The __________ is made up of representatives from the Federal, State, and local government, law enforcement, port stakeholders and private industry. It is established under the direction of the COTP acting as the Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC), who leads the development, review, and updates of the Area Maritime Security Plan (AMSP) for the area which is defined as the COTP Zone. Members are responsible for the following

The CSO shall be an E7 or above or civilian employee (GS-9 or above)

and attend the Coast Guard CSO Course

The

Maritime Law Enforcement Manual (MLEM), COMDTINST M16247.1 (series), Appendix D, Figure D-1, footnote (e) permits the District Commander to delegate the authority to issue a Statement of No Objection (SNO) for warning shots and disabling fire, in U.S. internal waters and territorial seas, to intermediate Commanders and to authorize them to re-delegate such authority to Commanding Officers (as defined in the CGUOFP). This authority may only be delegated for units engaged in MHS operations.

Prior to engaging in security zone enforcement operations, coxswains should know if the District Commander has delegated this SNO authority and where it resides (e.g., with the coxswain or with an intermediate commander).

4 boats is optimal

Herding is an appropriate tactic when handling an SZ violator that hasn’t obeyed an order to heave to or depart the zone, but it does not pose an imminent threat of death or serious physical injury

Patrols are

most effective when operated at

irregular intervals.

COTP Orders cannot be issued

to "all vessels" or a class of vessels, facilities, or

individuals. Where a group or class of entities is

targeted, a safety zone or RNA is more appropriate.

An example of the correct use of a COTP Order is to

deny entry to the navigable waters within a COTP zone

to a specific cargo vessel or tankship until a

particular discrepancy is repaired. An example of

incorrect use of a COTP Order would be to require all

vessels transiting a channel during a transfer of a

cargo of particular hazard (COPH) to reduce speed to 5

knots. A COTP Order is inappropriate in this latter

case since it is directed at all vessels transiting

the area.

c. Requirements. The COTP should be specific when

Concurrent Jurisdiction

. Where concurrent federal/state

jurisdiction exists, the district commander is authorized

under 33 CFR 100.10 to enter into agreements with state authorities to permit them to review applications and issue permits for certain events when it is clearly within the capabilities of the state to do so. Such agreements are inkeeping with the Commandant's policy of encouraging the states to assume a greater role in boating safety, and are

encouraged.

Risk = Threat x Vulnerability x Consequence

At a ______, security

surveys should be completed every two years, in conjunction with the facility safety surveys

PASSENGER TERMINAL VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT

This form is a tool to assist field personnel in developing

information about individual passenger terminals within their jurisdiction. It must be completed ______ for any passenger vessel facilities (dedicated or non-dedicated) within the COTP zone.

    Ans: Encl: (1) Material to be enclosed

(2)  Same as above

what does the Automated Information Systems (AIS) Security Manual, COMDTINST

M5500.13 (series) contain?

contains information on qualifications, assignment, and

responsibilities of the Automated Data Processing Security Officer (ADPSO

These requests shall be

submitted to the cognizant SECMGR no later than 60 days prior to the expiration date. Each extension shall identify any previous extensions granted for the same

Exclusion Area. (facility securty)

An exclusion area is the most secure type of

restricted area. It may be within less secure types of restricted areas. Access to the exclusion area constitutes, or is considered,actual access to the security interest or asset.

A limited area is the second most secure type of

restricted area. It may be inside a controlled area, but is never

inside an exclusion area. Uncontrolled or unescorted movement

could permit access to the security interest or asset

Controlled Area. A controlled area is the least secure type ofrestricted area. It may also serve as a buffer zone for exclusion

limited areas, thus providing administrative control and protection

against sabotage, disruption, or potentially threatening acts. Uncontrolled movement may or may not permit access to thesecurity interest or asset

In cases of a high degree of relative criticality and vulnerability, it may be necessary to establish two lines of physical barriers at the restricted areaperimeter. Such barriers should be separated by not less than _____ for optimum protection and control.

Two general types of physical barriers are:

a. Natural: mountains, swamps, thick vegetation, rivers, bays, cliffs, etc.

b. Structural: fences, walls, doors, gates, roadblocks, vessel hull,superstructures, bulkheads

The standard fence fabric shall be at least ________zinc or aluminum coated steel wire chain link with mesh openings not larger than two inches per side and a twisted and barbed selvage at top and bottom

All posts, supports, and hardware for security fencing shall meet the requirements of Federal Specification.

Culverts under or through a fence shall be

of ___inch pipe, or of clusters of such pipe or equivalent. Openings under or through a fence shall be secured with material ___ or ____ in strength than the overall barrier

10

equal, greater

Three strands of ______ barbed wire, equally spaced,

shall be installed on the supporting arms. The top guard of fencing adjoining gates may rise to a vertical height of ___ inches and extend to the normal 45-degree outward direction

Alternative Fencing. Where a restricted area perimeter boundary passes

through an isolated area (forest, jungle, swamp) that is unpatrolled and

where vehicular passage is impossible, the boundaries may be defined with

a three or four strand 12 gauge barbed wire fence approximately ____ high. It shall be posted with appropriate signs, approximately one foot from the top.

Storage in Private Residences. Coast Guard owned weapons and ammunition for agents, competitive shooting team members, morale, etc. ____ be stored in private residences, subject to the following provisions

Weapons and ammunition shall be stored out of plain sight, preferably in a locked interior closet or cabinet. The quantity of ammunition stored shall not exceed a total Net Explosive Weight (N.E.W.) of ___ pounds. See Navy Gun Ammunition, SW030-AA-MMO-010 or contact your district armory

Policy. Ready service ammunition shall be stored in either an armory, a Class___ GSA approved weapons container within a weapons space or in approved

magazines. All other ammunition and all explosives shall be stored in approved magazines. On board all cutters, construction in accordance with current ships

plans is acceptable for AA&E storage. Specifications and drawings for approvedmagazines may be obtained from the Naval Facility Engineering Command

(NAVFAC), Atlantic Division, 1510 Gilbert Street, Norfolk, VA 23511-2699,

(757) 322-4205

An unobstructed area or clear zone shall be maintained on both sides of

and between permanent physical barriers of restricted and non-restricted

areas. Vegetation inside clear zones shall not exceed ____ inches in height

An inside clear zone shall be at least ____feet. Where possible, a larger clear zone should be provided to preclude or minimize damage fromthrown objects such as incendiaries or bombs.

c. The outside clear zone shall be ____ feet or greater between the perimeter barrier and any exterior structures, vegetation or any obstruction to

visibility.

Patrol Roads. When the patrolled perimeter barrier encloses a large area (_____ mile or greater), an interior perimeter road in all areas not affected by impassable terrain features shall be provided for use of security patrols.

this security barriers shall be checked ____

Windows, skylights, and other openings, which

penetrate the restricted area perimeter barrier, that are of ____ square inches or greater, shall be protected by securely fastened nine gauge wire mesh (not larger

than two inch openings), framed and permanently bolted to the structure. Such openings are considered inaccessible to personnel when they are __ feet or more

above ground level or any horizontal surface large enough to place a climbing aid upon and ___ feet or more distant from other buildings, structures, etc., outside the perimeter

Utility Poles, Signboards, and Trees. Utility poles, signboards, trees, etc., located

within 14 feet of the perimeter barrier of the unit, present a possible means of

illegal entry. To reduce this possibility, the perimeter barrier shall be staggered to

increase the distance to more than ____feet and may be heightened to the extent

necessary to prevent entry. Should these utility poles, signboards, trees, etc., also

obstruct the visibility of security patrols, they shall be at least___ feet outside the

perimeter barriers.

All restricted area perimeters, e.g. fence, shall be posted at ____foot

intervals, approximately ____feet from the top (eye level), with signs

measuring approximately _________inches in size with appropriate

lettering. Signs shall read:

Government property boundaries and non-restricted area perimeters, e.g.

fence, shall be posted at ____ foot intervals, with signs at eye level,

measuring approximately _________ inches in size with appropriate lettering

Exterior signs shall be fabricated of metal with black lettering on a white

background, except that the word "WARNING" shall be in red. Exterior

signs shall be fabricated to provide legibility from a distance of at least ___feet during daylight under normal conditions

continuous, standby, moveable, emergency

A projected beam of invisible light can be effective for approximately ___ feet indoors and will cover a distance of up to _____ feet outdoors. The effectiveness of the beam is decreased from ________ percent for each mirror used.

(2)

When keys are not in use, they shall be secured in repository containers of at least ____steel or material of equivalent strength

_______, Form, shall be used to record combinations.

______, Activity Security Checklist, shall be used to record area security checks at

the close of business or daily checks for 24-hour facilities. Records shall be maintained for three months

______, Security Container Check Sheet, shall be used to record the

opening/closing of a container

Category I and II arms shall be stored in an approved armory or in a Class __, GSA approved weapons container within a weapons space.

security risk catergories:

class I- non-nuclear missles, rockets ready to launch,etc.

class II-light automatic weapons up to 50 cal

class III- missle and mortar tubes, flame throwers.

Class IV- non automatic Wps

Ammunition classes

Class I- are the ammo for class I missles and rockets

Class II- high explosive hand or rifle grenades, mines etc.

Class III- grenades, 50 cal rounds

Class IV- all other ammo 

Accountability. Ordnance Manual, COMDTINST _______(Series) establishes accountability and inventory requirements, including procedures for reporting missing,lost or stolen AA&E.

FPCON NORMAL.

This condition applies when a general threat of possible

terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture

This condition applies when there is a general threat of possible

terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of

which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementationof the measures of FPCON BRAVO.

FPCON _______. This condition applies when an increased and more predictable

threat of terrorist activity exists. The measures in this FPCON must be capable of

being maintained for weeks without causing undue hardship, without affecting

operational capability, and without aggravating relations with local authorities.

All previous measures remain in effect

FPCON _______. This condition applies when an incident occurs or when

intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units

and personnel is imminent. Implementation of this measure for more than a short

period will probably create hardship and will affect the peacetime activities of the

unit and its personnel. All previous measures remain in effect.

FPCON DELTA. This condition applies in the immediate area where a terrorist

attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action

against a specific location is likely. Normally, this FPCON is declared as a

localized warning.

Under _______ - For ashore and mobile units, the commanding officer shall

establish container requirements. Any of the security containers or

burglary resistant safes listed in subparagraph 6.D.2 may be used

$2,000 - $______ - For ashore units, a GSA approved security container

that carries a Class __ or Class __ rating or a burglary resistant safe carrying at least an UL classification of Tool-Resistant Safe, TL-15, and having a Group 1R combination lock shall be used

$_______ or more - For both ashore and mobile units, a burglary resistant

safe or vault carrying at least an UL classification of Tool-Resistant Safe,

TL-__, and having a Group 1R combination lock shall be used

Personnel transferring outside the area of responsibility of the issuing

authority will relinquish the decal from their previous unit to the

Command Security Officer (CSO) at their new unit within ______ days of

reporting. If the command they are joining utilizes the Coast Guard POV

Registration Program, they shall register their vehicle with that command

As a matter of Coast Guard policy, Boarding Officers may pursue persons ashore in the U.S.

from the water to effect an arrest only when all of the following criteria are met:

• The Boarding Officer has probable cause to believe that a person is committing or has

committed a federal felony rendering that person subject to arrest.

• The person flees ashore from Coast Guard pursuit.

• Shoreside LE personnel are not present, or have insufficient capacity to pursue and

specifically request Coast Guard assistance.

• The Boarding Officer is accompanied by another Boarding Officer or boarding team

member.

• The pursuit ashore of the person fleeing can be initiated immediately, maintained

continuously, and completed expeditiously.

Auxiliary vessels are subject to LE boardings. However, when under Coast Guard orders,

such as for SAR or regatta patrols, Auxiliary vessels should normally not be boarded. If the

operator claims to be under Auxiliary orders, the claim should be verified with the local

Coast Guard unit issuing the orders or coordinating the event

Coast Guard canines shall be trained in only one area of specialization – narcotics or

explosives, but not both. Canines will not be trained in patrol or any other type of “bite”

Cannines-

The term “_____” describes a noticeable physical change of behavior in the detector canine’s

behavior when the canine initially detects the presence or odor of drugs or explosives that it

is trained to identify.

The term “________” refers to minute quantities of odor left behind by a removed

substance

The term “_____________” refers to the act of associating a trained odor with a specific

reward

cannine detection program

The term “____” refers to training aids that have been hidden in anticipation of substance

detection training.

The term “i_______” refers to the period of time after the canine’s initial alert (detection) is

reflected by the enthusiasm and desire the canine displays to pinpoint and not leave the place

of concealment 

Response The term “________” refers to a specific physical action such as scratch or sit, a trained

detector canine would exhibit after it has detected and traced an odor to its source. A

positive response by a trained substance detection canine creates probable cause to either

obtain a search warrant or conduct a warrantless search under one of the exceptions to the

warrant requirement

caninne detection program

A.4.g. Scent Cone The term “scent ______” refers to the path an odor follows starting at the source.

A.4.h. Scent Picture The term “scent _______” refers to the combination of odors present when a detector canine

A.4.i. On-Lead The term “________” means that the leash is properly secured to the canine, in the hands of the