Term
| A positive DNAse Agar result is indicated by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once you have identified C. Diptheriae in the clinical lab, you should: |
|
Definition
| Test the strain for a toxin (bacterial prophage). If there is no toxin, the bacteria can be disregarded. |
|
|
Term
| Whipple disease is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aerial hyphae that are acid fast from a lung biopsy would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lesions in the lung that present as patchy dense regions on the X-ray are most commonly associated with: |
|
Definition
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
| Your friends feed you armadillo. Cool! You get sick three years later. Not cool! What were you infected with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease agent is implicated as potentially causing Crohn disease? |
|
Definition
| Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis |
|
|
Term
| Meningitis marked by an acute inflammatory exudate is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In 30 year olds, UTIs are more common in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A friend comes to your room looking miserable with hang-over symptoms: a stiff neck, headache, back pain and a petechial rash. What should you do? |
|
Definition
| The petechial rash is a symptom of N. meningitidis. Take them to the ER! |
|
|
Term
| The silver nitrate/erythromycin put in newborns' eyes is primarily to treat: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dysuria and a mucoid discharge resembling semen is frequently associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The HACEK organisms are associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are commonly associated with enteritis except:
EHEC ETEC EAggEc EIEC UPEC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient arrives with lock jaw. What disease is this? Treat him. |
|
Definition
Clostridium tetani infection.
Treat with anti-toxin, antibiotics, possible excision of affected tissue, and placement in a quiet, dark room |
|
|
Term
| How does infection by tuberculosis progress? |
|
Definition
1. Infection and growth in macrophages
2. Development of inflammatory and T-cell response
3. Tubercle/granuloma formation
(4. Possible eventual movement into bloodstream) |
|
|
Term
| You have a patient with MDR TB. Prevent it from spreading. |
|
Definition
1. Isolate the infected individual
2. Directly observe therapy
3. Track down & screen all contacts |
|
|
Term
| Most diarrhea is NOT treated with antibiotics. Why not? Name one that should be treated. |
|
Definition
| Antibiotics kill normal flora, worsening the problem, and most diarrheal pathogens are self-limiting anyway. Salmonella typhi is an exception. |
|
|
Term
| What does the word "fastidious" mean in microbiology? |
|
Definition
| A microbe which will only grow in the presence of certain nutrients. |
|
|
Term
| When performing the nitrate test, the Durham tube has gas. This means that ____ gas was produced. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the O-F glucose tubes, oxidative bacteria will only produce acid: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The reason that Staphylococcus aureus is frequently associated with disease and Staphylococcus epidermidis is not is: |
|
Definition
| S. aureus has a capsule, hemolysins and produces leukocidin, while S. epidermidis does not |
|
|
Term
| Causative agent of toxic shock syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Peeling of the skin in S. aureus infections is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A newborn presents with failure to suck, is not crying and has no grasp reflex. Which pathogen should be included in the differential diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clostridium difficile can be transmitted by: |
|
Definition
| nosocomial, fecal/oral, and aerosol |
|
|
Term
| To distinguish Shigella and Salmonella, the best agar choice would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You recently hired a new assistant. They reported the following for Campylobacter jejuni:
4+ C. jejuni, growth on CAMPY, MAC and TCBS.
Should you accept or reject the report? |
|
Definition
| Reject it. C. jejuni is fastidious and so wouldn't grow on most of those agars. Also, TCBS is for vibrios. |
|
|
Term
| True or False: An organism can be both lysine deaminase and lysine decarbosylase positive in LIA tubes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To complete the Indole test, you would add: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Staphylococcus aureus is not known to cause which of the following?
Osteomyelitis Impetigo Empyema Caries Pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Group A streptococci are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diffuse inflammation of connective skin and severe inflammation of the dermal and subcutaneous layers with ill-define borders is most likely: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus agalactiae is typically treated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although rarely associate with foodborne diseases, it grows at 4 degrees C with a high fatality rate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bullous impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus aureus strains that: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common nosocomial urinary tract infection FOLLOWING antibiotic treatment is: |
|
Definition
Enterococcus
(w/o antibiotics it would be E. coli) |
|
|
Term
| a black necrotic skin lesion is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 23-year-old student develops abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting approximately 4 hours after eating leftover Chinese food. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his ailment?
Bacillus cereus
Clostridium difficile
Escherichia coli
Salmonella typhi
Staphylococcus aureus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erysepothrix rhusiopathiae is primarily an occupational hazard of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A baby was born to a woman who had ruptured membranes and was in labor for 30 hours. The physician orderd an infectious disease workup, and the microbiology laboratory reported that the CNS culture was growing catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Listeria monocytogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococcus faecalis
Streptococcus agalactiae |
|
Definition
Streptococcus agalactiae
(S. aureus is catalase + and Listeria is not normal flora) |
|
|
Term
| You are treating a patient with relapsed Clostridium difficile. What are two alternative treatments that may help this patient recover? |
|
Definition
1. tapered vancomycin
2. fecal enema |
|
|
Term
| What over the counter medicine is associated with an increased risk of necrotizing fasciitis?s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does endocarditis potentially lead to a stroke? |
|
Definition
| An emboli (vegetation) forms on the heart valve due to bacteremia. A piece of this may then break off and become lodged in a smaller blood vessel in the brain. |
|
|
Term
| A motile organism is grown at 37 degrees Celsius in a motility test medium. In this medium you note a distinct line with no spreading of the bacteria. What is a likely explanation? |
|
Definition
| Listeria monocytogenes is only motile at 20-25 degrees, but grows at 37 |
|
|
Term
| You want to test a bacteria for hemolysis, amylase and lecthinase activity. What agars should you use? |
|
Definition
| BAP, Starch agar, and Egg Yolk Agar |
|
|
Term
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a temperature sensitive fastidious organism.
A. Explain what this means.
B. Explain why this means it is unlikely to live long on toilet seats.
C. What culture media is recommended for this organism? |
|
Definition
A. N. gonorrhoeae is only able to grow in the presence of specific nutrients at a certain temperature range. Basically, it's picky.
B. The toilet seat is likely too cold for it to survive long.
C. Chocolate agar in CO2 incubator |
|
|
Term
| You are working to identify a presumptive Neisseriaa species of bacteria. Your assistant cultured the organism on phenol red glucose, maltose, lactose and sucrose. What test should be done next OR what is the bacteria species involved? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Your organism only grows in the presence of >5% CO2. You inoculate tubes of media and your supervisor stops you from using the CO2 incubator and says to put them in the regular incubator. What should you do and why? |
|
Definition
| Since they are tubes, they are generally anaerobic anyway |
|
|
Term
You are handed a plate from the anaerobic chamber. There are numerous colonies on the plate. You are provided with a gram stain kit, catalase reagent, a Brucella Blood Agar plate, some antibiotic disks, egg yolk agar and an anaerobic chamber with a gas stick.
A. What do you do first and why? |
|
Definition
| Gram stain to differentiate the organisms; many anaerobic bacilli have distinct cell morphologies |
|
|
Term
| What two diseases are associated with Clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
| Gas gangrene and food poisoning |
|
|
Term
| Name one successful childhood vaccine. |
|
Definition
| DTaP: diptheria, tetanus and pertussis |
|
|
Term
| Name one example of a surface disinfectant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name one example of an antiviral. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between Clinically Resistant and Research Laboratory Resistant? |
|
Definition
| Clinically resistant means the infection is not cleared by antibiotic treatment. Laboratory resistant means its growth is not inhibited by antibiotics. |
|
|
Term
| In general, why does drug resistance rapidly appear in a clinical setting? |
|
Definition
| Hospitals are a hotzone of different bacterial species and frequent antibiotic treatment increases the likelihood that those bacteria will develop resistance genes and pass them along to immune compromised patients. |
|
|
Term
| It is known that 80% of bacteria are unculturable. Yet we can culture over 80% of the bacteria that we say infects man. What is the implication of these two opposite statements? |
|
Definition
| It implies that most bacteria, while unculturable, are not human pathogens. Of the portion that are, most are culturable. |
|
|
Term
| List some ways to prevent Staphylococcus aureus infections. Earn 3 points. |
|
Definition
1. Treatment of carriers
2. Do not use antibiotics unless needed.
3. Contact precautions like gloves, mask and gown.
4. Do not share personal items. |
|
|
Term
| How is endocarditis treated? |
|
Definition
1. Antibiotics to clear the infection.
2. Possible heart valve repair |
|
|
Term
| How is necrotizing fasciitis treated? |
|
Definition
1. Directly pouring antibiotics in tissue
2. Removal of infected tissue/amputation |
|
|
Term
| What is Lady Windermere syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Suppression of the cough reflex (generally in elderly females) prevents the clearing of infections, leading to secondary infections by Mycobacterium avium Complex organisms |
|
|
Term
| You have a patient with MDR TB. Prevent it from spreading. |
|
Definition
1. Quarantine/isolate infected individual.
2. Directly observed therapy of antibiotic treatment
3. Screening of contacts
4. Do not release until PPE negative |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with Yersinia enterocolitica and how is it prevented? |
|
Definition
| Diarrheal intestinal infection; usually self-limiting, but may require cephalosporins if septic |
|
|
Term
| How does Neisseria meningitidis go from living in the respiratory tract to causing meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Meningococci adhere to mucoid cells, which endocytose them. They are then exocytosed into the submucosal space where they infect the blood and multiply rapidly. From the blood, they can travel to the meninges. |
|
|
Term
| When performing the nitrate test, the tube turns red after zinc is added. This means NO3 was converted to: |
|
Definition
No change (still NO3)
[N2 = gas bubbles, NH3 = no color change at all, NO2 = red after A&B reagents] |
|
|
Term
| In the O-F glucose tubes, facultative bacteria will result in which tube being completely green? |
|
Definition
| Both aerobic and anaerobic tubes (green/yellow positive) |
|
|
Term
A gram - diplococcus is cultured from the back of the throat. The agent involved is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Corynebacterium diptheriae
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Neisseria meningitidis |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diphteriae (colonizes upper respiratory tract) |
|
|
Term
| When DNAse agar is positive, you will see: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An organism is KK- on the KIA tube. This indicates that it is a _________ of sugars in the tube. |
|
Definition
| non-fermenter (fermentation = yellow = A) |
|
|
Term
| Large immune complexes leading to complement deposition is known as _______ Hypersensitivity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bacillus anthracis evades the immune response by using its: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of impetigo is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Strawberry tongue is a characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| removal of dirt and dust from a surface |
|
|
Term
| Ionizing radiation is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In humans, persistant nasal colonization of S. aureus is seen in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Listeria monocytogenes is found in the: |
|
Definition
| Soil, water, animals and humans |
|
|
Term
| Streptococcus pyogenes is thought to be most commonly spread by: |
|
Definition
| Anything contaminated with saliva |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of the the skin: painful, inflamed skin, raised and clearly demarcated from healthy skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Streptococcus pneumoniae is least likely to be associated with which disease?
A. Meningitis
B. Otitis Media
C. Sinusitis
D. Osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One of the main virulence factors of Streptococcus pygoenes is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which organism is associated with peritonitis after abdominal trauma or surgery?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Viridans streptococci
E. Enterococcus faecalis |
|
Definition
E. Enterococcus faecalis
(S. pneumoniae - otitis media, meningitis, pneumonia)
(Viridans - oral infections, endocarditis)
(S. agalactiae - infections in pregnant women)
(S. pyogenes - scarlet fever, necrotizing fasciitis) |
|
|
Term
| Bacillus anthracis is know to be found (associated with outbreaks in cattle) in what part of the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Exfoliation of the palms and soles of the feet may indicate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TDR-TB has been reported in: |
|
Definition
| India, Iran, and a few other countries |
|
|
Term
| The symptoms of Erysepothrix rhusiopathiae are: |
|
Definition
| painful skin infection and possible endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| Clostridium perfringens is associated with: |
|
Definition
| black necrotic tissue starting on the extremities and proceeding to the trunk |
|
|
Term
| Consumption is caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ulceration covered by a grey membrane on the skin of an adult is often associated with: |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diptheriae |
|
|
Term
| Viridans streptococci typically spread via: |
|
Definition
| They don't; they are endogenous normal flora |
|
|
Term
| Eating a goat that you found of the ground can cause: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A group of patients was seen on an emergency basis complaining of abdominal cramps and watery diarrhea within 5 hours of attending a picnic in which ham, potato salad, and custard-filled pastries were on the menu. Which of the following is the likely cause of the disease?
A. Attachment and disruption of the intestinal lining by parasitic infection
B. Bacterial colonization and toxin production
C. Bacterial adherence and invasion
D. Preformed bacterial toxin
E. Replication of a virus that prevents re-absorption of water |
|
Definition
| D. Preformed bacterial toxin |
|
|
Term
| Nocardia primarily causes disease in: |
|
Definition
| immune-compromised patients |
|
|
Term
| Routine screening of patients and diagnosis of C. difficile is often done by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Toxic megacolon is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A gram +, weakly acid fast coccus found growing in macrophages, causing granulomas and abscesses: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nontraumatic gas gangrene, especially in colon cancer patients, is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A food poisoning that is very severe and often fatal is caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An immune response involving the containment of an infection by "permanently" surrounding it with a wall of immune cells (T cells and macrophages) is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lepromatous leprosy is characterized by: |
|
Definition
| tumor-like growths on the skin and respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| Leprosy is primarily found in what part of the world? |
|
Definition
| South Asia, parts of Africa, Brazil, and Islands in Asia |
|
|
Term
| A stiff neck, pounding headache with fever and sometimes photophobia may be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Meningitis is marked by an increase in immune cells, but no culturable fungi or bacteria is known as: |
|
Definition
Aseptic
(purulent - acute inflammatory exudate)
(chronic - insidious onset) |
|
|
Term
| Meningitis is typically diagnosed by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae is most common in what age group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the first year of life, which group is most likely to get a UTI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Currently Yersinia pestis associated disese in the United States is: |
|
Definition
| Increasing in the Western USA |
|
|
Term
| Muscle spasms are associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False: There is a vaccine available for some strains of E. Coli. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One of the main factors that allows for efficient transmission of Salmonella is its: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Salmonella enterica Typhi is able to stay in the host by remaining in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of shigellosis in the US is: |
|
Definition
Shigella sonnei
(S. flexneri - worldwide)
(S. dysenteriae - Africa, Central America) |
|
|
Term
| Patients with bubonic plague should be managed by: |
|
Definition
| treated with Amphotericin B and quarantined until recovery. Contact tracing if pneumonic |
|
|
Term
| Acne is commonly associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| E. coli O157:H7 is a virulent strain of which group of E. coli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Certain "nutritionally variant streptococci" require chocolate agar supplemented with a specific form of vitamin B6. This form is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A sexually transmitted disease associated with subcutaneous nodule on the genitalia that may break into a painless lesion mimicking the chancre of syphilis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
