Term
| What allows deinococcus radiodurans to endure high doses of ionizing radiation? |
|
Definition
| multiple copies of chromoseom & radiation absorbing pigments |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 types of phototrophic bacteria? |
|
Definition
| blue-green, green sulfur, green non-sulfur, purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur |
|
|
Term
| What are the 8 types of low G+C gram-pos bacteria? |
|
Definition
| clostridium, mycoplasma, lactobacillus, enterococcus, bacillus, listeria, streptococcus, staphylococcus |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of high G+C gram-pos bacteria? |
|
Definition
| corynebacterium, mycobacterium, actinomycetes |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of food poisoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms of clostridium botulinum? |
|
Definition
| headache, double vision, flaccid paralysis |
|
|
Term
| __ is involved in duck die-offs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does botulism kill babies? |
|
Definition
| lives in intestines and starts making the neurotoxin to make dead organic matter |
|
|
Term
| What does the tetanus vaccine do? |
|
Definition
| infect with tetanus toxin that's chemically inactive, to get body used to it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the antitoxin for tetanus work? |
|
Definition
| aminoglobulins bind to toxin to get them to stop suffering from tetanus |
|
|
Term
| What is the untreated mortality rate of tetanus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Factors that cause wound infections include:
1. ___ of contaminating organism
2. size of contaminating ___
3. extent of __ damage at wound
4. ____ of wounded person |
|
Definition
1. virulence
2. dose
3. tissue
4. health status |
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms of clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does gas gangrene work? |
|
Definition
| use fermentative pathways, making CO2 which builds in the wound |
|
|
Term
| How do antibiotics help C. Diff? |
|
Definition
| kill other intestinal organisms, leaving room for C. Diff to grow |
|
|
Term
| What does C. diff's tissue destruction cause? |
|
Definition
| formation of plaque-like pseudomembrane |
|
|
Term
| What is used to treat C. diff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 virulence factors in bacillus anthracis? |
|
Definition
| edema factor; lethal factor; protective antigen |
|
|
Term
| What is the untreated mortality rate in cutaneous anthrax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does edema factor cause in anthrax? |
|
Definition
| fluids to leech into the lung |
|
|
Term
| What does gastrointestinal anthrax do? |
|
Definition
| infects gut due to eating contaminated meat |
|
|
Term
| How does bacitrcin inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis? |
|
Definition
| interferes w/ movement of precursor groups through cell membrane to cell wall |
|
|
Term
| 16sRNA shows mycoplasma are most like ____, but they appear ___ in a gram-stain. |
|
Definition
| clostridium; gram-negative |
|
|
Term
| Why are mycoplasma penicilin resistent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms of mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| headache, sort throat, sweating, coughing, really tired, fever |
|
|
Term
| How is walking pneumonia treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is walking pneumonia spread? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period for walking pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for walking pneumonia to be seen on a screen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is responsible for 1/2 of all infections that lead to infertility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to treat ureaplasma urealyticum patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do most patients at VD clinics carry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Listeria produces enzymes that cause polymerization of ___, which is how they move. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Listeria survives phagocytosis to lives within ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does catalase negative mean? |
|
Definition
| unable to break down H2O2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is extensive destruction of deep subcutaneous muscle and fat. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flesh eating bacteria is aka: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is excretion of enzymes capable of breaking down redblood cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens with beta hemolytic cells in agar? |
|
Definition
| complete clearing around the colony |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes 35% of sore throats for kids? |
|
Definition
| streptococcal pharyngitis |
|
|
Term
| What is used to diagnose streptococcal involvement in pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for s. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
| pencillins or tetracyclines |
|
|
Term
| 3% of s. Pyogenes cases get sequelae, causing ___, ____, ___, or ___. |
|
Definition
| scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, chorea |
|
|
Term
| What can cause s. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
| direct contact or droplet infection |
|
|
Term
| What is used to treat pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most strains of s. pneumnoia are __ hemolytic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Virulent s. pneumonia have a __ made of ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does s. pneumoniae interfere with recognition by macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is inflammation of membranes that surround brain and spinal cord. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any organism that can access the CNS can cause: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enterococcus can cause ___, ___, ____, and ___ if it gets out of intestines. |
|
Definition
| UTIs, bacteremia, endocarditis, meningitis |
|
|
Term
| Why is vancomycin resistant enterococcus such an issue? |
|
Definition
| vancomycin is the last resort with enterococcus |
|
|
Term
| _____ can cause peritonitis if it gets into the abdominal cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Staphylococcus tend to grow on ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does catalase negative mean? |
|
Definition
| unable to break down hydrogen peroxide |
|
|
Term
| What protects staphylococcus aureus from phagocytes? |
|
Definition
| coagulase (enzyme that causes fibrin to clot) |
|
|
Term
| How does hyaluronidase help the staphylococcus aureus bacteria? |
|
Definition
| breaks down hylauronic acid, which helps hold cells and tissues together |
|
|
Term
| How does staphylococcal food poisoning happen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ dissolves blood clots to allow spread to new locations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ disrupts cell membranes of most host cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ disrupts cytoplasmic membranes of leukoctyes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ triggers fever, vomiting, rash, and shock. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the "D" in the DPT shot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What produces the palisades in C. dip? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the immunization for c. diptheria work? |
|
Definition
| inject w/ just enough dip to retain structure, making an immunological response happen |
|
|
Term
| If C. diptheria becomes systemic, what can happen? |
|
Definition
| heart and kidney failure in 7-10 days. |
|
|
Term
| ___ are slow growing, non-spore forming rods with waxy mycolic acids in cell walls. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do antibiotic drugs affect leprosy? |
|
Definition
| they can never kill it off completely |
|
|
Term
| What was used to form the first aminoglycoside, used to inhibit bacterial ribosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gram-positive cell walls are bound together by ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
| teichoic acids; lipoteichoic acids |
|
|
Term
| Gram-negative cell wall has a thin layer of ___, with outer membrane of ___. |
|
Definition
| peptidoglycan; lipopolysaccharide |
|
|
Term
| Tuberculosis transmission is usually associated with: |
|
Definition
| aerosol from an infected person |
|
|
Term
| In latent TB, body successfully: |
|
Definition
| inhibits spread of bacteria |
|
|
Term
| In active TB, the bacteria can infect ___ tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alpha, beta, gamma, delta, and epsilonproteobacteria are all ____ bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With rhizobium, bacteria converts atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia, then provides __ to the plant, while the plant provides ___. |
|
Definition
| organic nitrogenous compounds; organic compounds from photosynthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tumor of tissue caused by modified DNA, producing strange AA that plant can't use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is a nitrifying bacterium that helps convert ammonia to nitrate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ has anoxygenic photosynthesis and can use light energy to produce PMF |
|
Definition
| rhodospirillacea (purple non-sulfur bacteria) |
|
|
Term
| Bacteria that are grown in light produce ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Brucella abortis does not colonize the ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Rickettsia rickettsia are: |
|
Definition
non-itchy spotted rash
fever
headache
chills
muscle aches
nausea
vomiting
petechiae |
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are gonorrhea symtpoms in men? |
|
Definition
| burning sensation and pus discharge |
|
|
Term
| What are gonorrhea symptoms in women? |
|
Definition
| may be asymptomatic or vaginal discharge and pelvic pain |
|
|
Term
| What happens if gonorrhea is left untreated? |
|
Definition
| spreads through the body, can cause sterility |
|
|
Term
| How often is gonorrhea asymptomatic in women? |
|
Definition
| 4/5 times, can cause inflammation of cervix and uterine tubes |
|
|
Term
| In ___, airways become constricted by mucus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| B. pertussis can be treated by ___, if caught early. However, most treatment is ___ b/c it's about the epithelium, not the number of bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is salmonellosis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period for salmonellosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is infection of the blood caused by salmonellosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Typhoid fever's 2 worst symptoms are ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| kidney failure, peritonitis |
|
|
Term
| ___ is an infection of animals that only infects human as second target. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 manifestations of the plague? |
|
Definition
bubonic (flea bite)
pneumonic (aerosol from infected person |
|
|
Term
| If bubonic, what is the main symptom of the plague? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main symptom of the plague if pneumonic? |
|
Definition
| bloody cough b/c of lung infecion |
|
|
Term
| Which type of plague is contagious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ causes rapid wound infections after exposure to contaminated sea water. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cholera, ___ clears up the infection, but ___ is the cause of the disease. |
|
Definition
| tetracycline; choleragen (toxin) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What usually causes otitis media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the chancre do? |
|
Definition
| sheds bacteria (very contagious) |
|
|
Term
| What is congenital syphilis? |
|
Definition
| when mom gives syphilis to baby |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal microflora of the mouth? |
|
Definition
gram positive streptococci
alpha hemolytic |
|
|
Term
| If listeriosis symptoms appear, the odds of death are ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When did eukaryotic microbes first evolve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| part of DNA that encode info for protein synthesis in eukaryotes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nonsense sequences of DNA that aren't necessarily necessary |
|
|
Term
| What do eukaryotic mRNAs have on the 3' end? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ makes most of the ATP that's used in a eukaryotic cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ have their own, mini chromosome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are made from the mitochondrial chromosome? |
|
Definition
| a small percentage of the proteins they need |
|
|
Term
| What may hydrogenosomes evolved from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ are associated with basal body of flagella. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are introns gotten rid of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ resist tension, while ___ resist compression. |
|
Definition
| microfilaments; microtubules |
|
|
Term
| ____ is extension of cytoplasm seen in protozoa and animal cells that enables the cell to move by amoeboid motion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the order of the 4 phases of mitosis? |
|
Definition
| prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
|
|
Term
| ____ is cell division for reproduction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In _____, a chromosome looks like a X and is composed of 2 copies of chromosome that have undergone replication. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the key difference between mitosis and meiosis? |
|
Definition
| in meiosis, each X-shaped chromosome associates with its homologous partner to form chromosome pairs |
|
|
Term
| Algae produce ___ and fix ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to energized electrons in photosynthesis? |
|
Definition
| passed off to NADP+ to NADPH |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| water and upper millimeters of damp soil or snow |
|
|
Term
| Algae go through ___ photosynthesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a unicellular fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the technical name for fungal kingdom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ make reproductive spores. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungal spores can be ___ or ___. |
|
Definition
| vegetative (asexual); sexual |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sexual cycle of zymycota forms a mass of diploid cells called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Meiosis within the zygosporangium yields a ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Basidiospores develop at end of basidia, which develops from: |
|
Definition
| intertwined hyphae of basidiocarp |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the sexual cycle of saccharoymces cervisiae? |
|
Definition
| gives a single celled ascus that contains 2-4 ascospores |
|
|
Term
| What is a yeast infection for women? |
|
Definition
| overgrowth of vaginal candida albicans |
|
|
Term
| What is a dimorphic fungus? |
|
Definition
| something that's hyphae in soil & yeast in lungs |
|
|
Term
| What does aspergillus flavus look like? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| liver carcinogen found in improperly stored grains and peanuts |
|
|
Term
| What mutation does aflatoxin cause? |
|
Definition
| converts guanines to thymines |
|
|
Term
| What phylum is candida albicans found in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three species can cause ringworm? |
|
Definition
| tricophyton rubrum, microsporum gypseum, and microsporum canis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is histoplasma capsulatum found? |
|
Definition
| soils contaminated by bat or bird droppings |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the symptoms of histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| chronic fever, cough, chest pain, lung cavities, may cough up tissue |
|
|
Term
| How does coccidiodomycosis act in lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does coccidiodomycosis live? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is coccidiodomycosis contracted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the size range for protozoa? |
|
Definition
| 2-3 microns to 200-300 microns |
|
|
Term
| What do protozoa use to be motile? |
|
Definition
| pseudopods, flagella, cilia |
|
|
Term
| What is encystment, and what has it? |
|
Definition
| tough resting form of organism; protozoas |
|
|
Term
| What does diplomonad mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 stages of amoeboflagellates? |
|
Definition
| amoeba, flagellated, cyst |
|
|
Term
| When do protozoa form cysts? |
|
Definition
| when conditions become unfavorable |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the actively feeding and growing form of a protozoan |
|
|
Term
| What form of protozoa usually causes disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ have hard shells made of calcium carbonate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In ciliophora, the ___ is large and has copies of the genome, while the ___ is small and involved in sexual reproduction. |
|
Definition
| macronucleus; micronucleus |
|
|
Term
| Where do the life stages of t. brucei occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic t. cruzi can affect the ___, ___, or ___. |
|
Definition
| heart, colon, peripheral nervous system |
|
|
Term
| What is the merozoite stage of plasmodium falciparum? |
|
Definition
| microorganism grows in either red blood cells or liver cells |
|
|
Term
| What happens if pregnant women inhale taxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
| can transfer to the fetus and kill it |
|
|
Term
| What is the vegetative stage like for penicillum chrysogenum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What both causes hallucinations and can be used to induce labor? |
|
Definition
| ergot (toxin from clavices purpurea) |
|
|
Term
| What is African sleeping sickness? |
|
Definition
| fatal infection of blood that can spread to nervous system |
|
|
Term
| A suitable host cell must have the ___ a virus needs to reproduce. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sizes:
1. Red blood cell
2. E. Coli
3. Poliovirus
4. Small Pox Virus
5. Bacteriophage T4
6. Tobacco mosaic virus |
|
Definition
1. 10,000 nm diameter
2. 1000 nm x 3000 nm
3. 30 nm
4. 200 nm x 300 nm
5. 50 nm x 225 nm
6. 15 nm x 300 nm |
|
|
Term
| Viral envelope is a ___ bilayer, embedded with ___, but is not active like a cytoplasmic membrane. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What shape is the rabies virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 pieces of the tail of a bacteriophage? |
|
Definition
| base plate, tail fibers, tail spike |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 stages of the general virus life cycle? |
|
Definition
| attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, release |
|
|
Term
| How does a lambda phage go through attachment? |
|
Definition
| attaches to a pore with the base plate |
|
|
Term
| How does lambda phage enter the cell? |
|
Definition
| tail protein shifts and rearranges, acts like a syringe to inject DNA into host cell |
|
|
Term
| During which bacteria phage stage is the host chromosome degraded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many lambda phages are made during assembly per cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the last thing made by a lambda phage? |
|
Definition
| lysozome--degrades peptidoglycan, causes host cell to break open |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| virus actively grows and kills cell when breaks out |
|
|
Term
| What is a lysogenic cycle? |
|
Definition
| virus remains dormant and host cell continues to grow & divide |
|
|
Term
| As long as phage repressor protein is active, what happens to the host cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the one benefit to the host during the lysogenic cycle of a virus? |
|
Definition
| protects from other lambda particles |
|
|
Term
| When a lambda lysogen encounters harsh conditions, what can happen to lambda repressor protein? |
|
Definition
| can be degraded, causing production of prophage genes |
|
|
Term
| When a virus buds out of a cell, what is the envelope made of? |
|
Definition
| cytoplasmic membrane of the host cell with viral proteins on it |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 examples of human viruses that are always in lytic cycle? |
|
Definition
| rhinoviruses; enteroviruses; hep A |
|
|
Term
| Viruses with ___ in their genome may be capable of being latent within human cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does entero virus mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a positive strand virus? |
|
Definition
| DNA has same sequence as RNA |
|
|
Term
| Positive sense RNA can be translated by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is it virtually impossible to cure AIDS? |
|
Definition
| virus becomes latent in T-helper cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 types of animal viruses? |
|
Definition
dsDNA
ssDNA
dsRNA
+ssRNA
-ssRNA
ssRNA-RT (+ sense w/ DNA intermediate)
dsDNA-RT |
|
|
Term
| ___ attaches influenza virus to human host cells by attaching to __ residue on the surface of the cells. |
|
Definition
| hemagglutinin; sialic acid |
|
|
Term
| ___ is enzyme that cleaves ___ off of host cells for the influenza virus to allow new virus particles to release. |
|
Definition
| neuraminidase; sialic acid |
|
|
Term
| What are flu symptoms due to? |
|
Definition
| immune system attacking infected cells |
|
|
Term
| Mortality rates for rubeola in healthy US kids is ___, __ in less developed nations, and ___ for patients with AIDS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| reactivation of varicalla zoster (chickenpox) |
|
|
Term
| What is the largest virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when undesirable microorganism colonizes the host's body |
|
|
Term
| What is a communicable disease? |
|
Definition
| something that can pass between humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| aspects of disease felt by patient |
|
|
Term
| What are signs of disease? |
|
Definition
| indications of disease that a physician can measure |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 stages of infectious disease? |
|
Definition
| encounter; incubation; prodromal; acute phase; decline/resolution; convalescence |
|
|
Term
| What diseases can cross the placental barrier? |
|
Definition
| syphilis, toxoplasmosis, AIDS, rubidium, chlamydia, herpes |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of commensalism. |
|
Definition
| streptococcus salivarius lives in human mouth and doesn't cause too many problems |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ability of microorganism to cause disease |
|
|
Term
| ___ is study of interactions between disease causing pathogenic microorganisms and society. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is increase in cases of disease in a certain population. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is health of a population in regards to a disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is equation for prevalence? |
|
Definition
| total# of cases/population |
|
|
Term
| __ describes rate of change in number of cases of disease within a population. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the 1st line of defense against disease? |
|
Definition
| skin, mucous membranes, chemicals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
resistance
phagocytosis, complement, interferon, inflammation, fever |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the 3rd line of defense activated? |
|
Definition
| when encountered specific foreign antigen (specific defenses) |
|
|
Term
| What 3 things does the skin do to inhibit microbial growth? |
|
Definition
1. enzymes degrade bacterial cell walls
2. organic acids lower PH
3. high levels of salt |
|
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Term
| How does the respiratory tract defend against microbes? |
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Definition
| produces mucous to trap stuff and contain antibodies |
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Term
| A phagocyte create a ____ to engulf the food, and then does ___. |
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Definition
| phagolysosome; exocytosis |
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Term
|
Definition
| targets antigen for immune response |
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Term
| When does immunity develop? |
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Definition
| after exposure to parasite |
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Term
| ___ means stimulating antibody production, while ___ means ability to bind effectively to an antibody. |
|
Definition
| immunogenicity; reactivity |
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Term
| What makes antibodies different? |
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Definition
| the antigen binding sites |
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Term
| What part of the antibody interacts with phagocytic cells and complement fixation? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Phagocytic cells have a greater affinity for bacteria that are coated with: |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Coating of an infectious microorganism with a substance that increases phagocytosis is called: |
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Definition
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