → ARDS?
Definition
  • sepsis
  • pneumonia
  • pancreatitis
  • aspiration
  • toxic ingestion
  • trauma
  • burns
  • look for PCWP < 18 mmHg (> 18 = cardiogenic pulmonary edema).
  • criteria: acute onset respiratory distress in setting of predisposing condition, PaO2/FiO2 < 200, b/l infiltrates on CXR, and normal PCWP.

UW3020

Term
Which medication can impair absorption of folic acid?
Definition
  • phenytoin
  • microcytic anemia

UW4147

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